Question: The organism that most commonly causes infective endocarditis is

Streptococcus sanguis is most common species in Viridans streptococcus to cause infective endocarditisReference: Jawetz, Melnick, & Adelberg's Medical Microbiology; 27th edition


Question: Ritter's disease is caused by

The severe form of staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome is known as Ritter's disease in the newborn due to an exfoliative toxin. In this disease, the outer layer of epidermis gets separated from underlying tissues. Milder forms are pemphigus neonatorum and bullous impetigo.


Question: Vector for Trypanosoma Cruzi is

Transmission is by rubbing of reduviid bugs.


Question: In pneumonic plague, transmission occurs from human to human by

Pneumonic plague is spread by droplet infection. The bacilli spread through the lungs producing hemmorhagic pneumonia. Cyanosis is very prominent. The bloody mucoid sputum that is coughed out contains bacilli in numerous numbers. Pneumonic plague is highly infectious and in untreated patients almost invariably fatal. Ref: Textbook of microbiology; Ananthanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Pg: 328


Question: The best way to cultivate M.Leprae is

M.Leprae can be cultivable in both Nine banded armadillo and foot pad of mice. But Nine banded armadillo > foot pad of mice.


Question: Staphylococcal pathogenicity is indicated by

Staph infections are caused by staphylococcus bacteria, commonly found on the skin or in the nose of even healthy individuals. Most of the time, these bacteria cause no problems or result in relatively minor skin infections. The virulence factors of Staph aureus are: Cell-associated factors Cell-associated polymers Cell surface proteins EXTRACELLULAR ENZYMES: Coagulase Lipid hydrolases Hyaluronidase Nuclease Protein receptors TOXINS: Cytolytic toxins Enterotoxin Exfoliative toxin Ref: Textbook of Microbiology; Ananthanarayanan and Panicker; 10th Edition; Page No:203, 204


Question: The major constituents in agar are

Agar, a polysaccharide extract of a marine alga, is uniquely suitable for microbial cultivation because it is resistant to microbial action and becauseit dissolves at 100degC but does not gel until cooled below 45degC; cells can be suspended in the medium at 45degC and the medium quickly cooled to a gel without harming them.Ref: Jawetz, Melnick, & Adelberg's Medical Microbiology; Twenty-Seventh Edition; Chapter 5; Cultivation of Microorganisms


Question: Pneumococcus producing mucoid colonies most often is type

Pneumococci on blood agar, after incubation for 18 hours, the colonies are small, dome-shaped with an area of greenish discoloration ( alpha hemolysis). some strains streptococcus pneumoniae type III and VII form large mucoid colonies due to the abundance of capsular material. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 224


Question: Prevalence of post kala azar dermal leishmaniasis among patients with visceral leishmaniasis

PKDL occurs usually in 20% of patients with visceral after successful treatment Ref: D.R. Arora.Medical parasitology 4th ed pg. 54


Question: Scrub typhus is cause by

Ans. a (Rickettsia tsutsugamushi) (Ref Ananthanarayan, Microbiology, 8thfp. 408, 410; Park 20th/263)# Scrub typhus is caused by R. tsusugamushi.# The vector is trombiculide mite.# The microbes are transmitted transovarially in mites.SCRUB TYPHUS (CHIGGER-BORNE TYPHUS)# Causative agent is R. tsutsugamushi.# Important reservoir is trombiculoid mite.# The nymphal and the adult stages of mite are free living in the soil.# They do not feed on vertebrate host.# Larva (chigger) feeds on vertebral host and picks up the rickettsiae.# Infection is maintained in nature transovarially from one generation of mite to next.# Larval stage serves both as reservoir, through ovarian transmission, and as a vector for infecting humans and rodents.# Tertacycline is the only drug of choice.# Sulfonamides should not be given.DiseaseCausative agentsVectorReservoirWF reactionCommentsEpidemicR. prowazekiLouseHuman+++ OX19# Red louse diseasetyphus # Transmitted by Pediculosis corporis and capitis.# Centrifugal rash 5 days after fever# Reactivation leads to Brill-Zinsser diseaseEndemic (Murine) typhusR. typhi (mooseri)Rat fleaRodent+++ OX19# Tunica reaction +# Rash on 4th day of feverScrub typhusR. tsutsugamushiMite (Chiggers)Rodent+++OXK# Punched-out ulcers with eschar# Erythematous rash on 5th day of fever# Lymphadenopathy (Zoonotic tetrad)Indian tick typhusR. conoriiTickRodent Dogs-# Fever boutounneuse# Tachenoir escharRMSFR. ricketssiTickRodent Dogs+++OX19, 2# Most severe ricketssial disease# Rash on wrist, palm and sole 3rd day of fever# Indirect immunofluo-roscence +.Rickettsial poxR. akariMiteMice-# Most mild disease# Eschar seenQ-feverCoxiella burnetti Cattle, sheep and goats-# No rash or local reaction.# No arthropod vector# Vaccine availableTrench feverRochalimaea quintanaLouseHuman-# Only rickettsia that can be culturedEherlichiosisE. senetsu, canlsTick bite--# No eschar/ rash# "Morules" diagnostic.


Question: Nocardia and actinomyces can be differentiated by

Both are Gram +, filamentous rods, slow growing, produce sulfur granulesNocardia is acid fastNocardia spp:General characteristicsCultural characteristics*Strict aerobe*Acid fast ( 1 % H2SO4 )*Selective media - Colistin -nalidixic acid agar, Buffered charcoal yeast agar*Selective growth by inoculating at 45 deg C*Also grows in Sabouraud dextrose agar and LJ mediumBiochemical reactions*Catalase positive, urease positiveClinical features*Causes pneumonia, mycetoma DiagnosisTreatment*Paraffin bait technique for isolation*Culture*PCR assay*CotrimoxazoleActinomyces spp:General characteristicsCultural characteristics*Gram positive nonmotile, nonsporing, non-capsulated filaments*Anaerobic or microaerophilic and non-acid fast*Spidery molar teeth colony in solid media ;*Fluffy ball at bottom of liquid mediumClinical featuresFour main clinical forms of Actinomycosis:*Cervicofacial with indurated lesions on the cheek (Lumpy jaw)- most common (60% cases)*Thoracic (pleural and pericardium)*Abdominal - around caecum (20% cases)*Pelvic- associated with IUCDsDiagnosisTreatment*Sulphur granules contain gram-positive bacilli surrounded by clubs - Sunray appearance *Actinomycotic grains or sulfur granules ++- size ranges from 0- 5 mm*Inoculation of the granules into thioglycollate liquid medium or in BHI agar incubated anaerobically at 37degC*Serology: gel diffusion and IFT*Penicillin or tetracyclineRef: Ananthanarayan 9th edition, p322


Question: Genital filariasis is caused by

Ans. a (Wuchereria bancrofti) (Ref. H - 16th ed., 1260)Wuchereria bancrofti blocks lymphatic vessels: elephantiasis; takes 9 mo-1 yr after bite to become symptomatic.LYMPHATIC FILARIASIS# Lymphatic filariasis is caused by W. bancrofti, B. malayi, or B. timori.# Humans are the only definitive host for the parasite.# Generally, W. bancrofti is noctumally periodic. (Nocturnally periodic forms of microfilariae are scarce in peripheral blood by day and increase at night, whereas subperiodic forms are present in peripheral blood at all times and reach maximal levels in the afternoon)# Natural vectors for W. bancrofti: Culex fatigans in urban settings and anopheline or aedean mosq in rural areas.# B. malayi has 2 forms distinguished by periodicity of microfilaremia. The more common nocturnal form is transmitted in areas of coastal rice fields, while subperiodic form in forests. B.malayi naturally infects cats and humans.Diagnosis# Microfilariae can be found in blood, hydrocele fluid, or in other body fluids, detection by Knott's concentration technique.# Two tests are commercially available: one is ELISA and the other a rapid-format immunochromatographic card test. Both assays have sensitivities that range from 96 to 100% and specificities that approach 100%.# Doppler examination of the scrotum or the female breast may result in the identification of motile adult worms within dilated lymphatics (termed the filaria dance sign).# Retrogradely evolving lymphangitis is a characteristic feature that helps distinguish filarial lymphangitis from typically ascending bacterial lymphangitis.Treatment# Diethylcarbamazine (DEC, 6 mg/kg daily for 12 days), which has both macro- and microfilaricidal properties, remains the treatment of choice for the individual with active lymphatic filariasis (microfilaremia, antigen positivity, or adult worms on ultrasound), although albendazole has also demonstrated macrofilaricidal efficacy.# Side effects of DEC treatment include fever, chills, arthralgias, headaches, nausea, and vomiting.# Ivermectin has a side effect profile similar to that of DEC when used in lymphatic filariasis.


Question: Cold sterilization refers to the process of sterilization by use of


Question: The culture media of choice for growing most of the fungi is

Sabouraud's agarType of agar growth medium containing peptones. Dermatophyte hyphae specimens are inoculated on Sabouraud&;s medium and incubated at room temperature.Choice 1-3 are media used for growing Mycobacterium TuberculosisReference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology; 10th edition


Question: Fifth disease is caused by

(A) Parvo virus 70 # ERYTHEMA INFECTIOSUM (FIFTH DISEASE): The disease is caused by Human Parvovirus.> Erythema infectiosum is the most common clinical manifestation of human parvovirus infection.NAMENUMBERVIRUS(Rubeola) measles"First disease"Measles virusRubella, ("German Measles") identified in 1881."Third disease"Rubella virusErythema infectiosum, identified as a distinct condition in 1896."Fifth disease"Parvovirus B19Roseola infantum"Sixth disease"HHV-6 and HHV-7


Question: The hypersensitivity reaction involved in the hyper acute rejection of renal transplant is

Ans. is 'c' i.e., Type III Pre-existing antibody against donor graft antigens can cause hyperacute graft rejection. . This form of rejection occurs within minutes or hours after transplantation "The graft becomes engorged and purple coloured . These early lesions point to an antigen-antibody reaction at the level of vascular endothelium. The antigen-antibody reaction produces an Ahus-type (type-III) immune complex injury in the vessels of the transplant."


Question: Best preservative for protozoal cysts is

10 % formalin is ALL - purpose fixative used for preservation of morphology of helminth eggs, larvae, protozoan cysts and coccidian.


Question: "Bacillary Angiomatosis". Causative organism is


Question: Yearly vaccination on fixed dates is done for

Ans. a (Polio). (Ref. Park, PSM 17th/pg.91)Infectious diseases whose control is solely based on active immunization are: m Measles# Diphtheria# Polio# TetanusThe pulse polio programme involves yearly vaccination below 5 years of age on fixed dates.


Question: Rhinospordium seeberi is a

R.Seeberi is a Aquatic protist belongs to mesomycetozoa.


Question: A 33 year old woman in New Jersy presented with a 1 day history of fever and chills. On examination, she was febrile with a blood pressure of 70/40 mmHg. Over several hours, a widespread erythrodermic rash developed. The female collapses. Fuher questioning revealed that the patient had removed a tampon sholy before presentation, as she had just ceased menstruating.


Question: Retropharyngeal space extends from the base of the skull to

Retropharyngeal space: It lies behind the pharynx between the buccopharyngeal fascia covering pharyngeal constrictor muscles and the preveebral fascia.It extends from the base of the skull to the bifurcation of the trachea.Space is divided into two lateral compaments (spaces of Gillette) by a fibrous raphe.Each lateral space contains retropharyngeal nodes which usually disappear at3-4 years of age.Parapharyngeal space communicates with the retropharyngeal space.Infection of retropharyngeal space can pass down behind the esophagus into the mediastinum.


Question: Protozoa associated with megaesophagus

Megaesophagus and megacolon occur as complications of chronic Chagas disease.
T. cruzi causes Chagas' disease
Chaga's disease

1.  Acute form

Occurs in infants and children.
Presents with fever, unilateral face swelling, lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly and chagoma (Localized swelling of the skin).

2.  Chronic form

Occurs in adolescent and adults
Presents with cardiac arrhythmias and neurological manifestations.
Complications → megacolon, megaesophagus, cardiomyopathy.

Romana's sign
When entry of the parasite is through the conjunctiva, an edematous swelling of eyelids of one eye develops.


Question: Rat bite fever is caused by

(A) Streptobacillus moniliformis # Rat Bite Fever (RBF) is characterised by relapsing fever, rash and arthralgia occurring days or weeks after a rat bite.> Two different bacteria can cause this condition-Streptobacillus moniliformis and Spirillum minus, both of which are natural parasites of rodents.


Question: Carrom coin appearance of pneumococcus is due to

Autolysin is amidase enzyme that cleaves peptidoglycan leading to autolysis of cells.
This property is responsible for carrom coin appearance of pneumococcal colonies.


Question: Nocturnal pruritis ani is characteristic of

Species Disease Form/Transmission Diagnosis Treatment Enterobius vermicularis PinwormLarge intestine,nocturnal perianalitching Eggs/person to personAutoinfection ** Cellophane tape prep of perianal area** Ova have flattened sidewith larvae inside Pyrantel, albendazoleTreat entire family Ref : Paniker's textbook of Medical Parasitology Pgno : 190-194


Question: Cryptococcus can be readily demonstrated by

Direct microscopic examination of Indian ink-stained wet film of materials from lesions reveals capsulated budding yeast cells, the capsules are common in Indian ink preparation. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker; 9th edition


Question: Most common muscle involved in Tropical pyomyositis

Tropical pyomyositis is caused by S.Aureus which mainly involves Quadriceps > Gluteus.


Question: Metachromatic granules are seen in

Metachromatic granules (Volutin, Babes Ernst, polar bodies) are present in Corynebacterium. These granules act as energy stores and are made of polymetaphosphate. Present more at the poles. Are more gram positive than the cytoplasm on Gram staining. These granules are stained by toluidine blue in Albe/Neisser/Ponder stain.

Systemic Bacteriology (Gram Positive Bacilli, Gram Negative Bacilli)


Question: Clinical diphtheria is caused by

Corynebacterium diphtheriae is the causative agent for diphtheria. The incubation period is 3-4 days. The site of infections is faucial, nasal, otitic, laryngeal, cutaneous. According to clinical severity, malignant, septic and hemorrhagic types are there. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 240


Question: Chandler's Index is used for

Chandler Index It is the average number of hookworm eggs per gram of faeces for the entire community. Ref : Paniker's textbook of Medical Parasitology 8th edition Pgno : 182


Question: The most frequently encountered clostridia' species in gas gangrene is


Question: For spinal anesthesia, lignocaine is used as

Lignocaine is used as 5% (heavy) for spinal anaesthesia.


Question: Temperature required for holder method of pasteurization.

Holder method - 63°c for  30 min
Flash method - 72°c for 20 sec


Question: Traveler's diarrhea is caused due to

Persons from developed countries visiting endemic areas often suffer from ETEC diarrhea--a condition known as Traveler's diarrhea. Ref: Ananthanarayana textbook of Microbiology 9th edition Pgno : 275


Question: Selective media for MYCOBACTERIUM


Question: The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonia in the ICU are

Mainly responsible organisms are acinetobacters which are Gram-negative aerobic bacteria. Ref: Ananthanarayan& Paniker&;s textbook of microbiology, 9th edition. Pg no.397


Question: Draughtsman colonies are seen with

- REF : ananthanarayana 10th ed Pnuemococci Due to alpha hemolysk, colonies of pneumococci rcsemble colonies of Str. vidans. But on fuher incubation the colonies ofpneumococci become flat with raised edges and central umbonation, so that concentric rings are seen on the surface when viewed from above - draughtsman or Carrom coin appearance.


Question: Autotrophic requirements are

Nutrients in growth media must contain all the elements necessary for the biosynthesis of pathogenic microorganisms. This rule is especially true of media that are intended to have a selective (select for a specific group of bacteria) or differential (differentiate between a pathogenic and a normal or usual strain of a group) purpose. Bacteria and plants use photosynthetic energy to reduce carbon dioxide expending water. The organisms that can use CO2 as a sole source of carbon are termed autotrophs. Chemolithotrophs are organisms that use an inorganic substrate, such as hydrogen or thiosulfate, as a reductant and CO2 a carbon source. Heterotrophs require organic carbon for growth. Many organisms possess the ability to assimilate nitrate (NO.3) and nitrite (NO2) reductively by conveing these forms to ammonia (NH3). Dissimilation pathways are taken by microorganisms that use these ions as terminal electron acceptors in respiration. This process is known as denitrification, with the final product being nitrogen gas (N2). Fermentation is characterized by substrate phosphorylation, in which products such as glucose are involved for energy production. Autotrophs should not be confused with auxotrophs. Auxotrophs are strains that require a nutrient that is not required by the parental or prototype strain. They are usually derived from mutants with defective synthetic capabilities. Ref: Ananthanarayana textbook of microbiology 9th edition pgno: 45

Essential molecules that the bacteria are unable to synthesize


Question: This virus is transmitted by the same arthropod that transmits babesiosis and ehrlichiosis.

Human papillomaviruses (HPV) are the causative agents of cutaneous warts as well as proliferative squamous lesions of mucosal surfaces. Although most infections by human papillomavirus are benign, some undergo malignant transformation into in situ and invasive squamous cell carcinoma. Both HPV and polyomavirus have icosahedral capsids and DNA genomes. JC virus, a polyomavirus, was first isolated from the diseased brain of a patient with Hodgkin's lymphoma who was dying of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML). This demyelinating disease occurs usually in immunosuppressed persons and is the result of oligodendrocyte infection by JC virus. JC virus has also been isolated from the urine of patients suffering from demyelinating disease. Cryotherapy and laser treatment are the most popular therapies for warts, although surgery may be indicated in some cases. At the present time, there is no effective antiviral therapy for treatment of infection with polyomavirus or HPV West Nile virus is an arbovirus. While prevalent in Europe, Africa, and the Middle East, it was not seen in the United States until the summer of 1999. It is transmitted by mosquitoes and birds, especially crows; these animals are a reservoir. WNV causes a rather mild encephalitis in humans, the exception being older patients or those who may be immunocompromised.


Question: Transport media used for Neisseria is

Neisseria transport media - Amies medium, stuart medium.


Question: The predominant immunoglobulin in saliva is


Question: 20 year old male presented with eczema, recurrent skin abscesses, recurrent lung infections. There is eosinophilia and high serum levels of IgE. Diagnosis is

Job's syndrome or Hyper-IgE Syndrome Characterized by eczema, Staphylococcal skin abscesses, pneumatocele.


Question: Children from school went to summer camp got suffering from sore throat, rhinorrhoea, bilateral congested conjunctiva; causative agent is

(C) Adenovirus # In children, ADENOVIRUSES cause a variety of clinical syndromes. The most common is an acute upper respiratory tract infection, with prominent rhinitis. On occasion, lower respiratory tract disease, including bronchiolitis and pneumonia, also develops. Adenoviruses, particularly types 3 and 7, cause pharyngoconjunctival fever, a characteristic acute febrile illness of children that occurs in outbreaks, most often in summer camps.> The syndrome is marked by bilateral conjunctivitis in which the bulbar and palpebral conjunctivae have a granular appearance. Low-grade fever is frequently present for the first 3-5 days, and rhinitis, sore throat, and cervical adenopathy develop. The illness generally lasts for 1-2 weeks and resolves spontaneously.


Question: Disinfectant used in laboratories


Question: Given type of skull is seen in

Cephalic Index ( CI ) of various race groups:Type of skullCIRace groupsDolico-cephalic (long-headed)70 - 75Pure Aryans, Aborigines, NegroesMesaticephalic (medium headed)75- 80Europeans and ChineseBrachycephalic (sho-headed)80-85Mongolian


Question: DIENES phenomenon s used for


Question: Negri bodies are characteristic of

Negri bodies are the inclusion bodies of the rabies virus formed in brain cells most commonly found in cerebellum (purkinje cells). Inclusion bodies are nuclear or cytoplasmic aggregates of stable substances, usually proteins. They typically represent sites of viral multiplication in a bacterium or a eukaryotic cell and usually consist of viral capsid proteins. Microscopic features of few disease:- Disease Microscopic feature Measles Wahin Finkeldy cells Rabies Negri bodies Trachoma Halbester Prowazek bodies Tetanus is a bacterial disease- caused by Cl. tetani, no inclusion bodies are seen.

Virology Pa-2 (RNA Virus Pa-1,2 & Miscellaneous Viruses)


Question: A hyperemic edema of the larynx and epiglottis that rapidly leads to respiratory obstruction in young children is most likely to be caused by

Haemophilus influenzae is a Gram-negative bacillus. In young children, it can cause pneumonitis, sinusitis, otitis, and meningitis. Occasionally, it produces a fulminative laryngotracheitis with such severe swelling of the epiglottis that tracheostomy becomes necessary. Clinical infections with this organism after the age of 3 years are less frequent.


Question: Transfer of drug resistance in Staphylococcus is by

Beta-lactamase(penicillinase) inactivates penicillin by splitting beta-lactam ring. Penicillinase is an inducible enzyme and its production is usually controlled by plasmids which are transmitted by transduction or conjugation.


Question: The following virus isn't enveloped virus but contains double stranded RNA

Reovirus, rotavirus and Colorado tick virus are double-stranded RNA viruses with no envelope DS RNA viruses doesn't have envelope Ref: Baveja 5th ed Pg: 423


Question: Transfer factor is an example of

Adoptive immunity occurs following injection of immunologically competent T-Lymphocytes known as transfer factor.


Question: Glasswares are sterilised by


Question: Malignant hydatid is caused by

Malignant hydatid disease It is a misnomer , as it is a benign condition It is caused by echinococcus multilocularis.It presents with multiple small cysts in both lobes of liver It is difficult to treat and mimics clinically and prognosis wise to malignancy; hence the name. Patients die of liver failure Ref : panikers textbook of Medical parasitology 8th edition page 136


Question: Cheeser's lung is caused by

It is Extrinsic allergic alveolitis caused by inhalation of spores of penicillium casei from moldy cheese.


Question: In comparing laparoscopic salpingostomy versus laparotomy with salpingectomy for the treatment of ectopic pregnancy, laparoscopic therapy results in

Conservative laparoscopic treatment of ectopic pregnancy is now commonplace, although not yet universal.With increasing sophistication of techniques and fiberoptics, many microsurgical procedures can be done through the laparoscope. Recent studies suggest that the feility rates for laparoscopy and laparotomy are comparable, as are the implications of repeat ectopic pregnancies.Ceainly laparoscopy, because of its small incision, results in fewer breakdowns and shoer hospital stays, but the incidence of complications due to retained ectopic tissue is higher.

Comparable persistent ectopic tissue rate


Question: Among the toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum, the non neurotoxic one is

(D) C2 # Classification: Eight types of Cl. botulinum have been identified (Types A, B, Cl, C2, D, E, F, G) based on the immunological difference in the toxins produced by them. The toxins produced by the different types are identical in their pharmacological activity but are neutralised only by the homologous antiserum.> An exception is C2 toxin, which shows enterotoxic activity, while all the others are neurotoxins.


Question: Flask shaped ulcers seen in a dysentry patient is diagnostic of

Clinical features of amoebiasis are: - * Intestinal amoebiasis - characteristic flask shaped ulcers * Amoebic liver abscess - Anchovy sauce pus * Lung abscess * Brain abscess Ref:- T.B of Medical Parasitology S.C.Parija 4th edition; Pg num:- 33


Question: Most common cause of food poisoning in west


Question: A patient presented with subcutaneous nodules over the Iliac Crest, snow flake oplacity in eye. Skin Scraping contains microfilaria and adult worms of

Subcutaneous nodules, snow flake opacities is a feature of Onchocerciasis.


Question: Necrotizing granulomatous inguinal lymphadenopathy is caused by

Primary syphilis - the regional lymph nodes are swollen, discrete, non-tender and rubbery. Ref: Baveja textbook of microbiology; 4th edition.


Question: Bullous pemphigoid is characterized by

Bullous pemphigoid is characterized by non-acantholytic blisters on trunk and limbs.It is characterized by a negative Nikolsky's sign, so B is incorrect.Blisters of bullous pemphigoid are tense and not at all easily ruptured, so C is incorrect.Typical tense blisters of bullous pemphigoid come on red/ uicarial base in the elderly population


Question: The causative organism of late prosthetic valve endocarditis is

Streptococcus viridans is a group which normally resides in the mouth and upper respiratory tract and is alpha hemolytic. In persons with pre-existing cardiac lesions, they may cause bacterial endocarditis, Streptococcus sanguis being most often responsible. Following the tooth extraction or dental procedures, they cause transient bacteremia and get implanted on damaged or prosthetic valves or in congenitally diseased hea and grow to form vegetation. Streptococcus mutans is also a member of viridans group which causes endocarditis in individuals with risk factors ( dental extraction in people with damaged valves). The bacterium has a polysaccharide coat that allows it to stick to teeth and also to damaged hea valves, it can invade the bloodstream. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 220, 221


Question: Granulomatous amoebic encephalitis is caused by

(A) Balamuthia mandrillaris# Granulomatous amoebic encephalitis is a central nervous system disease caused by certain species of amoeba, especially Balamuthia mandrillaris.> GAE may present in numerous ways. GAE. GAE can present with: focal paralysis, seizures, brainstem symptoms, and other neurological problems, some of which may mimic glioma (especially brainstem glioma), or other brain diseases, which may hamper timely diagnosis. These symptoms are caused by inflammatory necrosis of brain tissue brought on by amoebic infiltrates.


Question: Cystoscopes and bronchoscopes are sterilized by

Both orthophthaldehyde and Glutaraldehyde are used
But Orthophthaldehyde > Glutaraldehyde.


Question: Mesophilic organism grows at

Ref: Ananthnarayan, 9th ed. ch-1Organisms on the basis of their growth at different temperature:* Psychrophilic: (below 20degC)* Psychrotrophs: (important cause of food spoilage)* Mesophilic: (25-40degC)* Thermophilic: (55-80degC)


Question: Cryptococcus neoformans is a

Cryptococcus is a yeast. They possess rigid cell wall containing chitin, mannan and another polysaccharide. The cytoplasmic membrane contains sterols, cytoplasm contains true nuclei with nuclear membrane mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum. They reproduced by budding. It is unicellular. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker; 9th edition


Question: Erythema Chronicum Migrans is feature of

Hallmark of primary Lyme disease is Erythema Migrans: OMacular expanding erythematous lesion, central clearing. OBegins one month after the tick bite. OMean diameter 15 cm. Painless, can cause itching. Ref : Ananthanarayana textbook of Microbiology 9th edition Pgno : 378-380


Question: Differentiation of Neisseria Gonorrhea and Neisseria Meningitides can be done by

Gonococci resemble meningococci except that gonococci acidify only glucose, not maltose, but Meningococci acidifies both glucose and maltose. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 234


Question: The incubation period of staphylococcal food poisoning is

Enterotoxin is responsible for the manifestation of staphylococcal food poisoning- causing nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea 2-6 hours after consuming food contaminated by a preformed toxin. The toxin is relatively heated stable, resisting 100deg C for 10-40 minutes depending upon the concentration of toxin and the nature of the medium. The optimum temperature for toxin production is 37degC. Meat and fish or Milk or milk products cooked and left at room temperature after contamination with staphylococci, for enough time for the toxin to accumulate are the common items responsible. The source of infection is usually a food handler who is a carrier. Enterotoxin: 8 antigenic types are known named A, B, C 1-3, D, E, and H. The toxin is believed to act directly on the autonomic nervous system to cause illness, rather than on GI mucosa. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology; Ananthanarayan and Paniker's; 10th Edition; Page No: 204.


Question: Imprisonment for a term extending to seven years and also fine as punishment for voluntarily causing grievous hu is under

325 IPC; Punishment for voluntarily causing grievous hu. Imprisonment for a term extending to seven years and also fine


Question: Tap water scotochromogen is

M.gordonae often found in tap water (hence called 'the tap water scotochromogen'), is a common contaminant in clinical specimens and a rare cause of pulmonary disease. It differs from scrofulaceum in failing to hydrolyse urea, nicotinamide and pyrazinamide. Ref: Textbook of microbiology; Ananthanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Pg: 367


Question: Pneumococcus can be differentiated from streptococcus by

Bile solubility test: Streptococcus pneumoniae are bile soluble. If a few drops of 10% sodium deoxycholate solution are added to 1 ml of an overnight broth culture, the culture clears due to the Lysis of cocci. Alternatively, if a loopful of 10 % deoxycholate solution is placed on a Streptococcus pneumoniae colony on blood agar, the colony lyses within a few minutes. Bile solubility is a constant propey of Streptococcus pneumoniae and is of diagnostic impoance from other streptococci. The test should be carried out at neutral PH using deoxycholate and living young cells in saline suspension. Principal: based on the presence of an autolytic amidase in Streptococcus pneumoniae that cleaves the bond between an alanine and muramic acid in the peptidoglycan. The amidase is activated by surface active agents such as bile or bile salts. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 224


Question: The common causative agent in diarrhea in AIDS patients is

characteristic intestinal pathogen in AIDS is cryptosporidium REF:ANANTHANARAYANAN TEXT BOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9EDITION PGNO.576


Question: Anaerobic bacteria grow


Question: In combination bih control pills, the contraceptive effect of the estrogenic component is primarily related to

The two estrogenic compounds used in oral contraceptives are ethinyl estradiol and its 3-methyl ether, mestranol.To become biologically effective, mestranol must be demethylated to ethinyl estradiol, because mestranol does not bind to the estrogenic cytosol receptor.The combined oral pill suppresses pituitary hormones, FSH and LH peak and through their suppression prevents ovulation. At the same time, progestogen causes atrophic changes in the endometrium and prevents nidation. Progestogen also acts on the cervical mucus making it thick and tenacious and impenetrable by sperms.

Conversion of ethinyl estradiol to mestranol

Suppression of Growth hormone releasing hormone secretion

Suppression of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) secretion


Question: Infrared rays causes

Infrared rays affect primarily the retina, because of the transparency of the ocular media.When directly viewing a point source or laser beam, the focusing propeies in the IRA region additionally render the retina much more susceptible to damage than any other pa of the body.For sho exposure periods, heating of the iris from the absorption of visible or near infrared is considered to play a role in the development of opacities in the lens.


Question: A clinical diagnosis of meningitis is confirmed with a latex agglutination test on CSF for the capsular polysaccharide of the organism. The most likely causative agent is

C. neoformans occurs widely in nature, particularly in soil contaminated with bird droppings. Human infection occurs when inhalation of the organism occurs. Lung infection is often asymptomatic but can result in pneumonia. Meningitis occurs through dissemination, particularly in immunosuppressed patients. India ink preparations of CSF reveal a budding yeast with a wide, unstained capsule in infected persons.


Question: Indicator of viral replication in Hepatitis B infection is


Question: The RPR test uses VDRL antigen containing fine

The rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test is a macroscopic, nontreponemal flocculation card test used to screen for syphilis. RPR antigen is prepared from a modified VDR antigen suspension containing choline chloride to eliminate the need to heat inactivate serum, ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) to enhance the stability of the suspension, and finely divided charcoal paicles as a visualizing agent. Ref: Ananthanarayana textbook of Microbiology 9th edition Pgno : 374


Question: Catalase positive coagulase negative beta hemolytic bacteria is

Coagulase negative Staphylococci constitute a major component of the normal flora of human body. eg: S.epidermidis, S.saprophyticus and S.haemolyticus They are negative in: Coagulase Mannitol fermentation Heat stable nuclease Golden yellow pigment Sensitivity to lysostaphin Beta hemolysis on blood agar Phenolphthalein phosphatase Ref: Textbook of Microbiology; Ananthanarayanan and Panicker; Ninth Edition; Page no: 200, 206


Question: Incubation period of staphylococcal food poisoning is


Question: Prions are killed by


Question: Meningitis with rash is seen in

Meningitis and meningococcemia are caused by Neisseria meningitidis. In meningococcemia, acute fever, chills, malaise and prostration are common. The petechial rash occurs, metastatic involvement of joints, ears, lungs, eyes and adrenal may occur. Fulminant meningococcemia caused by Neisseria meningitidis is called Waterhouse Friderichsen syndrome. Fatal condition - characterized by shock, disseminated intravascular coagulation and multisystem failure. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 232


Question: Staphylococcal toxic syndrome is due to

Toxic shock syndrome(TSS) is a potentially fatal multisystem disease presenting with fever, hypotension, myalgia, vomiting, diarrhea, mucosal hyperemia and an erythematous rash which desquamates subsequently.TSST(Toxic shock syndrome toxin) type 1 (formerly also known as enterotoxin type F or pyrogenic exotoxin C) is most often responsible, though enterotoxins B also cause the syndrome. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology; Ananthanarayanan and Panicker; 10th Edition; Page No: 204


Question: The characteristic tetrads in RBC occur in

Tetrad forms in RBC's which represent budding merozoites from the trophozoites in the red blood cells are called Maltese cross. These are seen in babesiosis or piroplasmosis Babesiosis is an emerging tick-borne infectious disease caused by protozoan parasites of the genus Babesia that invade and eventually lyse red blood cells (RBCs). fig:- maltese cross apperence seen in RBC (Babesiosis) In malaria diffent form of life cycle are seen according to infecton of species of malaria. Plague and Lyme disease not infect RBCs


Question: “Genital elephantiasis” is caused by

LYMPHOGRANULOMA - VENEREUM (Lymphogranuloma inguinale, poradenitis, climatic or tropical
bubo)
- Caused by chlamydia -trachomatis - L2 (Most commonly)
- Preferred site - regional lymphnodes
- Primary lesions - painless papulovesicular lesion ** on the external genitalia
- Women - hemorrhagic proctitis with regional lymphadenitis
- Late sequelae in women leading to rectal strictures and elephantiasis of the vulva (esthiomene)**
Chancroid or soft sore is caused by Haemophilus - ducryi “School of fish” or rail rod track” appearance
- Tender nonindurated irregular ulcers on the genitalia


Question: Draughtsman colonies are seen in

(Pneumococcus) (259-P Chakraborty 2nd) (217, 221-Ananthanarayan 7th)* Pneumococci are typically a haemolytic. In prolonged incubation autolysis occurs at central depression (umbonation) of the colony which creates a typical draughtsman or carom coin appearanceDifferentiation between Str. pneumoniae and Strep, viridans Str. pneumoniae Str. viridansMorphologyCapsulated, lanceolate diplococciNoncapsulated, oval or round cells in chainsQuellung testPositive NegativeColoniesInitially dome-shaped later 'draughtsman' colonies Dome shapedGrowth in liquid mediaUniform turbidity Granular turbidityBile solubilityInvariably positive Invariably negativeInulin fermentationPositive NegativeOptochin sensitivityPositive NegativeIntraperitoneal inoculation in miceFatal infection Non pathogenicC. diphtheriaGravis strainsIntermedius strainsMitis strains* Colonies on Telluriteblood Agar* Haemolysis"Daisy head" coloniesin 48-72 hoursVariable"Frog's egg" colonies"Poached egg" coloniesUsually haemolytic Non haemolytic


Question: An aliquot of Escherichia coli is treated with ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA). The first wash is analyzed and found to contain alkaline phosphatase, DNase, and penicillinase. The anatomic area of the cell affected by the EDTA is most likely to have been the

The periplasm is the space between the outer membrane and plasma membrane of bacteria. The periplasmic space in Escherichia coli has been shown to contain a number of proteins, sugars, amino acids, and inorganic ions. Ethylenediamine-tetra acetic acid (EDTA) is a chelating agent that disrupts the cell walls of Gram-negative bacteria.


Question: Rat lung worm is

Angiostrongylus cantonensis also called Rat lung worm causes Eosinophilic meningtis.


Question: Site of action of polio virus is

Polio virus acts at motor nerve ending i.e anterior horn cells of spinal cord leads to flaccid paralysis.


Question: An 22 year old female complains of double vision and difficulty talking. On examination, there is symmetrical descending paralysis, Quadriparesis with areflexia, pupils are non reactive. Diagnosis is

Flaccid paralysis (quadriparesis) with blurring of vision, areflexia and non-reactive pupils suggestive of botulism.


Question: Wrong about Corynebacterium diphtheriae

C. diphtheriae virulence is mediated by its toxin which is produces by tox gene of DNA of Corynephage (bacteriophage).


Question: Percutaneous transmission of HIV


Question: Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome is caused by

Exfoliative (epidermolytic) toxin, also known as ET or "exfoliatin", is responsible for staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome(SSSS), an exfoliative skin disease in which the outer layer of the epidermis gets separated from the underlying tissues. The severe form of SSSS is known as Ritter's disease in the newborn and toxic epidermal necrolysis in older patients. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology; Ananthanarayanan and Panicker; 10th Edition; Page No: 204


Question: Sclerotic bodies are present in

Chromoblastomycosis- sclerotic bodies-yeast like bodies with septae. they can be demonstrated in KOH mount. Ref: Baveja 5th ed pg: 551


Question: Cetrimide is

Cetrimide is Quaernary ammonium compounds. Lysol, Cresol derivatives of coal tar are a type of phenols Formaldehyde and glutaraldehyde are aldehydes Iodine and chlorine are halogens Ref : Ananthanarayana textbook of Microbiology 9th edition Pgno : 33


Question: A farmer presents with multiple discharging sinuses in the leg not responding to antibiotics. Most likely diagnosis is

Actinomycotic mycetoma usually respond well to sulphonamides and antibiotics, but mycotic mycetoma may require amputation. Sporothrix causes sporotrichosis is a nodular ulcerating disease of the skin and subcutaneous disease. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker; 9th edition


Question: Capnocytophyga is best characterized as

While admittedly rare in human medicine, the bacteria referred to should be appreciated for their role in human disease. Branhamella is a Gram-negative diplococcus. It has recently been renamed Moraxella catarrhalis. While it is a member of the normal flora, it may cause severe upper and lower respiratory tract infection, particularly in the immunosuppressed patient. Most isolates produce b-lactamase and are resistant to penicillin. Cardiobacterium, as the name implies, causes endocarditis. This small Gram-negative pleomorphic rod may take a few days to grow. Infection is usually endogenous in that Cardiobacterium is part of the normal flora of the gut. Capnocytophaga grows best in a carbon dioxide atmosphere as the name implies. It is isolated frequently from patients with periodontal disease but may also cause septicemia in susceptible patients. Rat-bite fever is caused by Spirillum and the agent of cat scratch disease is B. henselae.

A Gram-negative pleomorphic rod that can cause endocarditis

A Gram-negative rod, fusiform-shaped, that is associated with periodontal disease but may cause sepsis


Question: Route of administration of  Influenza vaccine

Influenza vaccine is live,trivalent administered intranasally.


Question: The incidence of the mucocele is lowest in

Paranasal sinus mucoceles most commonly occur in the third or fouh decades of life with a slight male predilection. The frontal sinus is most commonly affected followed by the ethmoid sinuses, with repos suggesting 70-90 % of mucoceles occur in these locations.Ten percent of mucoceles occur in the maxillary sinus and the sphenoid sinus is involved rarely.


Question: One of the following is a zoonotic disease


Question: The therapy of choice for pseudomembranous enterocolitis is

There are few bacteria for which antimicrobial susceptibility is highly predictable. However, some agents are the drug of choice because of their relative effectiveness. Among the three antibiotics that have been shown to treat legionellosis effectively (erythromycin, rifampin, and minocycline), erythromycin is clearly superior, even though in vitro studies show the organism to be susceptible to other antibiotics.Penicillin remains the drug of choice for S. pneumoniae and the group A streptococci, although a few isolates of penicillin-resistant pneumococci have been observed. Resistance among the pneumococci is either chromosomally mediated, in which case the minimal inhibitory concentrations (MICs) are relatively low, or plasmid-mediated, which results in highly resistant bacteria. The same is generally true for H. influenzae. Until the mid-1970s, virtually all isolates of H. influenzae were susceptible to ampicillin. There has been a rapidly increasing incidence of ampicillin-resistant isolates, almost 35 to 40% in some areas of the United States. Resistance is ordinarily mediated by b-lactamase, although ampicillin-resistant, b-lactamase-negative isolates have been seen. No resistance to penicillin has been seen in group A streptococci.C. difficile causes toxin-mediated pseudomembranous enterocolitis as well as antibiotic-associated diarrhea. Pseudomembranous enterocolitis is normally seen during or after administration of antibiotics. One of the few agents effective against C. difficile is vancomycin. Alternatively, bacitracin can be used.Lyme disease, caused by B. burgdorferi, has been treated with penicillin, erythromycin, and tetracycline. Treatment failures have been observed. Ceftriaxone has become the drug of choice, particularly in the advanced stages of Lyme disease.


Question: LANGHERHAN CELL in skin are

Langerhans cells are dendritic cells (antigen-presenting immune cells) of the skin and mucosa, and contain large granules called Birbeck granules. They are present in all layers of the epidermis, but are most prominent in the stratum spinosum.]They also occur in the papillary dermis, particularly around blood vessels,] as well as in the mucosa of the mouth, foreskin, and vagina.


Question: "Citron bodies" boat or leaf shaped pleomorphic organism in an exudate is

Ans. is 'c' i.e., Clostridium septicum Citron bodies and boat or leaf shaped pleomorphic bacilli with irregular staining suggest CL septicum". Clostridium Clostridial species are : Gram positive Anaerobic (obligate anaerobe) Spore forming Bacilli Motile by peritrichate flagella except C perfringens and C. tetani type IV which are non motile. Non capsulated except C. perfringens and C. butyricum which are capsulated Pathogenesis is due to exotoxin not endotoxin. Clostridium botulinum causes botulism not gas gangrene. Gas gangrene is caused by : C. perfringens (80%) - C novyi C. septicum - C. histolyticum


Question: The most common sensitive causative organism for Traveller&;s diarrhoea is rpt

Traveller&;s diarrhoea is diarrhoea that develops during, or sholy after, travel abroad. It is caused by eating food, or drinking water, contaminated by germs (microbes) including bacteria, viruses and parasites. Mainly caused by E.coli. Textbook of microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker


Question: Whipworm among the following is

Species Disease/Most affected Form/Transmission Diagnosis Treatment Trichuris trichiura WhipwormCecum, appendicitis, andrectal prolapse EggsIngested Barrel-shaped eggs with bipolar plugs in stools Albendazole Ref: Ananthanarayana textbook of Microbiology 9th edition Pgno : 172-175


Question: Presence of Crytosporidium in a stool sample is identified using


Question: Escherichia coli gives pink color with

Escherichia Coli is a gram-negative, straight rod. Has good growth in ordinary media. On MacConkey medium, grows pink colonies due to lactose fermentation. On blood agar hemolytic colonies. In broth general turbidity and heavy deposit, disperse completely on shaking. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Page no: 280


Question: Scrub typhus is positive for

Scrub typhus aka chigger borne typhus is caused by orientia tsutsugamushi.In a heterephile agglutination test(weil Felix reaction), the sera of scrub typhus patients agglutinated only OX K strain of proteins mirabilis without getting agglutinated with OX 19 and OX 2 ...as some rickettsiae and ceain strains like OX K ,OX 19 and OX 2 of proteus share alkali stable carbohydrate antigen Ref: Ananthnarayan and paniker's microbiology 10th edition


Question: The differentiating feature of Neisseria gonococcus from Neisseria meningitidis is

Gonococci resemble meningococci except that they acidify only glucose and not maltose in serum sugars while meningococci acidify both. Ref: Textbook of microbiology; Ananthanarayan and paniker's; 10th Edition; Pg:234


Question: Common source of staphylococcus in hospital is

Staphylococci are primary parasites of human beings and animals, colonizing the skin, skin glands, and mucous membranes. The most common source of infection in human patients and carriers, animals and inanimate objects being less impoant. Patients with superficial infections and respiratory infection disseminate large numbers of staphylococci into the environment. About 10-30 percent of healthy persons carry staphylococci in the nose and about 10 percent in the perineum and also on the hair. The vaginal carriage is about 5-10 percent. Staphylococcal carriage stas early in life, colonization of the umbilical stump being very common in babies born in hospitals. Some carriers called 'shedders', disseminate very large number of cocci for prolonged periods. The cocci shed by patients and carriers contaminate fomites such as handkerchiefs, bed linen and blankets and may persist on them for days or weeks. Healthcare-associated infections by staphylococci deserve special attention because of frequency and because they are caused by strains resistant to various antibiotics. Epidemic methicillin-resistant S.aureus strains, also called EMRSA, get easily disseminated in a hospital environment and are responsible for post-operative wound infections and other cross infections in the hospital. They are multidrug-resistant most of the time. HA-MRSA (hospital-acquired methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus) and CA-MRSA(community acquired methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus) are a public health concern now as the division between the two is getting blurred and both the types are circulating in the community as well as hospital. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology; Ananthanarayan and Paniker's; 10th Edition; Page No: 205


Question: Electron microscopy is diagnostic in


Question: Bacteremia is the characteristic feature of

(A) Enteric fever # Typhoid fever (Enteric fever): is an illness caused by the bacterium Salmonella enterica serovar typhi. Common worldwide, it is transmitted by the feco-oral route -- the ingestion of food or water contaminated with feces from an infected person> Pathophysiology: Following ingestion of an infectious dose of at least 10,000 bacteria, mucosal penetration occurs in the distal ileum resulting in a transient, asymptomatic bacteremia. The organisms survive and multiply within mononuclear phagocytes located in lymph nodes, spleen, liver, and bone marrow.> The clinical phase of the disease begins within 1-3 weeks, resulting from persistent bacteremia.> Hematogenous spread to ileal Peyer patches and the gall bladder reintroduces bacteria to the gut lumen and stool cultures again become positive, allowing continued fecal-oral spread of the disease.> Mucosal ulceration overlying hyperplastic Peyer patches in the ileocecal region may result in pain, diarrhea, bleeding, and occasional perforation.> Shigellosis and cholera are acute diarrheal diseases without Bacteraemia.> Diphtheria is an acute febrile URTI.


Question: Undulant fever is caused by

Acute brucellosis is mostly due to B.melitensis. It is usually known as undulent fever, but this is misleading as only some cases show the undulent pattern. It is associated with prolonged bacteremia and irregular fever. Ref: Textbook of microbiology; Ananthanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Pg:347


Question: The main reservoir for entamoeba histolytica is


Question: Fungi are

Fungi possess a rigid cell wall and a cytoplasmic membrane containing sterols. * Contain true nuclei with nuclear membrane and paired chromosome. * Multiply by asexual, sexual or both * Unicellular or multicellular Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker&;s; 9th edition


Question: Nonavalent HPV vaccine consists of

Nonavalent HPV is 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52 and 58
Bivalent HPV is (HPV 16 and 18)
Quadrivalent HPV vaccine is (HPV 6, 11, 16 and 18)


Question: 'C' in CRP stands for

C i.e. C polysaccharide of pneumococcus C-reactive protein (CRP), discovered by Tillet and Francis in 1930, is so named because it reacts with the C polysaccharide of pneumococci.Q Acute phase proteins (or reactants) are proteins that increase during acute inflammatory states or secondary to ceain types of tissue damages. These include - al- antitrypsin, al acid glycoprotein, CRP, haptoglobin and fibrinogee. Interleukin-1 (IL-1), a polypeptide released from mononuclear phagocytic cells, is the principal - but not the sole -stimulator of synthesis of majority of acute phase reactants by hepatocytes. Cytokine IL-6 are also involved. Nuclear factor Kappa-B (NFKB) is a transcription factor that has been involved in the stimulation of synthesis of acute phase proteins. CRP (a type of pentraxin protein) is synthesized by liver in response to factors released by fat cells. It binds to phosphotholine expressed on surface of dead or dying cells in order to activate classic complement pathway C1q. Its level is mainly determined by rate of production (rises within 6 hours, peak in 48 hours & t1/2 is constant)

Chondroitin sulfate in series following ARP and BRP


Question: Rate of transmission of HIV from infected Mother to infant is


Question: Gonococcus is

Gonococci is gram-negative, diplococci. Gonococci, in smears from the urethral discharge in acute gonorrhea, appears as diplococcus with adjacent sides concave being typically kidney-shaped. Found predominantly within the polymorphs, some cells containing as many as hundred cocci. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 230


Question: Cat scratch disease is caused by


Question: Common fungus causing corneal ulcer is

Aspergillus causes respiratory diseases, disseminated aspergillosis in brain, kidney and hea, and superficial infection like sinusitis, otomycosis and mycotic keratitis. Sporothrix causes sporotrichosis - nodular ulcerative disease of the skin and subcutaneous tissue. Mucor causes pulmonary and gastrointestinal mucormycosis. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker; 9th edition


Question: Mechanism of action of tetanospasmin is

Tetanus toxin acts presynaptically. It specifically blocks synaptic inhibition in the spinal cord, presumably at inhibitory terminals that use glycine and GABA as neurotransmitters. The abolition of spinal inhibition causes the uncontrollrd spread of impulses initiated anywhere in the central nervous system. This results in muscle rigidity and spasms. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Page no: 265


Question: Length of intraorbital pa of the optic nerve is

Length of optic nerve - 5 cm Intraocular poion - 20 mm Intraorbital poion - 30 mm


Question: Mac Conkey's Agar is


Question: The following disease is caused by

Ans. (c) Human Parvovirus B19.The picture shows slapped cheeks appearance which can be confirmed serologically by demonstrating B19 specific IgM on an acute serum sample.Image source- style="font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif">


Question: Sun ray fungus is

Actinomyces colonies form fungus-like branched networks of hyphae. The aspect of these colonies initially led to the incorrect assumption that the organism was a fungus and to the name Actinomyces, "ray fungus" Ref : Ananthanarayana textbook of Microbiology 9th edition Pgno : 391


Question: The capsule of Cryptococcus neoformans in a CSF sample is best seen by

The capsule of Cryptococcus can be demonstrated by Indian ink stain. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker; 9th edition


Question: Transfer of a poion of DNA from one bacterium to another by the bacteriophage is known as

Transduction -Transfer of a poion of DNA from one bacteria to another by transduction phase.


Question: Ascaris lumbricoides does not cause

Infection of ascaris lumbricoides-ascariasis Symptoms-due to migrating larva or due to adult worms Lungs-pneumonia Cysticercosis is caused by larva of Taenia solium(cysticercus cellulosae) (refer pgno:138 baveja 3 rd edition,panikers textbook of Medical parasitology 8th edition page 125,203)


Question: Australian antigen in Hepatitis B is

(A) HBsAg[?]HEPATITIS B VIRUS:oThe envelope contains a protein called the surface antigen (HBsAg), which is important for laboratory diagnosis & immunization.oHBsAg was known as Australia antigen because it was first found in the serum of an Australian aborigine.oGenome contains 4 genes that encode 5 proteins:-S gene encodes surface antigen-C gene encodes core antigen & the antigen-P gene encodes polymerase-X gene encodes A protein.oX protein is an activator of viral RNA transcription.oSerological Diagnosis of Hepatitis B virus Infection:oHBsAg and hepatitis B e antigen (HBeAg) are the first markers identified in the serum of patients acutely infected with HBV.oDetection of Antigen:oHBsAg generally appears before symptom onset and peaks during overt disease.oIn patients who successfully clear the HBV infection and do not progress to the chronic carrier stage, HBsAg typically is undetectable 4 to 6 months after infection.oHBsAg (Australia antigen) is the surface antigen of the hepatitis B virus (HBV). It indicates current hepatitis B infection.NOMENCLATURE OF HEPATITIS B*. HBVHepatitis B virus (complete infectious virion)*. 42 nm, double-shelled particle, originally called the Dane particle, that consists of a 7 nm thick outer shell and a 27 nm inner care.*. Core contains a small, circular, partially double-stranded DNA molecule and an endogenous DNA polymerase.*. It is the prototype agent for the family Hepadnavinade.*. HBsAgHepatitis B surface antigen (also called envelope antigen)*. Complex of antigenic determinants found on the surface of HBV and of 22 nm particles & tubular forms. It was formerly designated Australia (Au) antigen or hepatitis - associated antigen (HAA)*. HBeAgHepatitis B core antigen*. Antigenic specificity associated with the 27 nm core of HBV*. HBeAgHepatitis B e antigen*. Antigenic determinant that is closely associated with the nucleocapsid of HBV. It also circulates as a soluble protein in serum.*. Anti HBs, anti-HBc & anti-HBeAntibody to HBsAg, HBCAg & HBeAg*. Specific antibodies that are produced in response to their respective antigenic determinants.[?]HBV Structure & Antigens:oHBV is DNA virus with a double shelloSize is 42 nm in diameteroMost infectious among all hepatitis viruses.oAssociated Antigens:oHBsAg (Australian antigen):-Surface Antigen, Australian antigen-Useful marker form epidemiology-1st marker to appear in blood after infectionoHBeAg: Hepatitis B core antigen; Not detected in serumoHBeAg:-Integral part of core antigen; Enveloped antigen-Indicate active viral replication-so associated with high infectivity.


Question: KLB is another name for

Diphtheria bacilli were first observed and described by Klebs in 1883 and first cultivated by Loeffler in 1884 - hence called Klebs- Loeffler's bacilli or KLB. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 239


Question: Not a live vaccine

Preparation of salk vaccine Virus is grown in monkey kidney cells and inactivated by formalin. Each dose of vaccine contains total 80 units of D antigen of all the three poliovirus serotypes. schedule 4 doses 1st 3 doses with 1-2 months gap, 4th booster dose is given 6-12 months after the 3rd dose.


Question: Dog leg field Radiotherapy is useful for

Modified Dog Leg field Superior border - Inferior border of the body of T11Inferior border - Superior border of the acetabulum Medial border - Tip of C/L transverse process of L5 towards the medial border of I/L obturator foramenLateral border - Line from the tip of the I/L transverse process of L5 to the superolateral border of I/L acetabulum


Question: Streptococcus pyogenes is

Streptococci are the gram-positive cocci arranged in chains or pairs. Gram-positive cells have a more acidic protoplasm, which may account for retaining the basic primary dye more strongly than gram-negative bacteria. Gram-positive bacteria are those that resist decolorization and retain the primary stain appearing violet. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Page no: 13, 210


Question: Maltess cross seen on polarizing microscopy in aEUR'

Cryptococcus neoformans Maltese cross in Cryptococcus On polarized light the spores in Cryptococcus gives "maltese cross" appearance. Maltese cross in Babesiosis Human babesiosis is an intreerythrocytic infection caused by protozoal parasites Babesia microti. It is transmitted by ticks. Babesia have a complex life cycle that involves a sexual reproduction in the erythrocytes of mammalian host and sexual reproduction in ahropod vectors. Within the human R.B.C. the trophozoites reproduce by budding rather than schizogony. They undergo two successive divisions. - The .four resulting nuclei remain in close proximity and this merogoite tetrad .form is described as the "maltese cross" Maltese cross is a characteristic of parasite that helps to distinguish Babesia from malaria. Also know Lipid droplets in urine in patients with glomerular disease act as liquid crystals and show maltese cross on polarizing microscopy.


Question: This is seen due to

In a patient taking digoxin. The ST-T complexes here are 'scooping' - consistent with a digitalis 'effect'. In the digitalis effect, the ST segments are often likened to a 'reverse tick' or to the shape of Dali's moustache The impoant learning point here is that the digitalis 'effect' does not necessarily mean toxicity. These ECG features can often be seen when digoxin levels are within the therapeutic range.


Question: The respiratory' syncytial virus

Croup tLarvngotracheobronchitis
o Croup is a viral infection of upper respiratory tract,
o Children between the age of 1-5 years are affected,
o Para-influenza type I virus is the most common causative organism.
o Other viruses implicated in causaction are RSV, influenza virus, Adneovirus and Rhinovirus.


Question: Microorganisms that enter freshly laid eggs are

Ans. is 'a' i.e., Salmonella . Salmonella can enter through the shell if eggs are left on contaminated chicken feed or feces and grow inside.


Question: Child having perianal pruritus is the clinical feature of ...

Enterobius vermicularis Enterobiasis occurs mostly in Children The worm produces intense irritation and pruritus of the perianal and perineal area, when it crawls out of anus to lay eggs.This leads to scratching and excoriation of skin around anus Ref:panikers textbook of Medical parasitology 8th edition page 196


Question: Sleeping sickness is caused by


Question: KOH smear is helpful in diagnosis of

(C) Fungus # KOH Preparation> A Potassium Hydroxide (KOH) preparation is performed on scaling skin lesions where a fungal infection is suspected. The edge of such a lesion is scraped gently with a no. 15 scalpel blade, and the removed scale is collected on a glass microscope slide then treated with 1 to 2 drops of a solution of 10-20% KOH. KOH dissolves keratin and allows easier visualization of fungal elements. Brief heating of the slide accelerates dissolution of keratin.> When the preparation is viewed under the microscope, the refractile hyphae will be seen more easily when the light intensity is reduced and the condenser is lowered.> This technique can be used to identify hyphae in dermatophyte infections, pseudohyphae and budding yeast in Candida infections, and "spaghetti and meatballs" yeast forms in tinea versicolor. The same sampling technique can be used to obtain scale for culture of selected pathogenic organisms.


Question: The number of bacteria on skin are

Ans. is 'd' i.e., >1010 It has been calculated that a human adult has about 1012 bacteria on the skin.


Question: Chandipura virus multiplies in

Chandipura virus multiplies in sandflies and Aedes Mosquitoes.


Question: Most common causative organism for lobar pneumonia is

Streptococcus pneumoniae are the most common cause of pneumonia, both lobar and bronchopneumonia. The aspiration of nasopharyngeal secretion containing Streptococcus pneumoniae into the lower respiratory tract is a common event and may occur even in sleep. Normal mucosal defense mechanisms such as entrapment, expulsion and cough reflex, aided by the ciliary escalator effect, prevent the establishment of infection. When the normal defenses are compromised by a viral infection, anesthesia, chilling and other factors, Streptococcus pneumoniae penetrate the bronchial mucosa and spread through the lung along with the peribronchial tissues and lymphatics. Bacteremia is common during the early stage. Toxemia is due to the diffusion of the capsular polysaccharide into blood and tissues. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 226


Question: Medusa head colonies on nutrient agar are seen in

On agar plates, irregularly round colonies are formed by anthrax bacilli, 2-3 mm in diameter, raised, dull, opaque, greyish with a frosted glass appearance. Under a microscope, the edge of the colony is composed of long, interlacing chains of bacilli, resembling locks of matted hair. This is called a Medusa head appearance. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 251


Question: Pain in veex is seen in

In sphenoiditis, veex headache is common, but pain can be localized in frontal, temporal, periorbital, or occipital regions or can be vague or occur anywhere in the craniofacial region.


Question: Dimorphic fungus is

Cryptococcus - yeast Aspergillus and mucor are moulds


Question: A patient presents with a painless ulcer on his penis. A Wasserman test is done and is positive. Wasserman reaction is an example of _

Wassermann reaction is an example of a complement fixation test. It is a non specific test for the diagnosis of syphilis. Principle of complement fixation tests: Antigen-antibody complexes fix complement Reference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology Tenth edition


Question: Paul bunnel reaction is a type of

Ans. is 'a' i.e., Agglutination test Paul Bunnell test is tube agglutination test.


Question: Involution forms are seen in

Involution forms - phase of decline.
Sporulation - stationary phase.


Question: The substance that accumulates in cardiac myxoma is

Myxomas are composed of stellate or globular myxoma (lepidic cell, endothelial cells, smooth muscle cells and undifferentiated cells) embedded within abundant acid mucopolysaccharide substance.


Question: Casoni's test is positive in

Ans. a (Echinococcus)TestUsed forAdrenolytic testPheochromocytomaAllen testIn patients with severe Raynaud's phenomenon and refractory digital ulcers due to distal ulnar artery occlusion.Anticholinesterase testMyasthenia gravisApnea testDemonstration that apnea is due to irreversible medullary damage.Bentiromide testis an indirect measure of pancreatic function and reflects intraluminal chymotrypsin activity. The test has excellent specificity but is not very sensitive.Bernstein testHeartburn is produced by heightened mucosal sensitivity and can be reproduced by infusion of dilute (0.1 N) hydrochloric acid.Casoni's testEchinococcosisCoomb's testIs the major tool for diagnosing autoimmune hemolysis. This test relies on the ability of antibodies specific for immunoglobulins (especially IgG) or complement components (especially C3) to agglutinate RBC coated with these proteins. With specific anti-IgG and anti-C3, the direct Coombs test detects IgG or C3 on the patient's RBC, which indicates the presence of immune hemolysis and may help define its cause.Desmopressin testSevere pituitary or nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus can be differentiated by administering desmopressin (DDAVP, 0.03 microg/kg subcutaneously or intravenously) and repeating the measurement of urine osmolarity 1 to 2 h later. An increase of >50% indicates severe pituitary Dl, whereas a smaller or absent response is strongly suggestive of nephrogenic Dl.Dexamethasone suppression testThe best screening procedure for Pituitary-Adrenal Suppressibility is the overnight dexamethasone suppression test.Dick testSusceptibility to scarlet fever was correlated with results of the Dick test, in which a small amount of erythrogenic toxin injected intradermally produced local erythema in susceptible individuals but elicited no response in those with specific.Nitroblue tetrazolium (NBT) dye test or the dihydrorhodamine (DHR) oxidation test.Deficiencies of oxidative metabolism are detected with either the two.Drop arm testThe diagnosis of a complete tear of the rotator cuff is suggested by the drop arm test in which the patient is unable to maintain his or her arm outstretched once it is passively abducted.Finkelstein's testDeQuervains tenosynovitis resulting from inflammation of the tendon sheath(s) involving the abductor poliicis longus or extensor pollicis brevis.Hydrogen breath testHydrogen breath testing after lactose ingestion may be performed for suspected lactase deficiency.Gastrin provocative tests(secretin stimu- lation test, the calcium infusion study, and a standard meal test)To differentiate between the causes of hypergastrinemia.Ham testFor many years, the diagnosis of PNH depended on the demonstration of the lysis of RBC after complement activation either by acid (Ham test) or by reduction in ionic strength (sucrose lysis test). These tests are inferior to the analysis of GPI-linked proteins (e.g., CD59, DAF) on RBC and granulocytes by flow cytometry.Head tilt testCardinal diagnostic feature of trochlear nerve palsy (The vertical diplopia is exacerbated by tilting the head towards the side with the muscle palsy, and alleviated by tilting it away)McMurray testA positive McMurray test may indicate a meniscal tear.Mazzotti testOnchocerciasisSwinging flashlight testTo elicit relative afferent pupillary defect (Marcus Gunn pupil). It is an extremely useful sign in retrobulbar optic neuritis and other optic nerve diseases, where it may be the sole objective evidence for disease.Schober testUseful measure of lumbar spine flexionString testStrongyloides stercoralisTyramine testTo evaluate postganglionic adrenergic function. In a postganglionic lesion, the response to tyramine is reduced and there is an excessive response to subthreshold doses of phenylephrine.Table tilt testNeurocardiogenic syncope


Question: Borelia vincenti is a


Question: The vaccine against Neisseria meningitidis contains

Monovalent and polyvalent vaccines containing capsular polysaccharide of Meningococci group A, C, W-135 and Y are available. Induces good immunity after a single dose in older children and adults Little value in children below the age of two years as polysaccharide antigen is T cell independent. Immunity is group specific. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 233


Question: A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely aetiological agent is


Question: Meningococci and Gonococci are differentiated by

Meningococci ferments Maltose whereas Gonococci not. But, Both ferments Glucose.


Question: Negri bodies are seen in infections due to

(B) Rabies virus # Negri Bodies:> Most characteristic pathologic finding of rabies in the CNS is the formation of cytoplasmic inclusions called Negri bodies within neurons.> Each eosinophilic mass measures 10 mm and is made up of a finely fibrillar matrix and rabies virus particles.> Negri bodies are distributed throughout the brain, particularly in Ammon's horn, the cerebral cortex, the brainstem, the hypothalamus, the Purkinje cells of the cerebellum, and the dorsal spinal ganglia.> Negri bodies are not demonstrated in at least 20% of cases of rabies, and their absence from brain material does not rule out the diagnosis.


Question: Katayama fever is seen in

S. mansoni more likely to cause Katayama fever than Japonicum.


Question: Ramesh, 30 yrs old male, the diagnosed case of CO poisoning presented with syncope or coma with intermittent convulsions, rapid respirations, tachycardia with a weak pulse and pink or red discoloration of the skin. Estimated percentage of COHb is

COHb%SYMPTOMS0 to 10 %No appreciable symptoms10 to 20 %Breathlessness on moderate exeion, mild headache20 to 30 %Throbbing headache, irritability, emotional instability, judgment, defective memory and rapid fatigue30 to 40 %Severe headache, nausea, vomiting, dizziness, dimness of vision confusion.Cherry-red color40 to 50 %Increasing confusion, sometimes hallucinations, severe ataxia, respirations and collapse with attempts at exeion. Symptoms of alcoholic intoxication50 to 60 %discoloration Syncope or coma with intermittent convulsions, rapid respirations, tachycardia with a weak pulse and pink or red discoloration of the skin60 to70 %Increasing depth of coma with incontinence of urine and feces70 to 80 %Profound coma with depressed or absent reflexes, thready pulse, a weak shallow and irregular respiration and death


Question: Swine flu is known as

Ans: b) HIN1A simple one. Swine flu is also known as H1N1.


Question: Complements synthesized in liver


Question: Eastern equine encephalitis virus is associated with a high fatality rate. Control of the disease could be possible by eradication of

Eastern equine encephalitis (EEE) is a severe disease usually seen in the summer months when Aedes mosquitoes are prevalent. In 1996 and 1997, there were several outbreaks in the Northeast United States. Control of EEE is a function of mosquito eradication. Horses and humans are accidental hosts. While draining of swamps helps, other measures to eliminate mosquitoes such as spraying are the most effective.


Question: Paul Bunnell test is for

Laboratory diagnosis of IMN
1. Heterophile antibodies test

 The standard diagnostic procedure in children and young adults is heterophile antibodies test - Paul – Bunnell Test
 A titre of 40 fold or greater is diagnostic of acute EBV infection in a patient who has symptoms compatible with infectious mononucleosis,
 The test usually remains positive for 3 months.
 The test is usually negative in children < 5 years, in elderly or in patients with symptoms not typical of infectious mononucleosis.
 Monospot test for heterophile antibodies is more sensitive than the classical heterophile test.

2. EBV specific antibody test

 Used in patients who lack heterophile antibodies (children < 5 years) and for patients with atypical presentation.

anti-viral capsid antigen (anti-VCA)→most common anti-EBV nuclear antigen (anti-EBNA) anti - early antigen (anti - EA)


Question: Ova in the stool is not of diagnostic significance in

Strongyloides stercoralis:A specific diagnosis is based on the finding of the typical rhabditiform larvae in a freshly passed stool. A high eosinophilia is often a feature of strongyloidiasis. In pulmonary infection examination of the sputum will demonstrate the presence of rhabditiform larvae. So ova is not diagnostic of Strongyloides stercoralis.(Ref: K.D Chatterjee13th edition, p211)


Question: Metal fume fever is related with

Metal fume fever is an acute febrile illness associated with the inhalation of respirable paicles of zinc oxide.


Question: The most distinctive feature of pathogenic Entamoeba histolytica on fresh stool examination is


Question: Organism causing meningitis between 6 m and 2 yrs.

(A) H. influenzae # Meningitis:> Most serious disease produced by H. influenzae with case fatality rates up to 90 per cent in the untreated.> Bacilli reach the meninges from the nasopharynx through the bloodstream.> More common in children between two months and three years of age.> Age incidence has been correlated with the absence of bactericidal anti-PRP antibodies.> Older children develop immunity as a result of subclinical infection.> It has been reported that in the tropics, non-type b strains may be responsible for meningitis more often than in the temperate zones.


Question: Protein A of staphylococcus binds to


Question: The causative agent of Favus is

Favus is caused by Trichophyton schoenleinii and Trichophyton violaceum. Trichophyton mentagrophyte causes Tinea barbie and ectothrix hair infection. Microsporum audouinii - Tinea capitis and ectothrix hair infection. Microsporum canis infects dogs and cats. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Baveja; 4th edition


Question: Candidal hyphae can be stained using


Question: Loffler's medium is

Enriched medium The media containing ingredients which enhance their growth-promoting qualities are enriched media e.g. blood agar, chocolate agar, and Loeffler medium.


Question: Robe Koch assistant advised him to use agar instead of gelatin for solidifying culture media for cultivation of bacteria because

Gelatin was the substance originally used to gel culture media. However, gelatin is liquid at 35oC., the optimum temperature for many bacteria. In addition, some bacteria are capable of liquifying the gelatin, making it an unsuitable solidifying agent. Agar has neither of these drawbacks. Agar is preferred over gelatin, as it is bacteriologically ine, melts at 98degC and usually solidifies at 42degC.

General Microbiology Pa 1 (History, Microscopy, Stains and Structure and Physiology of Bacteria)


Question: Same or closely related antigens present in different biological species are known as


Question: Clostridium difficile infection occurs after

Clostridium difficile causes acute colitis with bloody diarrhea and pseudomembranous colitis. A common cause of nosocomial diarrhea. The disease follows the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics to which it is resistant. Exotoxin A and B involved in the pathogenesis. An oppounistic organism that causes disease only when the normal mechanism is altered. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Page no: 270

Associated with use of rectal thermometer

Increased with propoion of hospital stay


Question: Novobiocin susceptible Staphylococcus is

Coagulase-negative staphylococci (CoNS) are among those organisms that have traditionally been considered skin contaminants, and their recovery from cultures doesn't always indicate the presence of disease. The speciation of coagulase-negative Staphylococcus is necessary for ceain culture specimens. Coagulase-negative staphylococci can either be resistant or susceptible to novobiocin. The one most commonly isolated novobiocin resistant coagulase negative staphylococcus from urine is Staphylococcus saprophyticus. It is one of the most common causes of urinary tract infections in sexually active young women. s.epidermidis is novobiocin susceptible. MNEMONIC: on the office's STAPH retreat, there was NO StRESs. (NO= novobiocin, S=Saprophyticus, R=Resistant, E=Epidermidis, S=Sensitive) Ref: http//microbeonline.com


Question: Hypersensitivity vasculitis is seen most commonly in

HYPERSENSITIVITY VASCULITISIn hypersensitivity vasculitis, postcapillary venules are the most commonly involved vessels, capillaries and aerioles are involved less frequently.It is primarily a disease of small vessels.It is characterized by leukocytosis, a term that refers to the nuclear debris remaining from the neutrophils that have infiltrated in and around the vessels during the acute stages.


Question: The first sign of Vitamin A deficiency is

Modified classification WHO (Xerophthalmia) XN: Night blindnessXIA: Conjunctival xerosis XIB: Bitot's spotsX2: Corneal xerosisX3A: Corneal ulceration/keratomalacia less than 1/3rd corneal surfaceX3B: Corneal ulceration/keratomalacia equal to or more than 1/3rd corneal surface XS: Corneal scarXF: Xerophthalmia fundus.


Question: Culture media for Legionella

* Legionella isolation is done from respiratory secretions - culture media is BCYE agar * Buffered Charcoal Yeast Extract Agar (BCYE) * Baird Parker agar - Staphylococci * MacConkey agar - Urine sample - to differentiate LF and NLF * PLET medium - Bacillus cereus Ref:- Harrisons T.B of medicine 19th ed; pg num:- 1018


Question: Tetanus affects primarily

The manifestation of tetanus is due to tetanospasmin. The tetanus toxin specifically blocks synaptic inhibition in the spinal cord, presumably at inhibitory terminals that use glycine and GABA. The toxin acts presynaptically. The abolition of spinal inhibition causes the uncontrolled spread of impulses initiated anywhere in the central nervous system. This results in muscle rigidity and spasms due to the simultaneous contraction of agonist and antagonists in the absence of reciprocal inhibition. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Page no: 265


Question: Sclerotic bodies are seen in

Chromoblastomycosis - histologically the lesions shows the presence of the fungus as round or irregular dark brown yeast like bodies with septae called sclerotic bodies. Diagnosis can be established by demonstration of these sclerotic bodies in KOH mounts or in sections and by culture on SDA. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker; 9th edition


Question: Thayer Martin is a selective medium for

Thayer Martin medium is the selective medium for Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
There are no specific selective media for Streptococcus pyogenes, Streptococcus agalactiae and Streptococcus pneumoniae.
All these three organisms are fastidious and are therefore usually cultured on blood agar/ chocolate agar.


Question: Histamine in anaphylaxis is secreted by

Ans. a (Mast cells). (Ref. Robbins pathology, 8th ed., Table 2-4; 2-6).Mediators of anaphylaxis are many--histamine, serotonin, PGS, VIP, Leukotrienes, TxA2, etc., hut histamine is produced and secreted by mast cells.The Actions of the Principal Mediators of InflammationMediatorSourcePrincipal ActionsCell-DerivedHistamineMast cells, basophils, plateletsVasodilation, increased vascular permeability, endothelial activationSerotoninPlateletsVasodilation, increased vascular permeabilityProstaglandinsMast cells, leukocytesVasodilation, pain, feverLeukotrienesMast cells, leukocytesIncreased vascular permeability, chemotaxis, leukocyte adhesion and activationPlatelet-activating factorLeukocytes, endothelial cellsVasodilation, increased vascular permeability, leukocyte adhesion, chemotaxis, degranulation, oxidative burstReactive oxygen speciesLeukocytesKilling of microbes, tissue damageNitric oxideEndothelium, macrophagesVascular smooth muscle relaxation; killing of microbesCytokines (e.g. TNF, IL-1)Macrophages, lymphocytes, endothelial cells, mast cellsLocal endothelial activation (expression of adhesion molecules), systemic acute-phase response; in severe infections, septic shockChemokineLeukocytes, activated macrophagesChemotaxis, leukocyte activationPlasma Protein-DerivedComplementPlasma (produced in liver)Leukocyte chemotaxis and activation, opsonization, vasodilation (mast cell stimulation)KininsPlasma (produced in liver)Increased vascular permeability, smooth muscle contraction, vasodilation, pain


Question: Chickenpox is caused by

Ans. A. Varicella-zoster virus. (Ref. Harrison's medicine 17th ed. Chapter 173)Varicella-zoster virus# Varicella-zoster virus (VZV) causes two distinct clinical entities:- varicella (chickenpox) and- herpes zoster (shingles).# Chickenpox, a ubiquitous and extremely contagious infection, is usually a benign illness of childhood characterized by an exanthematous vesicular rash.# With reactivation of latent VZV (which is most common after the sixth decade of life), herpes zoster presents as a dermatomal vesicular rash, usually associated with severe pain.# Children between 5-9 yr age are most commonly affected.# Incubation period 14-17 days.# Secondary attack rate 72-90%.# Patients are infectious prior to onset of rash, during period of vesicle formation (4-5days) & until all vesicles are crusted.# Hallmark of infection is maculopapules, vesicles escabs in various stages.# Most common infectious complication of varicella is superficial bacterial infection of skin by Staph.# Most common extracutaneous site of affection by VZV is CNS.Recommendations for VZIG AdministrationExposure Criteria1. Exposure to person with chickenpox or zostera. Household: residence in the same householdb. Playmate: face-to-face indoor playc. HospitalVaricella: same 2- to 4-bed room or adjacent beds in large ward, face-to-face contact with infectious staff member or patient, visit by a person deemed contagiousZoster: intimate contact (e.g., touching or hugging) with a person deemed contagiousd. Newborn infant: onset of varicella in the mother <5 days before delivery or <48 h after delivery; VZIG not indicated if the mother has zoster2. Patient should receive VZIG as soon as possible but not >96 h after exposureCandidates (Provided They Have Significant Exposure) Include:1. Immunocompromised susceptible children without a history of varicella or varicella immunization2. Susceptible pregnant women3. Newborn infants whose mother had onset of chickenpox within 5 days before or within 48 h after delivery4. Hospitalized premature infant (>28 weeks of gestation) whose mother lacks a reliable history of chickenpox or serologic evidence of protection against varicella5. Hospitalized premature infant (<28 weeks of gestation or <1000-g birth weight), regardless of maternal history of varicella or varicella-zoster virus serologic status.


Question: The biologic standard used to test the efficiency of sterilization involves the use of

Spores of Clostridium tetani is used for Dry Heat; 106 spores are used.For moist heat, Bacillus stearothermophilus are usedReference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology; 10th edition


Question: The fungus with septate hyphae and dichotomous branching is

Mucor and Rhizopus - aseptate hyphae. Penicillium - septate but no dichotomous branching. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Baveja; 4th edition .


Question: Fungi that posses a capsule is

The capsule of Cryptococcus can be demonstrated by Indian ink or nigrosin stain. capsules are prominent in Indian ink preparation. There are 4 serological types of capsular polysaccharide, it can be demonstrated by precipitation test. All others do not have capsules. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker; 9th edition


Question: The following is a single stranded DNA containing virus with no envelope

Parvo-SSDNA with no envelope Hepatitis-SS RNA with no envelope Herpes virus is an enveloped double-stranded DNA containing virus Ref: Baveja 5th ed Pg: 423


Question: Example of anaerobic medium

Non-selective media used in anaerobic bacteriology: Cooked meat broth (e.g. Robeson's Cooked Meat Medium): Non-selective for the cultivation of anaerobic organisms; with an addition of glucose, can be used for gas-liquid chromatography. Anaerobic blood agar: It is a non-selective medium for isolation of anaerobes and facultative anaerobes. Egg-yolk agar (EYA): Non-selective for determination of lecithinase and lipase production by Clostridia and Fusobacteria. Peptone-yeast extract glucose broth (PYG): Non-selective for the cultivation of anaerobic bacteria for gas-liquid chromatography. Ref: Ananthanarayana textbook of Microbiology 9th edition Pgno : 46,47


Question: Herpes simplex virus is


Question: Medusahead colonies on nutrient agar point the diagnosis of infection with

Bacillus anthracis-medusa hair appearance like growth on nutrient agar Ref: Textbook of Microbiology Baveja 5th ed Pg 220


Question: Staph, epidermis has become important due to

* S. epidermis is a pathogenic organism which affects interventions like catheter, canula.* It is an organism which can form biofilm.* It is novobiocin sensitive.


Question: Typhoid investigation of choice in 1st week

(A) Blood culture # Typhoid investigation of choice code 'BASU'> 'B' i.e. Blood culture in the first week (Better is Bone Marrow culture)> 'A' i.e. Antibodies (Widal) in the second week> 'S' i.e. Stool culture in the third week> 'U' i.e. Urine culture in the 4th week> Widal test shows diagnostic titre for S. typhii usually after 7 to 10 days of the illness - 2nd week> Positivity with Widal test is maximum in third week.> Widal - The agglutinins tested by the Widal test appear by the end of the first week. The titre increases steadily till the third or the fourth week, after which it declines gradually.> Maximum titre is found in third week.> Blood culture- They are positive in approximately 90% of cases in the first week of fever, 75% of cases in the second week, 60% in the third week and 25% thereafter till the subsidence of pyrexia. Test of choice in first week.> Stool culture - Salmonellae are shed in the faeces throughout the course of the disease and even in convalescence, with varying frequency. So a positive fecal culture may occur in carriers as well as in patients. Thus the test is not very useful for a recent infection.> Urine culture - Salmonellae are shed in the urine irregularly and infrequently. Cultures are generally positive only in the second and third weeks and then only in about 25% of cases.


Question: F plasmid of high frequency recombination is a

Characters of Plasmids: 1.Plasmids are circular DNA molecules. 2.Can replicate independently. 3.Plasmids or episomes are not essential for bacteria. 4.They may carry propeies of a)Drug resistance b)Toxigenicity Eg:E.coli,Klebsiella Salmonella Shigella ,Proteus Types of plasmids : 1.R plasmids. 2.Col factors (Colicinogenic factors) 3.F or Feility factors.

Immunology Pa 2 ( Hybridoma Technology, Complement Pathways, Interferon, Structure and Functions of Immune Cells )


Question: Rhinovirus is primarily transmitted by

Rhinovirus is a major cause of the common cold. The primary mode of transmission is the contact of contaminated hands, fingers, or fomites with the conjunctiva or nasal epithelium. While several studies have shown no evidence of aerosol transmission, a study by Dick and associates in 1986 did show aerosol transmission can occur. This is not, however, the main mode of transmission.


Question: Renauld Braud phenomenon is seen in

Candida albicans has the ability to form germ tubes within 2hours when incubated in human serum at 37C - Reynolds-Braude phenomenon. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker; 9th edition


Question: National switch day for polio vaccine is

Change over from trivalent to bivalent oral polio vaccine vaccine is National switch day. It was on April 25, 2016.


Question: Acute hematogenous osteomyelitis is often diagnosed by isolation of the organism from the blood and is caused most often by

Staphylococcus aureus is implicated in the majority of cases of acute osteomyelitis, which affects children most often. A superficial staphylococcal lesion frequently precedes the development of bone infection. In the pre-antibiotic era, S. pneumoniae was a common cause of acute osteomyelitis. Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Gram-negative organisms are implicated less frequently in this infection.


Question: Most common genetic play in Neisseria infection is

Ans. is 'c' i.e., Complement deficiency Complement deficiency and neisserial infections The complement system is an essential component of the innate immune defence against infection by Neisseria (N. Meningitidis and N. gonorrhoeae). People who lack or have a deficiency in complement mediated bactericidal activity are most susceptible to neisserial diseases. Terminal complement component (C5 through C9) deficiencies and deficiencies of the alternative pathway (Properdin, C3,Factor D) have a strong effect on susceptibility to, as well as severity of, neisserial infections. Deficiency of terminal complement (C, - C9) component :- Deficiency of one of the terminal components that compose membrane attack complex (MAC) predisposes patients to infection with Neisseria meningitidis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae. However, N. meningitidis infection is more common. Deficiencies of terminal pathway :- Deficiencies in components of alternative pathway, namely properdin, C3 and factor D, have been associated with increased susceptibility, almost exclusively, to meningococcal infection (amongst Neisseria).


Question: Virus grow well on

Ans. a (Cell culture). (Ref. Anantanarayan, Microbiology, 6th/pg.406)CULTIVATION OF VIRUSES:Three methods are employed for cultivation of viruses:# Innoculation in animals# Embryonated eggs# Tissue culture:- Organ culture (useful for isolation of some viruses only, that appear highly specific parasite of certain organs)- Explant culture (obsolete)- Cell culture (routinely used)# Primary cell culture# Diploid cell culture# Continuous cell linesThus cell culture is a subtype of tissue culture and viruses grow well on it.


Question: Common cause of diarrhoea in AIDS cases is due to


Question: Most common cause of cervical insufficiency is

The most common cause of cervical insufficiency is idiopathicCervical incompetence may be congenital due to the following:Mullerian anomaliesCollagen disordersExposure to DES or the causes may be acquiredObstetric trauma like cervical laceration during deliveryMechanical dilatationCervical Conization


Question: Tinea cruris is caused by

Tinea cruris is caused by Epidermophyton floccosum and Trichophyton rubrum


Question: Neurological complications following rabies vaccine are common with

(B) Chick embryo vaccine # Egg vaccines:> Duck egg vaccine prepared from a fixed virus adapted for growth in duck eggs and inactivated with beta propiolactone was used, but was discontinued because of its poor immunogenicity. A purified, more potent duck egg vaccine was developed, but was supplanted by tissue culture vaccines which became available then,> Live attenuated chick embryo vaccines: two types of vaccines were developed with the Flury strain-the Low Egg Passage (LEP) vaccine at 40-50 egg passage level for immunisation of dogs and the High Egg Passage (HEP) vaccine at 180 passage level for cattle and cats, these are not in use now because of their high neurological complications.


Question: Orbital mucormycosis is a complication of

Orbital mucormycosis is caused by Mucor and Rhizopus. The lesions are especially common in patients with diabetic ketoacidosis. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker; 9th edition


Question: Type of human papilloma virus associated with cacinoma cervix

Explanation:
Juvenile Papillomatosis of the breast
● It is a relatively common benign localised proliferative lesion in the breast.
● It is mainly seen in young women (mean age: 19-23 years)
● Caused by HPV 6 and 11.
Clinical presentation
● Patients present with a firmt well-defined, mobile mass often in the periphery of the breast.
● There is usually no nipple discharge.
Pathology
● Papillary proliferation of the ductal epithelium which partly fills up smaller ducts causing distension.
● Grossly, well-circumscribed mass containing multiple small cysts (<2 cm) within a dense fibrous stroma
(therefore sometimes termed swiss cheese disease by pathologists).
● Lesions can vary in size, usually ranging from 1 to 8 cm.
Radiographic features
Breast ultrasound
● They can appear as an ill-defined, inhomogenous hypoechoic mass with multiple small (up to 4mm) predominantly peripheral cysts.
● Microcalcifications may be seen at sonography.
Mammography
● These lesions are usually negative on mammography.
● Occasionally may show microcalcifications, an asymmetric density or a prominant intraductal pattern.
Galactography
● May show a multiple irregular filling defects within the breasts. Breast MRI
Signal characteristics according to one report include
● T1 : hypo-intense lobulated mass
● T2 : may show- presence of multiple small internal cysts, best shown on this sequence and is considered the most specific feature
● T1 C+ (Gd) : may or may not show marked rapid enhancement
● Dynamic sequence: shows a benign enhancement profile.
Complications
● Despite being a benign entity, it is considered by some to be a marker for familial breast cancer.
● Approximately /0% develop breast cancer later in life.


Question: Quellung reaction is associated with

Quellung reaction: a specific test of Streptococcus pneumoniae. A suspension of Streptococcus pneumoniae is mixed with a drop of the type-specific antiserum and a spoonful of methylene blue solution. In the presence of the homologous antiserum, the capsule becomes apparently swollen, sharply delineated and refractile. The Quellung test can be done directly with sputum from acute pneumonia cases. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 225


Question: Rh antibodies are


Question: Chandlers Index is used in epidemiological studies of

Chandler Index:-used for hookwormIt is the average number of hookworm eggs per gram of faeces forthe entire community.Below 200 -Hookworm is not much significance200 - 250 -May be regarded as potential danger250 - 300 -Minor public health problemAbove 300 -Impoant public health problem


Question: Mantoux test is an indicator of

Tuberculin-Type HypersensitivityDelayed hypersensitivity to antigens of microorganisms occurs in many infectious diseases and it has been used as an aid in diagnosis. The tuberculin reaction is a good example of a delayed-type hypersensitivity (DTH) response. When a small amount of tuberculin is injected into the epidermis of a patient previously exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis, there is a little immediate reaction. Gradually, however, induration and redness develop and reach a peak in 24-72 hours. Mononuclear cells, especially CD4 Th1 cells, accumulate in the subcutaneous tissue. A positive skin test indicates that the person has been infected with the microorganism but does not imply the presence of current disease. However, a recent change of skin test response from negative to positive suggests recent infection and possible current activity.Reference: Jawetz, Melnick, & Adelberg's Medical Microbiology; 27th edition; Chapter 8; Immunology

Immune complex mediated hypersensitivity


Question: Positive Shick's test indicates that the person is

Schick test: intradermal test to demonstrate circulating diphtheria antitoxin. This antitoxin may be present either due to previous infection or immunization. This test demonstrates the immunity or susceptibility of a person against diphtheria. Positive Schick test signifies that the person is susceptible to diphtheria due to the absence or lack of adequate amount of circulating antitoxin. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Baveja; 4th edition; Page no: 219, 220


Question: ABO incompatibility is an example for

Type 2 HSN

Transfusion reaction.
Erythroblastosis fetalis.
Grave's disease.
Myasthenia gravis.


Question: Cause of Clostridium difficile associated diarrhea is

Clostridium difficile causes acute colitis with bloody diarrhea and pseudomembranous colitis. A common cause of nosocomial diarrhea. The disease follows the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics to which it is resistant. Exotoxin A and B involved in the pathogenesis. An oppounistic organism that causes disease only when the normal mechanism is altered. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Page no: 270


Question: This ahropod transmits

Image shows - Sandfly . transmits Leishmaniasis Trypanosoma brucei: tse tse fly Trypanosoma cruzi: reduviid bugs (Triatomine). Plasmodium vivax: female anopheles