Question: Mr. Williams, upon filing a petition for bankruptcy, stated that he had a total of only $2,240 in assets, with liabilities amounting to $5,600. How much money can Mr. Johnson, a creditor, expect to receive if he has a claim of $1,725?

Choices:
- $1,725
- $1,120
- $690
- $2,240
- $870
- $860
- $1,360
- $345
- $0
- $5,600


Question: A father, policy to age 50, takes out a 5-year term insurance policyto ensure his son's education. (a) How much is his semiannual premium for $15,000 worth ofinsurance? (b) How much will hepayin over the five years? (c) How much will he receive at the end of the five years? (d) If he died at age 51, what would his beneficiary receive?

Choices:
- $100.95, $1009.50, $0, $15000
- $150, $1800, $15,000, $0
- $100.95, $1209.50, $15,000, $15,000
- $142.95, $1429.50, $0, $15,000
- $150, $1500, $0, $15,000
- $142.95, $1429.50, $15,000, $0
- $120.50, $1205.00, $0, $15,000
- $120.50, $1446.00, $15,000, $0
- $142.95, $1715.40, $15,000, $0
- $100.95, $1209.50, $15000, $0


Question: A draft for $800, due in 3 months and bearing interest at 4(1/2)%, was discounted 60 days before it was due. If the discount rate was 5%, what were the proceeds?

Choices:
- $810.00
- $807.50
- $802.26
- $800.00
- $795.00
- $812.34
- $805.26
- $809.00
- $815.00
- $790.26


Question: Kirk and Martin are partners and have agreed that, after interest at 6% is allowed on average investment, Kirk will receive one third and Martin two thirds of the remaining profits. On Jan. 1, Kirk's net worth was $72,000 and Martin's was $63,000. Kirk withdrew $3,000 on July 1 and made an additional investment of $1,200 on Nov, 1. On Aug. 1 Martin withdrew $1,800. If profits for the year amounted to $37,080, what was each partner's share?

Choices:
- Kirk's share of total profits: $13,080, Martin's share of total profits: $24,000
- Kirk's share of total profits: $12,540, Martin's share of total profits: $24,540
- Kirk's share of total profits: $12,930, Martin's share of total profits: $24,150
- Kirk's share of total profits: $13,500, Martin's share of total profits: $23,500
- Kirk's share of total profits: $14,000, Martin's share of total profits: $23,080
- Kirk's share of total profits: $11,500, Martin's share of total profits: $25,580
- Kirk's share of total profits: $15,000, Martin's share of total profits: $22,080
- Kirk's share of total profits: $14,500, Martin's share of total profits: $22,580
- Kirk's share of total profits: $12,000, Martin's share of total profits: $25,080
- Kirk's share of total profits: $13,943, Martin's share of total profits: $23,137


Question: As a result of a blow-out, Frank Lincoln's car swerved and hit John Martin's car.Leon Taylor, a passenger in Mr. Martin's car, had medical expenses of $6,251. Mr. Martin's medical billscame to $75. If Lincoln had 5/10 bodily injury insurance, howmuch will his insurance company pay?

Choices:
- $5,251
- $11,000
- $6,251
- $10,326
- $10,000
- $6,326
- $5,075
- $7,500
- $6,000
- $5,000


Question: Daniel receives at 6.5% commission on all sales. If he received a $275.08 commission, what were his sales?

Choices:
- $3200
- $4750
- $2600
- $5000
- $4243
- $4230
- $4000
- $4500
- $3500
- $3000


Question: What are the three differing types of stakeholder theory according to Donaldson and Preston (1995)?

Choices:
- Normative, Political and Economic
- Political, Descriptive and Economic
- Normative, Moral and Instrumental
- Normative, Descriptive and Political
- Normative, Moral and Economic
- Normative, Instrumental and Economic
- Moral, Descriptive and Instrumental
- Normative, Descriptive and Instrumental
- Political, Descriptive and Instrumental
- Normative, Descriptive and Economic


Question: A stereo with a cash price of $895 can be purchased on the instal-lment plan for 15% down and 30 monthly payments of $29.42. What is the finance charge on the installment plan?

Choices:
- $882.60
- $1016.85
- $95.70
- $89.50
- $121.85
- $210.45
- $175.30
- $150.50
- $134.25
- $99.99


Question: Materials (10 pounds $2) $20 Labor (5 hours @ $3) 15 Overhead (5 hours @ $1.20) 6 Standard Cost per Unit $41 Last month 1,000 units were manufactured, and 800 were sold for $53 per unit. The costs actually incurred were: Materials (purchased and used, 10,500 lbs.) $21,525 Labor (5,100 hours) 15,402 Overhead 6,400 1) What is a standard cost? How is it used? 2) Find the 2 materials variances and state whether each is favorable or unfavorable. 3) Find the 2 labor variances and state whether each is favorable or unfavorable. 4) How much is the overhead variance?

Choices:
- Materials Price Variance $525 (favorable), Material Quantity Variance $1000 (unfavorable), Labor rate variance $102 (unfavorable), Labor Efficiency Variance $300 (favorable), Overhead Variance $400 (unfavorable)
- Materials Price Variance $500 (unfavorable), Material Quantity Variance $1000 (favorable), Labor rate variance $100 (favorable), Labor Efficiency Variance $300 (favorable), Overhead Variance $400 (favorable)
- Materials Price Variance $525 (unfavorable), Material Quantity Variance $950 (favorable), Labor rate variance $102 (favorable), Labor Efficiency Variance $300 (unfavorable), Overhead Variance $400 (favorable)
- Materials Price Variance $600 (unfavorable), Material Quantity Variance $900 (unfavorable), Labor rate variance $200 (favorable), Labor Efficiency Variance $350 (favorable), Overhead Variance $300 (favorable)
- Materials Price Variance $525 (unfavorable), Material Quantity Variance $1000 (unfavorable), Labor rate variance $102 (unfavorable), Labor Efficiency Variance $300 (unfavorable), Overhead Variance $400 (unfavorable)
- Materials Price Variance $550 (unfavorable), Material Quantity Variance $950 (favorable), Labor rate variance $120 (unfavorable), Labor Efficiency Variance $280 (unfavorable), Overhead Variance $350 (unfavorable)
- Materials Price Variance $450 (favorable), Material Quantity Variance $1050 (favorable), Labor rate variance $150 (unfavorable), Labor Efficiency Variance $200 (favorable), Overhead Variance $350 (favorable)
- Materials Price Variance $550 (unfavorable), Material Quantity Variance $1100 (favorable), Labor rate variance $150 (favorable), Labor Efficiency Variance $250 (unfavorable), Overhead Variance $450 (unfavorable)
- Materials Price Variance $500 (favorable), Material Quantity Variance $1050 (unfavorable), Labor rate variance $100 (unfavorable), Labor Efficiency Variance $250 (favorable), Overhead Variance $450 (favorable)
- Materials Price Variance $500 (unfavorable), Material Quantity Variance $950 (unfavorable), Labor rate variance $100 (unfavorable), Labor Efficiency Variance $250 (unfavorable), Overhead Variance $350 (unfavorable)


Question: Your firm is trying to decide whether to buy an e-commerce software company. The company has $100,000 in total capital assets: $60,000 in equity and $40,000 in debt. The cost of the company’s equity is 10%, while the cost of the company's debt is 5%. The corporate tax rate is 21%. What is the WACC of the company?

Choices:
- 0.0845
- 0.0800
- 0.0823
- 0.0891
- 0.0758
- 0.0674
- 0.0652
- 0.0700
- 0.0921
- 0.0789


Question: An employer and employee had an employment contract that contained an "at will" provision allowing either party to terminate the employment upon reasonable notice. One year later, the employer had the employee sign a covenant not to compete for a two-year period after termination. Two years later, the employee quit and went to work for a competitor company. The prior employer sued, asking for a preliminary injunction to enforce the covenant. The employee argued that the covenant was invalid because no consideration passed to her  she could be fired at any time and did not receive anything for signing. The employer argued that it provided her with continued employment when it did not have to do so. Does the employer have a legal right to enforce the covenant?

Choices:
- Yes, because the employer's providing of continued employment for a substantial period after signing the covenant is adequate consideration.
- Yes, because modification of an existing contract does not require consideration.
- Yes, because the courts never question the adequacy of consideration in an agreement.
- No, because there was inadequate consideration for the covenant.


Question: Do treaties bind third States, ie non-State parties?

Choices:
- Treaties do no create obligations or rights for third States without their consent
- Treaties create both obligations and rights for third States
- Treaties do not create any rights for third States, even when the latter consent.
- Treaties may create only obligations for third States
- Treaties create obligations for third States without their consent
- Treaties may create only rights for third States
- Treaties do not create any obligations or rights for third States, even when the latter consent.
- Treaties create rights for third States without their consent


Question: What is the 'Lotus principle'?

Choices:
- The so-called Lotus principle is that customary law is superior to treaty law
- The so-called Lotus principle is that States have the right to intervene in the internal affairs of other States if it concerns their national security
- The so-called Lotus principle is that States are permitted to apply their own domestic laws in disputes with other States
- The so-called Lotus principle is that international law governs the relations between States and not the relations between individuals.
- The so-called Lotus principle is that States have unlimited jurisdiction over their own citizens, regardless of where they are located
- The so-called Lotus principle is that States are free to ignore international law as long as they don't infringe on the sovereignty of other States
- The so-called Lotus principle is that 'restrictions upon the independence of States cannot therefore be presumed', or, as it has been construed, 'whatever is not prohibited is permitted in international law'
- The so-called Lotus principle is that States are not prohibited to assert their enforcement jurisdiction on the high seas
- The so-called Lotus principle is that customary law derives from the combination of State practice and opinio juris
- The so-called Lotus principle is that States are free to choose the Court that they will submit their disputes


Question: A mechanic agreed in writing to make repairs to a landscaper's truck for $12,000. The mechanic properly made the repairs, but when the landscaper tendered payment, the mechanic refused to deliver the truck unless the landscaper promised to pay an additional $2,000. The customary charge for such work was $14,000. Because the landscaper needed the truck immediately to fulfill existing contractual obligations, and because no rental trucks of the same type were available, the landscaper promised in writing to pay the mechanic an additional $2,000. The mechanic then delivered the truck. Will the mechanic be able to enforce the landscaper's promise to pay the additional $2,000?

Choices:
- No, because the mechanic breached the original contract by demanding extra payment.
- Yes, because the landscaper could have obtained possession of the truck through legal action rather than by agreeing to the increased payment.
- No, because the mechanic exploited the landscaper's immediate need for the truck.
- No, because the landscaper had no reasonable alternative but to yield to the mechanic's wrongful threat.
- Yes, because the final price is equivalent to the customary charge for such work.
- No, because the original contract did not include the additional $2,000 payment.
- Yes, because the landscaper agreed in writing to pay the additional cost.
- Yes, because the mechanic completed the repairs as agreed.
- Yes, because the modified contract price did not exceed a reasonable price.
- No, because the mechanic exerted undue influence over the landscaper with respect to the modification.


Question: A young man suggested to his friend that they steal a large-screen TV from a neighbor's house. The friend wasangry with the young man and decided to use the opportunity to get even with him by having him arrested. Thefriend said he would help, and that night, he drove the young man to the neighbor's house. The young manbroke in while the friend remained outside. The friend called the police on his cell phone and then drove away. Police officers arrived at the scene just as the young man was carrying the TV out the back door. The friend is guilty of what offense in a common law jurisdiction?

Choices:
- Conspiracy.
- Conspiracy and larceny.
- Criminal facilitation.
- No crime.
- Conspiracy and accessory to burglary.
- Solicitation to commit a crime.
- Burglary.
- Aiding and abetting.
- Accessory to burglary.
- Larceny.


Question: Two brothers owned a parcel of real estate as joint tenants. Both brothers signed a deed as grantors conveying the land to the buyer. The first brother handed the deed to the second brother with instructions to take the deed to their lawyer for approval prior to delivery. Brother two, without his brother's permission, took the deed directly to the buyer and collected the sale price. Is this a good deed as to partner one?

Choices:
- Yes, the deed was signed by both partners, which proved their intent to sell to buyer, and it was delivered at the time of signing by the fact of affixing their signatures to the document.
- Yes, the deed is valid as the buyer was not aware of the internal agreement between the two brothers.
- No, the deed is invalid as partner one did not give explicit permission for partner two to deliver the deed.
- Yes, the deed is valid as partner two had the authority to finalize the deal.
- No, the deed is invalid because partner two collected the sale price without partner one's consent.
- Yes, the deed is valid as both brothers had signed it, signifying their agreement to the sale.
- Yes, the transfer is valid from both partners because partner two was partner one's apparent agent for purposes of delivering the deed.
- No, the deed was invalid as to both grantors because partner two stepped outside his scope of authority.
- No, the deed cannot bind partner one because he did not participate in the deed delivery to the buyer and did not intend to deliver the deed up to the grantee at that time.
- No, the deed is not valid as the lawyer did not approve it before delivery.


Question: A seller contracted to manufacture 1,000 toasters for a buyer for a specified price. The contract contained a provision that clearly stated: "This contract may not be assigned, and any violation of this prohibition voids the contract." After the contract was signed, the seller informed the buyer that the toasters would be manufactured by a competitor of the seller. Citing the non-assignment provision, the buyer claimed that it was no longer bound by the contract. Toasters manufactured by the competitor were of equal quality to toasters manufactured by the seller. Is the buyer bound by the contract?

Choices:
- Yes, because even though the seller breached the contract, there are no damages since the competitor's toasters are of equal quality to the seller's toasters.
- No, because the seller assigned a right despite the contractual prohibition.
- Yes, because the quality of the toasters did not change even though the manufacturer did.
- No, because the seller violated the contractual prohibition by delegating its duty to a competitor.
- No, because "this contract may not be assigned" means that duties may not be delegated, and the seller delegated a duty.
- No, because the non-assignment clause voids the contract when violated.
- No, because the competitor is not a party to the original contract.
- Yes, because the seller informed the buyer about the change in manufacturer.
- Yes, because the non-assignment provision is not enforceable since public policy favors free assignment and delegation.
- Yes, because the buyer did not explicitly reject the toasters manufactured by the competitor.


Question: A football team entered into a 10-year lease with a city for use of the city's athletic stadium. Five years into the lease, the team threatened to leave the stadium and move to another city. The city sued the team in federal court, seeking a permanent injunction to prevent the team from breaching its lease and leaving. In its answer, the team included a counterclaim seeking $10 million in damages for losses caused by the city's alleged failure to properly maintain the stadium, as the lease required. The team demanded a jury trial on the counterclaim. The city moved to try its claim for a permanent injunction before the trial on the team's counterclaim. The team objected and moved that the jury trial of its counterclaim be held before the trial of the city's injunction claim. How should the court rule on the parties' motions?

Choices:
- The court should first hold a nonjury trial of the city's claim without giving binding effect to its findings or conclusions in the later jury trial of the team's counterclaim.
- The court should first hold a jury trial of the team's counterclaim, and its findings should be binding in the later nonjury trial of the city's claim.
- The court should first hold a nonjury trial of the team's counterclaim, and then a jury trial of the city's claim.
- The court should schedule a jury trial of both the city's claim and the team's counterclaim.
- The court should hold a simultaneous jury trial of the team's counterclaim and nonjury trial of the city's claim.
- The court should first hold a jury trial of the city's claim, and then a nonjury trial of the team's counterclaim.
- The court should first hold a jury trial of the team's counterclaim, and then a nonjury trial of the issues remaining in the city's claim.
- The court should schedule a nonjury trial of both the city's claim and the team's counterclaim.
- The court should first hold a nonjury trial of the city's claim, and then a jury trial of the issues remaining in the team's counterclaim.
- The court should first hold a nonjury trial of the city's claim, and its findings should be binding in the later jury trial of the team's counterclaim.


Question: Discuss echoic memory. How does its nature differ from that of a tape recorder?

Choices:
- Echoic memory is a long-term storage system that archives auditory information in the same format as it was received.
- Echoic memory works just like a tape recorder.
- Echoic memory is a form of memory that captures tactile sensations and stores them for a brief period.
- Echoic memory can store unlimited amounts of auditory information indefinitely, similar to a tape recorder.
- Echoic memory is the medium for the temporary storage of auditory information, with its duration ranging from one to ten seconds. It differs from a tape recorder in that the information stored has been transformed by the mechanisms of the cochlea and perhaps by other processes by the time the storage stage is reached.
- Echoic memory stores visual information.
- Echoic memory compresses auditory information, storing it more efficiently than a tape recorder but for a limited duration.
- Echoic memory retains information for exactly 30 seconds, which is longer than a tape recorder.
- Echoic memory has a fixed duration of 5 seconds.
- Echoic memory has a variable duration that depends on the listener's attention span, unlike a tape recorder's consistent playback length.


Question: What is higher-order (second-order)conditioning ?

Choices:
- Higher-order conditioning is the process of extinguishing a conditioned response
- Higher-order conditioning occurs when a neutral stimulus is paired directly with an unconditioned stimulus without the presence of a conditioned stimulus.
- Higher-order conditioning is based on secondary reinforcement. A neutral stimulus is paired with the conditioned stimulus after that conditioned stimulus can reliably elicit the conditioned response.
- Higher-order conditioning involves introducing a new unconditioned stimulus to alter an existing conditioned response.
- Higher-order conditioning is based on primary reinforcement
- Higher-order conditioning is when a conditioned response is transferred from one organism to another without conditioning the second organism.
- Higher-order conditioning is the simultaneous pairing of multiple conditioned stimuli with a single unconditioned stimulus to produce a stronger conditioned response.
- Higher-order conditioning involves pairing a stimulus with an unconditioned response
- Higher-order conditioning happens when a previously conditioned stimulus is used to reinforce a different behavior without any direct association to the original conditioned response.
- Higher-order conditioning is a process where only unconditioned stimuli are used to create a conditioned response.


Question: What is the role of psychological inconsistency in the theory of cognitive dissonance?

Choices:
- Psychological inconsistency in the theory of cognitive dissonance prompts a person to increase the importance of consistent beliefs or actions.
- Psychological inconsistency in the theory of cognitive dissonance results in a person seeking external validation to justify the dissonant beliefs or actions.
- Psychological inconsistency in the theory of cognitive dissonance leads to a state of equilibrium where dissonant and consonant elements coexist without any change.
- Psychological inconsistency is deemed irrelevant in the theory of cognitive dissonance and has no effect on behavior or attitudes.
- Psychological inconsistency in the theory of cognitive dissonance is an indicator of mental illness.
- Psychological inconsistency in the theory of cognitive dissonance leads to an increase in the dissonant beliefs or actions.
- Psychological inconsistency in the theory of cognitive dissonance is typically resolved through the intervention of a professional therapist.
- Psychological inconsistency in the theory of cognitive dissonance motivates a person to ignore the dissonant elements.
- Psychological inconsistency in the theory of cognitive dissonance is resolved through the development of new, unrelated attitudes or actions.
- Psychological inconsistency in the theory of cognitive dissonance motivates a person to change either the attitude or action that is responsible for the dissonance.


Question: What are the two principal explanations for the limited capacity of short-term memory?

Choices:
- Rehearsal and Forgetting
- Sensory Input and Cognitive Load
- Interference and Time-Decay
- Capacity and Duration
- Chunking and Associative Learning
- Recall and Recognition
- Attention and Distraction
- Encoding and Retrieval
- Working Memory and Long-Term Memory Storage
- Serial Position Effect and Primacy/Recency


Question: What is dormancy? What factors play a role in the termi-nation of dormancy and the germination of a seed?

Choices:
- Dormancy is a process that seeds undergo to enhance their flavor for consumption
- Germination occurs spontaneously, regardless of dormancy or environmental factors
- Dormancy is a state of active growth
- Dormancy can only be terminated by prolonged exposure to light; temperature and moisture have no effect
- Seeds remain dormant until they are submerged in water, which is the only requirement for terminating dormancy and initiating germination
- The termination of dormancy is solely dependent on the seed reaching a certain age, irrespective of environmental conditions
- Dormancy is terminated exclusively by mechanical scarification, without the influence of any environmental cues
- Dormancy is terminated by the onset of colder temperatures
- The germination of a seed is a simple process triggered by a single environmental cue
- Dormancy is a special condition of rest which enables an embryo to survive long periods of un-favorable environmental conditions. The termination of dormancy and the germination of a seed require very precise combinations of environmental cues.


Question: Whatfunctionsare served by sound communication in animals?

Choices:
- Mate attraction, species recognition, defense, and territorial claim
- For heat regulation
- For hunting
- For navigation
- For mineral absorption
- For camouflage
- For echolocation
- For hibernation
- For photosynthesis
- For playing games


Question: The dorsal root of a nerve leading to the leg of a rat is severed. How will this affect the rat? How would the effect vary if the ventral root were severed instead?

Choices:
- Both severing the dorsal and ventral roots cause increased sensation and reflex action.
- Severing the dorsal root causes loss of motor function, severing the ventral root causes enhanced sensation.
- Both severing the dorsal and ventral roots lead to complete paralysis of the affected part.
- Severing the dorsal root causes enhanced movement, severing the ventral root has no effect.
- Severing the dorsal root causes loss of sensation and reflex action, severing the ventral root causes inability to move the affected part.
- Severing the dorsal root has no effect, severing the ventral root causes loss of sensation.
- Severing the dorsal root causes paralysis, severing the ventral root causes heightened sensitivity.
- Severing the dorsal root causes involuntary twitching, severing the ventral root causes loss of reflex action.
- Severing the dorsal root causes increased reflex action, severing the ventral root causes loss of sensation.
- Severing the dorsal root has no effect, severing the ventral root causes paralysis.


Question: High levels of progesterone are essential for the maintenance of the uterine lining during pregnancy. But high levels of progesterone exerts a negative feedback action on LH secretion, with a consequent decrease in LH secretion and eventual atrophy of the corpus luteum. Atrophy of the corpus luteum cuts the progesterone supply resulting in menstruation. Clearly, these events cannot take place after conception, or the embryo would get sloughed off. When conception occurs, the corpus luteum is seen to last through most of pregnancy. How can this be explained?

Choices:
- The endometrium produces a hormone that supports the corpus luteum throughout pregnancy.
- The body naturally adjusts progesterone levels during pregnancy.
- The placenta secretes a hormone, chorionic gonadotrophin, which takes the place of LH in preserving the corpus luteum. This allows the corpus luteum to secrete high levels of progesterone without being shut off.
- The corpus luteum spontaneously increases in size during pregnancy, which maintains progesterone levels without hormonal regulation.
- The corpus luteum is replaced by a secondary organ that secretes progesterone during pregnancy.
- The corpus luteum is not necessary during pregnancy.
- The embryo produces progesterone independently, eliminating the need for the corpus luteum after conception.
- The corpus luteum's lifespan is extended due to increased blood flow to the ovaries during pregnancy.
- The mother's pituitary gland secretes additional LH during pregnancy to maintain the corpus luteum.
- The embryo secretes a hormone to preserve the corpus luteum.


Question: Why would you not expect conjugation among a group of paramecia that had descended from a single individual through repeated fission?

Choices:
- conjugation results in no genetic diversity
- conjugation requires more than two organisms
- all individuals are identical genetically, and conjugation could not occur
- repeated fission in paramecia results in sterile offspring that cannot conjugate
- the group of paramecia lacks the cellular structures necessary for conjugation
- conjugation is only possible in the presence of a specific chemical signal absent in this group
- conjugation is prevented by the environmental conditions in which the paramecia live
- conjugation can occur regardless of genetic similarities
- paramecia descended from a single individual are incapable of conjugation due to a mutation
- conjugation only occurs at a specific time of year which has not yet arrived


Question: What occurs during phases M, G_0, G_1, S, and G_2 of thecell cycle?

Choices:
- M phase is the phase for cell growth, G_0 is a phase for temporary cell arrest, G_1 is for organelle duplication, S phase is for RNA transcription, and G_2 is the phase before cell division.
- M phase is for cellular resting, G_0 is the phase where the cell divides, G_1 is for DNA repair, S phase is for protein synthesis, and G_2 is for organelle production.
- M phase is for the assembly of ribosomes, G_0 is the phase for nutrient storage, G_1 is for the synthesis of cellular proteins, S phase is for the replication of mitochondria, and G_2 is for the breakdown of nuclear membrane.
- M phase is for the duplication of cell content, G_0 is the phase for metabolic activity, G_1 is for nutrient absorption, S phase is for spindle fiber formation, and G_2 is the phase where the cell checks for DNA errors.
- M phase is the phase where the cell prepares for mitosis, G_0 is a quiescent phase for non-dividing cells, G_1 is the phase after M where cells decide whether to enter the cycle, S phase is for DNA synthesis, and G_2 is for mitosis.
- M phase is for the cell to perform its specialized functions, G_0 is a phase for cellular aging, G_1 is for DNA degradation, S phase is for the synthesis of lipids, and G_2 is for the alignment of chromosomes.
- M phase is for DNA synthesis, G_0 is a quiescent phase for non-dividing cells, G_1 is the phase after M where cells decide whether to enter the cycle, S phase is for mitosis, and G_2 is the phase where the cell prepares for division.
- M phase is mitosis, G_0 is a quiescent phase for non-dividing cells, G_1 is the phase after M where cells decide whether to enter the cycle, S phase is for DNA synthesis, and G_2 is the phase where the cell prepares for mitosis.
- M phase is the phase after M where cells decide whether to enter the cycle, G_0 is a quiescent phase for non-dividing cells, G_1 is for DNA synthesis, S phase is for mitosis, and G_2 is the phase where the cell prepares for division.
- M phase is for RNA transcription, G_0 is a quiescent phase for dividing cells, G_1 is the phase where the cell grows in size, S phase is for chromosome pairing, and G_2 is for DNA proofreading.


Question: The antisense (noncoding) strand of DNA is 5' ATG GAT AAA GIT TTA AAC AGA GAG GAA TCT 3' What is the a)sensestrand? b)mRNAtranscribed? c)polypeptidechain that is translated?

Choices:
- 3' TAG GAT AAA GCT TTA AAC AGA GAG GAA TCT 5', 5' AUC CUA UUU CGA AAU UUG UCU CUC CUU AGA 3', Ile-Leu-Phe-Arg-Asn-Leu-Ser-Leu-Leu-Arg
- 3' TAC CTA TTT CAA AAT TTG TCT CTC CTTAGA 5', 5' AUG GAU AAA GUU UUA AAC AGA GAG GAA UCU 3', Met-Asp-Lys-Val-Leu-Asn-Arg-Glu
- 3' TAC CTA TTT CAA AAT TTG TCT CTC CTT AGA 5', 5' AUG GAU AAA GUU UUA AAC AGA GAG GAA UCU 3', Met-Asp-Lys-Val-Leu-Asn-Arg-Glu
- 3' ATG GAT AAA GIT TTA AAC AGA GAG GAA TCT 5', 5' UAC CUA UUU GUA AAU UUG UCU CUC CUU AGA 3', Tyr-Leu-Phe-Val-Asn-Leu-Ser-Leu-Leu-Arg
- 3' UAC CUA UUU CAA AAT TTG TCT CTC CTT AGA 5', 5' AUG GAU AAA GUC UUA AAC AGA GAG GAA UCU 3', Met-Asp-Lys-Val-Leu-Asn-Arg-Glu-Glu-Ser
- 3' TAC CTA TTT CAA AAT TTG TCT CTC CTTAGA 5', 5' AUG GAU AAA GUU UUA AAC AGA GAG GAA UCU 3', Met-Asp-Lys-Val-Leu-Asn-Arg-Glu-Glu
- 3' TAG GAT AAA GIT TTA AAC AGA GAG GAA TCT 5', 5' AUG GAU AAA GUU UUA AAC AGA GAG GAA UCU 3', Met-Asp-Lys-Val-Leu-Asn-Arg-Glu-Glu-Ser
- 3' TAC CTA TTT CAA AAT TTG TCT CTC CTTAGA 5', 5' AUG GAU AAA GUU UUA AAC AGA GAG GAA UCU 3', Met-Asp-Lys-Val-Leu-Asn-Arg-Glu-Glu-Ser
- 3' TAC CTA TTT CAA AAT TTG TCT CTC CTTAGA 5', 5' AUG GAU AAA GUU UUA AAC AGA GAG GAA UCU 3', Met-Asp-Lys-Val-Leu-Asn


Question: What is the physiological basis of allergies? What measures can be taken to decrease the effect of allergies?

Choices:
- Allergies are adverse immunological responses to antigens. Antihistamines and desensitization therapy can help decrease the effect of allergies.
- Allergies are triggered by the body's overproduction of white blood cells. Avoiding allergens and taking vitamin supplements can decrease the effect of allergies.
- Allergies are caused by genetic mutations and can be minimized by regular exercise and a healthy diet.
- Allergies can be fully cured with antihistamines.
- Allergies are caused by exposure to pathogens.
- Allergies develop due to an overactive nervous system. Beta-blockers and nerve-calming medications can help mitigate the effects of allergies.
- Allergies are a result of lack of immune response.
- Allergies are psychosomatic and can be managed through stress reduction techniques and meditation.
- Allergies result from the body's inability to produce sufficient antibodies. Immunoglobulin therapy can help decrease the effect of allergies.
- Allergies are the body's natural response to environmental pollutants. Using air purifiers and avoiding outdoor activities can reduce allergy symptoms.


Question: How many moles are there in one atom?

Choices:
- 2 moles
- 0 moles
- 3.01 × 10^-23 moles
- 12.04 × 10^23 moles
- 1.66 × 10^-24 moles
- 5 × 10^-23 moles
- 1 mole
- 8.31 × 10^-24 moles
- 6.02 × 10^23 moles
- 0.5 moles


Question: In a given chemical compound, there is a bond between "A" and "B". Theelectronegativitiesofthe involved elements are , respectively, 1.2 and 2.1 What is the probable nature of the bond between "A" and "B"?

Choices:
- Polar bond
- Dipole-dipole bond
- Ionic bond
- Covalent bond
- Hydrogen bond
- Metallic bond
- Pi bond
- Van der Waals bond
- Sigma bond
- Covalent network bond


Question: A recipe for artificial sea water is NaCl, 26.518 g/kg; MgCl_2, 2.447 g/kg; MgSO_4, 3.305 g/kg; CaCl_2, 1.141 g/kg; KCl, .725 g/kg; NaHCO_3, .202 g/kg; NaBr, .083 g/kg. All of these salts are dissolved in water to make a total weight of 1000 g. What are the chlorinity and salinity of the solution?

Choices:
- 1.7% chlorinity, 3.2% salinity
- 2.1% chlorinity, 3.5% salinity
- 1.7% chlorinity, 3.8% salinity
- 2.0% chlorinity, 3.6% salinity
- 1.9% chlorinity, 3.433% salinity
- 1.6% chlorinity, 3.3% salinity
- 2.2% chlorinity, 3.7% salinity
- 2.1% chlorinity, 3.2% salinity
- 1.9% chlorinity, 3.5% salinity
- 1.8% chlorinity, 3.1% salinity


Question: K_dissof water for 2H_2O \rightleftarrows H_3O^+ + OH^- changes from 1.0 × 10^-14 at 25°C to 9.62 × 10^-14 at 60°C. Does the pH of water or its neutrality change when the temperature is increased from 25°C to 60°C?

Choices:
- Neutrality changes, with water becoming more basic, while pH remains constant
- Only pH changes, but the value increases
- pH decreases slightly, while neutrality remains the same
- Neither pH nor neutrality change
- pH doesn't change, neutrality changes
- Only neutrality changes, but the water becomes more acidic
- pH changes, neutrality doesn't
- Both pH and neutrality change, with water becoming more acidic
- Both pH and neutrality change
- Both pH and neutrality remain constant, but the concentration of H_3O^+ increases


Question: Assume all gases are perfect unless stated otherwise. Unless otherwise stated, thermodynamic data are for 298.15 K. When $120 \mathrm{mg}$ of naphthalene, $\mathrm{C}_{10} \mathrm{H}_8(\mathrm{~s})$, was burned in a bomb calorimeter the temperature rose by $3.05 \mathrm{~K}$. By how much will the temperature rise when $10 \mathrm{mg}$ of phenol, $\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{OH}(\mathrm{s})$, is burned in the calorimeter under the same conditions?

Choices:
- 50.0$\text{K}$
- 150$\text{K}$
- 75.0$\text{K}$
- 205$\text{K}$
- 235$\text{K}$
- 180$\text{K}$
- 300.0$\text{K}$
- 400.0$\text{K}$
- 122.5$\text{K}$
- 25.5$\text{K}$


Question: At 273°K and 1atm, 1 liter of N_2O_4 decomposes to NO_2 according to the equation N_2O_4\rightleftarrows 2NO_2. To what extent has decomposition proceeded when the original volume is 25 percent less than the existing volume?

Choices:
- 33% decomposition
- 80% decomposition
- 90% decomposition
- 75% decomposition
- 66% decomposition
- 10% decomposition
- 40% decomposition
- 50% decomposition
- 25% decomposition
- 60% decomposition


Question: The root mean square (rms) speed of hydrogen (H_2) at a fixed temperature, T, is 1600 m/sec. What is thermsspeed of oxygen (O_2) at the same temperature?

Choices:
- 400 m/sec
- 800 m/sec
- 1400 m/sec
- 1000 m/sec
- 1200 m/sec
- 1600 m/sec
- 1800 m/sec
- 2000 m/sec
- 3200 m/sec
- 600 m/sec


Question: Liquid helium boils at 4°K. What is the boilingtemperature onthe Fahrenheit scale?

Choices:
- -202°F
- 269°F
- 4°F
- -452°F
- 32°F
- -306°F
- -424°F
- -273°F
- -242°F
- -488°F


Question: Decker a 62-year-old single individual sold his principal residence for the net amount of $500000 after all selling expenses. Decker bought the house 15 years ago and occupied it until it was sold. On the date of sale the house had a cost basis of $200000. Within six months Decker purchased a new house for $600000. What amount of gain should Decker recognize from the sale of the residence?

Choices:
- $50,000
- $150,000
- $300,000
- $0
- $350,000
- $250,000
- $100,000
- $200,000
- $175,000
- 300000


Question: As of 2017, what fraction of the population in India used the internet in the past three months?

Choices:
- 37%
- 33%
- 22%
- 60%
- 15%
- 48%
- 56%
- 41%
- 11%
- 26%


Question: At the equator how fast is the earth's surface turning?

Choices:
- about 2500 miles per hour
- about 3000 miles per hour
- about 3500 miles per hour
- about 100 miles per hour
- about 2000 miles per hour
- about 500 miles per hour
- about 1500 miles per hour
- about 750 miles per hour
- about 1000 miles per hour
- about 200 miles per hour


Question: Phoebe Dione and Helene are moons of what planet?

Choices:
- Saturn
- Pluto
- Neptune
- Mars
- Earth
- Venus
- Mercury
- The Sun
- Jupiter
- Uranus


Question: To what extent can societal identity be defended militarily?

Choices:
- If a threat posed by one group to another is military - particularly when linked to the defence of the historic homeland - armed response is required. At the intra-state level, many societal groups have no such means of armed protection and are compelled to employ non-military counter-measures.
- Intra-state collectives faced with a political or military threat to their identity will form their own militia or defensive force as a means of protection. This results in the establishment of quasi-states which may undermine the territorial integrity of the nation.
- Being aligned with the state, society has immediate and unequivocal access to the use of state forces (in the form of military retaliation) if there is a threat to societal security.
- Societal groups do not face military threats; being constituted by identity and social cohesion, military forces are not engaged against societal groups in any meaningful way.


Question: What pro wrestler grapples with Sylvester Stallone in the movie-'Rocky III'?

Choices:
- Dolph Lundgren
- Ric Flair
- The Rock
- John Cena
- Randy Savage
- Andre the Giant
- Stone Cold Steve Austin
- The Iron Sheik
- Undertaker
- Hulk Hogan


Question: The covariance between Stock A and the market index is 88, while their standard deviations are respectively 19% and 14%. What is the beta of Stock A?

Choices:
- 0.75
- 0.95
- 0.65
- 0.55
- 0.24
- 1.05
- 0.245
- 0.85
- 0.35
- 0.45


Question: How many children between the ages of 5-14 worked globally as of 2012?

Choices:
- 5 million
- 500 million
- 30 million
- 150 million
- 75 million
- 250 million
- 200 million
- 100 million
- 400 million
- 1 billion


Question: Smith has an adjusted gross income (AGI) of $120,000 without taking into consideration $40,000 of losses from rental real estate activities. Smith actively participates in the rental real estate activities. What amount of the rental losses may Smith deduct in determining taxable income?

Choices:
- $15,000
- $50,000
- $30,000
- $5,000
- $20,000
- $0
- $35,000
- $25,000
- $40,000
- $10,000


Question: If the human norovirus cannot be cultured in cell cultures how can it best be studied?

Choices:
- Volunteer studies
- Animal studies using non-human primates
- Through computer simulation models of the virus
- By studying the virus's effect on plant cells
- In cells using replicon systems
- Animal models
- By isolating the virus in a laboratory setting
- In cells using non-replicon systems
- Deductions from the 3 human ORF's of the virus genome


Question: What are the major forms of money in use?

Choices:
- Gold, silver, bronze
- Cryptocurrencies, gift cards, electronic transfers
- Paper money, barter systems, digital wallets
- Bonds, stocks, commodities
- Digital currencies, credit cards, mobile payments
- Virtual currency, promissory notes, IOUs
- Checks, money orders, treasury notes
- Credit cards, debit cards, cash
- Fractional currency, paper money, checkbook money
- Banknotes, coins, electronic bank transfers


Question: What is the 'trading possibilities frontier' ?

Choices:
- It is a term for the trade deficit of a nation.
- The trading possibilities frontier defines the legal limitations on the quantity of goods a nation can export.
- It is the maximum trade capacity of a country.
- It is the set of all trade agreements a country is a part of.
- The trading possibilities frontier is the graphical representation of a country's currency value against others.
- The trading possibilities frontier illustrates the potential output of a nation after the gains from trade are taken into account.
- It is a measure of the volume of trade that can flow through a nation's infrastructure.
- It represents the balance of trade equilibrium for a specific country.
- The trading possibilities frontier describes the range of products a country is capable of importing without incurring debt.
- It refers to the physical boundary for trading goods and services.


Question: Consider an identical situation to that of question 21, except that now a 2-sided alternative is used. What would now be the appropriate conclusion?

Choices:
- H0 is rejected
- H0 is not rejected
- H1 is rejected
- There is insufficient information given in the question to reach a conclusion


Question: Why do economists make seasonal adjustmentsin economic data before trying to isolate long-term trends?

Choices:
- To differentiate between urban and rural economic activity
- To calculate economic growth
- To understand consumer behavior
- To gain a more accurate picture of the actual trend
- To adjust for variations in weather patterns
- To account for short-term market fluctuations
- To predict future economic situations
- To prepare for upcoming financial crises
- To correct for data collection errors
- To align with fiscal policy changes


Question: If the government of country Z increases spending by $12 million dollars and raises tax collections by the same amount then what will be the overall impact of these moves on real GDP in country Z?

Choices:
- Real GDP will remain unchanged but inflation will increase.
- Real GDP will increase by $24 million.
- Real GDP will decrease by $12 million.
- Real GDP will increase by $12 million.
- Real GDP will decrease by $18 million.
- Real GDP will remain unchanged.
- Real GDP will decrease by $6 million.
- Real GDP will increase by $6 million.
- Real GDP will decrease, but inflation will decrease as well.
- Real GDP will increase by $18 million.


Question: What is the main difference between the Dickey Fuller (DF) and Phillips-Perron (PP) approaches to unit root testing?

Choices:
- The DF test incorporates an automatic correction for non-stationary data in the test regression
- PP test requires a priori knowledge of the lag length whereas DF test does not
- PP tests have good power in small samples whereas DF tests do not.
- ADF is a single equation approach to unit root testing while PP is a systems approach
- DF test is generally used for larger datasets, while the PP test is used for smaller ones
- PP tests assume the presence of unit root under the null hypothesis whereas DF tests do not
- PP tests reverse the DF null and alternative hypotheses so that there is stationarity under the null hypothesis of the PP test
- DF test requires larger sample size than the PP test for accurate results
- The PP test incorporates an automatic correction for autocorrelated residuals in the test regression
- DF test is non-parametric whereas PP test is parametric


Question: What is Market Socialism?

Choices:
- An economic system incorporating features of capitalistic markets and socialist planning, characterized by state ownership of land and capital, state-determined investment, market-set wages, and some income redistribution.
- A system where the market dictates all aspects of the economy, including social welfare and public goods provision
- An economic system characterized by complete state ownership of all industries, with prices and production centrally planned
- A purely capitalistic system
- A theoretical model where private individuals own resources and engage in voluntary exchanges, but profits are redistributed by the state
- A mixed economic system with equal distribution of personal wealth regardless of individual contribution or market dynamics
- An economic system where the government solely determines production, investment, and prices without any market influence
- A system with no state intervention
- A system where only the private sector determines investment
- A form of socialism with worker-managed firms competing in free markets without any government intervention


Question: In what ways is contractionary fiscal policy in the United States likely to affect domestic interest rates and the international value of the dollar?

Choices:
- Interest rates increase and the dollar depreciates.
- Interest rates remain the same and the dollar depreciates.
- Interest rates decrease and the dollar appreciates.
- Interest rates and the value of the dollar both remain the same.
- Interest rates increase but the value of the dollar remains the same.
- Interest rates remain the same and the dollar appreciates.
- There is no predictable effect on either interest rates or the value of the dollar.
- Interest rates decrease and the dollar depreciates.
- Interest rates increase and the dollar appreciates.
- Interest rates decrease but the value of the dollar remains the same.


Question: When the capital/output ratio for the annual output is 2, what isit for quarterly output?

Choices:
- 10
- 5
- 0.5
- 3
- 2
- 4
- 7
- 1
- 6
- 8


Question: Suppose that the graph of a certain function, $y=f(x)$, has the property that if it is shifted $20$ units to the right, then the resulting graph is identical to the original graph of $y=f(x)$. What is the smallest positive $a$ such that if the graph of $y=f\left(\frac x5\right)$ is shifted $a$ units to the right, then we know that the resulting graph is identical to the original graph of $y=f\left(\frac x5\right)$?

Choices:
- 50
- 15
- 5
- 30
- 10
- 200
- 100
- 25
- 20
- 4


Question: What is 123 / 8?

Choices:
- 15 remainder 1
- 15 remainder 3
- 15 remainder 7
- 16 remainder 1
- 16 remainder 7
- 17 remainder 2
- 16 remainder 5
- 14 remainder 7
- 16 remainder 3
- 15 remainder 5


Question: A model of a park was built on a scale of 1.5 centimeters to 50 meters. If the distance between two trees in the park is 150 meters, what is this distance on the model?

Choices:
- 6 centimeters
- 150 centimeters
- 0.5 centimeter
- 9 centimeters
- 225 centimeters
- 4.5 centimeters
- 50 centimeters
- 2.25 centimeters
- 12.5 centimeters
- 75 centimeters


Question: Fei Yen’s dog eats 8 ounces of dog food each day. Fei Yen bought a 28-pound bag of dog food. How many 8-ounce servings are in a 28-pound bag of dog food?

Choices:
- 280
- 700
- 224
- 14
- 500
- 350
- 56
- 112
- 448
- 896


Question: Suppose that $A, B$, and $C$ are mutually independent events and that $P(A)=0.5, P(B)=0.8$, and $P(C)=$ 0.9 . Find the probabilities that all three events occur?

Choices:
- 0.58
- 0.72
- 0.3
- 0.24
- 0.1
- 0.4
- 0.45
- 0.9
- 0.36
- 0.5


Question: The orbit of Halley's comet, last seen in 1986 and due to return in 2062, is an ellipse with eccentricity 0.97 and one focus at the sun. The length of its major axis is $36.18 \mathrm{AU}$. [An astronomical unit (AU) is the mean distance between the earth and the sun, about 93 million miles.] Find a polar equation for the orbit of Halley's comet. What is the maximum distance from the comet to the sun?

Choices:
- 32.10 $\mathrm{AU}$
- 37.86 $\mathrm{AU}$
- 29.85 $\mathrm{AU}$
- 31.50 $\mathrm{AU}$
- 33.25 $\mathrm{AU}$
- 38.76 $\mathrm{AU}$
- 40.22 $\mathrm{AU}$
- 28.93 $\mathrm{AU}$
- 34.52 $\mathrm{AU}$
- 35.64 $\mathrm{AU}$


Question: Suppose you did 10 independent tests of the form H0: μ = 25 versus Ha: μ < 25, each at the α = 0.05 significance level. What is the probability of committing a Type I error and incorrectly rejecting a true H0 with at least one of the 10 tests?

Choices:
- 0.60
- 0.50
- 0.30
- 0.05
- 1.00
- 0.70
- 0.10
- 0.20
- 0.80
- 0.40


Question: \lim_{x \to c} |f(x)| = 0. What is \lim_{x \to c} f(x)?

Choices:
- \infty (infinity)
- Does not exist
- 1
- Undefined
- -1
- c
- |c|
- 0
- -c
- \frac{1}{c} (1 over c)


Question: At West Elementary School, there are 20 more girls than boys. If there are 180 girls, how can you find the number of boys?

Choices:
- divide 20 by 180
- add 180 to 20
- multiply 180 by 20
- multiply 180 by 2
- divide 180 by 20
- subtract 20 from 20
- add 20 to 180
- subtract 20 from 180
- multiply 20 by 180
- subtract 180 from 20


Question: What is the order of the group S_3 * Z_2?

Choices:
- 20
- 4
- 8
- 18
- 24
- 6
- 10
- 12
- 14
- 16


Question: When a patient complains to the doctor about a certain set of symptoms, the doctor diagnoses the patient with Condition A 15% of the time. If a patient with these symptoms is diagnosed with Condition A, he or she is diagnosed with Condition B 70% of the time. A patient with these symptoms that is not diagnosed with Condition A is diagnosed with Condition B 10% of the time. What is the probability that a patient with this set of symptoms will be diagnosed with at least one of these conditions?

Choices:
- 0.80
- 0.765
- 0.90
- 0.70
- 0.25
- 0.50
- 0.15
- 0.85
- 0.235
- 0.10


Question: What is the ones digit of $1 \cdot 2 \cdot 3 \cdot 4 \cdot 5 \cdot 6 \cdot 7 \cdot 8 \cdot 9$?

Choices:
- 9
- 8
- 0
- 1
- 6
- 5
- 3
- 2
- 4
- 7


Question: If $P(A)=0.8, P(B)=0.5$, and $P(A \cup B)=0.9$. What is $P(A \cap B)$?

Choices:
- 0.9
- 0.1
- 1.3
- 0.2
- 0.3
- 0.7
- 0.4
- 0.8
- 0.6
- 0.5


Question: In a group of 1000 people, at least how many people have to share the same birthday?

Choices:
- At least 50 people
- At least 23 people
- At least 100 people
- 20
- At least 5 people
- 10
- At least 367 people
- 2
- At least 1 person
- 3


Question: If the parabola $y_1 = x^2 + 2x + 7$ and the line $y_2 = 6x + b$ intersect at only one point, what is the value of $b$?

Choices:
- 10
- 5
- 3
- 12
- 4
- 6
- 8
- 7
- 2
- 9


Question: A grain of sand has a mass of 10^-5 gram. Through what heightmust it fall from rest in order to have a kinetic energy equalto the energy of a quantum of visible light with a frequencyof 5 × 10^14 sec^-1 ?

Choices:
- 4.2 × 10^-10 cm
- 7.5 × 10^-10 cm
- 2.5 × 10^-10 cm
- 8.0 × 10^-11 cm
- 3.38 × 10^-10 cm
- 1.5 × 10^-10 cm
- 2.0 × 10^-9 cm
- 6.0 × 10^-10 cm
- 3.0 × 10^-10 cm
- 5 × 10^-10 cm


Question:
"Top gun" pilots have long worried about taking a turn too tightly. As a pilot's body undergoes centripetal acceleration, with the head toward the center of curvature, the blood pressure in the brain decreases, leading to loss of brain function.
There are several warning signs. When the centripetal acceleration is $2 g$ or $3 g$, the pilot feels heavy. At about $4 g$, the pilot's vision switches to black and white and narrows to "tunnel vision." If that acceleration is sustained or increased, vision ceases and, soon after, the pilot is unconscious - a condition known as $g$-LOC for " $g$-induced loss of consciousness."

What is the magnitude of the acceleration, in $g$ units, of a pilot whose aircraft enters a horizontal circular turn with a velocity of $\vec{v}_i=(400 \hat{\mathrm{i}}+500 \hat{\mathrm{j}}) \mathrm{m} / \mathrm{s}$ and $24.0 \mathrm{~s}$ later leaves the turn with a velocity of $\vec{v}_f=(-400 \hat{\mathrm{i}}-500 \hat{\mathrm{j}}) \mathrm{m} / \mathrm{s}$ ?

Choices:
- 95.67 $\mathrm{m} / \mathrm{s}^2$
- 62.48 $\mathrm{m} / \mathrm{s}^2$
- 83.81 $\mathrm{m} / \mathrm{s}^2$
- 72.14 $\mathrm{m} / \mathrm{s}^2$
- 110.87 $\mathrm{m} / \mathrm{s}^2$
- 75.19 $\mathrm{m} / \mathrm{s}^2$
- 100.56 $\mathrm{m} / \mathrm{s}^2$
- 55.92 $\mathrm{m} / \mathrm{s}^2$
- 90.43 $\mathrm{m} / \mathrm{s}^2$
- 68.25 $\mathrm{m} / \mathrm{s}^2$


Question: The force required to start a mass of 50 kilograms moving over a rough surface is 343 Nt. What is the coefficient of starting friction?

Choices:
- 0.75
- 0.40
- 0.55
- 0.65
- 0.50
- 0.85
- 0.90
- 0.70
- 0.60
- 0.80


Question: A 1.4447-gm sample of coal is burned in an oxygen-bomb calorimeter. The rise in temperature of the bomb (mass m_c) and the water surrounding it (mass m_w) is 7.795 F0 = 4.331C0. The water equivalent of the calo-rimeter [= m_w + m_c(c_c/c_w)] is 2511 gm. What is the heating value of the coal sample?

Choices:
- 7,000 [Btu/Ib]
- 15,000 [Btu/Ib]
- 7525 (cal/gm)
- 13,520 [Btu/Ib]
- 10,875 cal
- 8,200 cal/gm
- 4.331 C0
- 9,250 [Btu/Ib]
- 6,500 cal
- 12,000 cal/gm


Question: What is true for a type-Ia ("type one-a") supernova?

Choices:
- This type occurs in binary systems.
- This type produces high amounts of X-rays.
- This type produces no observable light.
- This type occurs in old galaxies.
- This type produces high amounts of infrared light.
- This type produces high amounts of ultraviolet light.
- This type occurs only in our galaxy.
- This type occurs in isolated stars.
- This type occurs in young galaxies.
- This type produces gamma-ray bursts.


Question: The Space Shuttle orbits 300 km above the Earth’s surface; the Earth’s radius is 6400 km. What is the acceleration due to Earth’s gravity experienced by the Space Shuttle?

Choices:
- 7.9 m/s^2
- 8.9 m/s^2
- 3.9 m/s^2
- 10.8 m/s^2
- 11.8 m/s^2
- 4.9 m/s^2
- 5.9 m/s^2
- 6.9 m/s^2
- 12.8 m/s^2
- 9.8 m/s^2


Question: An isolated conductor has net charge $+10 \times 10^{-6} \mathrm{C}$ and a cavity with a particle of charge $q=+3.0 \times 10^{-6} \mathrm{C}$. What is the charge on the cavity wall?

Choices:
- $-13.0 \times 10^{-6} \mathrm{C}$
- $-3.0$$10^{-6} \mathrm{C} $
- $-10 \times 10^{-6} \mathrm{C}$
- $+6.0 \times 10^{-6} \mathrm{C}$
- $-7.0 \times 10^{-6} \mathrm{C}$
- $+10 \times 10^{-6} \mathrm{C}$
- $+3.0 \times 10^{-6} \mathrm{C}$
- $0 \mathrm{C}$ (zero charge)
- $+7.0 \times 10^{-6} \mathrm{C}$
- $+13.0 \times 10^{-6} \mathrm{C}$


Question: Two motorcycles are at rest and separated by 24.5 ft. They start at the same time in the same direction, the one in the back having an acceleration of 3 ft/sec^2, the one in the front going slower at an acceleration of 2 ft/sec^2. (a) How long does it take for the faster cycle to overtake the slower, (b)How far does the faster machine go before it catches up? (c) How fast is each cycle going at this time?

Choices:
- (a) 8 sec, (b) 75 ft, (c) 22 ft/sec and 15 ft/sec
- (a) 7 sec, (b) 75 ft, (c) 21 ft/sec and 15 ft/sec
- (a) 8 sec, (b) 80 ft, (c) 24 ft/sec and 16 ft/sec
- (a) 9 sec, (b) 81 ft, (c) 23 ft/sec and 18 ft/sec
- (a) 7 sec, (b) 73.5 ft, (c) 21 ft/sec and 14 ft/sec
- (a) 6.5 sec, (b) 71 ft, (c) 19.5 ft/sec and 13 ft/sec
- (a) 6 sec, (b) 70 ft, (c) 20 ft/sec and 12 ft/sec
- (a) 10 sec, (b) 90 ft, (c) 25 ft/sec and 20 ft/sec
- (a) 5 sec, (b) 60 ft, (c) 18 ft/sec and 10 ft/sec
- (a) 7.5 sec, (b) 78 ft, (c) 22.5 ft/sec and 15 ft/sec


Question: Suppose a student who was farsighted wears glasses that allows him to read at a distance of 20cm from his eyes to the book. His near-point distance is 63cm. If his glasses are 1.5cm from his eyes, what is the refractive power of his glasses lenses?

Choices:
- 4.5
- 2.0
- 3.846
- 4.0
- 4.346
- 2.5
- 2.846
- 5.0
- 3.5
- 3.0


Question: The mass of one of the small spheres of a Cavendish balance is 0.0100 kg, the mass of the nearest large sphere is 0.500 kg, and the center-to-center distance between them is 0.0500 m. Assuming the gravitational force on each sphere due to the other is $X * 10^{-10}$ N, what is X?

Choices:
- 2.67
- 1.33
- 0.89
- 1.75
- 1.50
- 0.67
- 3.00
- 0.50
- 2.10
- 2.45


Question: How fast does light travel in glass of refractive index 1.5?

Choices:
- 2.00 × 10^10 cm/sec
- 1.50 × 10^10 cm/sec
- 1.75 × 10^10 cm/sec
- 2.50 × 10^10 cm/sec
- 2.25 × 10^10 cm/sec
- 1.33 × 10^10 cm/sec
- 3.50 × 10^10 cm/sec
- 1.00 × 10^10 cm/sec
- 3.00 × 10^10 cm/sec
- 2.99 × 10^10 cm/sec


Question: 1) What is the short-wave limit of the continuous x-ray spectrum produced by an x-ray tube operating at 30,000 volts? 2) What is the wavelength of the shortest x-rays that could be produced by a Van deGraaffgenerator developing 5,000,000 volts?

Choices:
- 0.214 A degree and 2.18 x 10- 3A degree
- 0.414 Å and 3.48 x 10^-3 Å
- 0.514 A degree and 3.48 x 10- 3A degree
- 0.514 Å and 1.98 x 10^-3 Å
- 0.414 A degree and 2.48 x 10- 3A degree
- 0.214 Å and 1.28 x 10^-3 Å
- 0.314 A degree and 1.48 x 10- 3A degree
- 0.314 Å and 2.98 x 10^-3 Å
- 0.614 Å and 4.48 x 10^-3 Å
- 0.114 Å and 0.58 x 10^-3 Å


Question: An electron with angular momentum L = 6 × 10^-35 N-sec and total energy H_0 = -4 × 10^-18 J is in orbit around a proton. What are the distance of nearest approach and farthest separation?

Choices:
- 1.05 × 10^-9 m and 4.71 × 10^-9 m
- 5.25 × 10^-11 m and 2.35 × 10^-11 m
- 5.25 × 10^-10 m and 2.35 × 10^-10 m
- 2.10 × 10^-11 m and 8.84 × 10^-11 m
- 1.05 × 10^-12 m and 4.71 × 10^-12 m
- 1.05 × 10^-12 m and 4.71 × 10^-11 m
- 1.05 × 10^-11 m and 4.71 × 10^-11 m
- 1.05 × 10^-10 m and 4.71 × 10^-10 m
- 1.05 × 10^-11 m and 4.71 × 10^-12 m
- 2.10 × 10^-10 m and 9.42 × 10^-10 m


Question: If light of wavelength 635 nm causes a certain amount of Rayleigh scattering, light of what wavelength will give exactly 10 times as much scattering?

Choices:
- 700 nm
- 450 nm
- 750 nm
- 300 nm
- 357 nm
- 590 nm
- 500 nm
- 200 nm
- 400 nm
- 635 nm


Question: The sodium doublet has wavelength of 589.0 nm and 589.6 nm. If the diffraction grating is blazed so as to be used best in the second order, at least how many lines must the grating have in order to resolve the doublet?

Choices:
- 560 lines
- 520 lines
- 500 lines
- 600 lines
- 470 lines
- 450 lines
- 480 lines
- 510 lines
- 430 lines
- 491 lines


Question: What is the Cassini division of Saturn's rings?

Choices:
- a cluster of small moonlets within the ring system
- the outermost ring of Saturn, composed of ice and rock particles
- the widest ring of Saturn located between two large ring gaps
- a large gap visible from Earth produced by an orbital resonance with the moon Mimas
- a dark ring visible from Earth composed of dark dusty particles
- a bright ring formed by a concentration of icy particles in Saturn's magnetic field
- a small gap in the ring system caused by the moon Titan's gravitational influence
- a narrow band of ringlets located outside the A Ring
- the most opaque ring of Saturn made of highly reflective ice particles
- a region of the ring system that's unaffected by Saturn's gravitational pull


Question: Imagine gaseous $\mathrm{Ar}$ at $298 \mathrm{~K}$ confined to move in a two-dimensional plane of area $1.00 \mathrm{~cm}^2$. What is the value of the translational partition function?

Choices:
- 7.5 x $10^{16}$
- 1.2 x $10^{18}$
- 3.9 $10^{17}$
- 5.3 $10^{17}$
- 2.1 $10^{17}$
- 1.0 x $10^{18}$
- 4.6 $10^{17}$
- 6.7 x $10^{17}$
- 9.8 x $10^{17}$
- 2.8 x $10^{17}$


Question: What is the resistance of a piece ofnichromewire 225 centimeters long with a cross-sectional area of 0.015 square centimeter?

Choices:
- 15 ohms
- 1.5 ohms
- 2.25 ohms
- 50 ohms
- 0.15 ohms
- 225 ohms
- 0.225 ohms
- 0.015 ohms
- 150 ohms
- 100 ohms


Question: Earth's atmosphere is constantly bombarded by cosmic ray protons that originate somewhere in space. If the protons all passed through the atmosphere, each square meter of Earth's surface would intercept protons at the average rate of 1500 protons per second. What would be the electric current intercepted by the total surface area of the planet?

Choices:
- $145$ $\mathrm{~mA}$
- $110$ $\mathrm{~mA}$
- $175$ $\mathrm{~mA}$
- $250$ $\mathrm{~mA}$
- $98$ $\mathrm{~mA}$
- $122$ $\mathrm{~mA}$
- $200$ $\mathrm{~mA}$
- $65$ $\mathrm{~mA}$
- $150$ $\mathrm{~mA}$
- $80$ $\mathrm{~mA}$


Question: An electric motor has a label on it that reads: Input: 120V AC, 1.0 Amps, 60 Hz - Efficiency - 75%. At what constant speed can the motor lift up a 6 kg mass?

Choices:
- 0.75 m/s
- 1.5 m/s
- 0.3 m/s
- 2.0 m/s
- 1.25 m/s
- 3.0 m/s
- 2.2 m/s
- 2.5 m/s
- 1.0 m/s
- 0.5 m/s


Question: If an atom remains in an excited state for 10^-8 sec, what is the uncertainty in the energy of that state?

Choices:
- 7.5 x 10^-20 ergs
- 8.0 x 10^-18 ergs
- 1.0 x 10^-17 ergs
- 6.6 x 10^-21 ergs
- 6.6 x 10^-19 ergs
- 5.0 x 10^-19 ergs
- 6.6 x 10^-20 ergs
- 6.6 x 10^-18 ergs
- 4.4 x 10^-19 ergs
- 9.9 x 10^-20 ergs


Question: How many electrons would have to be removed from a coin to leave it with a charge of $+1.0 \times 10^{-7} \mathrm{C}$ ?

Choices:
- $8.5 \times 10^{11}$
- $7.1 \times 10^{11}$
- $7.5 \times 10^{11}$
- $9.2 \times 10^{11}$
- $3.8 \times 10^{11}$
- $4.5 \times 10^{11}$
- $6.3$$10^{11}$
- $5.0 \times 10^{11}$
- $8.0 \times 10^{11}$
- $6.9 \times 10^{11}$


Question: A beam of electrons has speed 10^7 m/s. It is desired to use the magnetic field of the Earth, 5 × 10−5 T, to bend the electron beam into a circle. What will be the radius of this circle?

Choices:
- 0.1 m
- 1 mm
- 1 μm
- 0.01 m
- 1 m
- 10 m
- 1 cm
- 1 km
- 1 nm
- 100 m


Question: Let I = (S,V)I=(S,V) be a MAC. Suppose S(k,m)S(k,m) is always 5 bits long. Can this MAC be secure?

Choices:
- Yes, the attacker cannot generate a valid tag for any message
- Yes, the PRG is pseudorandom
- No, an attacker can simply guess the tag for messages
- No, the attacker can simply guess the key
- Yes, the key length is sufficiently long
- No, the key length is not long enough
- Yes, the tag length is sufficiently long
- It depends on the complexity of the PRG
- It depends on the details of the MAC
- It depends on the encryption algorithm used in the MAC


Question: How do you prevent SQL injection?

Choices:
- Merge tables
- Escape queries
- Use a different programming language
- Regularly restart the server
- Interrupt requests
- Use unfiltered user input directly in queries
- Use antivirus software
- Use a stronger password for the database
- Write all SQL queries in uppercase
- All of the above


Question: When did the first Jaina temples appear?

Choices:
- Eighteenth century CE
- Eleventh century BCE
- First century CE
- Fifth century BCE
- Second century CE
- Tenth century BCE
- Sixth century CE
- Third century BCE
- Fifth century CE
- Eighth century CE


Question: A 10kVA distribution transformer has a 240V secondary winding. The equivalent internal resistance of this transformer, referred to that winding, is 0.048\Omega. The core lossof this transformer is 75W. At whatkVAload will this transformeroperate at maximum efficiency?

Choices:
- 110% of rated load
- 90% of rated load
- 100% of rated load
- 95% of rated load
- 50% of rated load
- 105% of rated load
- 85% of rated load
- 70% of rated load
- 60% of rated load
- 80% of rated load


Question: If the temperature of the air in a chemistry laboratory is ambient (77°F), what is the equivalent scale in Kelvin?

Choices:
- 310 Kelvin
- 315 Kelvin
- 320 Kelvin
- 277 Kelvin
- 284 Kelvin
- 298 Kelvin
- 290 Kelvin
- 273 Kelvin
- 305 Kelvin
- 265 Kelvin