Question: The local anaesthetic with the longest duration of action is

Longest acting, most potent and most toxic local anaesthetic is dibucaine.Chloroprocaine is the shoest acting local anaesthetic.


Question: Most common strain of E.coli giving rise to traveller's diarrhea is

Ans. is 'c' i.e., Entero-toxigenic E.coli


Question: The maintenance dose of digoxin

Slow digitalization: Here maintenance dose of Digoxin (average 0.25 mg/day) is given from the beginning. Full response takes 5-7 days to develop, but the procedure is much safer. In case an adequate response is not seen after I week, increase the dose to 0.375 and then to 0.5 mg after another week.Rapid oral digitalization: Here Digoxin 0.5 - 1.0 mg stat dose given followed by 0.25 mg every 6 hours with careful monitoring and watch for toxicity till response occurs - generally takes 6-24 hours (total dose 0.75 - 1.5 mg). This is seldom practised now.Emergency digitalization: It is practised rarely now, only as a desperate measure in CHF or in atrial fibrillation. Digoxin 0.25 mg followed 0.1 mg hourly is given by slow IV. Injection with close ECG, BP and CVP monitoring till response occurs (2-6 hours, total dose 0.5 - 1.0 mg)


Question: KOH wet mount is prepared for

KOH preparation: Specimen is placed in a drop of 10%KOH on a slide and covered with a cover slip. It is heated gently and examined under a microscope. Yeast cells and hyphae may be observed. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Baveja; 4th edition .


Question: Hecht's pneumonia is a complication of

Hecht's pneumonia is  a giant cell pneumonia in immunodeficient people,rare complication of measles.


Question: Drug of choice for Pneumocystis Pneumonia

Cotrimoxazole is Doc for Pneumocystis Pneumonia.


Question: Staphylococcus aureus differs from Staphylococcus epidermidis by

Tube coagulase test: detects free coagulase. Coagulase is an enzyme rather brings about clotting of human or rabbit plasma. It acts as a coagulase reacting factor present in plasma, binding to prothrombin and conveing fibrinogen to fibrin. Staphylococcus aureus is coagulase positive but Staphylococcus epidermidis is coagulase negative. Staphylococcus aureus form golden yellow pigment on nutrient agar. Staphylococcus epidermidis cause endocarditis in drug addicts. Staphylococcus saprophyticus is the common cause of urinary tract infection, paicularly in sexually active young women. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 207, 208


Question: A malignant pustule is seen in infection with

Cutaneous anthrax: caused by Bacillus anthracis. The lesion stas as a papule 1-3 days after infection and becomes vesicular, containing fluid which may be clear or bloodstained. The whole area is congested and edematous and several satellite lesions filled with serum or yellow fluid are arranged around a central necrotic lesion which is covered by a black eschar. This is a malignant pustule. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Page no: 249


Question: Staph aureus causes

Impetigo is divided into two types:-

Non-bullous impetigo (Impetigo contagiosum):- Caused by staphylococcus aureus and streptococcus pyogenes.
Bullous impetigo:- Caused by staphylococcus aureus.


Question: Delayed hypersensitivity in skin tests, is assessed by

Intradermal test for delayed hypersensitivity - Usually employed for infectious diseases. - Antigen is prepared from the respective infective agents and injected intradermally. - Significantly indurated nodule after 48 hrs is considered to indicate delayed hypersensitivity to the antigen. - Test continues to remain positive even after the infection has subsided, though active infections usually produce more severe reactions. -In overwhelming infections the test can completely become negative because of the suppression of delayed hypersensitivity. Erythema- redness of the skin or mucous membranes due to increased flow in superfiial cappillaries Bulla- clear fluid filled lession with size mor tha 0.5 cm Necrosis-irreversibe cell injury leading to cell death due to denaturation of proteins / enzymatic digestion of cells. it is always pathological and associated with inflamation

Immunology Pa 1 (Immune Response, Antigen-Antibody Reactions, Hypersensitivity, Structure of Immune System, Immunodeficiency Disorders)


Question: Cyst with scolex and hooks


Question: Treatment of choice of meningococcal infection is

Sulphonamides are once used for the treatment of Meningococcal meningitis used, not used now due to widespread resistance Intravenous Penicillin G is the treatment of choice. Chloramphenicol is effective. One of the Third generation cephalosporins ( ceftriaxone, ceftazidime) is also used to free the nasopharynx initiation of treatment before the cause of meningitis is is known. After the initial course, eradicative therapy is to be given with rifampicin or ciprofloxacin to free the nasopharynx of the cocci and prevent the carrier state. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 233


Question: Tick borne hemorrhagic fever is seen in

Omsk hemorrhagic fever :

vector  - Tick
Manifestation - Hemorrhagic fever
Reservoir  -Small mammals


Question: Herpangina is caused by

(A) Cox-sackie virus A # Herpangia:> It is a coxsackie viral infection mostly affecting children. To begin with, multiple small vesicles appear on the faucial pillars, tonsils, soft palate and uvula.> They rupture to form ulcers which are usually 2-4 mm in size, have a yellow base and red areola around them. They seldom persist beyond one week.


Question: The drug of choice for an acute exacerbation of ulcerative colitis is

DOC for acute exacerbation of IBD - SteroidsDOC for maintenance treatment of IBD - Sulfasalazine


Question: A child can make a 3 cube tower at the age of

At 15 monthsMotor: Walks alone; crawls upstairs.Adaptive: Makes the tower of 3 cubes; makes a line with crayon; inses raisin in the bottle.Language; Jargon; follows simple commands; may name a familiar object (e.g. ball).Social: Indicates some desires or needs by pointing; hugs parents.


Question: High level disinfectant is

Low – Level distinfectant – Benzalkonium chloride
Intermediate – Level distinfectant – Isopropylalchol,phenol
High – Level disinfectant – Gluteraldelyde, formaldehyde, H2O2, Chlorine


Question: Chancroid is caused by

Ans. a (H. ducreyi). (Ref. Harrison, Principles of Internal Medicine 18th ed., / Chap. 130 and Chapter 145.)HAEMOPHILUS DUCREYI# H. ducreyi is etiologic agent of chancroid, a STD characterized by genital ulceration and inguinal adenitis. It is a highly fastidious coccobacillary gram-negative bacterium whose growth requires X factor (hemin).# After an incubation period of 4-7 days, the initial lesion a papule with surrounding erythema appears. In 2-3 days, the papule evolves into a pustule, which spontaneously ruptures and forms a sharply circumscribed ulcer that is generally not indurated. The ulcers are painful and bleed easily with little or no inflammation in vicinity. Some develop enlarged, tender inguinal LNs. Multiple ulcers can coalesce to form giant ulcer.# Treatment: include: (1) a single 1-g oral dose of azithromycin; (2) ceftriaxone (250 mg IM in a single dose); (3) ciprofloxacin (500 mg oral BD for 3 days); and (4) erythromycin base (500 mg oral tid for 7 days).STDsS.NoSTDCausative agentDiagnosisTreatment1.Chancroid (soft sore)H. ducreyi"School of fish"/Rail road trackCotrimoxazole& Erythromycin2.LGVChlamydiaHP bodies (Giemsa stain)Tetracycline3.Syphilis (hard chancre)T. pallidumDarkground microscopyPenicillin4.Genital herpesH. simplex 2-Acyclovir5.Donovaniasis (granuloma inguinale)Leish mania donovani-Erythromycin6.GonorrhoeaN. gonorrhoea-Penicillin &Ceftriaxone7.TrichomoniasisT. vaginalisStrawberry vaginaMetro/tinidazole


Question: Species identifications is done by

Tests for species identification are Precipitin test, Latex agglutination test, Haem-agglutination inhibition test


Question: The most sensitive and rapid test for diagnosis of cryptococcal meningitis is


Question: Painless diarrhoea occurs with

Ans. d (V. cholerae). (Ref. Harrison's Internal Medicine 17th ed. Chapter 149).CHOLERA - Pathogenesis# Cholera toxin, which consists of a monomeric enzymatic moiety (the A subunit) and a pentameric binding moiety (the B subunit). The B pentamer binds to GM1 ganglioside, a glycolipid on the surface of epithelial cells that serves as the toxin receptor and makes possible the delivery of the A subunit to its cytosolic target. The activated A subunit (Al) irreversibly transfers ADP-ribose from nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide to its specific target protein, the GTP- binding regulatory component of adenylate cyclase. The ADP-ribosylated G protein upregulates the activity of adenylate cyclase; the result is the intracellular accumulation of high levels of cyclic AMP.# In intestinal epithelial cells, cyclic AMP inhibits the absorptive sodium transport system in villus cells and activates the secretory chloride transport system in crypt cells, and these events lead to the accumulation of sodium chloride in the intestinal lumen.# Since water moves passively to maintain osmolality, isotonic fluid accumulates in the lumen. When the volume of that fluid exceeds the capacity of the rest of the gut to resorb it, watery diarrhea results.Clinical features# After a 24- to 48-h incubation period, cholera begins with the sudden onset of painless watery diarrhea that may quickly become voluminous and is often followed shortly by vomiting.# Fever usually absent.# Acidosis can occur.# Characteristic appearance of stool: cloudy fluid with flakes of mucus, and no blood.# Clinical symptoms parallel volume contraction:- At losses of 3-5% of normal body weight, thirst develops;- at 5-8%, postural hypotension, weakness, tachycardia, and decreased skin turgor are documented; and- at >10%, oliguria, weak or absent pulses, sunken eyes (and, in infants, sunken fontanelles), wrinkled ("washerwoman") skin, somnolence, and coma are characteristic.Diagnosis:# Useful in culture and transport:- TcBC agar,- Cary Blair medium OR alkaline-peptone water-enrichment medium*Rx# Only the rapid and adequate replacement of fluids, electrolytes, and base is required.# Rice-based ORS is considered superior to standard ORS in the treatment of cholera.# For initial management of severely dehydrated patients, IV fluid replacement is preferable. Because profound acidosis (pH < 7.2) is common in this group, Ringer's lactate is the best choice.# Although not necessary for cure, the use of Single-dose tetracycline (2 g) or doxycycline (300 mg) is effective in adults but is not recommended for children <8 years of age.# For Children, furazolidone has been the recommended agent and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole 2nd choice.# Due to cost and toxicity issues related to other drugs, erythromycin is good choice for pediatric cholera.


Question: A patient diagnosed with malaria had fever periodicity of 72 hours. Organism implicated is

CharactersP.falciparumP.vivaxP.malariaeP.ovaleDisease pattern Malignant malaria Benign teian malaria Quaan malaria Ovale teian malaria Incubation period12 days14 days20 days14 daysNo of merozoites released per infected hepatocyte 30,00010,00015,00015,000Duration of erythrocytic cycle 48 hours 48 hours 72 hours 48 hours Red cell preference Young RBCRBC up to 14 days old Older RBCsReticulocytes Pigment colour Black Yellow brown Brown black Dark brown Relapse ( Hypnozoites )Absent Present Absent Present Recrudescence Present Absent Present Absent (Ref: K.D Chatterjee 13th edition, p196-198)


Question: Ziemann's dots in RBC are seen in infection with

Ziemann dots in RBC-PL Malaria Schaffner dots in RBC- Pl vivax Accola rings-falciparum Ref: D.R. Arora. Medical parasitology 4th ed pg 108


Question: Sulphur granules in actinomycosis consist of

Sulphur granules are examined microscopically. They are crushed between slides and stained by gram stain and examined. The granules are bacterial colonies and will be found to consist of a dense work of thin gram-positive filaments surrounded by a peripheral zone of swollen, radiating club-shaped structures (antigen-antibody complex) presenting a sun-ray appearance. Ref: Textbook of microbiology; Ananthanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Pg:398


Question: Endemic hemoptysis is caused by

P. westermanii also called lung fluke causes endemic hemoptysis.


Question: Antibody to HSV will begin to appear

no antibodies are present in primary HSV

antibodies are present in recurrent and chronic apthous stomatitis


Question: Gram staining sequence is

Primary stain – Crystal violet or Methyl violet
Mordant – Gram's iodine
Decolorizer – Acetone or Ethanol
Secondary stain – Safranin or Carbol fuchsin

Carbol fuchsin – Iodine – Acetone – Methyl violet

Methyl violet  –  Iodine – Acetone – Carbol fuchsin

Methyl violet – Acetone – Iodine – Carbol fuchsin

Carbol fuchsin – Acetone – Iodine – Methyl violet


Question: Mechanism action of Botulinum toxin is by

(C) Inhibition of acetylcholine release # Botulinum toxin (BTX) is a neurotoxic protein produced by Clostridium botulinums.> It prevents release of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine from axon endings at the neuromuscular junction & thus causes flaccid paralysis.> Infection with the bacterium causes the disease botulism.> Toxin is also used commercially in medicine, cosmetics and research.> Botulinum is the most acutely lethal toxin known, with an estimated human median lethal dose (LD50) of 1.3-2.1 ng/ kg intravenously or intramuscularly and 10-13 ng/kg when inhaled.# Botulinum toxin is used to treat> Overactive muscle movement, including post-stroke spasticity, post-spinal cord injury spasticity, spasms of the head and neck, eyelid, vagina, limbs, jaw, and vocal cords.> To relax clenching of muscles, including those of the oesophagus, jaw, lower urinary tract and bladder, or clenching of the anus which can exacerbate anal fissure.> Used for improper eye alignment> In the treatment correction of Strabismus> Prophylactic treatment of Chronic migraine headache.> Effective for reduction of facial wrinkles> Used to treat disorders of hyperactive nerves including excessive sweating, neuropathic pain, and some allergy symptoms> Evaluated for use in treating chronic pain


Question: Morula in RBC is seen in

Ehrlichia are small gram negative bacteria,obligate intracellular bacteria which have affinity towards bloodcells,In cytoplasm of infected phagocytic cells,they grow within phagosomes as mulberry like clusters called morula(meaning mulberry).they are tick borne. Ref: ananthnarayan an paniker's microbiology 10th edition


Question: Most abundant complement in the body


Question: Stage of falciparum not seen in Peripheral blood smear is

1. In P. falciparum infection, the later stages of erythrocytic cycle occur in the capillaries of brain and internal organs. Hence only ring forms are found in peripheral blood by microscopic examination but not late trophozoites and Schizonts. 2. In PBS, all asexual erythrocytic stages, as well as gametocytes can be seen in peripheral blood of P. vivax, P. ovale and P. malariae infections but in P. falciparum infection, only ring form and gametocytes can be seen.


Question: Dead space is reduced in tracheostomy by

Airflow resistance of the normal upper airway is substantial, constituting up to 80% of total airway resistance during nose breathing and 50% during mouth breathing.Theoretically, tracheostomy tubes should decrease airflow resistance, but in fact, this does not occur because of the smaller radius (inner diameter 7-8 mm) of the tubes. Tracheostomy tubes may reduce dead space by up to 100 mL -150 mL, 30-50% when compared to spontaneous breathing. This occurs because the tubes are small and bypass the glottic and supraglottic spaces.


Question: Bacterial drug resistance genome occur due to

B. i.e. (Genetic mechanism) (53-60 - Ananthanarayan 7th)* Bacteria may acquire drug resistance by mutation or by one of the methods of genetic transfer. The biochemical mechanisms of resistance may be several, including decreased permeability to the drug, development of alternative pathways and production of enzymes inactivating the drugs* Plasmid** is of great medical importance as it leads to the spread of multiple drug resistance among bacteria* Genotypic variations are stable, heritable* and not influenced by environment* The discovery of gene transformation" came from the study of streptococcus pneumoniae*.* Multiple drug resistance is spread by conjugation*** F cells are able to transfer chromosomal genes to recipient cells are able to transfer chromosomal gene to recipient cells with high frequency and are known as HFr cells (does not transfer drug resistance)


Question: Negri bodies m/c seen in

Negri bodies most abundant in Hippocampus followed by cerebellum and pons.


Question: Salivary peroxidise system is known to be effective against


Question: Most impoant element in treatment of diphtheria is

When a case is suspected as diphtheria, the antidiphtheritic serum should be given immediately as the moality rate increases with delay in staing Antitoxin treatment. In moderate cases, the dosage recommended is 20000 units intramuscularly and in severely ill cases 50,000- 1,00,000 units are injected, half the dose being given intravenously. Antitoxin treatment is generally not indicated in cutaneous diphtheria as the causative strains are usually non-toxigenic. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition, pg no: 245


Question: Lary ngoscopes are sterilized by

o Laryngoscope should be cleaned before and aer use with spirit.
o Disinfecon can be done once a day by removing the bulb and immersing the blade in 2% cidex (glutaraldehyde) for 10 minutes.
o They should be sterilized once a week by immersing in cidex for 10 hours or by autoclavin


Question: Donovan bodies are seen in

Klebsiella (formerly Calymmatobacterium) granulomatis, the causative agent of this hard, granulomatous, proliferating lesionHistologic demonstration of intracellular "Donovan bodies" in biopsy material most frequently suppos the clinical impression. Jawetz 27e pg: 761


Question: The anaphylaxis should be treated first with


Question: Diphtheria toxin is produced only by those strains of C. diphtheriae that are

All toxigenic strains of Corynebacterium diphtheriae are lysogenic for b-phage carrying the Tox gene, which codes for the toxin molecule. The expression of this gene is controlled by the metabolism of the host bacteria. The greatest amount of toxin is produced by bacteria grown on media containing very low amounts of iron.


Question: Staphylococcal bacteria are


Question: Infectivity period of chicken pox

Infectivity period of chicken pox is 2 days before & 5 days after onset of rash.

2 days before & 5 days after appearance of rash

1 week before & 1 week after onset of rash


Question: Hydatid disease is caused by one of the following

(C) Echinococcus granulosus # Echinococcus granulosus, the dog tapeworm or the hydatid worm (formerly called Taenia echinococcus), which has the dog as the definitive host and sheep and humans as the principal intermediate hosts.> In humans it causes unilocular echinococcosis or hydatid disease.


Question: Duodenal aspirate is used in diagnosis of

Duodenal aspirate is used for G lambia, o sinesis, F heptica, and S stercoralis. ref : baveja book of microbiology .


Question: Incubation period of gonorrhoea is

Gonorrhea is a venereal disease that has been known since ancient times. The disease is acquired by sexual contact. Caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. The first step in infection is adhesion of gonococci to the urethra or other mucosal surfaces. Pili are involved in this adhesion. Adhesion is rapid and firm so that micturition after exposure offers no protection against infection. The cocci penetrate through the intercellular spaces and reach the subepithelial connective tissue by the third day of infection. The incubation period is 2-8 days. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 235


Question: Frisch bacillus affects most commonly


Question: Most common cardiac defect seen in Rubella syndrome

Most common cardiac defect is PDA followed by PS, followed by VSD.


Question: Frequent blushing ("erethism") is associated with poisoning of

Mechanism of toxicity:Mercury reacts with sulfhydryl (SH) groups, resulting in enzyme inhibition and pathologic alteration of cellular membranes.Clinical presentation:Severe chemical pneumonitis and noncardiogenic pulmonary edema.Acute gingivostomatitis may also occur.Chronic intoxication:Classic triad Tremor Gingivostomatitis. Metallic tasteFrequent blushing ("erethism")Pain in the extremities, often accompanied by pinkish discoloration and desquamation ("pink disease")


Question: Chemical nature of complement is

Complement is a protein in normal human and animal serum activated by antigen-antibody reactions Ref: Textbook of Microbiology Baveja 5th ed Pg 125


Question: Culture media used for leptospira

Culture media for leptospira is EMJH media, Korthof's, Stuart's and fletcher's media.


Question: Light microscope resolution to visualise chromosomes

Standard light microscopes have a lateral resolution limit of about 0.5micrometers for routine analysis In light microscopy, a beam of light is focused through a microscope using glass lenses to produce an enlarged image of the specimen


Question: TB bacilli culture can also be done by

TB bacilli culture can also be done by MGIT medium ( Mycobacterium Growth Indicator Tube) Bacilli grows fast as compare to traditional LJ media (Lowenstein Jensen) Tinsdale media - C. diptherae MYPA - Bacillus cereus BCYE(buffered charcoal yeast extract) - Legionella

Systemic Bacteriology (Gram Positive Bacilli, Gram Negative Bacilli)


Question: Antibody mediated enhancement is a feature of

Antibody mediated enhancement is non-neutralizing antibody produced against the first serotype will combine, cover and protect the second serotype from host immune responce.seen in dengue hemorrhagic fever.


Question: The commonest focus of scrofuloderma is

Scrofuloderma is a skin condition caused by tuberculosis involvement of the skin by direct extension, usually from underlying tuberculous lymphadenitis. Ref: Textbook of microbiology; Ananthanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Pg: 367


Question: Man is the only reservoir for

Entamoeba histolytica is predominantly found in primates (including humans) and occasionally in dogs, cats, cattle and pigs.
The parasite has a worldwide distribution and is prevalent in tropical and subtropical countries.
Salmonella - The most common are animal reservoirs are chickens, turkeys, pigs, and cows; dozens of other domestic and wild animals also harbor these organisms.
Campylobacter jejuni - C. jejuni is carried by most of these animal reservoirs and is the predominant species isolated from chickens and cattle.
Y. Enterocolitica - dogs, sheep, wild rodents, and environmental water may also be a reservoir of pathogenic Y. enterocolitica strains.
Ref : http://parasite.org.au/para-site/text/entamoeba-text.html#:~:text=Host%20range%3A%20Entamoeba%20histolytica%20is,in%20tropical%20and%20subtropical%20countries


Question: Charbon is a term used for

Cutaneous anthrax is a lesion that stas as a papule and becomes vesicular, containing a fluid which may be clear or bloodstained. The whole area is congested and edematous, several satellite lesions filled with serum or yellow fluid are arranged around a central necrotic lesion, which is covered by a black eschar. The name anthrax, which means coal, comes from the black color of the eschar. The lesion is called malignant pustule Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Page no: 250


Question: Staphylococcus differs from streptococcus by

Staphylococcus is catalase positive, unlike streptococci which are catalase negative. Catalase test: positive test indicates production of catalase. Place a loopful of hydrogen peroxide on colonies on the nutrient agar. Prompt effervescence indicates catalase production. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology; Ananthanarayanan and Panicker; 10th Edition: pg;207


Question: This hepatitis virus is a defective virus in that it cannot replicate independently without the presence of hepatitis B virus.

Hepatitis A virus (HAV) possesses a single-stranded linear RNA genome while hepatitis B virus (HBV) contains a double-stranded DNA genome. Detection of anti-HAV IgM in a single serum specimen obtained in the acute or convalescent stage is the quickest and most reliable method to diagnose hepatitis A infection. This antibody is usually present at onset of symptoms and may persist 3 to 6 months. Demonstration of hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) in serum is the most common method of diagnosing HBV infection. Other serologic markers helpful in characterizing infection with HBV include hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-HBs), anti-hepatitis B core (anti-HBc), anti-hepatitis B e antigen (anti-HBe), and hepatitis B e antigen (HBeAg). Several epidemiologic studies have demonstrated that immune serum globulin (ISG) can prevent clinical hepatitis A even when given up to 10 days after exposure. Similar studies have shown that ISG was able to decrease the incidence of hepatitis B infection in exposed persons. Purified, noninfectious HBsAg derived from healthy HBsAg carriers has been used as a vaccine for active immunization for HBV infection. Hepatitis C is a single-stranded RNA virus belonging to the family Flaviviridae. The viral reservoir is human. Recent retrospective "lookbacks" suggest that many people were infected with HCV before testing of the blood supply was initiated in the early 1990s. HCV is treatable with combinations of drugs. The genotype of the virus plays an important role in the determination of length of therapy. Hepatitis D virus is an incomplete or defective virus which requires HBsAg as a cofactor. Both coinfection and secondary delta infection exist with secondary infection being the most serious. Hepatitis E virus is an RNA virus. Transmission is by the fecal-oral route although maternal-fetal transmission has recently been described. Prognosis is usually favorable with rare cases of fulminant HEV reported. Norwalk and Norwalk-like VirusesRotavirusOthersAdenovirusCalicivirusAstrovirusSize (nm) diameter27-357070-9035-39 Nucleic acidRNA (single-stranded)RNA (double-stranded)DNARNARNAMinimum number of serotypes34 (3 groups, A, B, C)23-55Seasonality (temperate climate)WinterWinterAll seasons--EpidemicityEpidemicSporadic, epidemicSporadicEpidemicSporadicAge with clinical disease>=6yr6-24 mo most common<=2yr<=2yr<=7TransmissionFecal-oral, water, foodFecal-oral, water, foodFecal-oralFecal-oralFecal-oral


Question: Coombs test is

Agglutination test:-insoluble antigen +antibody=clumps. Principle-When sera containingantibodies are mixed with antigen coated red cells, the antibody globulin coats the surface of the erythrocytes,though they are not agglutinated. When such erythrocytes coated with the antibody globulin are washednfree of all unattached protein and treated with a rabbitantiserum against human gamma globulin (antiglobulin or Coombs serum), the cells are agglutinated example:- 1. Coombs test (antiglobulin test or anti-Rh antibody test) is an agglutination test. The direct Coombs test is used to detect antibodies that are stuck to the surface of red blood cells. this. These antibodies sometimes destroy red blood cells and cause anemia. this in done for fetal ab(in vivo test) The indirect Coombs test looks for free-flowing antibodies against ceain red blood cells. It is is most often done to determine if you may have a reaction to a blood transfusion. done for detecting Maternal Ab(in vitro test)

Immunology Pa 1 (Immune Response, Antigen-Antibody Reactions, Hypersensitivity, Structure of Immune System, Immunodeficiency Disorders)


Question: Pityriasis versicolor is caused by

Epidermophyton floccosum causes T.cruris andT.pedis. Microsporum gypseum causes us. Trichophyton tonsurans causes endothrix hair infection. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Baveja; 4th edition


Question: Toxoplasmosis in the foetus can be best confirmed

IgM antibodies against Toxoplasma in the mother

IgM antibodies against Toxoplasma in the foetus

IgG antibodies against Toxoplasma in the mother

IgG antibodies against Toxoplasma in in the foetus


Question: Best site for collection of specimen for Neisseria meningitidis is

Meningococci is a strict human parasite inhabiting the nasopharynx. The human nasopharynx is the only reservoir of the Meningococcus. Asymptomatic nasopharyngeal carriers rarely contract the illness but serve right infect their contacts, so the best specimen to be collected for Neisseria meningitidis is nasopharyngeal swab. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 232


Question: Endoscopes (e.g., cystoscopes, gastroscopes) should sterilized with

Ans. a (Glutaraldehyde) (Ref. Ananthanarayan Microbiology 7th/pg. 31, 86)Most rigid endoscopes are compatible with steam, formaldehyde, ethylene oxide and certain liquid chemical disinfectants. Flexible scope can be sterilized by peracetic acid.CHEMICAL STERILIZATION# Ethylene oxide (EO or EtO) gas- Most common sterilization method .- Used to sterilize objects sensitive to temperatures > 60degC such as plastics, optics and electrics.- Carried out at 30-60degC with relative humidity >30% & gas cone. 200-800 mg/L for at least 3 hrs.- ETO penetrates well, moving through paper, cloth, and some plastic films and is highly effective.- EtO can kill all known viruses, bacteria and fungi; including bacterial spores and is satisfactory.- Bacillus subtilis, a very resistant organism, is used as a rapid biological indicator for EO sterilizers.# Glutaraldehyde# Glutaraldehyde is a saturated dialdehyde that has gained wide acceptance as a high-level disinfectant and chemical sterilant.# It is specifically effective against tubercle bacilli, fungi, and viruses.# Has a short shelf life (<2 weeks), and is expensive.# It is less toxic and irritant to eyes than formaldehyde.# To kill all spores in liquid can take upto 12 hrs with gluteraldehyde & longer with formaldehyde.# It has no deleterious effect on the cement or lenses of instruments like cystoscopes and bronchoscopes.# It can safely be used to treat corrugated rubber anesthetic tubes and face masks, plastic endotracheal tubes, polythene tubing, and metal instruments.# CIDEX (2% gluteraldehyde) is commonly used for sterilization of endoscopes.# Formaldehyde# It is less expensive and has a much longer shelf life, but is much more volatile.# Formaldehyde is also used as a gaseous sterilizing agent.# Many vaccines, such as the original Salk polio vaccine, are sterilized with formaldehyde.# Ozone is used in industrial settings to sterilize water and air, as well as a disinfectant for surfaces. It has the benefit of being able to oxidize most organic matter. On the other hand, it is a toxic and unstable gas that must be produced onsite, so it is not practical to use in many settings.# Chlorine bleach is another accepted liquid sterilizing agent. Household bleach consists of 5.25% sodium hypochlorite. It is usually diluted to 1/10 immediately before use; however to kill Mycobacterium tuberculosis it should be diluted only 1/5. The dilution factor must take into account the volume of any liquid waste that it is being used to sterilize. Bleach will kill many organisms immediately, but for full sterilization it should be allowed to react for 20 minutes. Bleach will kill many, but not all spores. It is highly corrosive and may corrode even stainless steel surgical instruments.# Chlorine and NaOH are the most consistent agents for prions. Chlorine is too corrosive to use on certain objects. NaOH has had many studies showing its effectiveness.


Question: The immunoassay performed in HIV to detect the presence of antibodies to individual viral proteins is


Question: Weil felix reaction is heterophile antibodies reaction due sharing of Rickettsial antigen with

Ans. is 'b' i.e., Proteus Weil felix reaction This reaction is an agglutination test in which sera are tested for agglutinins to 0 antigens of ceain nonmotile proteus strains OX -19, OX - 2 and OX - K. The basis of the test is the sharing of an alkali - stable carbohydrate antigen by some rickettsiae and by ceain strains of proteus, P. vulgaris OX - 19 and OX - 2 and P. mirabilis OX - K. The test is usually done as a tube agglutination, though rapid slide agglutination methods have been employed for screening


Question: The most common complication following appendicectomy is

Wound infection is the most common postoperative complication, occurring in 5- 10% of all patients.Intraabdominal abscess has become a relatively rare complication after appendicectomy with use of preoperative antibiotics.Adhesive intestinal obstruction is the most common late complication of appendicectomy


Question: Plasma cells are derived from

Option 1, 2, 3, 4 Plasma cells: Plasma cells originate from terminally differentiated B cells. Plasma cells are oval or egg-shaped structures characterizedby a stellate (star-like pattern) nucleus, nonstaining Golgi, andbasophilic cytoplasm. The main function of the plasma cells is to produce and secrete all the classes of immunoglobulins into the fluidsaround the cells. They secrete thousands of antibody molecules per second, which are specific for the epitope of the antigen for a fewdays and then die. They divide very poorly, if at all, and are usually found in the bone marrow and in the perimucosal lymphoid tissues. They have a sho lifespan of 30 days during which they produce large quantities of immunoglobulins.

Immunology Pa 1 (Immune Response, Antigen-Antibody Reactions, Hypersensitivity, Structure of Immune System, Immunodeficiency Disorders)


Question: Parvovirus B19 does not cause

parvovirusB19 causesaplasyic crisi ,persistent anemia,erythema infectiosum&fetal hydrops REF:ANATHANARAYANAN MICROBIOLOGY NINTH EDITION PAGE.554


Question: Rabies virus


Question: Tick born viral encephalitis is seen inn

(A) Omsk hemorrhagic fever /Ananth7 - 524, 531]# Omsk hemorrhagic fever virus (tick-borne encephalitis (far eastern subtype):> Flaviviridae; spherical, enveloped virions about 45 nm in diameter, single-stranded, positive sense RNA genome> Pathogenicity: sudden onset of fever, chills, headache, pain in lower and upper extremities and severe prostration; a papulovesicular rash on the soft palate, cervical lymphadenopathy and conjunctival suffusion are usually present; central nervous system abnormalities develop after one to two weeks; severe cases present with haemorrhages - no cutaneous rash; leukopenia and thrombocytopenia are marked; estimated case fatalities are 1-10%; previous infection leads to immunity> Hosts: Humans, rodents, muskrat and possibly ticks> Mode of Transmission: By the bite of an infective tick (Dermacentor reticulatus and D. marginatus, Ixodes persulcatus)', data suggests direct transmission from both muskrat to humans and virus contaminated water to humans> Incubation Period: Usually 3-8 days> Communicability: Not directly transmitted from person-to-person; ticks remain infective for life> Reservoir: Rodents, muskrats and ticks> Zoonosis: Yes - disease can be acquired from direct contact with muskrats> Vectors: Ticks (Dermacentor retiqulatus, D. marginatus, Ixodes persulcatus)# Lassa viral haemorrhagic fever is an acute illness of 1-4 weeks duration that occurs in West Africa.> Virus is a single-stranded RNA virus belonging to the virus family Arenaviridae.> Lassa fever is known to be endemic in Guinea (Conakry), Liberia, Sierra Leone and parts of Nigeria,# Marburg virus is the causative agent of Marburg hemorrhagic fever. Both the disease and virus are related to Ebola and originate in the same part of Africa (Uganda and Eastern Congo). The zoonosis is of unknown origin, but some scientists believe it may be hosted by bats.# Ebola is both the common term used to describe a group of viruses belonging to genus Ebolavirus, family Filoviridae, and the common name for the disease which they cause, Ebola hemorrhagic fever.


Question: Flash process for pasteurisation of milk is

For pasteurization of milk with temperatures below 100oC: The milk is heated at either 63oC for 30minutes or 72oC for 15-20seconds followed by cooling quickly to 13oC or lower.By these processes, all non-sporing pathogens such as mycobacteria and salmonella are destroyedRef: Ananthanarayan; 7th edition; Page no: 26


Question: Clostridium tetani are following type of bacteria


Question: Glomerulonephritis in streptococcal infection is diagnosed by


Question: One of the following infections is caused by anaerobic gram positive cocci


Question: Following instrument is used for

Fogay aerial embolectomy catheter is used to remove fresh emboli in the aerial system.It consists of a hollow tube with an inflatable balloon attached to its tip. The catheter is inseed into the blood vessel through a clot. The balloon is then inflated to extract it from the vessel.


Question: Budding reproduction in tissue is seen in

Cryptococcus is a yeast, candida is a yeast-like fungus. Both are reproduced by budding Histoplasma is a dimorphic fungus Mucor and Rhizopus are produced by asexual means sporangiospores Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Baveja; 4th edition


Question: Flash autoclaves are done at a temperature of

"Flash" autoclaves, which are widely used in operating rooms, often use saturated steam at a temperature of 134degC for 3 minutes. Autoclave at 121C for 15 minutes Dry heat at 160C for 2 hours Ref: Ananthanarayana textbook of Microbiology 9th edition Pgno : 31


Question: The word german measles is applied for


Question: Each myosin molecule of sarcomere is composed of

Sarcomeres are the fundamental contractile unit of skeletal muscle and are characterized by their highly ordered appearance under a polarizing light microscope.Thick filaments in the A band are composed primarily of the protein myosin. Each myosin molecule is composed of six monomers: two protein strands intewined in a helical arrangement (termed heavy chains) and four smaller, globular proteins (termed myosin light chains).Thin filaments are composed of three primary proteins: actin, tropomyosin, and troponin.


Question: Epidemic pleurodynia is caused by

Bornholm's disease(epidemic pleurodynia)(devil's grip) is caused by Coxsackie B- virus.


Question: Malaise and fatigue with increased "atypical" lymphocytes and a reactive heterophil antibody test is most commonly caused by

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is a herpesvirus that causes a number of syndromes; the most common is infectious mononucleosis. It is a ubiquitous enveloped DNA virus. Only one serotype of EBV has been recognized, although molecular methods have reorganized a number of genotypes of EBV.Infectious mononucleosis is an acute disease most commonly seen in younger people. It is characterized by a proliferation of lymphocytes, lymph node enlargement, pharyngitis, fatigue, and fever. Infection in young children is usually either asymptomatic or characteristic of an acute upper respiratory infection. Diagnosis is usually made by a positive heterophil test. Heterophil antibodies are those that occur in one species (human) and react with antigens of a different species. The heterophil test may be insensitive (30 to 60%) in children. Definitive diagnosis is made by detection of antibodies to EBV components.EBV causes a variety of other syndromes including Burkitt's lymphoma, the most common childhood cancer in Africa, and nasopharyngeal carcinoma, commonly seen in China.Similar mononucleosis-like diseases are caused by cytomegalovirus (CMV) and Toxoplasma gondii, a parasite. CMV causes fewer than 10% of infectious mononucleosis-like diseases. CMV "mono" is primarily characterized by fatigue. Congenital infection with CMV almost always causes serious sequelae, such as retardation and hearing loss. T. gondii also causes a variety of clinical problems, among them encephalitis in AIDS patients and food poisoning from the ingestion of raw meat. Although CMV and T. gondii are relatively rare causes of infectious mononucleosis, they must be ruled out, particularly when EBV tests are nonreactive.


Question: Characteristic of Bacillus cereus food poisoning is

Bacillus cereus is an impoant cause of food poisoning. Two patterns: diarrheal and emetic. Diarrheal: associated with cooked meat and vegetables. Diarrhea and abdominal pain 8-16 hours after the ingestion of contaminated food. Vomiting rarely. Bacilli are not found in the fecal specimen of these patients. Emetic: associated with consumption of cooked rice, usually fried rice from restaurants. Nausea and vomiting 1-5 hours after the meal. Bacilli present in large numbers in cooked rice and fecal samples from these patients. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Page no: 253


Question: Cerebral amoebiasis is not caused by

Three free living amoebae are neuropathogenic (encephalitis)

Naegleria fowleri causes primary amoebic meningoencephalitis.
Acanthamoeba causes granulomatous amoebic encephalitis.
Balamuthia mandrillaris causes amoebic meningoencephalitis.


Question: Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis is best diagnosed by

In rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis, the retrospective diagnosis of streptococcal infection may be established by demonstrating a high level of antibody to streptococcal toxins. Antideoxyribonuclease B titers higher than 300 are taken as significant. It is useful in the retrospective diagnosis of streptococcal pyoderma, in which ASO titer is of much less value. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Page no: 214


Question: Most common defect of congenital rubella syndrome


Question: Broad based budding seen in

Broad based budding (figure of 8 Appearance) seen in Blastomycosis.


Question: There are millions of cases of leprosy (Hansen's disease) worldwide, but predominately in Asia and Africa. The clinical spectrum of Hansen's disease is best characterized by

Leprosy (Hansen's disease) affects primarily skin, peripheral nerves, and mucous membranes. The disease ranges from tuberculoid leprosy, which is characterized by few lesions containing small numbers of acid-fast mycobacteria, to lepromatous leprosy, which is characterized by multiple lesions containing many microorganisms. Chronic pulmonary infection is more characteristic of infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis than M. leprae.

Systemic Bacteriology (Gram Positive Bacilli, Gram Negative Bacilli)


Question: Brucella abous primarily affects

Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cattle Human brucellosis is a zoonosis, acquired from animals directly or indirectly. The animals that commonly act as sources Sheep, goat and camel Cattle or Buffalo Swine Dog Br melitensis Br. abous Br suis Br canis


Question: Vaccine prepared by embryonated Hen's egg are

Ans. is 'b' i.e., Rabies . Vaccines prepared in embrvonated Hen's ettg : - Influenza (grown in allantoic cavity) - Rabies - Yellow fever - Mumps . Vaccines from Duck eeg - Non neural rabies vaccine


Question: As per national immunization schedule, 1ST DPT booster has to be given at

DPT is given at 6,10,14 weeks 1st booster at 16-24 months and 2nd booster at 5-6yrs Ref: Textbook of Microbiology Baveja 5th ed Pg 612


Question: The most common cause of a pleural effusion is

The most common cause of pleural effusion is left ventricular failure. Pleural effusions occur in hea failure when there are increased hydrostatic forces increasing the pulmonary interstitial fluid and the lymphatic drainage is inadequate to remove the fluid.Right-sided effusions are more common than left-sided effusions in hea failure. Thoracentesis would show a transudative fluid.Pneumonia can be associated with a parapneumonic effusion or empyema. Parapneumonic effusions are the most common cause of exudative pleural effusions and are second only to hea failure as a cause of pleural effusions.Empyema refers to a grossly purulent pleural effusion. Malignancy is the second most common cause of the exudative pleural effusion. Breast and lung cancers and lymphoma cause 75% of all malignant pleural effusions.On thoracentesis, the effusion is exudative. Cirrhosis and pulmonary embolus are far less common causes of pleural effusions.


Question: Transfer of a poion of the DNA from one bacterium to another by a bacteriophage is known as

Conjugation requires donor cell-to-recipient cell contact to transfer only one strand of DNA. The recipient completes the structure of dsDNA by synthesizing the strand that complements the strand acquired from the donor. In transduction, donor DNA is carried by a phage coat and is transferred into the recipient by the mechanism used for phage infection. Transformation, the direct uptake of "naked" donor DNA by the recipient cell, may be natural or forced.Jawetz 27 e pg: 111


Question: Most common type of anthrax is

Ans. a (Cutaneous). (Ref. Harrison, Medicine, 18th/Chapter 221. Microbial Bioterrorism)Bacillus anthrax causes anthrax and disease may be seen in three forms;# Cutaneous, Pulmonary, and Intestinal- Cutaneous is the most common form (malignant pustule, Hide porter's disease)- Pulmonary is wool sorter's disease.Also Remember:Cultural characteristics of B.anthrax are:# M'fadyeans reaction# Frosted glass appearance# Medusa head sign# Inverted tree appearance# PLET media used


Question: Drug of choice for Listeria monocytogenes is

Non-Spore-Forming Gram-Positive Bacilli: Corynebacterium, Propionibacterium, Listeria, Erysipelothrix, Actinomycetes, & Related Pathogens
Many antimicrobial drugs inhibit listeria in vitro. Clinical cures have been obtained with Ampicillin with erythromycin, or with intravenous trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.
Cephalosporins and fluoroquinolones are not active against L monocytogenes. Ampicillin plus gentamicin is often recommended for therapy, but gentamicin does not enter host cells and may not help treat the listeria infection


Question: Traveller&;s diarrhoea is caused by

Enterotoxigenic E. Coli causes traveller&;s diarrhoea. Persons travelling from developed countries visiting endemic areas often suffer from ETEC diarrhoea. Ref: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology, 9th edition; pg no: 279


Question: ASO (Antistreptolysin 0) test is used for the diagnosis of


Question: The most sensitive method to detect LD bodies is

Splenic aspiration is the most sensitive method to detect LD bodies (98% positivity). Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy are positive in over 85% of cases. Lymph node aspiration is positive in 60% of cases of African kala-azar but not in cases of Indian kala-azar.


Question: Ziemann dots are seen in

Ziemann dots are small red dots stippling seen in P. Malariae.


Question: ULPA filters are used to disinfect

ULPA (Ultra - low Particulate / penetration air filters)


Question: Meningococci differs from gonococci in that they

Meningococci are capsulated, unlike gonococci. Based on their capsular polysaccharide antigens, they are classified into at least 13 serogroups, of which A, B, C, X, Y and W-135 are most impoant. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 230


Question: Procedure used for analysis of RNA

Ans. a (Northern blot) (Ref. Harper biochemistry 27th ed., Fig. 39-5).# Northern blot = Similar to Southern blot, except that an RNA sample is electrophoresed. Useful for studying mRNA levels, which are reflective of gene expression.# *Southern = DNA# **Northern = RNA# ***Western = Protein.SOUTHERN BLOT# Southern blotting is used to analyze whether genes have been deleted or rearranged. It is also used to detect restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLPs).# Genomic DNA is digested with restriction endonucleases and separated by gel electrophoresis. Individual fragments can then be transferred to a membrane and detected after hybridization with specific radioactive DNA probes.NORTHERN BLOT# Northern blots are used to analyze patterns and levels of gene expression in different tissues.# In a Northern blot, mRNA is separated on a gel and transferred to a membrane, and specific transcripts are detected using radiolabeled DNA as a probe. This technique has been largely supplanted by more sensitive and comprehensive methods such as reverse transcriptase (RT)-PCR and gene expression arrays on DNA chips.# The Northern and Western blot transfer techniques are used to size and quantitate specific RNA and protein molecules, respectively.# A fourth hybridization technique, the Southwestern blot, examines protein-DNA interactions. Proteins are separated by electrophoresis, renatured, and analyzed for an interaction by hybridization with a specific labeled DNA probe.Western blot# Sample protein is separated via gel electrophoresis and transferred to a filter. Labeled antibody is used to bind to relevant protein. Confirmatory test for HIV after + ELISA.Southwestern blot# Identifies DNA-binding proteins (e.g., transcription factors) using labeled oligonucleotide probes.


Question: Corynebacterium diphtheria is

Ref: Harrisons 19th ed. pg. 978* C. diphtheriae is a Gram-positive bacillus that is unencapsulated, nonmotile, and nonsporulating.* The bacteria have a characteristic club-shaped bacillary appearance and typically form clusters of parallel rays, or palisades, that are referred to as "Chinese characters"


Question: Test for quantification of viral infectivity is

Viral assays

Virus content of a specimen can be assayed in two ways

1. With reference to total virus particles-

Electron microscopy
Hemagglutination

2. With reference to the infectious virions only
A. Quantal Assays
→ Indicates the presence or absence of infectious virus e.g

Death of the experimental animal.
Production of haemagglutinin in allantoic fluid.
Appearance of cytopathological effects on cell cultures.

B. Quantitative infective assay

It measures the exact number of infectious particles. Eg:
Plaque assay (monolayer cell culture) (CAM).
Pock assay on chick embryo chorioallantoic membrane.

→ Viruses producing pocks on chorioallantoic membrane are HSV, vaccinia, smallpox (variola), monkey pox, cowpox and camel pox.


Question: Streptococcal pneumoniae presents at

→ Streptococcus pneumoniae is the leading cause of pneumonia, both lobar and bronchopneumonia.
→ Pneumonia is common at the extreme of ages:

Children (especially >5 years of age)
Elderly (>60 - 65 years)

→ Serotypes 6, 14, 18, 19 and 23 are responsible for most cases of pneumonia in children, while serotypes 1, 3, 4, 7, 8 and 12 cause pneumonia in adults.


Question: Endoscopes (e.g., cystoscopes, gastroscopes) should be sterilized with

Most rigid endoscopes are compatible with steam, formaldehyde, ethylene oxide and certain liquid chemical disinfectants. The flexible scope can be sterilized by peracetic acid.
CHEMICAL STERILIZATION
■ Ethylene oxide (EO or EtO) gas - Most common sterilization method . -
Used to sterilize objects sensitive to temperatures > 60°C such as plastics, optics and electrics. -
Carried out at 30-60°C with relative humidity >30% & gas cone. 200-800 mg/L for at least 3 hrs. -
ETO penetrates well, moving through paper, cloth, and some plastic films and is highly effective. -
EtO can kill all known viruses, bacteria and fungi; including bacterial spores and is satisfactory. - Bacillus subtilis, a very resistant organism, is used as a rapid biological indicator for EO sterilizers. ■ Glutaraldehyde ■ Glutaraldehyde is a saturated dialdehyde that has gained wide acceptance as a high-level disinfectant and chemical sterilant.
■ It is specifically effective against tubercle bacilli, fungi, and viruses. ■ Has a short shelf life (<2 weeks), and is expensive.
■ It is less toxic and irritant to eyes than formaldehyde. ■ To kill all spores in the liquid can take upto 12 hrs with glutaraldehyde & longer with formaldehyde.
■ It has no deleterious effect on the cement or lenses of instruments like cystoscopes and bronchoscopes.
■ It can safely be used to treat corrugated rubber anesthetic tubes and face masks, plastic endotracheal tubes, polythene tubing, and metal instruments.
■ CIDEX (2% glutaraldehyde) is commonly used for sterilization of endoscopes.
■ Formaldehyde
■ It is less expensive and has a much longer shelf life, but is much more volatile.
■ Formaldehyde is also used as a gaseous sterilizing agent.
■ Many vaccines, such as the original Salk polio vaccine, are sterilized with formaldehyde.
■ Ozone is used in industrial settings to sterilize water and air, as well as a disinfectant for surfaces. It has the benefit of being able to oxidize most organic matter.
On the other hand, it is a toxic and unstable gas that must be produced onsite, so it is not practical to use in many settings.
■ Chlorine bleach is another accepted liquid sterilizing agent. Household bleach consists of 5.25% sodium hypochlorite. It is usually diluted to 1/10 immediately before use; however, to kill Mycobacterium tuberculosis it should be diluted only 1/5. The dilution factor must take into account the volume of any liquid waste that it is being used to sterilize. Bleach will kill many organisms immediately, but for full sterilization, it should be allowed to react for 20 minutes. Bleach will kill many, but not all spores. It is highly corrosive and may corrode even stainless steel surgical instruments.
■ Chlorine and NaOH are the most consistent agents for prions. Chlorine is too corrosive to use on certain objects. NaOH has had many studies showing its effectiveness


Question: Staphylococcal food poisoning includes the following feature

Enterotoxin is responsible for the manifestations of staphylococcal food poisoning: nausea, vomiting and diarrhea 2-6 hours after consuming food contaminated by a preformed toxin. About two-thirds of S.aureus strains, growing in carbohydrate and protein foods secrete the toxin. Meat and fish or milk and milk products cooked and left at room temperature after contamination with staphylococci, for enough time for the toxin to accumulate, are the common items responsible. The toxin is relatively heat stable. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology; Ananthanarayan and Paniker's; 10th Edition; Page No: 204


Question: Dorset egg medium is used for cultivation of

Media which are used for the cultivation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis are LJ media which is most common media used in which growth is seen in 6 to 8 weeks and the colonies are Rough, Buff and tough. The other media used car door fitting media Petragnini media, Saula media, Dubois media or Middlebrook's media. Note-Extra edge M . tuberculosis M. bovis Rough , buff and tough colonies on LJ media Flat , moist and smooth colonies on LJ media Aerobic Microaerophile Shows glycerol and niacin enhancement No such enhancement

Systemic Bacteriology (Gram Positive Bacilli, Gram Negative Bacilli)


Question: Stain specific for DNA staining is

Staining of Nucleoids:Nucleoids are stainable with the Feulgen stain, which is specific for DNA.Ref: Jawetz; 27th edition; Page no: 39


Question: A patient presents with a headache, high fever and meningismus. Within 3 days he becomes unconscious. Most probable causative agent

Amongst the given options Naegleria and Acanthamoeba cause amoebic encephalitis.

“The prognosis of Naegleria encephalitis is uniformly poor, most patients die within a week” -------Harrison “Acanthamoeba encephalitis follows a more indolent course”.
--------Harrison

 So, amongst the given options Naegleria causes most fatal amoebic encephalitis.

Naegleria fowleri

 It is a free-living amoeba
 Exists in three forms - Amoeboid trophozoite, Biagellate trophozoite, Cyst (Never forms in the human body)
 Modes of transmission - Human primarily contact the infection by swimming in contaminated water.

The amoeboid trophozoite enters the human body through the nasal mucosa and migrates to the brain along the olfactory nerve and blood vessels.
Some infections result from inhalation of cysts.

 Clinical features (primary amoebic meningoencephalitis) Common in young adults and children.

Incubation period →2-15 days (5 days) A headache, high fever, nausea, vomiting, meningismus. Cranial nerve palsies —» 3rd, 4th and 6th. Most patients die within a week (95%).
N. fowleri also causes humidifier fever, a form of allergic alveolitis resulting from inhaling air from air-coolers.
 Diagnosis - Detection of motile amoeboid trophozoites in wet mounts of C.S.F.
 Treatment - High doses of amphotericin B and rifampicin.
Acanthamoeba - It is a free-living amoeba

 Acanthamoeba culbertsoni species is most common,

 Exists in two stages - Trophozoite, Cyst

 The appellate stage is absent
 Modes of transmission - Through contamination of traumatized skin or eye Inhalation.


Question: Incubation period of Diptheria is

The incubation period in diphtheria is commonly 3-4 days. In some cases sho as a day. In carriers, the incubation period may be very prolonged. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 240


Question: Tuberculate macroconidia is characteristic of

Tuberculate macroconidia seen in Histoplasmosis also called Darling's disease.


Question: Dengue fever vector is a


Question: The predominant colonic bacteria are

The normal flora of adult colon contains 96 to 99%anaerobess and only 1 to 4% of aerobs. Ref: Baveja textbook of microbiology; 4th edition. .


Question: Most common complication due to expectant management of preeclampsia is

The most common complication is placental abruption.While the most common cause of death is the cerebrovascular hemorrhage.


Question: The virus causing aplastic crises in patients with haemolytic anaemia is

Parvovirus B19 is implicated in aplastic crisis in patients with hemolytic anemia, paicularly sickle cell disease. Parvovirus virus is the only DNA virus which has single-stranded DNA genome. Ref : Ananthanarayana textbook of Microbiology 9th edition Pgno : 554


Question: Draining sinuses are seen in rpt

mycetoma is caused by actinomyces and eumycetes. the disease begins as a subcutaneous swelling usually of foot which enlarges and borrows into the deeper tissues producing characharacteristic abscess, the abscess burst with the formation of chronic multiple sinuses discharging viscous seropurulent fluid containing granules. ref:Baveja textbook of microbiology 4th edition.


Question: Osgood Schlatter disease is associated with osteochondritis of

Types of Osteochondritis and Nomenclature Traction apophysitis (chronic strain injuries) Tibial Tuberosity Osgood-Schlatter Calcaneum Sever The lower pole of patella Sinding-Larsen&;s


Question: CD8 antigen is present on

CD4 antigen is present on t helper cells Cd8 antigen on T suppressor cells CD8 cells recognize MHC class I antigens Ref: Textbook of Microbiology Baveja 5th ed Pg 135


Question: Otitis and osteomyelitis is seen in

The most serious complication of BCG vaccination is disseminated BCG infection.The most frequent disseminated infection is BCG osteomyelitis (0.01-43 cases per million doses of vaccine administered) which usually occurs 4 months to 2 years after vaccination.Fatal disseminated BCG infection has occurred at a rate of 0.06-1.56 cases per million doses; these deaths occurred primarily among immunocompromised persons.BCG otitis - A form of acute otitis media occasionally observed in infants after oral administration of BCG tuberculosis vaccine.In pus and granulation of the ear in a number of patients detected acid-bacteria vaccine strain BCG. Typically imperceptible onset at normal temperature, the growth of granulation tissue, for lingering, long-term, but beneficial.


Question: Most common genital infection in HIV infected patient

Ans. is 'b' i.e., Herpes`Herpes simplex (in the developed world) and chancroid (in Africa) are the most common cause of genital ulceration in HIV infected patients.' - An Atlas of differential diagnosis in HIV disease' by Lipman, Gluck and Johnson 1st (1995) p. 30


Question: Most common type of leprosy

Mycobacterium leprae - Causes hansen's disease- Not cultured in pure culture media - Most common type is BT - Rarest type of leprae BB - First sensation lost is cold then hot Fig - Lepra cells / Virchow cells / Foam cells

Systemic Bacteriology (Gram Positive Bacilli, Gram Negative Bacilli)


Question: Most common site of colonization of Staph.Aureus

Anterior nares is most common site followed by skin, perineum, axilla and groins.


Question: Owls eye appearance inclusion bodies can be demonstrated in diagnosis of

Owls eye appearance is seen with cytomegalo virus-HHV 5 -demonstrated in centrifuged deposits of urine or saliva Ref: Baveja 5th ed Pg: 447


Question: Bioterrorism group A agent


Question: Black coloured grains in mycetoma is produced by

Leptospira, madurella, exophiala produce black colored colonies or grains in mycetoma Nocardia-white Phaecremonium -yellowish white Ref: Baveja 5th ed pg: 551


Question: Yellow bag is destroyed by

Ref: PubMedCat.Type of Bag/ Container usedType of wasteTreatment/ disposal optionsYellowNon-chlorinated plastic bagsSeparate collection system leading to effluent treatment system* Human anatomical waste* Animal anatomical waste* Soiled waste* Expired or discarded medicines* Chemical waste* Micro, Bio-t and other clinical lab waste* Chemical liquid wasteIncineration of Plasma pyralysis or deep burial*RedNon-chlorinated plastic bags or containersContaminated waste (Recyclable) tubing, bottles, intravenous tubes and sets, catheters, urine bags, syringes (without needles) glovesAuto/Micro/Hydro and then sent for recycling not be sent to landfillWhite/TranslucentPuncture, leak, tamper proof containersWaste sharps including metalsAuto or Dry Heat Sterlization followed by shredding or multilation or encapsulationBlueCardboard boxes with blue colored markingGlasswareDisinfection or auto/Micro/hydro and then sent for recycling


Question: Mucocutaneous Leishmaniasis is caused by

L. Brasiliensis causes Espundia (Mucocutaneous Leishmaniasis).


Question: Most common complications of Mumps is

At least one-third of all mumps infections are subclinical, including the majority of infections in children younger than 2 years. The most characteristic feature of symptomatic cases is swelling of the salivary glands, which occurs in about 50% of patientsThe testes and ovaries may be affected, especially after pubey. Around 20-50% of men who are infected with mumps virus develop orchitis (often unilateral).Jawetz 27e pg: 589


Question: The chief source of most parasitic diseases of man is

Definitive host: The host, in which the adult parasite lives and undergoes sexual reproduction is called the definitive host, e.g. mosquito acts as definitive host in malaria.In the majority of human parasitic infections, man is the definitive host (e.g. filaria, roundworm, hookworm).So human is the chief source of most parasitic infections.Panicker 7e pg:2


Question: Uterine souffle is defined as

The uterine souffle is a soft, blowing sound that is synchronous with the maternal pulse.It is usually heard most distinctly near the lower poion of the uterus.This sound is produced by the passage of blood through the dilated uterine vessels.It also may be heard with any condition in which uterine blood flow is greatly increased, for example, with large uterine myomas or ovarian tumours.

Is a soft blowing murmur synchronous with foetal hea sounds

Is due to increase in blood flow through the dilated uterine vessels

Indicates the underlying foetal distress


Question: Bacilli Calmette Guerin contains the avirulent strains of

BCG is produced from strain Mycobacterium bovis Ref: Harrison&;s Principles of Internal Medicine; 19th edition; Chapter 202; Tuberculosis


Question: Infectious mononucleosis is confirmed by

Monospot test is also known as Paul Bunnel test.


Question: Dermatophytes infects

Superficial mycosis - dermatophytes, malassezia furfur, Tinea nigra, black piedra, trichosporon beigelii. Subcutaneous mycosis - mycetoma, chromoblastomycosis, sporotrichosis, rhinosporidiosis. Systemic mycosis - blastomyces, paracoccidioides, histoplasma, coccidioides, cryptococcus. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Baveja; 4th edition


Question: Catalase positive, coagulase negative beta hemolytic bacteria

All staphylococci are catalase positive. Amongst staphylococci, Staph. aureus and Staph haemolyticus (CONS) are beta hemolytic. Most species of coagulase negative staphylococcus species are non-hemolytic except Staph. haemolyticus.


Question: Cryptococcus has predilection for

Cryptococcal infection is usually acquired by inhalation causing pulmonary cryptococcosis which may lead to mild pneumonitis. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker; 9th edition


Question: Streptomyces of granules in mycetoma caused by Actinomadura pelletieri

Brown to black- Madurella mycetomatis, madurella grisea, exophiala jeanselmei.
White to yellow- Nocardia asteroides, Nocardia brasiliensis, Actinomadura madurae, Streptomyces somaliensis, Scedosporium apiospermum.


Question: Human is dead end host for

A dead end host is an infected person from which infectious agents are not transmitted to other susceptible host or from which a parasite cannot escape to continue its life cycle.
 The diseases in which human acts as dead end host, i.e., dead and disease : -

1. Japanese encephalitis
3. Trichinosis
5. Bubonic plaque
2. Echinococcosis (hydatid disease)
4. Tetanus


Question: Chlamydia does not cause

Chlamydiae doesn't cause 'Q'fever, infact 'Q'fever is caused by coxiella burnetii belongs to family Rickettsiaceae...it is referred to as 'Q' fever in which 'Q' renders to query...as the causative organism was unknown during 1930's,'Q' fever is distributed worldwide as a zoonosis solidly established in domestic livestock,so infection occur in who handle wool,hides,meat and other animalproducts contaminated with the organism Ref:Ananthnarayan and paniker's microbiology 10th edition


Question: Spores of bacteria are destroyed by

Ans. is 'c' i.e., Halogen Amongst the given options, only halogens have sporicidal propey


Question: Antistreptolysin O test is diagnostic in

In rheumatic fever, a retrospective diagnosis of streptococcal infection may be established by demonstrating a high level of antibody to the streptococcal toxin. The standard test is Antistreptolysin O titration: ASO titer higher than 200 is indicative of prior streptococcal infection. Usually, high levels are found in acute rheumatic fever but in glomerulonephritis, titers are often low. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Page no: 218


Question: Commonest helminthic infection in AIDS is

Ans. is 'b' i.e., Strongyloides stercoralis . Amongst the given options only stongyloides causes oppounistic infection in AIDS. . Generalised strongyloidosis may be seen in AIDS.


Question: Antimitochondrial antibodies are found in 90% of patients with

The most characteristic immunologic abnormality associated with primary biliary cirrhosis is the presence of antimitochondrial antibodies, which are found in 90% of affected individuals.This antibody is predominantly IgG. Antimitochondrial antibodies also can be detected in persons with other liver diseases but with a much lower frequency (less than 10%) and usually in low titer.


Question: This is a paramyxovirus and causes the syndrome known as croup.

Orthomyxoviruses and paramyxoviruses are RNA viruses that contain a single-stranded RNA genome. The influenza viruses belong to the orthomyxoviruses. They cause acute respiratory tract infections that usually occur in epidemics. Isolated strains of influenza virus are named after the virus type (influenza A, B, or C) as well as the host and location of initial isolation, the year of isolation, and the antigenic designation of the hemagglutinin and neuraminidase. Both the hemagglutinin and neuraminidase are glycoproteins under separate genetic control, and because of this they can and do vary independently. The changes in these antigens are responsible for the antigenic drift characteristic of these viruses. The paramyxoviruses include several important human pathogens (mumps virus, measles virus, respiratory syncytial virus, and parainfluenza virus). Both paramyxoviruses and orthomyxoviruses possess an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase that is a structural component of the virion and produces the initial RNA. Respiratory syncytial viruses (RSV) are not related to the paramyxoviruses. They are 150-nm single-stranded RNA viruses. There are 2 antigen groups, A and B, which play no role in diagnosis and treatment. While the overall mortality is 0.5%, at-risk groups may be 25 to 35% mortality if untreated. Some parainfluenza virus infections (type 3) may be indistinguishable from RSV, but most parainfluenza infections produce a laryngotracheobronchitis known as croup.


Question: The bacteria frequently used as an immunomodulator is

Corynebacterium parvum, which is frequently used as an immunomodulator, is a mixture of the Propionibacterium species. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 246


Question: "Tuberculate spores" are characteristic features of

Ans. b (Histoplasma) (Ref. Ananthanarayan, Microbiology, 8th/p. 612).On Sabouraud's agar, at room temperature, white cottony mycelia growth appears, with large (8-20 micrometer) thick walled, spherical spores with tubercles or finger-like projections. This appearance of "tuberculate spores" is diagnostic of Histoplasma capsulatum.Key Facts in FUNGOLOGY1. White piedraTrichosporon beigelli2. Black piedraPiedraia hortae3. Mycetoma foot with black or brown granulesMadurella mycetomai, Madurella grisea, Philialophora jeanselmei4. Mycetoma foot with red granulesActinomadura pelletierii5. Mycetoma foot with white to yellow granulesNocardia asteroides, Nocardia brasiliensis, Actinomadura maduraeStreptomyces somaliensis, Allescherila boydii6. CLUSTERS OF MICROCONIDIA.T. mentagrophytes (dermatophyte)7. Cigar-shaped macroconidia with terminal rat-tail filaments 8. Thick-walled chlamydospores, conidia are rare and irregularM.audouinii9. Ectothrix hair infectionMicrosposrum spp, T. rubrum, T. mentagrophytes10. Endothrix hair infectionT. schoenleinii, T. tonsurans, T. violaceum11. YEASTC. neoformans (only pathogenic yeast)12. YEAST LIKECandida albicans (pseudomycelium present)13. MOULDS/FILAMENTOUS FUNGIDermatophytes14. DIMORPHIC (Filamentous as well as Yeasts)Most fungi causing systemic infection15. NOT A DIMORPHIC FUNGUSCryptococcus16. REYNOLDS-BRAUDE PHENOMENONRapid method of identifying Candida albicans based on its ability(Germ Tube Formation)to form germ tube when incubated in human serum at 37degfor 42 hr.17. SCLEROTIC BODIESChromoblastomycosis18. ASTEROID BODIESSporotrichosis (Gardner's disease)19. TUBERCULATE SPORESHistoplasma capsulatum20. INDIA INK PREPARATIONCryptococcus (other ones for its capsule are alcian blue & mucicarmine)21. ASPERGILLUSHyphae and pseudohyphae with dichotomous branching typically at acute angle - 45deg. Septate hyphae22. DESERT RHEUMATISM/VALLEY FEVERCoccidioidomycosis


Question: Smith Noguchi's media is used for

Smith-Noguchi Medium (by using living tissue) - Anaerobic media. Used for Cultivation of nonpathogenic treponemes E.g. Reiter strain of Treponema phagedenis - Spirochetes) Salmonella - Wilson and Blair bismuth sulphite medium is best selective medium Klebsiella - On MacConkey Agar, these are lactose fermentors Bacillus - PLET media is best for culture

General Microbiology Pa 1 (History, Microscopy, Stains and Structure and Physiology of Bacteria)


Question: Treatment of choice for Luminal infection of E. histolytica

Amoebic dysentry or amebic liver abscess - Tinidazole and metronidazole.
Luminal infection - Paramomycin and Iodoquinol.


Question: MHC class 1 proteins are not present on

MHC class 1 proteins are present on all nucleated cells and platelets.


Question: Most common tumor associated with AIDS is


Question: The reaction between antibody and soluble antigen is demonstrated by

When a soluble antigen combines with its antibody in the presence of an electrolyte (NaCl) at a suitable temperature and PH, the antigen-antibody complex forms an insoluble precipitate at a suitable temperature and pH, the antigen-antibody complex forms an insoluble precipitate.When, instead of sedimenting, the precipitate remains as floccules, the reaction is known as flocculation. Ananthanarayana 7e pg:94


Question: A person has unprotected sex 3 weeks back, To rule out HIV infection the best test is

Laboratory diagnosis of HIV infection
Laboratory diagnosis is made by:
A. Antibody detection

It is the most common method used for diagnosis of HIV infection.
ELISA is the most sensitive test and therefore is the screening test of choice.
Western blot is the most specific (Confirmatory) test and therefore is the’gold standard’ for diagnosis.
Antibodies test usually nucleic acid or antigen.

B. Detection of HIV nucleic acid or antigen

P24 antigen detection by ELISA can be done 16 days after infection (earlier than antibody detection).
Nucleic acid detection tests are the earliest to become positive (12 days after infection), Most commonly used test is reverse transcriptase PCR, (RT-PCR), other methods used are DNA-PCR, RNA-PCR, RNA-bDNA (branched DNA), and RNA-NASBA (nuclei acid sequenced based assay).

C. Virus isolation

Co-cultivation of the patient’s lymphocyte with uninfected lymphocytes in the presence of IL-2.
Not suitable as a routine diagnostic procedure.

In infected individual HIV can be isolated from

Blood
Semen
Saliva
Urine
Lymphocytes
Cervical secretions
Tears
Breast milk


Question: Inclusion bodies of vaccina is known as

vaccinia infected cells show rather small multiple inclusions known as Guarneiri bodies.


Question: Traveller's diarrhea is caused by

Diarrheal strains of E.coli:Strain of E.coliDiseaseETEC Traveller's diarrhea EPEC Watery diarrhea in young children EIEC Dysentery EAEC Traveller's diarrhea / Persistent diarrhea (Ref: Ananthanarayan 9th edition, p279)


Question: Vaccination is based on the principle of

Option 1, 2, 3, 4 - Natural active immunity: It is acquired by natural clinical or subclinical infections. Such natural immunity is longlasting. For example, individuals suffering from smallpox become immune to second attack of the disease. - Aificial active immunity: It is induced in individuals by vaccines. There is a wide range of vaccines available against many microbial pathogens. These may be live vaccines, killed vaccines, or vaccines containing bacterial products. therefore Immunologic Memory is created AGGLUTINATION- type of antigen antibody reaction Phagocytosis- process of engulfment of paicles, micro-organisms by cells Clonal Detection-By contact with self-antigens during development,self-tolerance is developed by clonal deletion

Immunology Pa 1 (Immune Response, Antigen-Antibody Reactions, Hypersensitivity, Structure of Immune System, Immunodeficiency Disorders)


Question: Irradiation can be used to sterilize A/E

Bronchoscope Endoscopes are sterilized by chemical methods Methods for sterilization of endoscopes - Rigid endoscope -4 Autoclave - Flexible -3 Glutaraldehyde peracetic acid Nowdays musculoskeletal tissue allografts are being increasingly used for knee reconstructive procedures. The soft tissue allografts commonly being used are bone patellaendon-bone, Achillestendon, fascia lata, anterior and posterior tibial tendon. Infections with allografts is a serious concern. Therefore these allografts need proper sterilization and disinfection. The proper sterilization procedure for these allografts is Gamma/Electron beam irradiation.


Question: Envelope of this virus doesn't contains neither hemagglutinin nor neuraminidase

Respiratory syncytial virus-contains no neuraminidase nor hemagglutinin but contain F protein Measles-paramyxo but no neuraminidase Envelope has F protein Ref: Baveja 5th ed Pg: 478


Question: Eggs does not Float on saturated salt solution is

Eggs that Float

E. granulosis
H.Nana
All Nematodes (except unfertilised egg of Ascaris)


Question: Paul Bunnel test is used for diagnosis of

Infectious mononucleosis is diagnosed by Paul Bunnel test. Revision of Key Points About Infectious Mononucleosis
• Ebstein Barr virus is causative for infectious mononucleosis.
• Infectious mononucleosis is called a glandular fever
• Clinical features include fever, lymphadenopathy, sore throat and presence of abnormal lymphocytes in blood.
• Monospot test is also used for diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis,
• Patients develop skin rash if they consume an antibiotic like ampicillin EBV is also oncogenic in nature because it causes B cell clonal activation.


Question: Tuberculin test screens for


Question: Most common cause of ophthalmia neonatorum is

Chlamydia is the most common cause and presents by 4-10 days. Ref: Ananthanarayana textbook of Microbiology 9th edition Pgno : 419


Question: Branched septate hyphae are found on cornmeal smear, in a case of corneal ulcer. Causative fungus is

Mucor is aseptate. Candida produces pseudohyphae. Aspergillus infection is caused by inhalation of mycelial fragments resulting in respiratory diseases, disseminated aspergillosis in brain, hea, kidney and superficial infections like sinusitis, mycotic keratitis and otomycosis. It is caused by A.fumigatus, A.flavus. On microscopy, it shows non pigmented septate hyphae with characteristic dichotomous branching at an angle of approximately 45degrees. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker; 9th edition


Question: HP body is seen is

Ans. is 'a' i.e., Chlamydia trachomatis [Ref: Ananthanarayan 9th/e p. 421)HP bodies are seen in :-Chlamydia trachomatis - Halberstaedter Prowazek (HP) bodyMolluscum contagiosum - Henderson paterson (HP) bodies.


Question: Polypeptide capsule is seen in


Question: Most fulminant fungal meningitis is caused by

(B) Cryptococcus # Cryptococcal meningitis is the most serious type of fungal infection and can resemble tuberculous or other chronic types of meningitis.> Its onset is insidious and the course slow and progressive.> It is often seen in AIDS.


Question: Bacteria with potent exotoxin is


Question: Coccobacillus grown in BCYE medium is

Legionella pneumophila:General characteristicsCultural characteristics*Gram negative pleomorphic rods*Motile , non-capsulated*Growth requirements - Cysteine and Iron*No man to man transmission*No animal reservoirs*Legionella- widely distributed in natural water sources (hot springs and stagnant water)*It survive and multiply inside free-living amoeba and other protozoa*Inhalation of aerosols- cooling towers, air conditioners and shower heads*Buffered Charcoal Yeast Extract (BCYE) medium with L-cysteine and antibiotic supplements with 5% CO2 at pH 6.9Clinical features*Atypical pneumonia*Legionnaire's disease- may be either epidemic or sporadicOIncubation period- 2- 10 daysOFever, nonproductive cough and dyspnea, rapidly progresses to pneumonia if untreatedODiarrhea and encephalopathy are common*Pontiac fever- milder, non-fatal, influenza like illness with fever, chills, myalgia and headacheDiagnosisTreatment*Specimen - Sputum, bronchial aspirate, transtracheal aspirate, lung biopsy.*ELISA or IFT *Macroloides, ciprofloxacin and tetracyclines(Ref: Ananthanarayan 9th edition, 401-402)


Question: The function common to neutrophils, monocyte & macrophages is

Neutrophils, monocyte & macrophages are the pa of phagocytosis not the pa of immunty. Cellular Components and Phagocytosis Therefore, phagocytes, present in the blood, lymphoid tissue, liver, spleen, lung, and other tissues, are the cells responsible for the uptake and removal of foreign antigen. Phagocytes include (1) monocytes and macrophages; (2) granulocytes, including neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils; and (3) dendritic cells. Histamine is released by mast cells . Destruction of old erythrocytes is by splenic tissue.

Immunology Pa 2 ( Hybridoma Technology, Complement Pathways, Interferon, Structure and Functions of Immune Cells )


Question: In tissue, Coccidioides immitis produces

Coccidioides immitis is a dimorphic fungus. Yeast form is a spherule filled with endospores. Mycelial phase contains pseudohyphae, which fragments into ahrospores. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker; 9th edition


Question: Most immunogenic in


Question: Rhinosporidum seeberi is a

** R.seeberi is no more considered a fungi"R.seeberi, paicularly that it is not a classic fungus "but rather the first known human pathogen from the DRIPs clade, a novel clade of aquatic protistan parasites. (Mesomycetozoa) "Rhinosporidiosis:*Causative agent: Rhinosporidium seeberi*Distribution: Argentina, Sri Lanka, and India*Mode of infection: stagnant water and soil (following trauma entry of fungus occurs)*Clinical features: Chronic granulomatous disease with friable polyps, usually confined to the nose, mouth or eye and rarely in genitals*Diagnosis:O Histopathological examination with H & E- shows sporangia enclosing endoconidiaO Other stains: GMS, PAS*Non-capsulated organism*Treatment: surgical removalRef: Ananthanarayan 9th edition, p 603


Question: Kala azar cannot occur at an altitude of;

Kala-azar or Visceral leishmaniasis (VL) is a disease of low altitude (approximately 500 meters mean sea level). In India, however cases have been repoed from sub-Himalayan region (350-960 meters MSL) of Kumaon region of Uttaranchal.


Question: The acceptable ambient temperature of summer in terms of thermal comfo is

Thermal comfo is defined as the state of mind that expresses satisfaction with the thermal environment.It is influenced by physical and physiological factors.According to this definition, comfo is a subjective sensation. Based on ASHRAE definition the zone of thermal comfo is the span of conditions where 80% of sedentary or slightly active persons find the environment thermally acceptable.In terms of climatic condition, the acceptable ambient temperature of comfo would be slightly higher in the summer than in the winter, being 23-27degC, respectively.


Question: Wool soer disease is

Bacillusanthracis:*First bacterial attenuated vaccine*First pathogenic bacteria seen under microscope*First communicable disease transmitted by infected blood *First bacteria to be isolated in cultureGeneral characteristicsCultural characteristics--Non motile , capsulated , spore producing , gram positive bacilli--Bamboo stick/Box car appearance--Susceptible to g phage --Selective media - PLET medium--Agar plate - Frosted glass appearance--Microscopy - Medusa head appearance--Gelatin stab - Inveed Fir tree appearance--Solid media - String of pearl reaction--Transmitted light - Cut glass appearanceVirulence factorsClinical features--Capsular poly D glutamic acid (poly peptide capsule) - plasmid mediated --Plasmid coded toxins --Factor I - edema factor--Factor II - protective factor--Factor III - lethal factor--CHARBON (Cutaneous anthrax) - painless malignant pustule--Wool soer disease - pulmonary anthrax--Hide poer disease - cutaneous anthraxDiagnosisTreatment--Mc Faydeans reaction positive--To detect antigen - Ascoli thermoprecipitin test--Epidemiological studies and Strain characterization - Multiple locus variable number tandem repeat analysis & Amplified fragment length polymorphism --DOC - Pencillin --Penicillin allergy - Ciprofloxacin, Erythromycin, Tetracyclin or Chloramphenicol--Live attenuated spore vaccine - Sterne , Mazucchi strains(Ref: Ananthanarayan 9th edition, p247)


Question: Medusa head appearance is a feature of

Bacillus anthracis:When grown on blood agar plates, the organisms produce nonhemolytic gray to white, tenacious colonies with a rough texture and a ground-glass appearance. Comma-shaped outgrowths (Medusa head, "curled hair") may project from the colony.Reference: Jawetz, Melnick, & Adelberg's Medical Microbiology; 27th edition; Chapter 11; Spore-Forming Gram-Positive Bacilli: Bacillus and Clostridium Species


Question: The graph below depicts a polymerase chain reaction in

A quantitative polymerase chain reaction (qPCR), also called real-time polymerase chain reaction, is a laboratory technique of molecular biology based on the polymerase chain reaction (PCR), which is used to amplify and simultaneously quantify a targeted DNA molecule. For one or more specific sequences in a DNA sample, quantitative PCR enables both detection and quantification. The quantity can be either an absolute number of copies or a relative amount when normalized to DNA input or additional normalizing genes. The procedure follows the general principle of polymerase chain reaction; its key feature is that the amplified DNA is detected as the reaction progresses in "real time". This is a new approach compared to standard PCR, where the product of the reaction is detected at its end. Two common methods for the detection of products in quantitative PCR are: (1) non-specific fluorescent dyes that intercalate with any double-stranded DNA, and (2) sequence-specific DNA probes consisting of oligonucleotides that are labelled with a fluorescent repoer which permits detection only after hybridization of the probe with its complementary sequence to quantify messenger RNA (mRNA) and non-coding RNA in cells or tissues.


Question: Most common cause of viral pneumonia in infant is

Ans. is 'b' i.e., RSV RSV is the most common cause of pneumonia and bronchilis in infants. In adults, influenza is the most common cause of viral pneumonia.


Question: Vancomycin is obtained from

Vancomycin is produced by Streptomyces orientalis. It is poorly absorbed from the intestine. Vancomycin is markedly bactericidal for staphylococci, some clostridia, and some bacilli. The drug inhibits early stages in cell wall peptidoglycan synthesis. Vancomycin is markedly bactericidal for staphylococci, some clostridia, and some bacilli. The drug inhibits early stages of cell wall peptidoglycan synthesis.Undesirable side effects are thrombophlebitis, skin rashes, nerve deafness, leukopenia, and perhaps kidney damage when used in combination with an aminoglycoside.Ref: Chapter 28; Jawetz Medical Microbiology; 27th edition; Antimicrobial Chemotherapy; Page no: 388


Question: Medusa head colonies are seen in


Question: The definitive host for Tenia solium is

(B) Man # Life cycle of Tenia solium:> Poorly cooked meat is ingested by humans who are the only definitive hosts.> The poorly cooked meat includes tapeworm larval cyst (cysticercus) which then release larvae.> These attach to the small intestine by the scolex suckers.> The worm then matures over 3-4 months during which the proglottids develop.> The worm can survive for up to 25 years in humans during which time the gravid proglottids are released into the faeces.> The excreted eggs which are excreted in the faeces can survive on vegetation where they are then consumed by cattle or pigs. Once in these animals the eggs hatch & cysticerci are released> These pass into the animal circulation from the small intestine and reside in the muscle.> Humans are then infected by eating raw meat containing the cysticerci.


Question: Ouchterlony procedure is a immunodiffusion by

Single diffusion in one dimension - Oudin procedure
Double diffusion in one dimension - Oakley fulthorpe procedure
Single diffusion in two dimensions - Radial immunodiffusion
Double diffusion in two dimensions - Ouchterlony procedure


Question: Bile solubility is used

Ans. is 'c' i.e., Differentiation of pneumococci from streptococci . Pneumococcus is bile soluble, while streptococcus is insoluble.

Differentiation of staphylococcus from streptococcus

Differentiation of group B streptococci from other streptococci

Differentiation of streptococci from neisseria


Question: Heart lung machine is sterilized by

Ethylene oxide is used for sterilization of many heat sensitive items such as heart - lung machine, sutures, catheters and dental equipment.


Question: Efficacy of Moist Heat Sterilization is tested by using the Spores of

(A) Bacillus stearothermophilus > For determining the efficacy of moist heat sterilization, (e.g. autoclaving), spores of Bacillus stearothermophilus are used as the test organism. This a thermophilic organism with an optimum growth temp. 55-60degC. Its spores are killed at 121 degC after 12 min exposure.


Question: Infectivity of HBV is indicated by

Ans. is 'a' i.e., HBeAg Serologic and virologic markers of HBV infection HBs Ag First virological marker detectable in the serum HBsAg presence precedes elevations of serum aminotransferase activity and onset of clinical illness. HBsAg become undetectable 1-2 months after the onset of jaundice and rarely persists beyond 6 months. In chronic HBV infection, HBsAg remains detectable beyond 6 months. HBc Ag It is not demonstrable in the circulation because it is enclosed within the HBs Ag coat. HBc Ag remain in the hepatocyte, where it can readily be detectable by immunohistochemical staining. HBe Ag HBe Ag appears concurrently with or sholy after HBs Ag. HBe Ag is an indicator of active intrahepatic replication and high infectivity. It is a qualitative marker of HBV replication. HBs Ag carrier mothers who are HBeAg positive almost invariably (> 90%) transmit hepatitis B infection to their offspring, where as HBs Ag carrier mothers with anti HBe rarely (10 to 15%) infect their offspring. HBe testing is indicated primarily during follow up of chronic infection. Anti HBc Ag o Appears within the first 1 to 2 weeks after the appearance of HBs Ag. In acute or recent infection IgM anti HBc is detected. Ig G anti HBc indicates remote infection. Anti HBs Ag o It becomes detectable in blood when HBs Ag disappears. It is the only serological marker, present after immunization. Anti HBs Ag is protective antibody. nti HBe Ag o Disappearance of HBe Ag is followed by the appearance of anti HBe Ag. Its presence indicates low infectivity and virus replication. HBV DNA o It is the quantitative marker of virus replication.


Question: H. ducreyi causes


Question: Tellurite stimulates growth of

Tellurite inhibits the growth of most other bacteria acting as a selective agent for diphtheria bacilli. Diphtheria bacilli reduce Tellurite to metallic tellurium which is incorporated in colonies giving them a grey or black colour. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 242


Question: Biological indicator for determining efficacy of autoclaving is

Sterilization control METHOD Sterlization control Hot air oven Autoclave Filtration Ionizing radiation (cold sterilization) Ethylene oxide Plasma sterilization Clostridium tetani non toxigenic strain, B.subtilis, sub sp. niger B.Stearothermophillus Brivundimonas dimunata B. Pumilus B.Globigi B.Stearothermophillus


Question: The commonly used fluorescent dye in the detection of tubercle bacilli


Question: Quellung reaction is seen in

Quellung reaction is seen in Streptococcus pneumoniae Quellung reaction: a specific test of Streptococcus pneumoniae. A suspension of Streptococcus pneumoniae is mixed with a drop of type-specific antiserum and a loopful of methylene blue solution. In the presence of homologous antiserum, the capsule becomes apparently swollen, sharply delineated and refractile. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 225


Question: Surface hemagglutination with adherence to glycoprotein act in

(Influenza virus) (428-30- Ananthanarayanan 8th)* In the case of the Influenza viruses, the hemagglutinin on the virus surface gets attached to glycoprotein receptor sites on the surface of the respiratory epithelium.Other examples are, Human immuno deficiency virus, poliovirus* Haemagglutin - surface antigen, strain specific, Antibody against this protective* Neuraminidase - surface antigen, strain specific, Antibody not protective* Hemagglutin - is glycoprotein, responsible for hemagglutination and hemadsorption* Neuraminidase - is glycoprotein enzyme which destroys cell receptors by hydrolytic cleavageAntigenic shifts - (Influenza virus A) are because of genetic ressortment b/w human and avian virusesAntigenic drifts - (Influenza A & B) are because of point mutation during viral replication causes smaller epidemic only* The phenomenon of genetic reassortment - can occure during influenza virus replication (Pandemic strain)* Von- magnus-phenomenon - virus yield has high hamagglutination titre but low infectivity* H5N1 is the Avian flue Influenza- A virus also called the Bird flue virus*** Micro-organism used as weapon in biological terrorism is small pox virus**Emerging or Resurging diseases are* Nipah virus** H5N1** nv CJD. Australian bat Lyssa virus* Ebola virus* Hanta virus* E. coli - 0157; H7 strain* West Nile virus** SARS* Pertussis, diphtheria, anthrax, lagionaire's disease, pandemic cholera, lassa fever, Rift valley fever, VRSA, and yellow fever* Rey's syndrome is commonly caused by Influenza type B* Influenza vaccines administered through nasal drops* Newer influenza vaccines - split virus vaccine, Neurominidase specific vaccine, Recombinant vaccinePost exposure prophylaxis is used in* HIV* Hepatitis A and B* Rabies* Tetanus* H. influenza (HIb)* Meningococcus* Influenza-A* Measles


Question: Bioterroism group A agent

Ans. is 'd' i.e., Antrax Bioterrorismo A bioterrorism attack is the delibrate release of viruses, bacteria or other germs (agents) used to cause illness or death in people, animals or plants. These agents are typically found in nature, but it is possible that they could be changed to increase their ability to cause disease, make them resistant to current medicines or to increase their ability to be spread into the environment. Biological agents can be spread through the air, through water or in food. Terrorists may use biological agents because they can be extermely difficult to detect and do not cause illness for several hours to several days. Some bioterrorism agents, like the small pox virus, can be spread from person to person and some like anthrax, cannot.Bioterrorism agent categoriesCategory Ao These high priority' agents include organisms or toxins that pose the highest risk to the public and national security because:They can be easily spread or transmitted from person to person.They result in high death rates and have potential for major public health impact.They might cause public panic and social disruption.They require special action for public health preparedness.Category Bo These agents are second highest priority because:i) They are moderately easy to spread,ii) They result in moderate illness rates and low death rates.iii) They require specific enhancements of CDC's laboratory capacity and enhanced disease monitoring.Category Co These third highest priority agents include emerging pathogens that could be engineered for mass spread in the future because:They are easily available.They are easily produced and spread.iii) They have potential for high morbidity and mortality rates and major health impact.CDC Category A, B, and C AgentsCategory AAnthrax (Bacillus ant hr acts)Botulism (Clostridium botulinum toxin)Plague ( Yersinia pest is)Smallpox (Variola major)Tularemia (Francisella tularensis)Viral hemorrhagic feversArenaviruses : Lassa. New World (Machupo, Junin, Guanarito, and Sabia) Bunyaviridae: Crimean Congo. Rift Valley Filoviridae: Ebola. MarburgFlaviviridae : Yellow fever: Omsk fever; Kyasanur ForestCategory BBrucellosis (Brucella spp.)Epsilon toxin of Clostridium perfringensFood safety threats (e.g.. Salmonella spp., Escherichia coli 0157:H7, Shigella) Glanders (Burkholderia mallei)Melioidosis {B. pseudomallei)Psittacosis (Chlamydia psittaci)Q fever (Coxiella burnetii)Ricin toxin from Ricinus communis (castor beans)Staphylococcal enterotoxin BTyphus fever {Rickettsia prowazekii)Viral encephalitis Water safety threats (e.g. Vibrio cholerae, Cryptosporidium parvum)Category CEmerging infectious diseases threats such as Nipah, hantavirus, and SARS coronoavirus.


Question: Impetigo contagiosa is caused by

Impetigo is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes belonging to a limited number of serotypes, usually high numbered M types, instead of the lower numbered M types which cause throat infection. Impetigo and streptococcal infection of scabies is the main cause of acute glomerulonephritis in children in tropics. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Page no: 215


Question: Schuffner's dots are seen in infection due to

Plasmodium vivax induces morphologic alterations in infected host erythrocytes that are visible by light microscopy in Romanowsky-stained blood smears as multiple brick-red dots.
These morphologic changes, referred to as Schüffner's dots, are important in the identification of this species of malarial parasite and have been associated by electron microscopy with caveolae vesicle complexes along the erythrocyte plasmalemma.

Ref :https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sch%C3%BCffner%27s_dots#:~:text=Sch%C3%BCffner's%20dots%20refers%20to%20a,Plasmodium%20ovale%20or%20Plasmodium%20vivax


Question: Blood agar is


Question: Wasserman test is diagnostic of


Question: Hook worm is related with

Chandler's index is the no. of hookworms present in 1 gram of faeces <200 no significance 200-250 potential danger 250-300 minor public health problem >300 major health problem


Question: Desert rheumatism is caused by

Desert rheumatism or valley fever or california fever caused by Coccidiodes speies.