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0 | 11,047 | H.R.4536 | Social Welfare | Welfare for Needs not Weed Act
This bill prohibits the use of Temporary Assistance for Needy Families (TANF) funds on electronic benefit transfer transactions in any establishment that offers marijuana for sale. | To prohibit assistance provided under the program of block grants to
States for temporary assistance for needy families from being accessed
through the use of an electronic benefit transfer card at any store
that offers marijuana for sale.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Welfare for Needs not Weed Act''.
SEC. 2. WELFARE FOR NEEDS NOT WEED.
Section 408(a)(12)(A) (42 U.S.C. 608(a)(12)(A)) is amended--
(1) by striking ``or'' at the end of clause (ii);
(2) by striking the period at the end of clause (iii) and
inserting ``; or''; and
(3) by adding at the end the following:
``(iv) any establishment that offers
marihuana (as defined in section 102(16) of the
Controlled Substances Act) for sale.''.
SEC. 3. EFFECTIVE DATE.
The amendments made by this Act shall take effect on October 1,
2022.
<all> | Welfare for Needs not Weed Act | To prohibit assistance provided under the program of block grants to States for temporary assistance for needy families from being accessed through the use of an electronic benefit transfer card at any store that offers marijuana for sale. | Welfare for Needs not Weed Act | Rep. Rice, Tom | R | SC |
1 | 2,951 | S.4404 | Armed Forces and National Security | Homeland Acceleration of Recovering Deposits and Renewing Onshore Critical Keystones Act of 2022 or the HARD ROCK Act of 2022
This bill authorizes the National Defense Stockpile Manager (the Department of Defense) to take certain actions to address industrial base shortfalls. | To authorize certain actions to address domestic industrial base
shortfalls, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Homeland Acceleration of Recovering
Deposits and Renewing Onshore Critical Keystones Act of 2022'' or the
``HARD ROCK Act of 2022''.
SEC. 2. AUTHORITY TO ACQUIRE MATERIALS FOR NATIONAL DEFENSE STOCKPILE
TO ADDRESS SHORTFALLS.
(a) Modification of Acquisition Authority.--Section 5 of the
Strategic and Critical Materials Stock Piling Act (50 U.S.C. 98d) is
amended--
(1) in subsection (a)--
(A) in paragraph (1)--
(i) in the first sentence, by inserting
``under the authority of paragraph (3) or''
after ``Except for acquisitions made''; and
(ii) in the second sentence, by striking
``for such acquisition'' and inserting ``for
any acquisition of materials under this Act'';
(B) in paragraph (2), by striking ``any such
transaction'' and inserting ``any transaction''; and
(C) by adding at the end the following:
``(3) Using funds available in the National Defense Stockpile
Transaction Fund established under section 9, the National Defense
Stockpile Manager may acquire materials determined to be strategic and
critical under section 3(a) without regard to the requirement of the
first sentence of paragraph (1) if the Stockpile Manager determines
there is a shortfall of such materials in the stockpile.''; and
(2) in subsection (c), by striking ``to carry out the
purposes for which appropriated for a period of two fiscal
years, if so provided in the appropriations Acts'' and
inserting ``until expended, unless otherwise provided in
appropriations Acts''.
(b) Clarification That Stockpile May Not Be Used for Budgetary
Purposes.--Section 2(c) of the Strategic and Critical Materials Stock
Piling Act (50 U.S.C. 98(c)) is amended by striking ``is not to be
used'' and inserting ``shall not be used''.
(c) Annual Briefings.--Section 11 of the Strategic and Critical
Materials Stock Piling Act (50 U.S.C. 98h-2) is amended by adding at
the end the following:
``(c)(1) Not later than 30 days after submitting a report required
by subsection (a), the National Defense Stockpile Manager shall brief
the committees specified in paragraph (2) on the state of the stockpile
and the acquisitions intended to be made within the next fiscal year.
``(2) The committees specified in this paragraph are--
``(A) the Committee on Armed Services, the Committee on
Foreign Relations, the Committee on Energy and Natural
Resources, the Committee on Commerce, Science, and
Transportation, and the Select Committee on Intelligence of the
Senate; and
``(B) the Committee on Armed Services, the Committee on
Foreign Affairs, the Committee on Natural Resources, the
Committee on Energy and Commerce, and the Permanent Select
Committee on Intelligence of the House of Representatives.''.
SEC. 3. INCREASED THRESHOLD FOR ACTIONS TO REMEDY CERTAIN DOMESTIC
INDUSTRIAL BASE SHORTFALLS.
Section 303(a)(6) of the Defense Production Act of 1950 (50 U.S.C.
4533(a)(6)) is amended--
(1) in subparagraph (B)--
(A) by striking ``If the taking'' and inserting the
following:
``(i) In general.--If the taking'';
(B) by striking ``$50,000,000'' and inserting ``the
amount specified in clause (ii)''; and
(C) by adding at the end the following:
``(ii) Amount specified.--The amount
specified in this clause is--
``(I) except as provided in
subclause (II), $50,000,000; and
``(II) in the case of a domestic
industrial base shortfall relating to
an industrial resource described in
clause (iii), $350,000,000.
``(iii) Industrial resources described.--An
industrial resource described in this clause is
any of the following:
``(I) A material determined to be a
strategic and critical material under
section 3(a) of the Strategic and
Critical Materials Stock Piling Act (50
U.S.C. 98b(a)) with respect to which
the National Defense Stockpile has a
shortfall of more than $100,000,000, as
demonstrated by the most recent report
required by section 11 of that Act (50
U.S.C. 98h-2).
``(II) Any industrial resource
necessary for the production,
separation, or processing of a critical
mineral (as defined in section 7002(a)
of the Energy Act of 2020 (30 U.S.C.
1606(a))).''; and
(2) by amending subparagraph (C) to read as follows:
``(C) Limitation.--If entering into an obligation
under this section to correct an industrial resource
shortfall would cause the aggregate outstanding amount
of all such obligations for such industrial resource
shortfall to exceed $50,000,000, no such obligation may
be entered until the President provides a briefing to
Congress on the nature of the shortfall and the action
or actions necessary to mitigate the shortfall.''.
SEC. 4. REPORT ON MODIFICATIONS TO NATIONAL TECHNOLOGY AND INDUSTRIAL
BASE.
(a) In General.--Not later than December 1, 2023, the Secretary of
Defense shall submit to the congressional defense committees a report
on the benefits and risks of potential legislative proposals to
increase the availability of strategic and critical materials that are,
as of the date of the enactment of this Act, sourced primarily from the
People's Republic of China or the Russian Federation.
(b) Elements.--The report required by subsection (a) shall include
an assessment of the following:
(1) The implications of modifying the term ``domestic
source'' for purposes of the Defense Production Act of 1950 (50
U.S.C. 4501 et seq.) to ``domestic and allied source'' and
including business concerns in Canada, the United Kingdom, and
Australia in the definition of that term.
(2) The benefits of facilitating more effective integration
of the national technology and industrial base with the
technology and industrial bases of countries that are allies or
partners of the United States with respect to technology
transfer, socioeconomic procurement requirements, and export
controls.
(c) Definitions.--In this section:
(1) Congressional defense committees.--The term
``congressional defense committees'' has the meaning given that
term in section 101(a) of title 10, United States Code.
(2) National technology and industrial base.--The term
``national technology and industrial base'' has the meaning
given that term in section 4801 of title 10, United States
Code.
(3) Strategic and critical materials.--The term ``strategic
and critical materials'' has the meaning given that term in
section 12 of the Strategic and Critical Materials Stock Piling
Act (50 U.S.C. 98h-3).
<all> | HARD ROCK Act of 2022 | A bill to authorize certain actions to address domestic industrial base shortfalls, and for other purposes. | HARD ROCK Act of 2022
Homeland Acceleration of Recovering Deposits and Renewing Onshore Critical Keystones Act of 2022 | Sen. Ernst, Joni | R | IA |
2 | 4,396 | S.4 | Government Operations and Politics | John R. Lewis Voting Rights Advancement Act of 2021
This bill establishes new criteria for determining which states and political subdivisions must obtain preclearance before changes to voting practices may take effect. Preclearance is the process of receiving preapproval from the Department of Justice (DOJ) or the U.S. District Court for the District of Columbia before making legal changes that would affect voting rights.
The bill also includes provisions related to federally protected activities at polling places and voting access on tribal lands.
A state and all of its political subdivisions shall be subject to preclearance of voting practice changes for a 10-year period if
A political subdivision as a separate unit shall also be subject to preclearance for a 10-year period if three or more voting rights violations occurred there during the previous 25 years.
States and political subdivisions that meet certain thresholds regarding minority groups must preclear covered practices before implementation, such as changes to methods of election and redistricting.
Further, states and political subdivisions must notify the public of changes to voting practices.
Next, the bill authorizes DOJ to require states or political subdivisions to provide certain documents or answers to questions for enforcing voting rights.
The bill also outlines factors courts must consider when hearing challenges to voting practices, such as the history of official voting discrimination in the state or political subdivision.
In addition, the bill (1) includes certain protections for election workers, polling places, and election infrastructure; and (2) expands voting access on tribal lands. | To amend the Voting Rights Act of 1965 to revise the criteria for
determining which States and political subdivisions are subject to
section 4 of the Act, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``John R. Lewis Voting Rights
Advancement Act of 2021''.
TITLE I--AMENDMENTS TO THE VOTING RIGHTS ACT
SEC. 101. VOTE DILUTION, DENIAL, AND ABRIDGMENT CLAIMS.
(a) In General.--Section 2(a) of the Voting Rights Act of 1965 (52
U.S.C. 10301(a)) is amended--
(1) by inserting after ``applied by any State or political
subdivision'' the following: ``for the purpose of, or''; and
(2) by striking ``as provided in subsection (b)'' and
inserting ``as provided in subsection (b), (c), (d), or (e)''.
(b) Vote Dilution.--Section 2 of such Act (52 U.S.C. 10301), as
amended by subsection (a), is further amended by striking subsection
(b) and inserting the following:
``(b) A violation of subsection (a) for vote dilution is
established if, based on the totality of circumstances, it is shown
that the political processes leading to nomination or election in the
State or political subdivision are not equally open to participation by
members of a class of citizens protected by subsection (a) in that its
members have less opportunity than other members of the electorate to
participate in the political process and to elect representatives of
their choice. The extent to which members of a protected class have
been elected to office in the State or political subdivision is one
circumstance which may be considered: Provided, That nothing in this
section establishes a right to have members of a protected class
elected in numbers equal to their proportion in the population. The
legal standard articulated in Thornburg v. Gingles, 478 U.S. 30 (1986),
governs claims under this subsection. For purposes of this subsection a
class of citizens protected by subsection (a) may include a cohesive
coalition of members of different racial or language minority
groups.''.
(c) Vote Denial or Abridgement.--Section 2 of such Act (52 U.S.C.
10301), as amended by subsections (a) and (b), is further amended by
adding at the end the following:
``(c)(1) A violation of subsection (a) for vote denial or
abridgment is established if the challenged standard, practice, or
procedure imposes a discriminatory burden on members of a class of
citizens protected by subsection (a), meaning that--
``(A) members of the protected class face greater
difficulty in complying with the standard, practice, or
procedure, considering the totality of the circumstances; and
``(B) such greater difficulty is, at least in part, caused
by or linked to social and historical conditions that have
produced or currently produce discrimination against members of
the protected class.
``(2) The challenged standard, practice, or procedure need only be
a but-for cause of the discriminatory burden or perpetuate a pre-
existing discriminatory burden.
``(3)(A) The totality of the circumstances for consideration
relative to a violation of subsection (a) for vote denial or abridgment
shall include the following factors, which, individually and
collectively, show how a voting standard, practice, or procedure can
function to amplify the effects of past or present racial
discrimination:
``(i) The history of official voting-related discrimination
in the State or political subdivision.
``(ii) The extent to which voting in the elections of the
State or political subdivision is racially polarized.
``(iii) The extent to which the State or political
subdivision has used unduly burdensome photographic voter
identification requirements, documentary proof of citizenship
requirements, documentary proof of residence requirements, or
other voting standards, practices, or procedures beyond those
required by Federal law that may impair the ability of members
of the protected class to participate fully in the political
process.
``(iv) The extent to which members of the protected class
bear the effects of discrimination in areas such as education,
employment, and health, which hinder the ability of those
members to participate effectively in the political process.
``(v) The use of overt or subtle racial appeals either in
political campaigns or surrounding the adoption or maintenance
of the challenged standard, practice, or procedure.
``(vi) The extent to which members of the protected class
have been elected to public office in the jurisdiction, except
that the fact that the protected class is too small to elect
candidates of its choice shall not defeat a claim of vote
denial or abridgment under this section.
``(vii) Whether there is a lack of responsiveness on the
part of elected officials to the particularized needs of
members of the protected class.
``(viii) Whether the policy underlying the State or
political subdivision's use of the challenged qualification,
prerequisite, standard, practice, or procedure has a tenuous
connection to that qualification, prerequisite, standard,
practice, or procedure.
``(B) A particular combination or number of factors under
subparagraph (A) shall not be required to establish a violation
of subsection (a) for vote denial or abridgment.
``(C) The totality of the circumstances for consideration
relative to a violation of subsection (a) for vote denial or
abridgment shall not include the following factors:
``(i) The total number or share of members of a protected
class on whom a challenged standard, practice, or procedure
does not impose a material burden.
``(ii) The degree to which the challenged standard,
practice, or procedure has a long pedigree or was in widespread
use at some earlier date.
``(iii) The use of an identical or similar standard,
practice, or procedure in other States or political
subdivisions.
``(iv) The availability of other forms of voting unimpacted
by the challenged standard, practice, or procedure to all
members of the electorate, including members of the protected
class, unless the State or political subdivision is
simultaneously expanding those other standards, practices, or
procedures to eliminate any disproportionate burden imposed by
the challenged standard, practice, or procedure.
``(v) A prophylactic impact on potential criminal activity
by individual voters, if such crimes have not occurred in the
State or political subdivision in substantial numbers.
``(vi) Mere invocation of interests in voter confidence or
prevention of fraud.''.
(d) Intended Vote Dilution or Vote Denial or Abridgment.--Section 2
of such Act (52 U.S.C. 10301), as amended by subsections (a), (b), and
(c) is further amended by adding at the end the following:
``(d)(1) A violation of subsection (a) is also established if a
challenged qualification, prerequisite, standard, practice, or
procedure is intended, at least in part, to dilute the voting strength
of a protected class or to deny or abridge the right of any citizen of
the United States to vote on account of race, color, or in
contravention of the guarantees set forth in section 4(f)(2).
``(2) Discrimination on account of race or color, or in
contravention of the guarantees set forth in section 4(f)(2),
need only be one purpose of a qualification, prerequisite,
standard, practice, or procedure in order to establish a
violation of subsection (a), as described in this subsection. A
qualification, prerequisite, standard, practice, or procedure
intended to dilute the voting strength of a protected class or
to make it more difficult for members of a protected class to
cast a ballot that will be counted constitutes a violation of
subsection (a), as described in this subsection, even if an
additional purpose of the qualification, prerequisite,
standard, practice, or procedure is to benefit a particular
political party or group.
``(3) Recent context, including actions by official
decisionmakers in prior years or in other contexts preceding
the decision responsible for the challenged qualification,
prerequisite, standard, practice, or procedure, and including
actions by predecessor government actors or individual members
of a decisionmaking body, may be relevant to making a
determination about a violation of subsection (a), as described
under this subsection.
``(4) A claim that a violation of subsection (a) has
occurred, as described under this subsection, shall require
proof of a discriminatory impact but shall not require proof of
violation of subsection (b) or (c).''.
SEC. 102. RETROGRESSION.
Section 2 of the Voting Rights Act of 1965 (52 U.S.C. 10301 et
seq.), as amended by section 101 of this Act, is further amended by
adding at the end the following:
``(e) A violation of subsection (a) is established when a State or
political subdivision enacts or seeks to administer any qualification
or prerequisite to voting or standard, practice, or procedure with
respect to voting in any election that has the purpose of or will have
the effect of diminishing the ability of any citizens of the United
States on account of race or color, or in contravention of the
guarantees set forth in section 4(f)(2), to participate in the
electoral process or elect their preferred candidates of choice. This
subsection applies to any action taken on or after January 1, 2021, by
a State or political subdivision to enact or seek to administer any
such qualification or prerequisite to voting or standard, practice or
procedure.
``(f) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (e), final
decisions of the United States District Court of the District of
Columbia on applications or petitions by States or political
subdivisions for preclearance under section 5 of any changes in voting
prerequisites, standards, practices, or procedures, supersede the
provisions of subsection (e).''.
SEC. 103. VIOLATIONS TRIGGERING AUTHORITY OF COURT TO RETAIN
JURISDICTION.
(a) Types of Violations.--Section 3(c) of the Voting Rights Act of
1965 (52 U.S.C. 10302(c)) is amended by striking ``violations of the
fourteenth or fifteenth amendment'' and inserting ``violations of the
14th or 15th Amendment, violations of this Act, or violations of any
Federal law that prohibits discrimination in voting on the basis of
race, color, or membership in a language minority group,''.
(b) Conforming Amendment.--Section 3(a) of such Act (52 U.S.C.
10302(a)) is amended by striking ``violations of the fourteenth or
fifteenth amendment'' and inserting ``violations of the 14th or 15th
Amendment, violations of this Act, or violations of any Federal law
that prohibits discrimination in voting on the basis of race, color, or
membership in a language minority group,''.
SEC. 104. CRITERIA FOR COVERAGE OF STATES AND POLITICAL SUBDIVISIONS.
(a) Determination of States and Political Subdivisions Subject to
Section 4(a).--
(1) In general.--Section 4(b) of the Voting Rights Act of
1965 (52 U.S.C. 10303(b)) is amended to read as follows:
``(b) Determination of States and Political Subdivisions Subject to
Requirements.--
``(1) Existence of voting rights violations during previous
25 years.--
``(A) Statewide application.--Subsection (a)
applies with respect to a State and all political
subdivisions within the State during a calendar year
if--
``(i) fifteen or more voting rights
violations occurred in the State during the
previous 25 calendar years; or
``(ii) ten or more voting rights violations
occurred in the State during the previous 25
calendar years, at least one of which was
committed by the State itself (as opposed to a
political subdivision within the State).
``(B) Application to specific political
subdivisions.--Subsection (a) applies with respect to a
political subdivision as a separate unit during a
calendar year if three or more voting rights violations
occurred in the subdivision during the previous 25
calendar years.
``(2) Period of application.--
``(A) In general.--Except as provided in
subparagraph (B), if, pursuant to paragraph (1),
subsection (a) applies with respect to a State or
political subdivision during a calendar year,
subsection (a) shall apply with respect to such State
or political subdivision for the period--
``(i) that begins on January 1 of the year
in which subsection (a) applies; and
``(ii) that ends on the date which is 10
years after the date described in clause (i).
``(B) No further application after declaratory
judgment.--
``(i) States.--If a State obtains a
declaratory judgment under subsection (a), and
the judgment remains in effect, subsection (a)
shall no longer apply to such State and all
political subdivisions in the State pursuant to
paragraph (1)(A) unless, after the issuance of
the declaratory judgment, paragraph (1)(A)
applies to the State solely on the basis of
voting rights violations occurring after the
issuance of the declaratory judgment.
``(ii) Political subdivisions.--If a
political subdivision obtains a declaratory
judgment under subsection (a), and the judgment
remains in effect, subsection (a) shall no
longer apply to such political subdivision
pursuant to paragraph (1), including pursuant
to paragraph (1)(A) (relating to the statewide
application of subsection (a)), unless, after
the issuance of the declaratory judgment,
paragraph (1)(B) applies to the political
subdivision solely on the basis of voting
rights violations occurring after the issuance
of the declaratory judgment.
``(3) Determination of voting rights violation.--For
purposes of paragraph (1), a voting rights violation occurred
in a State or political subdivision if any of the following
applies:
``(A) Judicial relief; violation of the 14th or
15th amendment.--Any final judgment (that was not
reversed on appeal) occurred, in which the plaintiff
prevailed and in which any court of the United States
determined that a denial or abridgement of the right of
any citizen of the United States to vote on account of
race, color, or membership in a language minority group
occurred, or that a voting qualification or
prerequisite to voting or standard, practice, or
procedure with respect to voting created an undue
burden on the right to vote in connection with a claim
that the law unduly burdened voters of a particular
race, color, or language minority group, in violation
of the 14th or 15th Amendment to the Constitution of
the United States, anywhere within the State or
subdivision.
``(B) Judicial relief; violations of this act.--Any
final judgment (that was not reversed on appeal)
occurred in which the plaintiff prevailed and in which
any court of the United States determined that a voting
qualification or prerequisite to voting or standard,
practice, or procedure with respect to voting was
imposed or applied or would have been imposed or
applied anywhere within the State or subdivision in a
manner that resulted or would have resulted in a denial
or abridgement of the right of any citizen of the
United States to vote on account of race, color, or
membership in a language minority group, in violation
of subsection (e) or (f) or section 2, 201, or 203.
``(C) Final judgment; denial of declaratory
judgment.--In a final judgment (that was not been
reversed on appeal), any court of the United States has
denied the request of the State or subdivision for a
declaratory judgment under section 3(c) or section 5,
and thereby prevented a voting qualification or
prerequisite to voting or standard, practice, or
procedure with respect to voting from being enforced
anywhere within the State or subdivision.
``(D) Objection by the attorney general.--The
Attorney General has interposed an objection under
section 3(c) or section 5, and thereby prevented a
voting qualification or prerequisite to voting or
standard, practice, or procedure with respect to voting
from being enforced anywhere within the State or
subdivision. A violation under this subparagraph has
not occurred where an objection has been withdrawn by
the Attorney General, unless the withdrawal was in
response to a change in the law or practice that served
as the basis of the objection. A violation under this
subparagraph has not occurred where the objection is
based solely on a State or political subdivision's
failure to comply with a procedural process that would
not otherwise count as an independent violation of this
Act.
``(E) Consent decree, settlement, or other
agreement.--
``(i) Agreement.--A consent decree,
settlement, or other agreement was adopted or
entered by a court of the United States that
contains an admission of liability by the
defendants, which resulted in the alteration or
abandonment of a voting practice anywhere in
the territory of such State or subdivision that
was challenged on the ground that the practice
denied or abridged the right of any citizen of
the United States to vote on account of race,
color, or membership in a language minority
group in violation of subsection (e) or (f) or
section 2, 201, or 203, or the 14th or 15th
Amendment.
``(ii) Independent violations.--A voluntary
extension or continuation of a consent decree,
settlement, or agreement described in clause
(i) shall not count as an independent violation
under this subparagraph. Any other extension or
modification of such a consent decree,
settlement, or agreement, if the consent
decree, settlement, or agreement has been in
place for ten years or longer, shall count as
an independent violation under this
subparagraph. If a court of the United States
finds that a consent decree, settlement, or
agreement described in clause (i) itself denied
or abridged the right of any citizen of the
United States to vote on account of race,
color, or membership in a language minority
group, violated subsection (e) or (f) or
section 2, 201, or 203, or created an undue
burden on the right to vote in connection with
a claim that the consent decree, settlement, or
other agreement unduly burdened voters of a
particular race, color, or language minority
group, that finding shall count as an
independent violation under this subparagraph.
``(F) Multiple violations.--Each instance in which
a voting qualification or prerequisite to voting or
standard, practice, or procedure with respect to
voting, including each redistricting plan, is found to
be a violation by a court of the United States pursuant
to subparagraph (A) or (B), or prevented from being
enforced pursuant to subparagraph (C) or (D), or
altered or abandoned pursuant to subparagraph (E) shall
count as an independent violation under this paragraph.
Within a redistricting plan, each violation under this
paragraph found to discriminate against any group of
voters based on race, color, or language minority group
shall count as an independent violation under this
paragraph.
``(4) Timing of determinations.--
``(A) Determinations of voting rights violations.--
As early as practicable during each calendar year, the
Attorney General shall make the determinations required
by this subsection, including updating the list of
voting rights violations occurring in each State and
political subdivision for the previous calendar year.
``(B) Effective upon publication in federal
register.--A determination or certification of the
Attorney General under this section or under section 8
or 13 shall be effective upon publication in the
Federal Register.''.
(2) Conforming amendments.--Section 4(a) of such Act (52
U.S.C. 10303(a)) is amended--
(A) in paragraph (1), in the first sentence of the
matter preceding subparagraph (A), by striking ``any
State with respect to which'' and all that follows
through ``unless'' and inserting ``any State to which
this subsection applies during a calendar year pursuant
to determinations made under subsection (b), or in any
political subdivision of such State (as such
subdivision existed on the date such determinations
were made with respect to such State), though such
determinations were not made with respect to such
subdivision as a separate unit, or in any political
subdivision with respect to which this subsection
applies during a calendar year pursuant to
determinations made with respect to such subdivision as
a separate unit under subsection (b), unless'';
(B) in paragraph (1), in the matter preceding
subparagraph (A), by striking the second sentence;
(C) in paragraph (1)(A), by striking ``(in the case
of a State or subdivision seeking a declaratory
judgment under the second sentence of this
subsection)'';
(D) in paragraph (1)(B), by striking ``(in the case
of a State or subdivision seeking a declaratory
judgment under the second sentence of this
subsection)'';
(E) in paragraph (3), by striking ``(in the case of
a State or subdivision seeking a declaratory judgment
under the second sentence of this subsection)'';
(F) in paragraph (5), by striking ``(in the case of
a State or subdivision which sought a declaratory
judgment under the second sentence of this
subsection)'';
(G) by striking paragraphs (7) and (8); and
(H) by redesignating paragraph (9) as paragraph
(7).
(b) Clarification of Treatment of Members of Language Minority
Groups.--Section 4(a)(1) of such Act (52 U.S.C. 10303(a)(1)), as
amended by subsection (a), is further amended, in the first sentence,
by striking ``race or color,'' and inserting ``race or color, or in
contravention of the guarantees of subsection (f)(2),''.
(c) Facilitating Bailout.--Section 4(a) of the Voting Rights Act of
1965 (52 U.S.C. 10303(a)), as amended by subsection (a), is further
amended--
(1) by striking paragraph (1)(C);
(2) by inserting at the beginning of paragraph (7), as
redesignated by subsection (a)(2)(H), the following: ``Any
plaintiff seeking a declaratory judgment under this subsection
on the grounds that the plaintiff meets the requirements of
paragraph (1) may request that the Attorney General consent to
entry of judgment.''; and
(3) by adding at the end the following:
``(8) If a political subdivision is subject to the application of
this subsection, due to the applicability of subsection (b)(1)(A), the
political subdivision may seek a declaratory judgment under this
section if the subdivision demonstrates that the subdivision meets the
criteria established by the subparagraphs of paragraph (1), for the 10
years preceding the date on which subsection (a) applied to the
political subdivision under subsection (b)(1)(A).
``(9) If a political subdivision was not subject to the application
of this subsection by reason of a declaratory judgment entered prior to
the date of enactment of the John R. Lewis Voting Rights Advancement
Act of 2021, and is not, subsequent to that date of enactment, subject
to the application of this subsection under subsection (b)(1)(B), then
that political subdivision shall not be subject to the requirements of
this subsection.''.
SEC. 105. DETERMINATION OF STATES AND POLITICAL SUBDIVISIONS SUBJECT TO
PRECLEARANCE FOR COVERED PRACTICES.
The Voting Rights Act of 1965 (52 U.S.C. 10301 et seq.) is further
amended by inserting after section 4 the following:
``SEC. 4A. DETERMINATION OF STATES AND POLITICAL SUBDIVISIONS SUBJECT
TO PRECLEARANCE FOR COVERED PRACTICES.
``(a) Practice-Based Preclearance.--
``(1) In general.--Each State and each political
subdivision shall--
``(A) identify any newly enacted or adopted law,
regulation, or policy that includes a voting
qualification or prerequisite to voting, or a standard,
practice, or procedure with respect to voting, that is
a covered practice described in subsection (b); and
``(B) ensure that no such covered practice is
implemented unless or until the State or political
subdivision, as the case may be, complies with
subsection (c).
``(2) Determinations of characteristics of voting-age
population.--
``(A) In general.--As early as practicable during
each calendar year, the Attorney General, in
consultation with the Director of the Bureau of the
Census and the heads of other relevant offices of the
government, shall make the determinations required by
this section regarding voting-age populations and the
characteristics of such populations, and shall publish
a list of the States and political subdivisions to
which a voting-age population characteristic described
in subsection (b) applies.
``(B) Publication in the federal register.--A
determination (including a certification) of the
Attorney General under this paragraph shall be
effective upon publication in the Federal Register.
``(b) Covered Practices.--To assure that the right of citizens of
the United States to vote is not denied or abridged on account of race,
color, or membership in a language minority group as a result of the
implementation of certain qualifications or prerequisites to voting, or
standards, practices, or procedures with respect to voting, newly
adopted in a State or political subdivision, the following shall be
covered practices subject to the requirements described in subsection
(a):
``(1) Changes to method of election.--Any change to the
method of election--
``(A) to add seats elected at-large in a State or
political subdivision where--
``(i) two or more racial groups or language
minority groups each represent 20 percent or
more of the voting-age population in the State
or political subdivision, respectively; or
``(ii) a single language minority group
represents 20 percent or more of the voting-age
population on Indian lands located in whole or
in part in the State or political subdivision;
or
``(B) to convert one or more seats elected from a
single-member district to one or more at-large seats or
seats from a multi-member district in a State or
political subdivision where--
``(i) two or more racial groups or language
minority groups each represent 20 percent or
more of the voting-age population in the State
or political subdivision, respectively; or
``(ii) a single language minority group
represents 20 percent or more of the voting-age
population on Indian lands located in whole or
in part in the State or political subdivision.
``(2) Changes to political subdivision boundaries.--Any
change or series of changes within a year to the boundaries of
a political subdivision that reduces by 3 or more percentage
points the percentage of the political subdivision's voting-age
population that is comprised of members of a single racial
group or language minority group in the political subdivision
where--
``(A) two or more racial groups or language
minority groups each represent 20 percent or more of
the political subdivision's voting-age population; or
``(B) a single language minority group represents
20 percent or more of the voting-age population on
Indian lands located in whole or in part in the
political subdivision.
``(3) Changes through redistricting.--Any change to the
boundaries of districts for Federal, State, or local elections
in a State or political subdivision where any racial group or
language minority group that is not the largest racial group or
language minority group in the jurisdiction and that represents
15 percent or more of the State or political subdivision's
voting-age population experiences a population increase of at
least 20 percent of its voting-age population, over the
preceding decade (as calculated by the Bureau of the Census
under the most recent decennial census), in the jurisdiction.
``(4) Changes in documentation or qualifications to vote.--
Any change to requirements for documentation or proof of
identity to vote or register to vote in elections for Federal,
State, or local offices that will exceed or be more stringent
than such requirements under State law on the day before the
date of enactment of the John R. Lewis Voting Rights
Advancement Act of 2021.
``(5) Changes to multilingual voting materials.--Any change
that reduces multilingual voting materials or alters the manner
in which such materials are provided or distributed, where no
similar reduction or alteration occurs in materials provided in
English for such election.
``(6) Changes that reduce, consolidate, or relocate voting
locations, or reduce voting opportunities.--Any change that
reduces, consolidates, or relocates voting locations in
elections for Federal, State, or local office, including early,
absentee, and election-day voting locations, or reduces days or
hours of in-person voting on any Sunday during a period
occurring prior to the date of an election for Federal, State,
or local office during which voters may cast ballots in such
election, or prohibits the provision of food or non-alcoholic
drink to persons waiting to vote in an election for Federal,
State, or local office, except where the provision would
violate prohibitions on expenditures to influence voting, if
the location change, reduction in days or hours, or prohibition
applies--
``(A) in one or more census tracts in which two or
more language minority groups or racial groups each
represent 20 percent or more of the voting-age
population; or
``(B) on Indian lands in which at least 20 percent
of the voting-age population belongs to a single
language minority group.
``(7) New list maintenance process.--Any change to the
maintenance process for voter registration lists that adds a
new basis for removal from the list of active voters registered
to vote in elections for Federal, State, or local office, or
that incorporates new sources of information in determining a
voter's eligibility to vote in elections for Federal, State, or
local office, if such a change would have a statistically
significant disparate impact, concerning the removal from voter
rolls, on members of racial groups or language minority groups
that constitute greater than 5 percent of the voting-age
population--
``(A) in the case of a political subdivision
imposing such change if--
``(i) two or more racial groups or language
minority groups each represent 20 percent or
more of the voting-age population of the
political subdivision; or
``(ii) a single language minority group
represents 20 percent or more of the voting-age
population on Indian lands located in whole or
in part in the political subdivision; or
``(B) in the case of a State imposing such change,
if two or more racial groups or language minority
groups each represent 20 percent or more of the voting-
age population of--
``(i) the State; or
``(ii) a political subdivision in the
State, except that the requirements under
subsections (a) and (c) shall apply only with
respect to each such political subdivision
individually.
``(c) Preclearance.--
``(1) In general.--
``(A) Action .--Whenever a State or political
subdivision with respect to which the requirements set
forth in subsection (a) are in effect shall enact,
adopt, or seek to implement any covered practice
described under subsection (b), such State or
subdivision may institute an action in the United
States District Court for the District of Columbia for
a declaratory judgment that such covered practice
neither has the purpose nor will have the effect of
denying or abridging the right to vote on account of
race, color, or membership in a language minority
group, and unless and until the court enters such
judgment such covered practice shall not be
implemented.
``(B) Submission to attorney general.--
``(i) In general.--Notwithstanding
subparagraph (A), such covered practice may be
implemented without such proceeding if the
covered practice has been submitted by the
chief legal officer or other appropriate
official of such State or subdivision to the
Attorney General and the Attorney General has
not interposed an objection within 60 days
after such submission, or upon good cause
shown, to facilitate an expedited approval
within 60 days after such submission, the
Attorney General has affirmatively indicated
that such objection will not be made. For
purposes of determining whether expedited
consideration of approval is required under
this subparagraph or section 5(a), an exigency
such as a natural disaster, that requires a
change in a voting qualification or
prerequisite to voting or standard, practice,
or procedure with respect to voting during the
period of 30 days before a Federal election,
shall be considered to be good cause requiring
that expedited consideration.
``(ii) Effect of indication.--Neither an
affirmative indication by the Attorney General
that no objection will be made, nor the
Attorney General's failure to object, nor a
declaratory judgment entered under this
subsection shall bar a subsequent action to
enjoin implementation of such covered practice.
In the event the Attorney General affirmatively
indicates that no objection will be made within
the 60-day period following receipt of a
submission, the Attorney General may reserve
the right to reexamine the submission if
additional information comes to the Attorney
General's attention during the remainder of the
60-day period which would otherwise require
objection in accordance with this subsection.
``(C) Court.--Any action under this subsection
shall be heard and determined by a court of three
judges in accordance with the provisions of section
2284 of title 28, United States Code, and any appeal
shall lie to the Supreme Court.
``(2) Denying or abridging the right to vote.--Any covered
practice described in subsection (b) that has the purpose of or
will have the effect of diminishing the ability of any citizens
of the United States on account of race, color, or membership
in a language minority group, to elect their preferred
candidates of choice denies or abridges the right to vote
within the meaning of paragraph (1).
``(3) Purpose defined.--The term `purpose' in paragraphs
(1) and (2) shall include any discriminatory purpose.
``(4) Purpose of paragraph (2).--The purpose of paragraph
(2) is to protect the ability of such citizens to elect their
preferred candidates of choice.
``(d) Enforcement.--The Attorney General or any aggrieved citizen
may file an action in a district court of the United States to compel
any State or political subdivision to satisfy the obligations set forth
in this section. Such an action shall be heard and determined by a
court of three judges under section 2284 of title 28, United States
Code. In any such action, the court shall provide as a remedy that
implementation of any voting qualification or prerequisite to voting,
or standard, practice, or procedure with respect to voting, that is the
subject of the action under this subsection be enjoined unless the
court determines that--
``(1) the voting qualification or prerequisite to voting,
or standard, practice, or procedure with respect to voting, is
not a covered practice described in subsection (b); or
``(2) the State or political subdivision has complied with
subsection (c) with respect to the covered practice at issue.
``(e) Counting of Racial Groups and Language Minority Groups.--For
purposes of this section, the calculation of the population of a racial
group or a language minority group shall be carried out using the
methodology in the guidance of the Department of Justice entitled
`Guidance Concerning Redistricting Under Section 5 of the Voting Rights
Act; Notice' (76 Fed. Reg. 7470 (February 9, 2011)).
``(f) Special Rule.--For purposes of determinations under this
section, any data provided by the Bureau of the Census, whether based
on estimation from a sample or actual enumeration, shall not be subject
to challenge or review in any court.
``(g) Multilingual Voting Materials.--In this section, the term
`multilingual voting materials' means registration or voting notices,
forms, instructions, assistance, or other materials or information
relating to the electoral process, including ballots, provided in the
language or languages of one or more language minority groups.''.
SEC. 106. PROMOTING TRANSPARENCY TO ENFORCE THE VOTING RIGHTS ACT.
(a) Transparency.--The Voting Rights Act of 1965 (52 U.S.C. 10301
et seq.) is amended by inserting after section 5 the following:
``SEC. 6. TRANSPARENCY REGARDING CHANGES TO PROTECT VOTING RIGHTS.
``(a) Notice of Enacted Changes.--
``(1) Notice of changes.--If a State or political
subdivision makes any change in any qualification or
prerequisite to voting or standard, practice, or procedure with
respect to voting in any election for Federal office that will
result in the qualification or prerequisite, standard,
practice, or procedure being different from that which was in
effect as of 180 days before the date of the election for
Federal office, the State or political subdivision shall
provide reasonable public notice in such State or political
subdivision and on the website of the State or political
subdivision, of a concise description of the change, including
the difference between the changed qualification or
prerequisite, standard, practice, or procedure and the
qualification, prerequisite, standard, practice, or procedure
which was previously in effect. The public notice described in
this paragraph, in such State or political subdivision and on
the website of a State or political subdivision, shall be in a
format that is reasonably convenient and accessible to persons
with disabilities who are eligible to vote, including persons
who have low vision or are blind.
``(2) Deadline for notice.--A State or political
subdivision shall provide the public notice required under
paragraph (1) not later than 48 hours after making the change
involved.
``(b) Transparency Regarding Polling Place Resources.--
``(1) In general.--In order to identify any changes that
may impact the right to vote of any person, prior to the 30th
day before the date of an election for Federal office, each
State or political subdivision with responsibility for
allocating registered voters, voting machines, and official
poll workers to particular precincts and polling places shall
provide reasonable public notice in such State or political
subdivision and on the website of a State or political
subdivision, of the information described in paragraph (2) for
precincts and polling places within such State or political
subdivision. The public notice described in this paragraph, in
such State or political subdivision and on the website of a
State or political subdivision, shall be in a format that is
reasonably convenient and accessible to persons with
disabilities who are eligible to vote, including persons who
have low vision or are blind.
``(2) Information described.--The information described in
this paragraph with respect to a precinct or polling place is
each of the following:
``(A) The name or number.
``(B) In the case of a polling place, the location,
including the street address, and whether such polling
place is accessible to persons with disabilities.
``(C) The voting-age population of the area served
by the precinct or polling place, broken down by
demographic group if such breakdown is reasonably
available to such State or political subdivision.
``(D) The number of registered voters assigned to
the precinct or polling place, broken down by
demographic group if such breakdown is reasonably
available to such State or political subdivision.
``(E) The number of voting machines assigned,
including the number of voting machines accessible to
persons with disabilities who are eligible to vote,
including persons who have low vision or are blind.
``(F) The number of official paid poll workers
assigned.
``(G) The number of official volunteer poll workers
assigned.
``(H) In the case of a polling place, the dates and
hours of operation.
``(3) Updates in information reported.--If a State or
political subdivision makes any change in any of the
information described in paragraph (2), the State or political
subdivision shall provide reasonable public notice in such
State or political subdivision and on the website of a State or
political subdivision, of the change in the information not
later than 48 hours after the change occurs or, if the change
occurs fewer than 48 hours before the date of the election for
Federal office, as soon as practicable after the change occurs.
The public notice described in this paragraph and published on
the website of a State or political subdivision shall be in a
format that is reasonably convenient and accessible to persons
with disabilities who are eligible to vote, including persons
who have low vision or are blind.
``(c) Transparency of Changes Relating to Demographics and
Electoral Districts.--
``(1) Requiring public notice of changes.--Not later than
10 days after making any change in the constituency that will
participate in an election for Federal, State, or local office
or the boundaries of a voting unit or electoral district in an
election for Federal, State, or local office (including through
redistricting, reapportionment, changing from at-large
elections to district-based elections, or changing from
district-based elections to at-large elections), a State or
political subdivision shall provide reasonable public notice in
such State or political subdivision and on the website of a
State or political subdivision, of the demographic and
electoral data described in paragraph (3) for each of the
geographic areas described in paragraph (2).
``(2) Geographic areas described.--The geographic areas
described in this paragraph are as follows:
``(A) The State as a whole, if the change applies
statewide, or the political subdivision as a whole, if
the change applies across the entire political
subdivision.
``(B) If the change includes a plan to replace or
eliminate voting units or electoral districts, each
voting unit or electoral district that will be replaced
or eliminated.
``(C) If the change includes a plan to establish
new voting units or electoral districts, each such new
voting unit or electoral district.
``(3) Demographic and electoral data.--The demographic and
electoral data described in this paragraph with respect to a
geographic area described in paragraph (2) are each of the
following:
``(A) The voting-age population, broken down by
demographic group.
``(B) The number of registered voters, broken down
by demographic group if such breakdown is reasonably
available to the State or political subdivision
involved.
``(C)(i) If the change applies to a State, the
actual number of votes, or (if it is not reasonably
practicable for the State to ascertain the actual
number of votes) the estimated number of votes received
by each candidate in each statewide election held
during the 5-year period which ends on the date the
change involved is made; and
``(ii) if the change applies to only one political
subdivision, the actual number of votes, or (if it is
not reasonably practicable for the political
subdivision to ascertain the actual number of votes)
the estimated number of votes in each subdivision-wide
election held during the 5-year period which ends on
the date the change involved is made.
``(4) Voluntary compliance by smaller jurisdictions.--
Compliance with this subsection shall be voluntary for a
political subdivision of a State unless the subdivision is one
of the following:
``(A) A county or parish.
``(B) A municipality with a population greater than
10,000, as determined by the Bureau of the Census under
the most recent decennial census.
``(C) A school district with a population greater
than 10,000, as determined by the Bureau of the Census
under the most recent decennial census. For purposes of
this subparagraph, the term `school district' means the
geographic area under the jurisdiction of a local
educational agency (as defined in section 8101 of the
Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965).
``(d) Rules Regarding Format of Information.--The Attorney General
may issue rules specifying a reasonably convenient and accessible
format that States and political subdivisions shall use to provide
public notice of information under this section.
``(e) No Denial of Right To Vote.--The right to vote of any person
shall not be denied or abridged because the person failed to comply
with any change made by a State or political subdivision to a voting
qualification, prerequisite, standard, practice, or procedure if the
State or political subdivision involved did not meet the applicable
requirements of this section with respect to the change.
``(f) Definitions.--In this section--
``(1) the term `demographic group' means each group which
section 2 protects from the denial or abridgement of the right
to vote on account of race or color, or in contravention of the
guarantees set forth in section 4(f)(2);
``(2) the term `election for Federal office' means any
general, special, primary, or runoff election held solely or in
part for the purpose of electing any candidate for the office
of President, Vice President, Presidential elector, Senator,
Member of the House of Representatives, or Delegate or Resident
Commissioner to the Congress; and
``(3) the term `persons with disabilities', means
individuals with a disability, as defined in section 3 of the
Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990.''.
(b) Effective Date.--The amendment made by subsection (a)(1) shall
apply with respect to changes which are made on or after the expiration
of the 60-day period which begins on the date of the enactment of this
Act.
SEC. 107. AUTHORITY TO ASSIGN OBSERVERS.
(a) Clarification of Authority in Political Subdivisions Subject to
Preclearance.--Section 8(a)(2)(B) of the Voting Rights Act of 1965 (52
U.S.C. 10305(a)(2)(B)) is amended to read as follows:
``(B) in the Attorney General's judgment, the
assignment of observers is otherwise necessary to
enforce the guarantees of the 14th or 15th Amendment or
any provision of this Act or any other Federal law
protecting the right of citizens of the United States
to vote; or''.
(b) Assignment of Observers To Enforce Bilingual Election
Requirements.--Section 8(a) of such Act (52 U.S.C. 10305(a)) is
amended--
(1) by striking ``or'' at the end of paragraph (1);
(2) by inserting after paragraph (2) the following:
``(3) the Attorney General certifies with respect to a
political subdivision that--
``(A) the Attorney General has received written
meritorious complaints from residents, elected
officials, or civic participation organizations that
efforts to violate section 203 are likely to occur; or
``(B) in the Attorney General's judgment, the
assignment of observers is necessary to enforce the
guarantees of section 203;''; and
(3) by moving the margin for the continuation text
following paragraph (3), as added by paragraph (2) of this
subsection, 2 ems to the left.
(c) Transferral of Authority Over Observers to the Attorney
General.--
(1) Enforcement proceedings.--Section 3(a) of the Voting
Rights Act of 1965 (52 U.S.C. 10302(a)) is amended by striking
``United States Civil Service Commission in accordance with
section 6'' and inserting ``Attorney General in accordance with
section 8''.
(2) Observers; appointment and compensation.--Section 8 of
the Voting Rights Act of 1965 (52 U.S.C. 10305) is amended--
(A) in subsection (a), in the flush matter at the
end, by striking ``Director of the Office of Personnel
Management shall assign as many observers for such
subdivision as the Director'' and inserting ``Attorney
General shall assign as many observers for such
subdivision as the Attorney General'';
(B) in subsection (c), by striking ``Director of
the Office of Personnel Management'' and inserting
``Attorney General''; and
(C) in subsection (c), by adding at the end the
following: ``The Director of the Office of Personnel
Management may, with the consent of the Attorney
General, assist in the selection, recruitment, hiring,
training, or deployment of these or other individuals
authorized by the Attorney General for the purpose of
observing whether persons who are entitled to vote are
being permitted to vote and whether those votes are
being properly tabulated.''.
(3) Termination of certain appointments of observers.--
Section 13(a)(1) of the Voting Rights Act of 1965 (52 U.S.C.
10309(a)(1)) is amended by striking ``notifies the Director of
the Office of Personnel Management,'' and inserting
``determines,''.
SEC. 108. CLARIFICATION OF AUTHORITY TO SEEK RELIEF.
(a) Poll Tax.--Section 10(b) of the Voting Rights Act of 1965 (52
U.S.C. 10306(b)) is amended by striking ``the Attorney General is
authorized and directed to institute forthwith in the name of the
United States such actions,'' and inserting ``an aggrieved person or
(in the name of the United States) the Attorney General may institute
such actions''.
(b) Cause of Action.--Section 12(d) of the Voting Rights Act of
1965 (52 U.S.C. 10308(d)) is amended to read as follows:
``(d) Whenever there are reasonable grounds to believe that any
person has engaged in, or is about to engage in, any act or practice
that would (1) deny any citizen the right to register, to cast a
ballot, or to have that ballot counted properly and included in the
appropriate totals of votes cast in violation of the 14th, 15th, 19th,
24th, or 26th Amendments to the Constitution of the United States, (2)
violate subsection (a) or (b) of section 11, or (3) violate any other
provision of this Act or any other Federal voting rights law that
prohibits discrimination on the basis of race, color, or membership in
a language minority group, an aggrieved person or (in the name of the
United States) the Attorney General may institute an action for
preventive relief, including an application for a temporary or
permanent injunction, restraining order, or other appropriate order.
Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to create a cause of
action for civil enforcement of criminal provisions of this or any
other Act.''.
(c) Judicial Relief.--Section 204 of the Voting Rights Act of 1965
(52 U.S.C. 10504) is amended by striking the first sentence and
inserting the following: ``Whenever there are reasonable grounds to
believe that a State or political subdivision has engaged or is about
to engage in any act or practice prohibited by a provision of this
title, an aggrieved person or (in the name of the United States) the
Attorney General may institute an action in a district court of the
United States, for a restraining order, a preliminary or permanent
injunction, or such other order as may be appropriate.''.
(d) Enforcement of Twenty-sixth Amendment.--Section 301(a)(1) of
the Voting Rights Act of 1965 (52 U.S.C. 10701(a)(1)) is amended to
read as follows:
``(a)(1) An aggrieved person or (in the name of the United States)
the Attorney General may institute an action in a district court of the
United States, for a restraining order, a preliminary or permanent
injunction, or such other order as may be appropriate to implement the
26th Amendment to the Constitution of the United States.''.
SEC. 109. PREVENTIVE RELIEF.
Section 12(d) of the Voting Rights Act of 1965 (52 U.S.C.
10308(d)), as amended by section 108, is further amended by adding at
the end the following:
``(2)(A) In considering any motion for preliminary relief in any
action for preventive relief described in this subsection, the court
shall grant the relief if the court determines that the complainant has
raised a serious question as to whether the challenged voting
qualification or prerequisite to voting or standard, practice, or
procedure violates any of the provisions listed in section 11(a)(1) of
the John R. Lewis Voting Rights Advancement Act and, on balance, the
hardship imposed on the defendant by the grant of the relief will be
less than the hardship which would be imposed on the plaintiff if the
relief were not granted.
``(B) In making its determination under this paragraph with respect
to a change in any voting qualification, prerequisite to voting, or
standard, practice, or procedure with respect to voting, the court
shall consider all relevant factors and give due weight to the
following factors, if they are present:
``(i) Whether the qualification, prerequisite, standard,
practice, or procedure in effect prior to the change was
adopted as a remedy for a Federal court judgment, consent
decree, or admission regarding--
``(I) discrimination on the basis of race or color
in violation of the 14th or 15th Amendment to the
Constitution of the United States;
``(II) a violation of the 19th, 24th, or 26th
Amendments to the Constitution of the United States;
``(III) a violation of this Act; or
``(IV) voting discrimination on the basis of race,
color, or membership in a language minority group in
violation of any other Federal or State law.
``(ii) Whether the qualification, prerequisite, standard,
practice, or procedure in effect prior to the change served as
a ground for the dismissal or settlement of a claim alleging--
``(I) discrimination on the basis of race or color
in violation of the 14th or 15th Amendment to the
Constitution of the United States;
``(II) a violation of the 19th, 24th, or 26th
Amendment to the Constitution of the United States;
``(III) a violation of this Act; or
``(IV) voting discrimination on the basis of race,
color, or membership in a language minority group in
violation of any other Federal or State law.
``(iii) Whether the change was adopted fewer than 180 days
before the date of the election with respect to which the
change is to take or takes effect.
``(iv) Whether the defendant has failed to provide timely
or complete notice of the adoption of the change as required by
applicable Federal or State law.
``(3) A jurisdiction's inability to enforce its voting or election
laws, regulations, policies, or redistricting plans, standing alone,
shall not be deemed to constitute irreparable harm to the public
interest or to the interests of a defendant in an action arising under
the Constitution or any Federal law that prohibits discrimination on
the basis of race, color, or membership in a language minority group in
the voting process, for the purposes of determining whether a stay of a
court's order or an interlocutory appeal under section 1253 of title
28, United States Code, is warranted.''.
SEC. 110. BILINGUAL ELECTION REQUIREMENTS.
Section 203(b)(1) of the Voting Rights Act of 1965 (52 U.S.C.
10503(b)(1)) is amended by striking ``2032'' and inserting ``2037''.
SEC. 111. RELIEF FOR VIOLATIONS OF VOTING RIGHTS LAWS.
(a) In General.--
(1) Relief for violations of voting rights laws.--In this
section, the term ``prohibited act or practice'' means--
(A) any act or practice--
(i) that creates an undue burden on the
fundamental right to vote in violation of the
14th Amendment to the Constitution of the
United States or violates the Equal Protection
Clause of the 14th Amendment to the
Constitution of the United States; or
(ii) that is prohibited by the 15th, 19th,
24th, or 26th Amendment to the Constitution of
the United States, section 2004 of the Revised
Statutes (52 U.S.C. 10101), the Voting Rights
Act of 1965 (52 U.S.C. 10301 et seq.), the
National Voter Registration Act of 1993 (52
U.S.C. 20501 et seq.), the Uniformed and
Overseas Citizens Absentee Voting Act (52
U.S.C. 20301 et seq.), the Help America Vote
Act of 2002 (52 U.S.C. 20901 et seq.), the
Voting Accessibility for the Elderly and
Handicapped Act (52 U.S.C. 20101 et seq.), or
section 2003 of the Revised Statutes (52 U.S.C.
10102); and
(B) any act or practice in violation of any Federal
law that prohibits discrimination with respect to
voting, including the Americans with Disabilities Act
of 1990 (42 U.S.C. 12101 et seq.).
(2) Rule of construction.--Nothing in this section shall be
construed to diminish the authority or scope of authority of
any person to bring an action under any Federal law.
(3) Attorney's fees.--Section 722(b) of the Revised
Statutes (42 U.S.C. 1988(b)) is amended by inserting ``a
provision described in section 111(a)(1) of the John R. Lewis
Voting Rights Advancement Act of 2021,'' after ``title VI of
the Civil Rights Act of 1964,''.
(b) Grounds for Equitable Relief.--In any action for equitable
relief pursuant to a law listed under subsection (a), proximity of the
action to an election shall not be a valid reason to deny such relief,
or stay the operation of or vacate the issuance of such relief, unless
the party opposing the issuance or continued operation of relief meets
the burden of proving by clear and convincing evidence that the
issuance of the relief would be so close in time to the election as to
cause irreparable harm to the public interest or that compliance with
such relief would impose serious burdens on the party opposing relief.
(1) In general.--In considering whether to grant, deny,
stay, or vacate any order of equitable relief, the court shall
give substantial weight to the public's interest in expanding
access to the right to vote. A State's generalized interest in
enforcing its enacted laws shall not be a relevant
consideration in determining whether equitable relief is
warranted.
(2) Presumptive safe harbor.--Where equitable relief is
sought either within 30 days of the adoption or reasonable
public notice of the challenged policy or practice, or more
than 45 days before the date of an election to which the relief
being sought will apply, proximity to the election will be
presumed not to constitute a harm to the public interest or a
burden on the party opposing relief.
(c) Grounds for Stay or Vacatur in Federal Claims Involving Voting
Rights.--
(1) Prospective effect.--In reviewing an application for a
stay or vacatur of equitable relief granted pursuant to a law
listed in subsection (a), a court shall give substantial weight
to the reliance interests of citizens who acted pursuant to
such order under review. In fashioning a stay or vacatur, a
reviewing court shall not order relief that has the effect of
denying or abridging the right to vote of any citizen who has
acted in reliance on the order.
(2) Written explanation.--No stay or vacatur under this
subsection shall issue unless the reviewing court makes
specific findings that the public interest, including the
public's interest in expanding access to the ballot, will be
harmed by the continuing operation of the equitable relief or
that compliance with such relief will impose serious burdens on
the party seeking such a stay or vacatur such that those
burdens substantially outweigh the benefits to the public
interest. In reviewing an application for a stay or vacatur of
equitable relief, findings of fact made in issuing the order
under review shall not be set aside unless clearly erroneous.
SEC. 112. PROTECTION OF TABULATED VOTES.
The Voting Rights Act of 1965 (52 U.S.C. 10307) is amended--
(1) in section 11--
(A) by amending subsection (a) to read as follows:
``(a) No person acting under color of law shall--
``(1) fail or refuse to permit any person to vote who is
entitled to vote under Federal law or is otherwise qualified to
vote;
``(2) willfully fail or refuse to tabulate, count, and
report such person's vote; or
``(3) willfully fail or refuse to certify the aggregate
tabulations of such persons' votes or certify the election of
the candidates receiving sufficient such votes to be elected to
office.''; and
(B) in subsection (b), by inserting ``subsection
(a) or'' after ``duties under''; and
(2) in section 12--
(A) in subsection (b)--
(i) by striking ``a year following an
election in a political subdivision in which an
observer has been assigned'' and inserting ``22
months following an election for Federal
office''; and
(ii) by adding at the end the following:
``Whenever the Attorney General has reasonable
grounds to believe that any person has engaged
in or is about to engage in an act in violation
of this subsection, the Attorney General may
institute (in the name of the United States) a
civil action in Federal district court seeking
appropriate relief.'';
(B) in subsection (c), by inserting ``or solicits a
violation of'' after ``conspires to violate''; and
(C) in subsection (e), by striking the first and
second sentences and inserting the following: ``If,
after the closing of the polls in an election for
Federal office, persons allege that notwithstanding (1)
their registration by an appropriate election official
and (2) their eligibility to vote in the political
subdivision, their ballots have not been counted in
such election, and if upon prompt receipt of
notifications of these allegations, the Attorney
General finds such allegations to be well founded, the
Attorney General may forthwith file with the district
court an application for an order providing for the
counting and certification of the ballots of such
persons and requiring the inclusion of their votes in
the total vote for all applicable offices before the
results of such election shall be deemed final and any
force or effect given thereto.''.
SEC. 113. ENFORCEMENT OF VOTING RIGHTS BY ATTORNEY GENERAL.
Section 12 of the Voting Rights Act of 1965 (52 U.S.C. 10308), as
amended by this Act, is further amended by adding at the end the
following:
``(g) Voting Rights Enforcement by Attorney General.--
``(1) In general.--In order to fulfill the Attorney
General's responsibility to enforce this Act and other Federal
laws that protect the right to vote, the Attorney General (or
upon designation by the Attorney General, the Assistant
Attorney General for Civil Rights) is authorized, before
commencing a civil action, to issue a demand for inspection and
information in writing to any State or political subdivision,
or other governmental representative or agent, with respect to
any relevant documentary material that the Attorney General has
reason to believe is within their possession, custody, or
control. A demand by the Attorney General under this subsection
may require--
``(A) the production of such documentary material
for inspection and copying;
``(B) answers in writing to written questions with
respect to such documentary material; or
``(C) both the production described under
subparagraph (A) and the answers described under
subparagraph (B).
``(2) Contents of an attorney general demand.--
``(A) In general.--Any demand issued under
paragraph (1), shall include a sworn certificate to
identify the voting qualification or prerequisite to
voting or standard, practice, or procedure with respect
to voting, or other voting related matter or issue,
whose lawfulness the Attorney General is investigating
and to identify the Federal law that protects the right
to vote under which the investigation is being
conducted. The demand shall be reasonably calculated to
lead to the discovery of documentary material and
information relevant to such investigation. Documentary
material includes any material upon which relevant
information is recorded, and includes written or
printed materials, photographs, tapes, or materials
upon which information is electronically or
magnetically recorded. Such demands shall be aimed at
the Attorney General having the ability to inspect and
obtain copies of relevant materials (as well as obtain
information) related to voting and are not aimed at the
Attorney General taking possession of original records,
particularly those that are required to be retained by
State and local election officials under Federal or
State law.
``(B) No requirement for production.--Any demand
issued under paragraph (1) may not require the
production of any documentary material or the
submission of any answers in writing to written
questions if such material or answers would be
protected from disclosure under the standards
applicable to discovery requests under the Federal
Rules of Civil Procedure in an action in which the
Attorney General or the United States is a party.
``(C) Documentary material.--If the demand issued
under paragraph (1) requires the production of
documentary material, it shall--
``(i) identify the class of documentary
material to be produced with such definiteness
and certainty as to permit such material to be
fairly identified; and
``(ii) prescribe a return date for
production of the documentary material at least
20 days after issuance of the demand to give
the State or political subdivision, or other
governmental representative or agent, a
reasonable period of time for assembling the
documentary material and making it available
for inspection and copying.
``(D) Answers to written questions.--If the demand
issued under paragraph (1) requires answers in writing
to written questions, it shall--
``(i) set forth with specificity the
written question to be answered; and
``(ii) prescribe a date at least 20 days
after the issuance of the demand for submitting
answers in writing to the written questions.
``(E) Service.--A demand issued under paragraph (1)
may be served by a United States marshal or a deputy
marshal, or by certified mail, at any place within the
territorial jurisdiction of any court of the United
States.
``(3) Responses to an attorney general demand.--A State or
political subdivision, or other governmental representative or
agent, shall, with respect to any documentary material or any
answer in writing produced under this subsection, provide a
sworn certificate, in such form as the demand issued under
paragraph (1) designates, by a person having knowledge of the
facts and circumstances relating to such production or written
answer, authorized to act on behalf of the State or political
subdivision, or other governmental representative or agent,
upon which the demand was served. The certificate--
``(A) shall state that--
``(i) all of the documentary material
required by the demand and in the possession,
custody, or control of the State or political
subdivision, or other governmental
representative or agent, has been produced;
``(ii) with respect to every answer in
writing to a written question, all information
required by the question and in the possession,
custody, control, or knowledge of the State or
political subdivision, or other governmental
representative or agent, has been submitted; or
``(iii) the requirements described in both
clause (i) and clause (ii) have been met; or
``(B) provide the basis for any objection to
producing the documentary material or answering the
written question.
To the extent that any information is not furnished, the
information shall be identified and reasons set forth with
particularity regarding the reasons why the information was not
furnished.
``(4) Judicial proceedings.--
``(A) Petition for enforcement.--Whenever any State
or political subdivision, or other governmental
representative or agent, fails to comply with demand
issued by the Attorney General under paragraph (1), the
Attorney General may file, in a district court of the
United States in which the State or political
subdivision, or other governmental representative or
agent, is located, a petition for a judicial order
enforcing the Attorney General demand issued under
paragraph (1).
``(B) Petition to modify.--
``(i) In general.--Any State or political
subdivision, or other governmental
representative or agent, that is served with a
demand issued by the Attorney General under
paragraph (1) may file in the United States
District Court for the District of Columbia a
petition for an order of the court to modify or
set aside the demand of the Attorney General.
``(ii) Petition to modify.--Any petition to
modify or set aside a demand of the Attorney
General issued under paragraph (1) must be
filed within 20 days after the date of service
of the Attorney General's demand or at any time
before the return date specified in the
Attorney General's demand, whichever date is
earlier.
``(iii) Contents of petition.--The petition
shall specify each ground upon which the
petitioner relies in seeking relief under
clause (i), and may be based upon any failure
of the Attorney General's demand to comply with
the provisions of this section or upon any
constitutional or other legal right or
privilege of the State or political
subdivision, or other governmental
representative or agent. During the pendency of
the petition in the court, the court may stay,
as it deems proper, the running of the time
allowed for compliance with the Attorney
General's demand, in whole or in part, except
that the State or political subdivision, or
other governmental representative or agent,
filing the petition shall comply with any
portions of the Attorney General's demand not
sought to be modified or set aside.''.
SEC. 114. DEFINITIONS.
Title I of the Voting Rights Act of 1965 (52 U.S.C. 10301) is
amended by adding at the end the following:
``SEC. 21. DEFINITIONS.
``In this Act:
``(1) Indian.--The term `Indian' has the meaning given the
term in section 4 of the Indian Self-Determination and
Education Assistance Act (25 U.S.C. 5304).
``(2) Indian lands.--The term `Indian lands' means--
``(A) any Indian country of an Indian tribe, as
such term is defined in section 1151 of title 18,
United States Code;
``(B) any land in Alaska that is owned, pursuant to
the Alaska Native Claims Settlement Act, by an Indian
tribe that is a Native village (as such term is defined
in section 3 of such Act), or by a Village Corporation
that is associated with the Indian tribe (as such term
is defined in section 3 of such Act);
``(C) any land on which the seat of government of
the Indian tribe is located; and
``(D) any land that is part or all of a tribal
designated statistical area associated with the Indian
tribe, or is part or all of an Alaska Native village
statistical area associated with the tribe, as defined
by the Bureau of the Census for the purposes of the
most recent decennial census.
``(3) Indian tribe.--The term `Indian tribe' or `tribe' has
the meaning given the term `Indian tribe' in section 4 of the
Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act (25
U.S.C. 5304).
``(4) Tribal government.--The term `Tribal Government'
means the recognized governing body of an Indian Tribe.
``(5) Voting-age population.--The term `voting-age
population' means the numerical size of the population within a
State, within a political subdivision, or within a political
subdivision that contains Indian lands, as the case may be,
that consists of persons age 18 or older, as calculated by the
Bureau of the Census under the most recent decennial census.''.
SEC. 115. ATTORNEYS' FEES.
Section 14(c) of the Voting Rights Act of 1965 (52 U.S.C. 10310(c))
is amended by adding at the end the following:
``(4) The term `prevailing party' means a party to an action that
receives at least some of the benefit sought by such action, states a
colorable claim, and can establish that the action was a significant
cause of a change to the status quo.''.
SEC. 116. OTHER TECHNICAL AND CONFORMING AMENDMENTS.
(a) Actions Covered Under Section 3.--Section 3(c) of the Voting
Rights Act of 1965 (52 U.S.C. 10302(c)) is amended--
(1) by striking ``any proceeding instituted by the Attorney
General or an aggrieved person under any statute to enforce''
and inserting ``any action under any statute in which a party
(including the Attorney General) seeks to enforce''; and
(2) by striking ``at the time the proceeding was
commenced'' and inserting ``at the time the action was
commenced''.
(b) Clarification of Treatment of Members of Language Minority
Groups.--Section 4(f) of such Act (52 U.S.C. 10303(f)) is amended--
(1) in paragraph (1), by striking the second sentence; and
(2) by striking paragraphs (3) and (4).
(c) Period During Which Changes in Voting Practices Are Subject to
Preclearance Under Section 5.--Section 5 of such Act (52 U.S.C. 10304)
is amended--
(1) in subsection (a), by striking ``based upon
determinations made under the first sentence of section 4(b)
are in effect'' and inserting ``are in effect during a calendar
year'';
(2) in subsection (a), by striking ``November 1, 1964'' and
all that follows through ``November 1, 1972'' and inserting
``the applicable date of coverage''; and
(3) by adding at the end the following new subsection:
``(e) The term `applicable date of coverage' means, with respect to
a State or political subdivision--
``(1) June 25, 2013, if the most recent determination for
such State or subdivision under section 4(b) was made on or
before December 31, 2021; or
``(2) the date on which the most recent determination for
such State or subdivision under section 4(b) was made, if such
determination was made after December 31, 2021.''.
(d) Review of Preclearance Submission Under Section 5 Due to
Exigency.--Section 5 of such Act (52 U.S.C. 10304) is amended, in
subsection (a), by inserting ``An exigency, including a natural
disaster, inclement weather, or other unforeseeable event, requiring
such different qualification, prerequisite, standard, practice, or
procedure within 30 days of a Federal, State, or local election shall
constitute good cause requiring the Attorney General to expedite
consideration of the submission.'' after ``will not be made.''.
SEC. 117. SEVERABILITY.
If any provision of the John R. Lewis Voting Rights Advancement
Act of 2021 or any amendment made by this title, or the application of
such a provision or amendment to any person or circumstance, is held to
be unconstitutional or is otherwise enjoined or unenforceable, the
remainder of this title and amendments made by this title, and the
application of the provisions and amendments to any other person or
circumstance, and any remaining provision of the Voting Rights Act of
1965 (52 U.S.C. 10301 et seq.), shall not be affected by the holding.
In addition, if any provision of the Voting Rights Act of 1965 (52
U.S.C. 10301 et seq.), or any amendment to the Voting Rights Act of
1965, or the application of such a provision or amendment to any person
or circumstance, is held to be unconstitutional or is otherwise
enjoined or unenforceable, the application of the provision and
amendment to any other person or circumstance, and any remaining
provisions of the Voting Rights Act of 1965, shall not be affected by
the holding.
SEC. 118. GRANTS TO ASSIST WITH NOTICE REQUIREMENTS UNDER THE VOTING
RIGHTS ACT OF 1965.
(a) In General.--The Attorney General shall make grants each fiscal
year to small jurisdictions who submit applications under subsection
(b) for purposes of assisting such small jurisdictions with compliance
with the requirements of the Voting Rights Act of 1965 to submit or
publish notice of any change to a qualification, prerequisite,
standard, practice or procedure affecting voting.
(b) Application.--To be eligible for a grant under this section, a
small jurisdiction shall submit an application to the Attorney General
in such form and containing such information as the Attorney General
may require regarding the compliance of such small jurisdiction with
the provisions of the Voting Rights Act of 1965.
(c) Small Jurisdiction Defined.--For purposes of this section, the
term ``small jurisdiction'' means any political subdivision of a State
with a population of 10,000 or less.
TITLE II--ELECTION WORKER AND POLLING PLACE PROTECTION
SEC. 201. SHORT TITLE.
This title may be cited as the ``Election Worker and Polling Place
Protection Act''.
SEC. 202. FEDERALLY PROTECTED ACTIVITIES.
Section 245 of title 18, United States Code, is amended--
(1) in subsection (b)--
(A) in the matter preceding paragraph (1), by
striking ``willfully'' and inserting ``, or violence,
or threat of harm to any person or property,
intentionally'';
(B) in paragraph (1)(A), by inserting ``, or any
agent, contractor, or vendor of a legally authorized
election official assisting in the administration of
any primary, special, or general election'' before the
semicolon at the end; and
(C) in the undesignated matter following paragraph
(5)--
(i) by striking ``one year'' and inserting
``3 years''; and
(ii) by striking ``of this section'' each
place it appears and inserting ``of this
subsection'';
(2) by redesignating subsections (c) and (d) as subsections
(d) and (e), respectively; and
(3) by inserting after subsection (b) the following:
``(c)(1) Whoever, whether or not acting under color of law,
intentionally physically damages or threatens to physically damage any
physical property being used as a polling place or tabulation center or
other election infrastructure shall be fined under this title, or
imprisoned not more than 1 year, or both; and if bodily injury results
from the acts committed in violation of this subsection or if such acts
include the use, attempted use, or threatened use of a dangerous
weapon, explosives, or fire shall be fined under this title, or
imprisoned not more than 10 years, or both; and if death results from
the acts committed in violation of this subsection or if such acts
include kidnapping or an attempt to kidnap, aggravated sexual abuse or
an attempt to commit aggravated sexual abuse, or an attempt to kill,
shall be fined under this title or imprisoned for any term of years or
for life, or both.
``(2) For purposes of this subsection, de minimus damage or threats
of de minimus damage to physical property, such as graffiti, shall not
be considered a violation of paragraph (1).
``(3) In this subsection, the term `election infrastructure' means
any office of an election official, staff, worker, or volunteer or any
physical, mechanical, or electrical device, structure, or tangible item
used in the process of creating, distributing, voting, returning,
counting, tabulating, auditing, storing, or other handling of voter
registration or ballot information.''.
TITLE III--NATIVE AMERICAN VOTING RIGHTS ACT
SEC. 301. SHORT TITLE.
This title may be cited as the ``Frank Harrison, Elizabeth
Peratrovich, and Miguel Trujillo Native American Voting Rights Act of
2021''.
SEC. 302. FINDINGS AND PURPOSES.
(a) Findings.--Congress finds the following:
(1) The Constitution explicitly and implicitly grants
Congress broad general powers to legislate on issues relating
to Indian Tribes, powers consistently described as plenary and
exclusive. These powers arise from the grant of authority in
the Indian Commerce Clause and through legislative matters
arising under the Treaty Clause.
(2) The Federal Government is responsible for upholding the
obligations to which the Federal Government has agreed through
treaties, legislation, and executive orders, referred to as the
Federal trust responsibility toward Indian Tribes and their
members.
(3) The Supreme Court has repeatedly relied on the nature
of this ``government to government'' relationship between the
United States and sovereign Indian Tribes for congressional
authority to enact ``legislation that singles out Indians for
particular and special treatment''. Morton v. Mancari, 417 U.S.
535, 554-555 (1974).
(4) Legislation removing barriers to Native American voting
is vital for the fulfillment of Congress' ``unique obligation''
toward Indians, particularly ensuring that Native American
voters are fully included as ``qualified members of the modern
body politic''. Board of County Comm'rs v. Seber, 318 U.S. 705,
715 (1943).
(5) Under the Elections Clause of article I, section 4 of
the Constitution, Congress has additional power to regulate any
election conducted to select Members of Congress. Taken
together, the Indian Commerce Clause and the Election Clause
give Congress broad authority to enact legislation to safeguard
the voting rights of Native American voters.
(6) Despite Congress' decision to grant Native Americans
Federal citizenship, and with it the protections of the
Fifteenth Amendment, with passage of the Act of June 2, 1924
(Chapter 233; 43 Stat. 253) (commonly known as the ``Indian
Citizenship Act of 1924''), States continued to deploy distinct
methods for disenfranchising Indians by enacting statutes to
exclude from voter rolls Indians living on Indian lands,
requiring that Indians first terminate their relationship with
their Indian Tribe, restricting the right to vote on account of
a Tribal member's ``guardianship'' status, and imposing
literacy tests.
(7) Barriers to voter access for Native Americans persist
today, and such barriers range from obstructing voter access to
vote dilution and intentional malapportionment of electoral
districts.
(8) The Native American Voting Rights Coalition's nine
field hearings in Indian Country and four-State survey of voter
discrimination revealed a number of additional obstacles that
Native Americans must overcome in some States, including--
(A) a lack of accessible registration and polling
sites, either due to conditions such as geography, lack
of paved roads, the absence of reliable and affordable
broadband connectivity, and restrictions on the time,
place, and manner that eligible people can register and
vote, including unequal opportunities for absentee,
early, mail-in, and in-person voting;
(B) nontraditional or nonexistent addresses for
residents on Indian reservations, lack of residential
mail delivery and pick up, reliance on distant post
offices with abbreviated operating hours for mail
services, insufficient housing units, overcrowded
homes, and high incidence of housing insecurity and
homelessness, lack of access to vehicles, and
disproportionate poverty which make voter registration,
acquisition and dropping off of mail-in ballots,
receipt of voting information and materials, and
securing required identification difficult, if not
impossible;
(C) inadequate language assistance for Tribal
members, including lack of outreach and publicity, the
failure to provide complete, accurate, and uniform
translations of all voting materials in the relevant
Native language, and an insufficient number of trained
bilingual poll workers; and
(D) voter identification laws that discriminate
against Native Americans.
(9) The Department of Justice and courts also recognized
that some jurisdictions have been unresponsive to reasonable
requests from federally recognized Indian Tribes for more
accessible voter registration sites and in-person voting
locations.
(10) According to the National Congress of American
Indians, there is a wide gap between the voter registration and
turnout rates of eligible American Indians and Alaska Natives
and the voter registration and turnout rates of non-Hispanic
White and other racial and ethnic groups.
(11) Despite these obstacles, the Native American vote
continues to play a significant role in Federal, State, and
local elections.
(12) In Alaska, New Mexico, Oklahoma, and South Dakota,
Native Americans, American Indians, and Alaska Natives comprise
approximately 10 percent or more of the voting population.
(13) The Native American vote also holds great potential,
with over 1,000,000 voters who are eligible to vote, but are
not registered to vote.
(b) Purposes.--The purposes of this title are--
(1) to fulfill the Federal Government's trust
responsibility to protect and promote Native Americans'
exercise of their constitutionally guaranteed right to vote,
including the right to register to vote and the ability to
access all mechanisms for voting;
(2) to establish Tribal administrative review procedures
for a specific subset of State actions that have been used to
restrict access to the polls on Indian lands;
(3) to expand voter registration under the National Voter
Registration Act of 1993 (52 U.S.C. 20501 et seq.) to cover
Federal facilities;
(4) to afford equal treatment to forms of identification
unique to Indian Tribes and their members;
(5) to ensure American Indians and Alaska Natives
experiencing homelessness, housing insecurity, or lacking
residential mail pickup and delivery can pool resources to pick
up and return ballots;
(6) to clarify the obligations of States and political
subdivisions regarding the provision of translated voting
materials for American Indians and Alaska Natives under section
203 of the Voting Rights Act of 1965 (52 U.S.C. 10503);
(7) to provide Tribal leaders with a direct pathway to
request Federal election observers and to allow public access
to the reports of those election observers;
(8) to study the prevalence of nontraditional or
nonexistent mailing addresses in Native communities and
identify solutions to voter access that arise from the lack of
an address; and
(9) to direct the Department of Justice to consult on an
annual basis with Indian Tribes on issues related to voting.
SEC. 303. DEFINITIONS.
In this title:
(1) Attorney general.--The term ``Attorney General'' means
the United States Attorney General.
(2) Indian.--The term ``Indian'' has the meaning given the
term in section 4 of the Indian Self-Determination and
Education Assistance Act (25 U.S.C. 5304).
(3) Indian lands.--The term ``Indian lands'' includes--
(A) Indian country as defined under section 1151 of
title 18, United States Code;
(B) any land in Alaska owned, pursuant to the
Alaska Native Claims Settlement Act (43 U.S.C. 1601 et
seq.), by an Indian Tribe that is a Native village (as
defined in section 3 of that Act (43 U.S.C. 1602)) or
by a Village Corporation that is associated with an
Indian Tribe (as defined in section 3 of that Act (43
U.S.C. 1602));
(C) any land on which the seat of the Tribal
government is located; and
(D) any land that is part or all of a Tribal
designated statistical area associated with an Indian
Tribe, or is part or all of an Alaska Native village
statistical area associated with an Indian Tribe, as
defined by the Census Bureau for the purposes of the
most recent decennial census.
(4) Indian tribe.--The term ``Indian Tribe'' means the
recognized governing body of any Indian or Alaska Native Tribe,
band, nation, pueblo, village, community, component band, or
component reservation, individually identified (including
parenthetically) in the list published most recently as of the
date of enactment of this title pursuant to section 104 of the
Federally Recognized Indian Tribe List Act of 1994 (25 U.S.C.
5131).
(5) Polling place.--The term ``polling place'' means any
location where a ballot is cast in elections for Federal
office, and includes a voter center, poll, polling location, or
polling place, depending on the State nomenclature.
SEC. 304. ESTABLISHMENT OF A NATIVE AMERICAN VOTING TASK FORCE GRANT
PROGRAM.
(a) In General.--The Office for Civil Rights at the Office of
Justice Programs of the Department of Justice (referred to in this
section as the ``Office'') shall establish and administer, in
coordination with the Department of the Interior, a Native American
voting task force grant program, through which the Office shall provide
financial assistance to eligible applicants to enable those eligible
applicants to establish and operate a Native American Voting Task Force
in each State with a federally recognized Indian Tribe.
(b) Purposes.--The purposes of the Native American voting task
force grant program are to--
(1) increase voter outreach, education, registration, and
turnout in Native American communities;
(2) increase access to the ballot for Native American
communities, including additional satellite, early voting, and
absentee voting locations;
(3) streamline and reduce inconsistencies in the voting
process for Native Americans;
(4) provide, in the community's dominant language,
educational materials and classes on Indian lands about
candidacy filing;
(5) train and educate State and local employees, including
poll workers, about--
(A) the language assistance and voter assistance
requirements under sections 203 and 208 of the Voting
Rights Act of 1965 (52 U.S.C. 10503; 10508);
(B) voter identification laws as affected by
section 108 of this title; and
(C) the requirements of Tribes, States, and
precincts established under this title;
(6) identify model programs and best practices for
providing language assistance to Native American communities;
(7) provide nonpartisan poll watchers on election day in
Native American communities;
(8) participate in and evaluate future redistricting
efforts;
(9) address issues of internet connectivity as it relates
to voter registration and ballot access in Native American
communities;
(10) work with Indian Tribes, States, and the Federal
Government to establish mailing addresses that comply with
applicable State and Federal requirements for receipt of voting
information and materials; and
(11) facilitate collaboration between local election
officials, Native American communities, and Tribal elections
offices.
(c) Eligible Applicant.--The term ``eligible applicant'' means--
(1) an Indian Tribe;
(2) a Secretary of State of a State, or another official of
a State entity responsible for overseeing elections;
(3) a nonprofit organization that works, in whole or in
part, on voting issues; or
(4) a consortium of entities described in paragraphs (1)
through (3).
(d) Application and Selection Process.--
(1) In general.--The Office, in coordination with the
Department of the Interior and following consultation with
Indian Tribes about the implementation of the Native American
voting task force grant program, shall establish guidelines for
the process by which eligible applicants will submit
applications.
(2) Applications.--Each eligible applicant desiring a grant
under this section shall submit an application, according to
the process established under paragraph (1), and at such time,
in such manner, and containing such information as the Office
may require. Such application shall include--
(A) a certification that the applicant is an
eligible applicant;
(B) a proposed work plan addressing how the
eligible applicant will establish and administer a
Native American Voting Task Force that achieves the
purposes described in subsection (b);
(C) if the eligible applicant is a consortium as
described in subsection (c)(4), a description of the
proposed division of responsibilities between the
participating entities;
(D) an explanation of the time period that the
proposed Native American Voting Task Force will cover,
which shall be a time period that is not more than 3
years; and
(E) the goals that the eligible applicant desires
to achieve with the grant funds.
(e) Uses of Funds.--A grantee receiving funds under this section
shall use such funds to carry out one or more of the activities
described in subsection (b), through the grantee's Native American
Voting Task Force.
(f) Reports.--
(1) Report to the office.--
(A) In general.--Not later than 1 year after the
date on which an eligible applicant receives grant
funds under this section, and annually thereafter for
the duration of the grant, each eligible applicant
shall prepare and submit a written report to the Office
describing the eligible applicant's progress in
achieving the goals outlined in the application under
subsection (d)(2).
(B) Response.--Not later than 30 days after the
date on which the Office receives the report described
in paragraph (1), the Office will provide feedback,
comments, and input to the eligible applicant in
response to such report.
(2) Report to congress.--Not later than 1 year after the
date of enactment of this title, and annually thereafter, the
Office shall prepare and submit a report to the Committee on
Indian Affairs of the Senate and Committee on Natural Resources
of the House of Representatives containing the results of the
reports described under paragraph (1).
(g) Relationship With Other Laws.--Nothing in this section reduces
State or local obligations provided for by the Voting Rights Act of
1965 (52 U.S.C. 10301 et seq.), the National Voter Registration Act of
1993 (52 U.S.C. 20501 et seq.), the Help America Vote Act of 2002 (52
U.S.C. 20901 et seq.), or any other Federal law or regulation related
to voting or the electoral process.
(h) Authorization of Appropriations.--There are authorized to be
appropriated to carry out this section $10,000,000 for each of fiscal
years 2022 through 2037.
SEC. 305. VOTER REGISTRATION SITES AT INDIAN SERVICE PROVIDERS AND ON
INDIAN LANDS.
Section 7(a) of the National Voter Registration Act of 1993 (52
U.S.C. 20506(a)) is amended--
(1) in paragraph (2)--
(A) in subparagraph (A), by striking ``and'' after
the semicolon;
(B) in subparagraph (B), by striking the period at
the end and inserting a semicolon; and
(C) by adding at the end the following:
``(C) any Federal facility or federally funded
facility that is primarily engaged in providing
services to an Indian Tribe; and
``(D) not less than one Federal facility or
federally funded facility that is located within the
Indian lands of an Indian Tribe, as applicable, (which
may be the Federal facility or federally funded
facility described in subparagraph (C)).''; and
(2) by adding at the end the following:
``(8) Where practicable, each Federal agency that operates
a Federal facility or a federally funded facility that is a
designated voter registration agency in accordance with
subparagraph (C) or (D) of paragraph (2) shall designate one or
more special days per year at a centralized location within the
boundaries of the Indian lands of each applicable Indian Tribe
for the purpose of informing members of the Indian Tribe of the
timing, registration requirements, and voting procedures in
elections for Federal office, at no cost to the Indian
Tribe.''.
SEC. 306. ACCESSIBLE TRIBAL DESIGNATED POLLING SITES.
(a) In General.--
(1) Designation of state officer.--Each of the several
States whose territory contains all or part of an Indian
Tribe's Indian lands shall designate an officer within that
State who will be responsible for compliance with the
provisions of this section and who shall periodically consult
with the Indian Tribes located wholly or partially within that
State regarding compliance with the provisions of this section
and coordination between the State and the Indian Tribe. The
State shall provide written notice to each such Indian Tribe of
the officer so designated.
(2) Provision of polling places.--For each Indian Tribe
that satisfies the obligations of subsection (c), and for each
election for a Federal official or State official that is held
180 days or later after the date on which the Indian Tribe
initially satisfies such obligations, any State or political
subdivision whose territory contains all or part of an Indian
Tribe's Indian lands--
(A) shall provide a minimum of one polling place in
each precinct in which there are eligible voters who
reside on Indian lands, in a location selected by the
Indian Tribe and at no cost to the Indian Tribe,
regardless of the population or number of registered
voters residing on Indian lands;
(B) shall not reduce the number of polling
locations on Indian lands based on population numbers;
(C) shall provide, at no cost to the Indian Tribe,
additional polling places in locations on Indian lands
selected by an Indian Tribe and requested under
subsection (c) if, based on the totality of
circumstances described in subsection (b), it is shown
that not providing those additional polling places
would result in members of the Indian Tribe and living
on Indian lands or other individuals residing on the
Indian Tribe's Indian lands having less opportunity to
vote than eligible voters in that State or political
subdivision who are not members of an Indian Tribe or
do not reside on Indian lands;
(D) shall, at each polling place located on Indian
lands and at no cost to the Indian Tribe, make voting
machines, tabulation machines, official receptacles
designated for the return of completed absentee
ballots, ballots, provisional ballots, and other voting
materials available to the same or greater extent that
such equipment and materials are made available at
other polling places in the State or political
subdivision that are not located on Indian lands;
(E) shall, at each polling place located on Indian
lands, conduct the election using the same voting
procedures that are used at other polling places in the
State or political subdivision that are not located on
Indian lands, or other voting procedures that provide
greater access for voters;
(F) shall, at each polling place located on Indian
lands and at no cost to the Indian Tribe, make voter
registration available during the period the polling
place is open to the maximum extent allowable under
State law;
(G) shall, at each polling place located on Indian
lands, provide training, compensation, and other
benefits to election officials and poll workers at no
cost to the Indian Tribe and, at a minimum, to the same
or greater extent that such training, compensation, and
benefits are provided to election officials and poll
workers at other polling places in the State or
political subdivision that are not located on Indian
lands;
(H) shall, in all cases, provide the Indian Tribe
an opportunity to designate election officials and poll
workers to staff polling places within the Indian lands
of the applicable Indian Tribe on every day that the
polling places will be open;
(I) shall allow for any eligible voting member of
the Indian Tribe or any eligible voting individual
residing on Indian lands to vote early or in person at
any polling place on Indian lands, regardless of that
member or individual's residence or residential
address, and shall not reject the ballot of any such
member or individual on the grounds that the ballot was
cast at the wrong polling place; and
(J) may fulfill the State's obligations under
subparagraphs (A) and (C) by relocating existing
polling places, by creating new polling places, or
both.
(b) Equitable Opportunities To Vote.--
(1) In general.--When assessing the opportunities to vote
provided to members of an Indian Tribe and to other eligible
voters in the State residing on Indian lands in order to
determine the number of additional polling places (if any) that
a State or political subdivision must provide in accordance
with subsection (a)(2)(C), the State, political subdivision, or
any court applying this section, shall consider the totality of
circumstances of--
(A) the number of voting-age citizens assigned to
each polling place;
(B) the distances that voters must travel to reach
the polling places;
(C) the time that voters must spend traveling to
reach the polling places, including under inclement
weather conditions;
(D) the modes of transportation, if any, that are
regularly and broadly available to voters to use to
reach the polling places;
(E) the existence of and access to frequent and
reliable public transportation to the polling places;
(F) the length of lines and time voters waited to
cast a ballot in previous elections; and
(G) any other factor relevant to effectuating the
aim of achieving equal voting opportunity for
individuals living on Indian lands.
(2) Absence of factors.--When assessing the opportunities
to vote in accordance with paragraph (1), the State, political
subdivision, or court shall ensure that each factor described
in paragraph (1) is considered regardless of whether any one
factor would lead to a determination not to provide additional
polling places under subsection (a)(2)(C).
(c) Form; Provision of Form; Obligations of the Indian Tribe.--
(1) Form.--The Attorney General shall establish the form
described in this subsection through which an Indian Tribe can
fulfill its obligations under this subsection.
(2) Provision of form.--Each State or political subdivision
whose territory contains all or part of an Indian Tribe's
Indian lands--
(A) shall provide the form established under
paragraph (1) to each applicable Indian Tribe not less
than 30 days prior to the deadline set by the State or
political subdivision for completion of the obligations
under this subsection (which deadline shall be not less
than 30 days prior to a Federal election) whereby an
Indian Tribe can fulfill its obligations under this
subsection by providing the information described in
paragraph (3) on that form and submitting the form back
to the applicable State or political subdivision by
such deadline;
(B) shall not edit the form established under
paragraph (1) or apply any additional obligations on
the Indian Tribe with respect to this section; and
(C) shall cooperate in good faith with the efforts
of the Indian Tribe to satisfy the requirements of this
subsection.
(3) Obligations of the indian tribe.--The requirements for
a State and political subdivision under subsection (a)(2) shall
apply with respect to an Indian Tribe once an Indian Tribe
meets the following obligations by completing the form
specified in paragraph (1):
(A) The Indian Tribe specifies the number and
locations of requested polling places, early voting
locations, and ballot drop boxes to be provided on the
Indian lands of that Indian Tribe.
(B) The Indian Tribe certifies that curbside voting
will be available for any facilities that lack
accessible entrances and exits in accordance with
Federal and State law.
(C) The Indian Tribe certifies that the Indian
Tribe will ensure that each such requested polling
place will be open and available to all eligible voters
who reside in the precinct or other geographic area
assigned to such polling place, regardless of whether
such eligible voters are members of the Indian Tribe or
of any other Indian Tribe.
(D) The Indian Tribe requests that the State or
political subdivision shall designate election
officials and poll workers to staff such requested
polling places, or certifies that the Indian Tribe will
designate election officials and poll workers to staff
such polling places on every day that the polling
places will be open.
(E) The Indian Tribe may request that the State or
political subdivision provide absentee ballots without
requiring an excuse, an absentee ballot request, or
residential address to all eligible voters who reside
in the precinct or other geographic area assigned to
such polling place, regardless of whether such eligible
voters are members of the Indian Tribe or of any other
Indian Tribe.
(4) Established polling places.--Once a polling place is
established under subsection (a)(2)(A) or subsection (a)(2)(C)
the Tribe need not fill out the form designated under paragraph
(1) again unless or until that Indian Tribe requests
modifications to the requests specified in the most recent form
under paragraph (1).
(5) Opt out.--At any time that is 60 days or more before
the date of an election, an Indian Tribe that previously has
satisfied the obligations of paragraph (3) may notify the State
or political subdivision that the Indian Tribe intends to opt
out of the standing obligation for one or more polling places
that were established in accordance with subsection (a)(2)(A)
or subsection (a)(2)(C) for a particular election or for all
future elections. A Tribe may opt back in at any time.
(d) Federal Polling Sites.--Each State shall designate as voter
polling facilities any of the facilities identified in accordance with
subparagraph (C) or (D) of section 7(a)(2) of the National Voter
Registration Act of 1993 (52 U.S.C. 20506(a)(2)), at no cost to the
Indian Tribe, provided that the facility meets the requirements of
Federal and State law as applied to other polling places within the
State or political subdivision. The applicable agency of the Federal
Government shall ensure that such designated facilities are made
available as polling places.
(e) Mail-In Balloting.--In States or political subdivisions that
permit absentee or mail-in balloting, the following shall apply with
respect to an election for Federal office:
(1) For each ballot cast by a member of an Indian Tribe
living on Indian lands, all postage shall be prepaid by the
Federal Government and each ballot postmarked the day the
ballot is received at a postal facility located on Indian
lands.
(2) An Indian Tribe may designate at least one building per
precinct as a ballot pickup and collection location (referred
to in this section as a ``tribally designated buildings'') at
no cost to the Indian Tribe. The applicable State or political
subdivision shall collect and timely deposit all ballots from
each tribally designated building.
(3) At the applicable Tribe's request, the State or
political subdivision shall provide mail-in and absentee
ballots to each registered voter residing on Indian lands in
the State or political subdivision without requiring a
residential address, a mail-in or absentee ballot request, or
an excuse for a mail-in or absentee ballot.
(4) The address of a tribally designated building may serve
as the residential address and mailing address for voters
living on Indian lands if the tribally designated building is
in the same precinct as that voter.
(5) If there is no tribally designated building within the
precinct of a voter residing on Indian lands (including if the
tribally designated building is on Indian lands but not in the
same precinct as the voter), the voter may--
(A) use another tribally designated building within
the Indian lands where the voter is located; or
(B) use such tribally designated building as a
mailing address and may separately designate the
voter's appropriate precinct through a description of
the voter's address, as specified in section
9428.4(a)(2) of title 11, Code of Federal Regulations.
(6) In the case of a State or political subdivision that is
a covered State or political subdivision under section 203 of
the Voting Rights Act of 1965 (52 U.S.C. 10503), that State or
political subdivision shall provide absentee or mail-in voting
materials with respect to an election for Federal office in the
language of the applicable minority group as well as in the
English language, bilingual election voting assistance, and
written translations of all voting materials in the language of
the applicable minority group, as required by section 203 of
the Voting Rights Act of 1965 (52 U.S.C. 10503), as amended by
this title.
(7) A State or political division shall make reasonable
efforts to contact a voter who resides within Indian lands
located within its jurisdiction and offer such voter a
reasonable opportunity to cure any defect in an absentee ballot
issued to and completed and returned by the voter, or appearing
on or pertaining to the materials provided for the purpose of
returning the absentee ballot, if State law would otherwise
require the absentee ballot to be rejected due to such defect
and the defect does not compromise ballot secrecy or involve a
lack of witness or assistant signature, where such signature is
mandated by State law.
(8) In a State or political subdivision that does not
permit absentee or mail-in balloting for all eligible voters in
the State or political subdivision, that State or political
subdivision shall nonetheless provide for absentee or mail-in
balloting for voters who reside on Indian lands consistent with
this section if the State, political subdivision, or any court
applying this section determines that the totality of
circumstances described in subsection (b) warrants
establishment of absentee or mail-in balloting for voters who
reside on Indian lands located within the jurisdiction of the
State or political subdivision.
(f) Ballot Drop Boxes.--Each State shall--
(1) provide not less than one ballot drop box for each
precinct on Indian lands, at no cost to the Indian Tribe, at
either the tribally designated building under subsection (e)(2)
or an alternative site selected by the applicable Indian Tribe;
and
(2) provide additional drop boxes at either the tribally
designated building under subsection (e)(2) or an alternative
site selected by the applicable Indian Tribe if the State or
political subdivision determines that additional ballot drop
boxes should be provided based on the criteria considered under
the totality of circumstances enumerated under subsection (b).
(g) Early Voting.--
(1) Early voting locations.--In a State or political
subdivision that permits early voting in an election for
Federal office, that State or political subdivision shall
provide not less than one early voting location for each
precinct on Indian lands, at no cost to the Indian Tribe, at a
site selected by the applicable Indian Tribe, to allow
individuals living on Indian lands to vote during an early
voting period in the same manner as early voting is allowed on
such date in the rest of the State or precinct. Additional
early voting sites shall be determined based on the criteria
considered under the totality of circumstances described in
subsection (b).
(2) Length of period.--In a State or political subdivision
that permits early voting in an election for Federal office,
that State or political subdivision shall provide an early
voting period with respect to that election that shall consist
of a period of consecutive days (including weekends) which
begins on the 15th day before the date of the election (or, at
the option of the State or political subdivision, on a day
prior to the 15th day before the date of the election) and ends
on the date of the election for all early voting locations on
Indian lands.
(3) Minimum early voting requirements.--Each polling place
that allows voting during an early voting period under this
subsection shall--
(A) allow such voting for no less than 10 hours on
each day;
(B) have uniform hours each day for which such
voting occurs; and
(C) allow such voting to be held for some period of
time prior to 9:00 a.m. (local time) and some period of
time after 5:00 p.m. (local time).
(4) Ballot processing and scanning requirements.--
(A) In general.--To the greatest extent
practicable, ballots cast during the early voting
period in an election for Federal office at voting
locations and drop boxes on Indian lands shall be
processed and scanned for tabulation in advance of the
close of polls on the date of the election.
(B) Limitation.--Nothing in this subsection shall
be construed to permit a State or political subdivision
to tabulate and count ballots in an election for
Federal office before the closing of the polls on the
date of the election.
(h) Provisional Ballots.--
(1) In general.--In addition to the requirements under
section 302(a) of the Help America Vote Act of 2002 (52 U.S.C.
21082(a)), for each State or political subdivision that
provides voters provisional ballots, challenge ballots, or
affidavit ballots under the State's applicable law governing
the voting processes for those voters whose eligibility to vote
is determined to be uncertain by election officials, election
officials shall--
(A) provide clear written instructions indicating
the reason the voter was given a provisional ballot,
the information or documents the voter needs to prove
eligibility, the location at which the voter must
appear to submit these materials or alternative
methods, including email or facsimile, that the voter
may use to submit these materials, and the deadline for
submitting these materials;
(B) permit any voter who votes provisionally at any
polling place on Indian lands to appear at any polling
place or at the central location for the election board
to submit the documentation or information to prove
eligibility;
(C) permit any voter who votes provisionally at any
polling place to submit the required information or
documentation via email or facsimile, if the voter
prefers to use such methods as an alternative to
appearing in person to submit the required information
or documentation to prove eligibility;
(D) notify the voter on whether the voter's
provisional ballot was counted or rejected by
telephone, email, or postal mail, or any other
available method, including notifying the voter of any
online tracking website if State law provides for such
a mechanism; and
(E) provide the reason for rejection if the voter's
provisional ballot was rejected after the voter
provided the required information or documentation on
eligibility.
(2) Duties of election officials.--A State or political
subdivision described in paragraph (1) shall ensure in each
case in which a provisional ballot is cast, that election
officials--
(A) request and collect the voter's email address,
if the voter has one, and transmit any written
instructions issued to the voter in person to the voter
via email; and
(B) provide a verbal translation of any written
instructions to the voter.
(i) Enforcement.--
(1) Attorney general.--The Attorney General may bring a
civil action in an appropriate district court for such
declaratory or injunctive relief as is necessary to carry out
this section.
(2) Private right of action.--
(A) A person or Indian Tribe who is aggrieved by a
violation of this section may provide written notice of
the violation to the chief election official of the
State involved.
(B) An aggrieved person or Indian Tribe may bring a
civil action in an appropriate district court for
declaratory or injunctive relief with respect to a
violation of this section, if--
(i) that person or Indian Tribe provides
the notice described in subparagraph (A); and
(ii)(I) in the case of a violation that
occurs more than 120 days before the date of an
election for Federal office, the violation
remains and 90 days or more have passed since
the date on which the chief election official
of the State receives the notice under
subparagraph (A); or
(II) in the case of a violation that occurs
120 days or less but more than 30 days before
the date of an election for Federal office, the
violation remains and 20 days or more have
passed since the date on which the chief
election official of the State receives the
notice under subparagraph (A).
(C) In the case of a violation of this section that
occurs 30 days or less before the date of an election
for Federal office, an aggrieved person or Indian Tribe
may bring a civil action in an appropriate district
court for declaratory or injunctive relief with respect
to the violation without providing notice to the chief
election official of the State under subparagraph (A).
(3) Rule of construction.--Nothing in this section shall be
construed to prevent a State or political subdivision from
providing additional polling places or early voting locations
on Indian lands.
SEC. 307. PROCEDURES FOR REMOVAL OF POLLING PLACES AND VOTER
REGISTRATION SITES ON INDIAN LANDS.
(a) Actions Requiring Tribal Administrative Review.--No State or
political subdivision may carry out any of the following activities in
an election for Federal office unless the requirements of subsection
(b) have been met:
(1) Eliminating polling places or voter registration sites
on the Indian lands of an Indian Tribe.
(2) Moving or consolidating a polling place or voter
registration site on the Indian lands of an Indian Tribe to a
location 1 mile or further from the existing location of the
polling place or voter registration site.
(3) Moving or consolidating a polling place on the Indian
lands of an Indian Tribe to a location across a river, lake,
mountain, or other natural boundary such that it increases
travel time for a voter, regardless of distance.
(4) Eliminating in-person voting on the Indian lands of an
Indian Tribe by designating an Indian reservation as a
permanent absentee voting location, unless the Indian Tribe
requests such a designation and has not later requested that
the designation as a permanent absentee voting location be
reversed.
(5) Removing an early voting location or otherwise
diminishing early voting opportunities on Indian lands.
(6) Removing a ballot drop box or otherwise diminishing
ballot drop boxes on Indian lands.
(7) Decreasing the number of days or hours that an in-
person or early voting polling place is open on Indian lands
only or changing the dates of in-person or early voting only on
the Indian lands of an Indian Tribe.
(b) Tribal Administrative Review.--
(1) In general.--The requirements of this subsection have
been met if--
(A) the impacted Indian Tribe submits to the
Attorney General the Indian Tribe's written consent to
the proposed activity described in subsection (a);
(B) the State or political subdivision, after
consultation with the impacted Indian Tribe and after
attempting to have the impacted Indian Tribe give
consent as described in subparagraph (A), institutes an
action in the United States District Court for the
District of Columbia for a declaratory judgment, and a
declaratory judgment is issued based upon affirmative
evidence provided by the State or political
subdivision, that conclusively establishes that the
specified activity described in subsection (a) proposed
by the State or political subdivision neither has the
purpose nor will have the effect of denying or
abridging the right to vote on account of race or
color, membership in an Indian Tribe, or membership in
a language minority group; or
(C) the chief legal officer or other appropriate
official of such State or political subdivision, after
consultation with the impacted Indian Tribe and after
attempting to have the impacted Indian Tribe give
consent as described in subparagraph (A), submits a
request to carry out the specified activity described
in subsection (a) to the Attorney General and the
Attorney General affirmatively approves the specified
activity.
(2) No limitation on future actions.--
(A) No bar to subsequent action.--Neither an
affirmative indication by the Attorney General that no
objection will be made, nor the Attorney General's
failure to object, nor a declaratory judgment entered
under this section, nor a written consent issued under
paragraph (1)(A) shall bar a subsequent action to
enjoin enforcement of an activity described in
subsection (a).
(B) Reexamination.--The Attorney General reserves
the right to reexamine any submission under paragraph
(1)(C) if additional relevant information comes to the
Attorney General's attention.
(C) District court.--Any action under this section
shall be heard and determined by a district court of 3
judges in accordance with the provisions of section
2284 of title 28, United States Code, and any appeal
shall lie to the Supreme Court.
SEC. 308. TRIBAL VOTER IDENTIFICATION.
(a) Tribal Identification.--If a State or political subdivision
requires an individual to present identification for the purposes of
voting or registering to vote in an election for Federal office, an
identification card issued by a federally recognized Indian Tribe, the
Bureau of Indian Affairs, the Indian Health Service, or any other
Tribal or Federal agency issuing identification cards to eligible
Indian voters shall be treated as a valid form of identification for
such purposes.
(b) Online Registration.--If a State or political subdivision
requires an identification card for an individual to register to vote
online or to vote online, that State or political subdivision shall
annually consult with an Indian Tribe to determine whether a tribal
identification can feasibly be used to register to vote online or vote
online.
(c) Limitation on Requiring Multiple Forms of Identification.--If a
State or political subdivision requires an individual to present more
than one form of identification for the purposes of voting or
registering to vote in an election for Federal office, or for
registering to vote online or to vote online, that State or political
subdivision shall not require any member of an Indian Tribe to provide
more than one form of identification if the member provides orally or
in writing that the member does not possess more than one form of
identification.
SEC. 309. PERMITTING VOTERS TO DESIGNATE OTHER PERSON TO RETURN BALLOT.
Each State or political subdivision--
(1) shall permit any person to return a sealed ballot of a
voter that resides on Indian lands to a post office on Indian
lands, a ballot drop box location in a State or political
subdivision that provides ballot drop boxes, a tribally
designated building under section 306(e)(2), or an election
office, so long as the person designated to return the ballot
or ballots on behalf of another voter does not receive any form
of compensation based on the number of ballots that the person
has returned and no individual, group, or organization provides
compensation on this basis;
(2) may not put any limit on how many voted and sealed
absentee ballots any designated person can return to the post
office, ballot drop box location, tribally designated building,
or election office under paragraph (1); and
(3) shall permit any person to return voter registration
applications, absentee ballot applications, or absentee ballots
to ballot drop box locations in a State or political
subdivision that provides ballot drop boxes for these purposes.
SEC. 310. BILINGUAL ELECTION REQUIREMENTS.
Section 203 of the Voting Rights Act of 1965 (52 U.S.C. 10503) is
amended--
(1) in subsection (b)(3)(C), by striking ``1990'' and
inserting ``most recent''; and
(2) by striking subsection (c) and inserting the following:
``(c) Provision of Voting Materials in the Language of a Minority
Group.--
``(1) In general.--Whenever any State or political
subdivision subject to the prohibition of subsection (b),
provides any registration or voting notices, forms,
instructions, assistance, or other materials or information
relating to the electoral process, including ballots, it shall
provide them in the language of the applicable minority group
as well as in the English language.
``(2) Exceptions.--
``(A) In the case of a minority group that is not
American Indian or Alaska Native and the language of
that minority group is oral or unwritten, the State or
political subdivision shall only be required to
furnish, in the covered language, oral instructions,
assistance, translation of voting materials, or other
information relating to registration and voting.
``(B) In the case of a minority group that is
American Indian or Alaska Native, the State or
political subdivision shall only be required to furnish
in the covered language oral instructions, assistance,
or other information relating to registration and
voting, including all voting materials, if the Indian
Tribe of that minority group has certified that the
language of the applicable American Indian or Alaska
Native language is presently unwritten or the Indian
Tribe does not want written translations in the
minority language.
``(3) Written translations for election workers.--
Notwithstanding paragraph (2), the State or political division
may be required to provide written translations of voting
materials, with the consent of any applicable Indian Tribe, to
election workers to ensure that the translations from English
to the language of a minority group are complete, accurate, and
uniform.''.
SEC. 311. FEDERAL OBSERVERS TO PROTECT TRIBAL VOTING RIGHTS.
(a) Amendment to the Voting Rights Act of 1965.--Section 8(a) of
the Voting Rights Act of 1965 (52 U.S.C. 10305(a)) is amended--
(1) in paragraph (1), by striking ``or'' after the
semicolon;
(2) in paragraph (2)(B), by adding ``or'' after the
semicolon; and
(3) by inserting after paragraph (2) the following:
``(3) the Attorney General has received a written complaint
from an Indian Tribe that efforts to deny or abridge the right
to vote under the color of law on account of race or color,
membership in an Indian Tribe, or in contravention of the
guarantees set forth in section 4(f)(2), are likely to
occur;''.
(b) Publicly Available Reports.--The Attorney General shall make
publicly available the reports of a Federal election observer appointed
pursuant to section (8)(a)(3) of the Voting Rights Act of 1965 (52
U.S.C. 10305(a)(3)), as added by subsection (a), not later than 6
months after the date that such reports are submitted to the Attorney
General, except that any personally identifiable information relating
to a voter or the substance of the voter's ballot shall not be made
public.
SEC. 312. TRIBAL JURISDICTION.
(a) In General.--Tribal law enforcement have the right to exercise
their inherent authority to detain and or remove any non-Indian, not
affiliated with the State, its political subdivision, or the Federal
Government, from Indian lands for intimidating, harassing, or otherwise
impeding the ability of people to vote or of the State and its
political subdivisions to conduct an election.
(b) Civil Action by Attorney General for Relief.--Whenever any
person has engaged or there are reasonable grounds to believe that any
person is about to engage in any act or practice prohibited by this
section, the Attorney General may institute for the United States, or
in the name of the United States, an action for preventive relief,
including an application for a temporary or permanent injunction,
restraining order, or other order, and including an order directed to
the State and State or local election officials to require them to
permit persons to vote and to count such votes.
SEC. 313. TRIBAL VOTING CONSULTATION.
The Attorney General shall consult annually with Indian Tribes
regarding issues related to voting in elections for Federal office.
SEC. 314. ATTORNEYS' FEES, EXPERT FEES, AND LITIGATION EXPENSES.
In a civil action under this title, the court shall award the
prevailing party, other than the United States, reasonable attorney
fees, including litigation expenses, reasonable expert fees, and costs.
SEC. 315. GAO STUDY AND REPORT.
The Comptroller General shall study the prevalence of
nontraditional or nonexistent mailing addresses among Indians, those
who are members of Indian Tribes, and those residing on Indian lands
and identify alternatives to remove barriers to voter registration,
receipt of voter information and materials, and receipt of ballots. The
Comptroller General shall report the results of that study to Congress
not later than 1 year after the date of enactment of this title.
SEC. 316. UNITED STATES POSTAL SERVICE CONSULTATION.
The Postmaster General shall consult with Indian Tribes, on an
annual basis, regarding issues relating to the United States Postal
Service that present barriers to voting for eligible voters living on
Indian lands.
SEC. 317. SEVERABILITY; RELATIONSHIP TO OTHER LAWS; TRIBAL SOVEREIGN
IMMUNITY.
(a) Severability.--If any provision of this title, or the
application of such a provision to any person, entity, or circumstance,
is held to be invalid, the remaining provisions of this title and the
application of all provisions of this title to any other person,
entity, or circumstance shall not be affected by the invalidity.
(b) Relationship to Other Laws.--Nothing in this title shall
invalidate, or limit the rights, remedies, or procedures available
under, or supersede, restrict, or limit the application of, the Voting
Rights Act of 1965 (52 U.S.C. 10301 et seq.), the National Voter
Registration Act of 1993 (52 U.S.C. 20501 et seq.), the Help America
Vote Act of 2002 (52 U.S.C. 20901 et seq.), or any other Federal law or
regulation related to voting or the electoral process. Notwithstanding
any other provision of law, the provisions of this title, and the
amendments made by this title, shall be applicable within the State of
Maine.
(c) Tribal Sovereign Immunity.--Nothing in this title shall be
construed as--
(1) affecting, modifying, diminishing, or otherwise
impairing the sovereign immunity from suit enjoyed by an Indian
Tribe; or
(2) authorizing or requiring the termination of any
existing trust responsibility of the United States with respect
to Indian people.
SEC. 318. AUTHORIZATION OF APPROPRIATIONS.
There are authorized to be appropriated such sums as may be
necessary to carry out this title.
Calendar No. 143
117th CONGRESS
1st Session
S. 4
_______________________________________________________________________ | John R. Lewis Voting Rights Advancement Act of 2021 | A bill to amend the Voting Rights Act of 1965 to revise the criteria for determining which States and political subdivisions are subject to section 4 of the Act, and for other purposes. | John R. Lewis Voting Rights Advancement Act of 2021
Election Worker and Polling Place Protection Act
Frank Harrison, Elizabeth Peratrovich, and Miguel Trujillo Native American Voting Rights Act of 2021 | Sen. Leahy, Patrick J. | D | VT |
3 | 2,777 | S.3656 | Health | Reducing Hereditary Cancer Act of 2022
This bill provides for Medicare coverage of germline mutation testing for individuals with a personal or family history of a hereditary cancer gene mutation or suspected history of hereditary cancer, as well as for associated coverage of risk-reducing surgeries and screenings. | To amend title XVIII of the Social Security Act to provide hereditary
cancer genetic testing for individuals with a history of a hereditary
cancer gene mutation in a blood relative or a personal or ancestral
history suspicious for hereditary cancer, and to provide coverage of
certain cancer screenings or preventive surgeries that would reduce the
risk for individuals with a germline (inherited) mutation associated
with a high risk of developing a preventable cancer.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Reducing Hereditary Cancer Act of
2022''.
SEC. 2. HEREDITARY CANCER GENETIC TESTING OF INDIVIDUALS WITH A FAMILY
HISTORY OF A HEREDITARY CANCER GENE MUTATION OR PERSONAL
OR FAMILY HISTORY SUSPICIOUS FOR HEREDITARY CANCER.
(a) Coverage.--Section 1861 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C.
1395x) is amended--
(1) in subsection (s)(2)--
(A) by striking ``and'' at the end of subparagraph
(GG);
(B) by striking the period and inserting ``; and''
at the end of subparagraph (HH); and
(C) by inserting after subparagraph (HH) the
following new subparagraph:
``(II) in the case of an individual with a personal or
family history of a hereditary cancer gene mutation or a
personal or family history suspicious for hereditary cancer,
germline mutation testing.''; and
(2) by adding at the end the following new subsection:
``(lll) Germline Mutation Testing.--The term `germline mutation
testing' means genetic testing for germline mutations that is in
accordance with evidence-based, clinical practice guidelines
specifically addressing genetic testing, screening, and management of
individuals with inherited mutations associated with increased cancer
risk that--
``(1) have been developed by a nationally recognized
oncology professional organization, including the National
Comprehensive Cancer Network, the American Society of Clinical
Oncology, the Society of Gynecologic Oncology, or any other
oncology professional organization specified by a medicare
administrative contractor with a contract under section 1874A;
and
``(2) in the case of conflicting guidelines developed by
more than one nationally recognized oncology professional
organization, the least restrictive of such guidelines, as
determined by such a medicare administrative contractor.''.
(b) Frequency.--Section 1862(a)(1) of the Social Security Act (42
U.S.C. 1395y(a)(1)) is amended--
(1) by striking ``and'' at the end of subparagraph (O);
(2) by adding ``and'' at the end of subparagraph (P); and
(3) by adding at the end the following new subparagraph:
``(Q) in the case of germline mutation testing as defined
in section 1861(lll), which is performed more than once with
respect to an individual described in such section;''.
(c) Effective Date.--The amendments made by this section shall
apply to testing furnished on or after the date of the enactment of
this Act.
SEC. 3. COVERAGE OF CERTAIN PREVENTIVE SURGERIES.
(a) In General.--Section 1862 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C.
1395y) is amended by adding at the end the following new subsection:
``(p) Coverage of Certain Risk-Reducing Surgeries.--In the case of
an individual described in section 1861(s)(2)(II) for whom, based on
evidence-based, clinical practice guidelines described in section
1861(lll), surgery would reduce the risk of developing cancer, such
risk-reducing surgery shall be considered reasonable and necessary for
treatment of illness under subsection (a)(1)(A).''.
(b) Effective Date.--The amendment made by subsection (a) shall
apply to items and services furnished on or after the date of the
enactment of this Act.
SEC. 4. COVERAGE OF EVIDENCE-BASED SCREENINGS FOR INDIVIDUALS WITH A
HEREDITARY CANCER GENE MUTATION.
(a) In General.--Section 1862 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C.
1395y), as amended by section 3, is amended by adding at the end the
following new subsection:
``(q) Coverage of Evidence-Based Screenings for Individuals With a
Hereditary Cancer Gene Mutation.--In the case of an individual who is
determined pursuant to genetic testing to have a hereditary cancer
(germline) gene mutation, the Secretary shall increase any frequency
limitations (or other limitations on coverage otherwise applicable
under this title) for any evidence-based screenings furnished to such
individual, to be in compliance with evidence-based, clinical practice
guidelines described in section 1861(lll), or as determined appropriate
by the Secretary, but not less frequently than on an annual basis. For
the purposes of this subsection, evidence-based screenings shall
include screening mammography, breast screening MRI, colonoscopy, PSA
testing, and any additional evidence-based screening modalities
appropriate for high-risk individuals as recommended by such
guidelines.''.
(b) Conforming Amendment for Screening Mammography.--Section
1834(c)(2)(A) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395m(c)(2)(A)) is
amended, in the matter preceding clause (i), by striking ``subparagraph
(B)'' and inserting ``subparagraph (B) and section 1862(q)''.
(c) Effective Date.--The amendments made by this section shall
apply to items and services furnished on or after the date of the
enactment of this Act.
<all> | Reducing Hereditary Cancer Act of 2022 | A bill to amend title XVIII of the Social Security Act to provide hereditary cancer genetic testing for individuals with a history of a hereditary cancer gene mutation in a blood relative or a personal or ancestral history suspicious for hereditary cancer, and to provide coverage of certain cancer screenings or preventive surgeries that would reduce the risk for individuals with a germline (inherited) mutation associated with a high risk of developing a preventable cancer. | Reducing Hereditary Cancer Act of 2022 | Sen. Murkowski, Lisa | R | AK |
4 | 3,528 | S.192 | Public Lands and Natural Resources | River Democracy Act of 2021
This bill designates specified river segments, primarily in Oregon, as components of the National Wild and Scenic Rivers System. | To amend the Wild and Scenic Rivers Act to designate certain river
segments in the State of Oregon as components of the National Wild and
Scenic Rivers System, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``River Democracy Act of 2021''.
SEC. 2. FINDINGS.
Congress finds that--
(1) on October 2, 2019, Senator Ron Wyden announced a
statewide public process to collect nominations from residents
of the State of Oregon for Oregon rivers to be designated as
components of the National Wild and Scenic Rivers System;
(2) over a period of less than 90 days, more than 2,200
residents of the State of Oregon submitted more than 15,000
nominations of free-flowing stream segments for designation as
components of the National Wild and Scenic Rivers System,
demonstrating a deep love and support for components of the
National Wild and Scenic Rivers System;
(3) components of the National Wild and Scenic Rivers
System enhance and protect community drinking water, recreation
opportunities, and wildlife habitat;
(4) the free-flowing streams of the State of Oregon are an
unparalleled resource for the residents of the State of Oregon
and all people of the United States;
(5) the residents of the State of Oregon--
(A) are proud of and cherish the natural heritage
of wild and scenic rivers in the State; and
(B) wish to expand the legacy of wild and scenic
rivers for the benefit of future generations of
residents of the State of Oregon and people of the
United States;
(6) there are 110,994 miles of rivers and streams in the
State of Oregon, but only 2,173 miles of streams were
previously included as components of the National Wild and
Scenic Rivers System;
(7) existing and proposed components of the National Wild
and Scenic Rivers System in the State of Oregon range from
remote wilderness land to developed recreation areas readily
accessible by roads and trails;
(8) components of the National Wild and Scenic Rivers
System in the State of Oregon and the outdoor recreation
economy benefit local communities and businesses in rural
Oregon and across the State of Oregon, generating
$15,600,000,000 in consumer spending and more than 224,000 jobs
in 2019, including jobs relating to hunting, fishing, rafting,
and guiding;
(9) components of the National Wild and Scenic Rivers
System provide essential habitat for--
(A) elk, deer, and other game animals; and
(B) species affected by climate change, including--
(i) salmon, steelhead, lamprey, and the
Lost River and shortnose sucker;
(ii) cutthroat, rainbow, redband, and bull
trout (including the Lahontan cutthroat trout);
and
(iii) numerous other wildlife species;
(10) components of the National Wild and Scenic Rivers
System are important to Indian Tribes because the components--
(A) conserve resources for Tribal use; and
(B) preserve the cultural history of Indian Tribes
dating back more than 10,000 years; and
(11) the components of the National Wild and Scenic Rivers
System within the State of Oregon have the outstandingly
remarkable value of landscape connectivity, with the components
serving as habitat corridors that facilitate the vital
movements of animals, plants, genes, water, and energy between
and within ecosystems.
SEC. 3. DEFINITIONS.
In this Act:
(1) Covered segment.--The term ``covered segment'' means a
river segment designated by this Act or an amendment made by
this Act.
(2) Secretary concerned.--The term ``Secretary concerned''
means--
(A) the Secretary of the Interior, with respect to
a covered segment under the jurisdiction of the
Secretary of the Interior; and
(B) the Secretary of Agriculture, with respect to a
covered segment under the jurisdiction of the Secretary
of Agriculture.
SEC. 4. ADMINISTRATION OF COMPONENTS OF THE NATIONAL WILD AND SCENIC
RIVERS SYSTEM.
(a) National Landscape Conservation System.--Section 10 of the Wild
and Scenic Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1281) is amended by striking
subsection (c) and inserting the following:
``(c) Areas Administered by the National Park Service, the United
States Fish and Wildlife Service, and the Bureau of Land Management.--
``(1) National park system.--Any component of the National
Wild and Scenic Rivers System that is administered by the
Secretary of the Interior (acting through the Director of the
National Park Service) shall be a part of the National Park
System.
``(2) National wildlife refuge system.--Any component of
the National Wild and Scenic Rivers System that is administered
by the Secretary of the Interior (acting through the Director
of the United States Fish and Wildlife Service) shall be a part
of the National Wildlife Refuge System.
``(3) National landscape conservation system.--Any
component of the National Wild and Scenic Rivers System that is
administered by the Secretary of the Interior (acting through
the Director of the Bureau of Land Management) shall be a part
of the National Landscape Conservation System.
``(4) Applicable law.--
``(A) In general.--Any component of the National
Wild and Scenic Rivers System that is administered by
the Secretary of the Interior shall be subject to--
``(i) this Act; and
``(ii) the laws under which the National
Park System, National Wildlife Refuge System,
or the National Landscape Conservation System,
as applicable, is administered.
``(B) Resolution of conflict.--If there is a
conflict between the laws referred to in subparagraph
(A)(ii) and this Act, the more restrictive provision
shall control.
``(5) Administration.--The Secretary of the Interior, in
the administration of any component of the National Wild and
Scenic Rivers System, may use--
``(A) any general statutory authorities relating to
units of the National Park System, National Wildlife
Refuge System, or National Landscape Conservation
System, as applicable; and
``(B) any general statutory authorities otherwise
available to the Secretary of the Interior for
recreation and preservation purposes and the
conservation and management of natural resources, as
the Secretary of the Interior determines to be
appropriate to carry out the purposes of this Act.''.
(b) Cooperative Agreements With Indian Tribes.--Section 10 of the
Wild and Scenic Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1281) is amended by striking
subsection (e) and inserting the following:
``(e) Cooperative Agreements.--The head of the Federal agency
responsible for the administration of a component of the National Wild
and Scenic Rivers System--
``(1) may enter into a written cooperative agreement with a
Tribal Government, the Governor of a State, the head of any
State agency, or the appropriate official of a political
subdivision of a State to provide for Tribal, State, or local
governmental participation in the administration of the
component; and
``(2) shall encourage Indian Tribes, States, and political
subdivisions of States to cooperate in the planning and
administration of components of the National Wild and Scenic
Rivers System that include or adjoin land owned by the Indian
Tribe, State, or a political subdivision of the State or land
held in trust for the Indian Tribe, as applicable.''.
SEC. 5. ADMINISTRATION OF COVERED SEGMENTS.
(a) Comprehensive Management Plan for Covered Segments.--
(1) In general.--The Secretary concerned shall prepare, in
accordance with section 3(d) of the Wild and Scenic Rivers Act
(16 U.S.C. 1274(d)) and this subsection, a comprehensive
management plan for each covered segment.
(2) Timing.--
(A) In general.--Notwithstanding section 3(d) of
the Wild and Scenic Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(d)),
except as provided in subparagraph (B), the
comprehensive management plan described in paragraph
(1) shall be completed, to the maximum extent
practicable, as part of the regular land use management
planning process of the agency with jurisdiction over
the covered segment.
(B) Exception.--If the Secretary concerned
determines that the regular land use management
planning cycle of the agency with jurisdiction over a
covered segment does not coincide with the designation
of the covered segment under this Act or an amendment
made by this Act, the comprehensive management plan for
the covered segment shall be completed by the date that
is 6 years after the date on which the covered segment
is designated.
(3) Interim detailed boundaries.--Until the date on which a
comprehensive management plan that includes detailed boundaries
for the applicable covered segment required under section 3(b)
of the Wild and Scenic Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(b)) is
completed, the interim detailed boundaries for the covered
segment shall be \1/2\ mile from the ordinary high water mark
on each bank or shore, unless an Act of Congress requires the
inclusion of non-Federal land within the boundary of the
covered segment.
(4) Outstandingly remarkable values.--
(A) In general.--The outstandingly remarkable
values of a covered segment include--
(i) the values described in section 2(11);
and
(ii) any additional outstandingly
remarkable values that are determined by the
Secretary concerned as part of the
comprehensive management plan for the covered
segment required under paragraph (1).
(B) North fork sprague wild and scenic river.--In
addition to the outstandingly remarkable values
referred to in subparagraph (A), the North Fork Sprague
Wild and Scenic River in the State of Oregon has the
additional outstandingly remarkable value of native
fish.
(5) Interim management.--Except as otherwise provided in
this Act, until the date on which a comprehensive management
plan is prepared under paragraph (1) for a covered segment, the
Secretary concerned shall fully comply with the Wild and Scenic
Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1271 et seq.) in managing the covered
segment.
(6) Reducing catastrophic wildfire risks.--As part of the
development of a comprehensive management plan under paragraph
(1) or the updating of such a plan, the Secretary concerned, in
a manner consistent with the Wild and Scenic Rivers Act (16
U.S.C. 1271 et seq.), shall--
(A) assess with respect to the applicable covered
segment--
(i) the probable risk of high intensity
wildfires degrading river values;
(ii) the risk of high intensity wildfires
to public safety; and
(iii) the role of fire in meeting long-term
resource management objectives, including the
protection and enhancement of outstandingly
remarkable values and water quality;
(B) determine the appropriate use of prescribed
fire to meet long-term resource management objectives;
and
(C) develop a fire management plan to increase the
resiliency of the applicable covered segment and
adjacent communities.
(7) Culturally significant native species management.--As
part of the development of a comprehensive management plan
under paragraph (1) or the updating of such a plan, the
Secretary concerned, in a matter consistent with section 3 of
the Wild and Scenic Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274), shall--
(A) assess culturally significant native species,
including traditional foods such as huckleberry,
chokecherry, camas, and wapato;
(B) develop a culturally significant native species
management plan for applicable areas to increase the
resiliency of the species; and
(C) consult with the applicable Indian Tribe to
develop the management plan and to meet long-term
species management objectives.
(8) Bull trout conservation.--A comprehensive management
plan for a covered segment developed under paragraph (1)
shall--
(A) authorize Federal, State, and Tribal agencies
to conduct native fish restoration and barrier
installation and maintenance activities in the
applicable covered segment, in accordance with the
environmental impact statement assessment of the
planning document entitled ``Upper Malheur Watershed
Bull Trout Conservation Strategy''; and
(B) address bull trout restoration as part of
protecting river values of the applicable covered
segment, including the management of invasive nonnative
fish species.
(9) Ecological function.--As part of the development of a
comprehensive management plan under paragraph (1) or the
updating of such a plan, the Secretary concerned, in a matter
consistent with the Wild and Scenic Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1271
et seq.), shall develop and implement projects, through a
collaborative process, to improve the ecological function of
the ecosystem if environmental analysis indicates that the
projects are appropriate.
(10) Submission.--On completion of a comprehensive
management plan under paragraph (1) or any update to such a
plan, the Secretary concerned shall concurrently submit the
plan to--
(A) Congress; and
(B) each applicable board of county commissioners
and Tribal government.
(b) Implementation of Fire Management Plan.--On completion of a
fire management plan developed for the applicable covered segment under
subsection (a)(6)(C), the Secretary concerned shall implement the fire
management plan as part of the applicable comprehensive management plan
to reduce assessed risks, consistent with--
(1) the purposes of the Wild and Scenic Rivers Act (16
U.S.C. 1271 et seq.); and
(2) the protection and enhancement of the outstandingly
remarkable values of the covered segment under section 10(a) of
that Act (16 U.S.C. 1281(a)).
(c) Cooperative Agreements With States and Indian Tribes.--In
administering wild and scenic river segments in the State of Oregon,
the Secretary concerned may enter into cooperative agreements with the
State of Oregon, any political subdivision of the State of Oregon, or a
Tribal government for the rendering, on a reimbursable or
nonreimbursable basis, of--
(1) rescue, firefighting, and law enforcement services; and
(2) cooperative assistance by nearby law enforcement and
fire management agencies.
(d) Appropriation for the Restoration of Certain Wild and Scenic
River Segments.--
(1) In general.--There is authorized to be appropriated,
and there is appropriated, out of any amounts in the Treasury
not otherwise appropriated, $30,000,000 for fiscal year 2022
and each fiscal year thereafter for the purpose of restoring
components of the National Wild and Scenic Rivers System that--
(A) provide drinking water for downstream
communities; or
(B) have been degraded by catastrophic wildfire.
(2) Requirement.--Of the amount appropriated by paragraph
(1), not more than $5,000,000 shall be used by each Secretary
concerned for watershed restoration for components of the
National Wild and Scenic Rivers System that provide drinking
water for downstream communities.
(e) Existing Rights.--Nothing in this Act or an amendment made by
this Act--
(1) affects any valid existing rights with respect to a
covered segment, including the right to maintain and repair
facilities used to exercise valid existing rights; or
(2) abrogates any existing right, privilege, or contract
affecting Federal land held by any private party without the
consent of that party, including any right, privilege, or
contract concerning--
(A) utility corridors;
(B) communications facilities;
(C) recreational cabins and resorts;
(D) group facilities;
(E) roads; or
(F) water transmission facilities.
(f) Private Property Rights.--
(1) In general.--Nothing in this Act or an amendment made
by this Act affects private property rights with respect to a
covered segment.
(2) Acquisition of private land.--The Secretary concerned
may not acquire any private land or interest in private land
within the detailed boundaries of a covered segment without the
consent of the owner of the private land.
(g) Water Rights.--Nothing in this Act or an amendment made by this
Act--
(1) affects any valid or vested water right existing as of
the date of enactment of this Act; or
(2) preempts the ability of the State of Oregon to
administer water rights pursuant to State law (including
regulations).
(h) Tribal Land and Treaty Rights.--
(1) In general.--Any land owned by an Indian Tribe or held
in trust by the United States for the benefit of an Indian
Tribe or member of an Indian Tribe shall not be included within
the boundaries of a covered segment without the express consent
of the applicable Tribal government.
(2) Consultation.--With respect to a covered segment that
includes land described in paragraph (1), the Secretary
concerned shall, as appropriate, consult, and enter into
written cooperative management agreements, with the applicable
Indian Tribe for the planning, administration, and management
of the covered segment, in accordance with section 10(e) of the
Wild and Scenic Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1281(e)).
(3) Effect of act.--Nothing in this Act or an amendment
made by this Act affects, within a covered segment--
(A) the jurisdiction or responsibilities of an
Indian Tribe with respect to the management of fish,
wildlife, land, or water;
(B) the treaty or other rights of an Indian Tribe;
(C) the claims of an Indian Tribe to water or land;
(D) the rights or jurisdiction of Indian Tribes
over water or any groundwater resource; or
(E) the beneficial ownership interest of--
(i) land held in trust by the United States
for an Indian Tribe;
(ii) land held by an Indian Tribe; or
(iii) a member of an Indian Tribe.
(i) Effect on Wildfire Management.--Nothing in this Act or an
amendment made by this Act alters the authority of the Secretary
concerned (in cooperation with other Federal, State, and local
agencies, as appropriate) to conduct wildland fire operations within a
covered segment, including the construction of temporary roads if
required for public safety, consistent with--
(1) the purposes of the Wild and Scenic Rivers Act (16
U.S.C. 1271 et seq.); and
(2) the protection and enhancement of the outstandingly
remarkable values of the covered segment under section 10(a) of
that Act (16 U.S.C. 1281(a)).
(j) Land Acquisition From Willing Sellers.--If requested by the
landowner, the Secretary concerned shall seek to acquire by purchase or
exchange non-Federal land or interests in land within and adjacent to
the detailed boundaries of a covered segment.
(k) Stream Gauge Administration.--Nothing in this Act or an
amendment made by this Act affects the installation, operation,
maintenance, repair, or replacement of federally administered or State-
administered stream gauges or other similar science-based water quality
or quantity measurement apparatus.
(l) Restoration.--Consistent with the Wild and Scenic Rivers Act
(16 U.S.C. 1271 et seq.) and any regulations issued under that Act, the
Secretary may authorize any activity or project, the primary purpose of
which is--
(1) river restoration;
(2) the recovery of a species listed as endangered or
threatened under the Endangered Species Act of 1973 (16 U.S.C.
1531 et seq.); or
(3) improving ecological function.
SEC. 6. BOUNDARIES AND MINERAL WITHDRAWAL FOR COMPONENTS OF THE
NATIONAL WILD AND SCENIC RIVERS SYSTEM IN THE STATE OF
OREGON.
(a) Boundaries for Wild and Scenic Rivers in the State of Oregon.--
Section 3 of the Wild and Scenic Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274) is
amended--
(1) in subsection (b), in the first sentence--
(A) by striking ``different date if'' and inserting
``different date is''; and
(B) by striking ``(which boundaries'' and inserting
``(except as provided in subsection (e), the boundaries
of which''; and
(2) by adding at the end the following:
``(e) Boundaries for Wild and Scenic Rivers in the State of
Oregon.--Notwithstanding subsection (b), in the case of a segment that
is designated as a component of the National Wild and Scenic Rivers
System in the State of Oregon on or after the date of enactment of the
River Democracy Act of 2021, the boundaries shall include an average of
640 acres of land per mile measured from the ordinary high water mark
on both sides of the river.''.
(b) Mineral Withdrawal for Wild and Scenic Rivers in the State of
Oregon.--Section 9 of the Wild and Scenic Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1280)
is amended by adding at the end the following:
``(c) Comprehensive Mineral Withdrawal Within the State of
Oregon.--
``(1) Definition of covered land.--In this subsection, the
term `covered land' means any Federal land that consists of--
``(A) the bed or bank of a component of the
National Wild and Scenic Rivers System in the State of
Oregon; or
``(B)(i) in the case of a component of the National
Wild and Rivers System in the State of Oregon that is
subject to the 320-mile acreage limitation under
section 3(b), within \1/4\ mile of the bank of the
component; or
``(ii) in the case of a component of the National
Wild and Rivers System in the State of Oregon that is
subject to a 640-mile acreage limitation under
subsection (a) or (e) of section 3, within \1/2\ mile
of the bank of the component.
``(2) Mineral withdrawal.--Notwithstanding subsection
(a)(iii) and subject to valid existing rights, all covered land
is withdrawn from all forms of--
``(A) location, entry, and patent under the mining
laws; and
``(B) disposition under all laws relating to
mineral and geothermal leasing or mineral materials.''.
SEC. 7. ADDITIONS TO EXISTING COMPONENTS OF THE NATIONAL WILD AND
SCENIC RIVERS SYSTEM.
(a) Rogue River.--Section 3(a)(5)(B) of the Wild and Scenic Rivers
Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)(5)(B)) is amended by adding at the end the
following:
``(xxxv) Quosatana creek.--The
approximately 8.6-mile segment of Quosatana
Creek from and including the headwaters to the
confluence with the Rogue River, as a scenic
river.
``(xxxvi) Jim hunt creek.--
``(I) Mainstem.--The approximately
0.8-mile segment of Jim Hunt Creek from
the eastern boundary of SW\1/4\ sec.
19, T. 36 S., R. 13 W., Willamette
Meridian, to the western edge of the
NE\1/4\SE\1/4\ sec. 24, T. 36 S., R. 14
W., Willamette Meridian, to be
administered by the Secretary of
Agriculture and the Secretary of the
Interior as a scenic river.
``(II) Unnamed tributary.--The
approximately 1.4-mile segment of an
unnamed tributary to Jim Hunt Creek
from and including the headwaters at
Signal Buttes to the Rogue River-
Siskiyou National Forest boundary, as a
wild river.
``(xxxvii) Shasta costa creek.--
``(I) Upper shasta costa creek.--
The approximately 13.9-mile segment of
Shasta Costa Creek from and including
the headwaters to the mainstem Rogue
Wild and Scenic River detailed
boundary, as a wild river.
``(II) Lower shasta costa creek.--
The approximately 0.2-mile segment of
Shasta Costa Creek from the mainstem
Rogue Wild and Scenic River protective
corridor boundary to the confluence
with the Rogue River, as a recreational
river.
``(III) Squirrel camp creek.--The
approximately 2.9-mile segment of
Squirrel Camp Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with
Shasta Costa Creek, as a recreational
river.
``(xxxviii) Stair creek.--The approximately
5-mile section of Stair Creek from and
including the headwaters to the western edge of
T. 33 S., R. 10 W., sec. 28, Willamette
Meridian, as a wild river.
``(xxxix) Tom fry creek.--The approximately
1.3-mile segment of Tom Fry Creek from and
including the headwaters to the north boundary
of SE\1/4\SE\1/4\ sec. 13, T. 35 S., R. 12 W.,
Willamette Meridian, as a scenic river.''.
(b) Snake, Idaho and Oregon.--Section 3(a) of the Wild and Scenic
Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)) is amended by striking paragraph (12)
and inserting the following:
``(12) Snake, idaho and oregon.--
``(A) Wild river; scenic river.--
``(i) Wild river.--The segment from Hells
Canyon Dam downstream to Pittsburgh Landing, as
a wild river.
``(ii) Scenic river.--The segment from
Pittsburgh Landing downstream to an eastward
extension of the border between the States of
Oregon and Washington, as a scenic river.
``(B) Additions.--In addition to the segments
described in subparagraph (A), there are designated the
following segments, to be administered by the Secretary
of Agriculture:
``(i) Cache creek, oregon.--The
approximately 4.1-mile segment of Cache Creek
from and including the headwaters to the
confluence with the Snake River, as a wild
river.
``(ii) Jim creek.--
``(I) Mainstem.--The approximately
1.7-mile segment of Jim Creek from the
confluence of the North and South Forks
of Jim Creek to the confluence with the
Snake River, as a wild river.
``(II) Forks.--
``(aa) North fork.--The
approximately 2.5-mile segment
of North Fork Jim Creek from
and including the headwaters to
the confluence with South Fork
Jim Creek, as a wild river.
``(bb) South fork.--The
approximately 2.6-mile segment
of South Fork Jim Creek from
and including the headwaters to
the confluence with North Fork
Jim Creek, as a wild river.
``(iii) Cook creek.--The approximately
11.8-mile segment of Cook Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
the Snake River, as a wild river.
``(iv) Five points creek.--The
approximately 2.9-mile segment of Five Points
Creek from and including the headwaters to the
confluence with Cook Creek, as a wild river.
``(v) Cherry creek.--
``(I) Upper.--The approximately
7.3-mile segment of Cherry Creek from
and including the headwaters (including
Buckhorn Spring) to the confluence with
Makin Creek, as a recreational river.
``(II) Lower.--The approximately
4.2-mile segment of Cherry Creek from
the confluence with Makin Creek to the
confluence with the Snake River, as a
wild river.
``(vi) Knight creek.--The approximately
2.4-mile segment of Knight Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
the Snake River, as a wild river.''.
(c) Illinois, Oregon.--Section 3(a)(54) of the Wild and Scenic
Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)(54)) is amended--
(1) in the first sentence, by striking ``The segment from''
and inserting the following:
``(A) In general.--The segment from''; and
(2) by adding at the end the following:
``(B) Additions.--In addition to the segment
described in subparagraph (A), there are designated the
following stream segments that are tributaries to the
segment described in that subparagraph, to be
administered by the Secretary of Agriculture, except as
otherwise provided, in the following classes:
``(i) East fork illinois river upper
mainstem and tributaries.--
``(I) Uppermost east fork illinois
river.--
``(aa) Upper.--The
approximately 8.4-mile segment
of the East Fork Illinois River
from and including the
headwaters to the confluence
with Bybee Gulch, as a wild
river.
``(bb) Lower.--The
approximately 1.4-mile segment
of the East Fork Illinois River
from the confluence with Bybee
Gulch to the north boundary of
T. 41 S., R. 8 W., sec. 15,
Willamette Meridian, as a
recreational river.
``(II) Chicago creek.--The
approximately 2.8-mile segment of
Chicago Creek from and including the
headwaters (including Whiskey Lake) to
the confluence with the East Fork
Illinois River, as a wild river.
``(III) Sanger canyon.--
``(aa) Upper.--The
approximately 0.7-mile segment
of Sanger Creek from and
including the headwaters to the
boundary of the Siskiyou
Wilderness, as a scenic river.
``(bb) Lower.--The
approximately 1.6-mile segment
of Sanger Creek from the
boundary of the Siskiyou
Wilderness to the confluence
with the East Fork Illinois
River, as a wild river.
``(IV) Dunn creek.--
``(aa) Upper.--The
approximately 7.5-mile segment
of Dunn Creek from and
including the headwaters on
Lookout Mountain to the
confluence with Poker Creek, as
a wild river.
``(bb) Middle.--The
approximately 1.5-mile segment
of Dunn Creek from the
confluence with Poker Creek to
the north boundary of T. 18 N.,
R. 5 E., sec. 2, Humboldt
Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(cc) Lower.--The
approximately 0.8-mile segment
of Dunn Creek from the west
boundary of E\1/2\SE\1/4\sec.
34, T. 19 N., R. 5 E., Humboldt
Meridian, to the confluence
with the East Fork Illinois
River, as a recreational river.
``(V) Mud lake creek.--The
approximately 1.5-mile segment of Mud
Lake Creek from and including the
headwaters (including Mud Lake) to the
confluence with Dunn Creek, as a wild
river.
``(VI) Poker creek.--
``(aa) Upper.--The
approximately 1.6-mile segment
of Poker Creek from and
including the headwaters to 100
feet above Forest Road 4904-
060, as a wild river.
``(bb) Lower.--The
approximately 1.7-mile segment
of Power Creek from 100 feet
above Forest Road 4904-060 to
the confluence with Dunn Creek,
as a scenic river.
``(VII) Black creek.--The
approximately 2.7-mile segment of Black
Creek from and including the headwaters
(including Black Lake) to the
confluence with Dunn Creek, as a wild
river.
``(ii) Sucker creek, althouse creek, and
tributaries.--
``(I) Sucker creek.--
``(aa) Upper.--The
approximately 4.5-mile segment
of Sucker Creek from and
including the headwaters to
0.01 mile above Forest Service
Road 098, as a wild river.
``(bb) Middle.--The
approximately 12-mile segment
of Sucker Creek from 0.01 miles
above Forest Service Road 098
to the north boundary of T. 39
S., R. 7 W., sec. 25,
Willamette Meridian, to be
administered by the Secretary
of Agriculture and the
Secretary of the Interior as a
recreational river.
``(II) Left fork sucker creek.--The
approximately 4.7-mile segment of the
Left Fork Sucker Creek from and
including the headwaters to the
confluence with Sucker Creek, as a
scenic river.
``(III) Brush creek.--The
approximately 2.4-mile segment of Brush
Creek from and including the headwaters
to the confluence with Left Fork Sucker
Creek, as a scenic river.
``(IV) Left hand fork brush
creek.--The approximately 1-mile
segment of the Left Hand Fork Brush
Creek from and including the headwaters
to the confluence with Brush Creek, as
a scenic river.
``(V) Bolan creek.--The
approximately 4-mile segment of Bolan
Creek from 0.01 miles below Bolan Lake,
to the confluence with Sucker Creek, as
a scenic river.
``(VI) Tannen creek.--The
approximately 2-mile segment of Tannen
Creek from and including Tannen Lake to
the confluence with Sucker Creek, as a
wild river.
``(VII) East tannen creek.--The
approximately 1.4-mile segment of East
Tannen Creek from and including Tannen
Lake to the confluence with Tannen
Creek, as a wild river.
``(VIII) Cave creek.--
``(aa) Uppermost.--The
approximately 0.1-mile segment
of Cave Creek from and
including the headwaters to the
confluence with the River Styx,
to be administered by the
Secretary of the Interior as a
scenic river.
``(bb) Middle.--The
approximately 2.3-mile segment
of Cave Creek from the boundary
of the Oregon Caves Historic
District to the boundary of the
Oregon Caves National Monument
and Preserve, to be
administered by the Secretary
of the Interior as a scenic
river.
``(cc) Lower.--The
approximately 2-mile segment of
Cave Creek from the boundary of
the Oregon Caves National
Monument and Preserve to the
confluence with Sucker Creek,
as a recreational river.
``(IX) Lake creek.--The
approximately 3.6-mile segment of Lake
Creek from and including the headwaters
(including Bigelow Lakes) to the
confluence with Cave Creek, to be
administered by the Secretary of the
Interior as a recreational river.
``(X) Grayback creek and
tributaries.--The approximately 7.8-
mile segment of Grayback Creek from and
including the headwaters (including
Little Creek, Fan Creek, and Elk Creek)
to the confluence with Sucker Creek, as
a recreational river.
``(XI) Althouse creek.--The
approximately 11.3-mile segment of
Althouse Creek from and including the
headwaters to the north boundary of T.
40 S., R. 7 W., sec. 9, Willamette
Meridian, to be administered by the
Secretary of Agriculture and the
Secretary of the Interior as a scenic
river.
``(XII) West fork althouse creek.--
The approximately 3-mile segment of
West Fork Althouse Creek from the
source and including Loretta Falls to
the confluence with Althouse Creek, as
a scenic river.
``(XIII) Limestone creek.--The
approximately 3.4-mile segment of
Limestone Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with
Sucker Creek, as a scenic river.
``(iii) West fork illinois river
watershed.--
``(I) Upper.--The approximately
7.2-mile segment of the West Fork
Illinois River from and including the
headwaters to the east boundary of T.
40 S., R. 9 W., sec. 27, Willamette
Meridian, to be administered by the
Secretary of Agriculture and the
Secretary of the Interior as a scenic
river.
``(II) Middle.--The approximately
1.4-mile segment of the West Fork
Illinois River from the west boundary
of T. 40 S., R. 8 W., sec. 17,
Willamette Meridian, to the north
boundary of SE\1/4\NE\1/4\ sec. 17, T.
40 S., R. 8 W., Willamette Meridian, to
be administered by the Secretary of the
Interior as a scenic river.
``(III) Whiskey creek.--
``(aa) Upper.--The
approximately 3.9-mile segment
of Whiskey Creek from and
including the headwaters to the
east boundary of T. 41 S., R. 9
W., sec. 8, Willamette
Meridian, as a wild river.
``(bb) Lower.--The
approximately 0.3-mile segment
of Whiskey Creek from the east
boundary of T. 41 S., R. 9 W.,
sec. 8, Willamette Meridian, to
the confluence with the West
Fork Illinois River, to be
administered by the Secretary
of the Interior as a scenic
river.
``(IV) Rock creek.--The
approximately 2-mile segment of Rock
Creek from and including the headwaters
to the confluence with the West Fork
Illinois River, as a scenic river.
``(V) Little rock creek.--The
approximately 2-mile segment of Little
Rock Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with the
West Fork Illinois River, as a scenic
river.
``(VI) Rough and ready creek
watershed.--
``(aa) Upper watershed.--
The watershed of Rough and
Ready Creek upstream of the
north boundary of SW\1/4\SW\1/
4\NW\1/4\ sec. 14, T. 40 S., R.
9 W., Willamette Meridian, as a
wild river.
``(bb) Middle mainstem.--
The approximately 3-mile
segment of Rough and Ready
Creek from the north boundary
of SW\1/4\SW\1/4\NW\1/4\ sec.
14, T. 40 S., R. 9 W.,
Willamette Meridian, to the
east boundary of T. 40 S., R. 9
W., sec. 13, Willamette
Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(cc) Lower mainstem.--The
approximately 1.7-mile segment
of Rough and Ready Creek from
the east boundary of T. 40 S.,
R. 9 W., sec. 13, Willamette
Meridian, to the confluence
with the West Fork Illinois
River, to be administered by
the Secretary of the Interior
as a scenic river.
``(VII) Parker creek.--The
approximately 1.9-mile segment of
Parker Creek from and including the
headwaters to the east boundary of T.
40 S., R. 9 W., sec. 11, Willamette
Meridian, as a wild river.
``(VIII) No name creek.--The
approximately 2.5-mile segment of an
unnamed stream, locally known as `No
Name Creek', from and including the
headwaters in SE\1/4\ sec. 3, T. 40 S.,
R. 9 W., Willamette Meridian, to the
confluence with Rough and Ready Creek,
as a wild river.
``(IX) Mendenhall creek.--The
approximately 1.6-mile segment of
Mendenhall Creek from and including the
headwaters to the east boundary of
SW\1/4\NE\1/4\ sec. 1., T. 40 S., R. 9
W., Willamette Meridian, as a wild
river.
``(X) Woodcock creek.--The
approximately 2-mile segment from and
including the headwaters to the east
boundary of SW\1/4\SW\1/4\ sec. 31, T.
39 S., R. 8 W., Willamette Meridian, to
be administered by the Secretary of
Agriculture and the Secretary of the
Interior as a wild river.
``(iv) Josephine creek watershed.--
``(I) Josephine creek.--
``(aa) Upper josephine
creek.--The approximately 8.7-
mile segment of Josephine Creek
from and including the
headwaters to the confluence
with Canyon Creek, as a wild
river.
``(bb) Lower josephine
creek.--The approximately 4.4-
mile segment of Josephine Creek
from the confluence with Canyon
Creek to the confluence with
the Illinois River, as a scenic
river.
``(II) Canyon creek.--The
approximately 5.9-mile segment of
Canyon Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with
Josephine Creek, as a wild river.
``(III) South fork canyon creek.--
The approximately 2.4-mile segment of
South Fork Canyon Creek from and
including the headwaters to the
confluence with Canyon Creek, as a wild
river.
``(IV) Sebastopol creek.--The
approximately 2.4-mile segment of
Sebastopol Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with
Canyon Creek, as a wild river.
``(V) Fiddler gulch.--The
approximately 4-mile segment of Fiddler
Gulch from and including the headwaters
to the confluence with Josephine Creek,
as a wild river.
``(VI) Days gulch.--The
approximately 3.4-mile segment of Days
Gulch from and including the headwaters
to the confluence with Josephine Creek,
as a scenic river.
``(VII) Lightning gulch.--The
approximately 1.1-mile segment of
Lightning Gulch from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with
Canyon Creek, as a wild river.
``(VIII) Carpenter gulch.--The
approximately 1.5-mile segment of
Carpenter Gulch from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with
Canyon Creek, as a wild river.
``(v) Illinois river canyon tributary
watersheds.--
``(I) Deer creek.--The
approximately 3-mile segment of Deer
Creek from the west boundary of NW\1/
4\SE\1/4\ sec. 9, T. 38 S., R. 8 W.,
Willamette Meridian, to the confluence
with the Illinois River, as a scenic
river.
``(II) Sixmile creek.--The
approximately 5.5-mile segment of
Sixmile Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with the
Illinois River, as a scenic river.
``(III) Fall creek.--The
approximately 5-mile segment of Fall
Creek from and including the headwaters
to the confluence with the Illinois
River, as a wild river.
``(IV) Rancheria creek.--
``(aa) Upper rancheria
creek.--The approximately 5.1-
mile segment of Rancheria Creek
from and including the
headwaters to the confluence
with the West Fork Rancheria
Creek, as a wild river.
``(bb) Lower rancheria
creek.--The approximately 0.6-
mile segment of Rancheria Creek
from the confluence with the
West Fork Rancheria Creek to
the confluence with the
Illinois River, as a
recreational river.
``(V) West fork rancheria creek.--
The approximately 3.3-mile segment of
Rancheria Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with the
West Fork Rancheria Creek, as a scenic
river.
``(VI) Dailey creek.--The
approximately 3.6-mile segment of
Dailey Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with the
Illinois River, as a wild river.
``(VII) North fork dailey creek.--
The approximately 1.5-mile segment of
an unnamed tributary to Dailey Creek,
locally known as `North Fork Dailey
Creek', from and including the
headwaters in NW\1/4\NE\1/4\ sec. 36,
T. 37 S., R. 10 W., Willamette
Meridian, to the confluence with Dailey
Creek, as a wild river.
``(VIII) South fork dailey creek.--
The approximately 2-mile segment of an
unnamed tributary to Dailey Creek,
locally known as `South Fork Dailey
Creek', that begins at what is locally
known as the `Frog Pond' in SW\1/
4\NW\1/4\ sec. 1, T. 38 S., R. 10 W.,
Willamette Meridian, to the confluence
with Dailey Creek, as a wild river.
``(IX) Lightning creek.--The
approximately 1.8-mile segment of
Lightning Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with the
Illinois River, as a wild river.
``(X) Salmon creek.--The
approximately 1.9-mile segment of
Salmon Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with the
Illinois River, as a wild river.
``(XI) Baker creek.--
``(aa) Upper baker creek.--
The approximately 1-mile
segment of Baker Creek from and
including the headwaters to the
mainstem Illinois wild and
scenic river detailed corridor
management boundary, as a wild
river.
``(bb) Lower baker creek.--
The approximately 0.25-mile
segment of Baker Creek from the
mainstem Illinois wild and
scenic river detailed corridor
management boundary to the
confluence with the Illinois
River, as a scenic river.
``(XII) Labrador creek.--The
approximately 2.1-mile segment of
Labrador Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with the
Illinois River, as a wild river.
``(XIII) Panther creek.--The
approximately 2.6-mile segment of
Panther Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with the
Illinois River, as a wild river.
``(vi) Briggs creek watershed.--
``(I) Briggs creek.--The
approximately 16-mile segment of Briggs
Creek from and including the headwaters
to the confluence with the Illinois
River, as a scenic river.
``(II) Horse creek.--The
approximately 3.6-mile segment of Horse
Creek from and including the headwaters
to the confluence with Briggs Creek, as
a scenic river.
``(III) Meyers creek.--The
approximately 2.8-mile segment of
Meyers Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with
Briggs Creek, as a scenic river.
``(IV) Secret creek.--The
approximately 5.6-mile segment of
Secret Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with
Briggs Creek, as a scenic river.
``(V) Onion creek.--The
approximately 6.5-mile segment of Onion
Creek from and including the headwaters
to the confluence with Briggs Creek, as
a scenic river.
``(VI) Swede creek.--The
approximately 5.8-mile segment of Swede
Creek from and including the headwaters
to the confluence with Briggs Creek, as
a scenic river.
``(VII) Soldier creek.--The
approximately 4.7-mile segment of
Soldier Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with
Briggs Creek, as a scenic river.
``(VIII) Red dog creek.--The
approximately 4-mile segment of Red Dog
Creek from and including the headwaters
to the confluence with Briggs Creek, as
a scenic river.
``(vii) Silver and indigo creeks
watersheds.--
``(I) Indigo creek.--
``(aa) Mainstem.--The
approximately 8.1-mile segment
of Indigo Creek from the
confluence of West Fork Indigo
Creek and East Fork Indigo
Creek to the confluence with
the Illinois River, as a wild
river.
``(bb) Forks.--
``(AA) North
fork.--The
approximately 6.7-mile
segment of North Fork
Indigo Creek from and
including the
headwaters to the
confluence with Indigo
Creek, as a wild river.
``(BB) West fork.--
The approximately 11.5-
mile segment of West
Fork Indigo Creek from
and including the
headwaters to the
confluence with East
Fork Indigo Creek, as a
wild river.
``(CC) East fork.--
The approximately 12.8-
mile segment of East
Fork Indigo Creek from
and including the
headwaters to the
confluence with West
Fork Indigo Creek, as a
wild river.
``(cc) Snail creek.--The
approximately 4.6-mile segment
of Snail Creek from and
including the headwaters to the
confluence with West Fork
Indigo Creek, as a wild river.
``(II) Silver creek.--
``(aa) Mainstem.--
``(AA) Upper.--The
approximately 7.1-mile
segment of Silver Creek
from and including the
headwaters to the
boundary between public
land and private land
in T. 36 S., R. 9 W.,
sec. 5, Willamette
Meridian, as a scenic
river.
``(BB) Lower.--The
approximately 13-mile
segment of Silver Creek
from the boundary
between public land and
private land in T. 36
S., R. 9 W., sec. 5,
Willamette Meridian, to
the confluence with the
Illinois River, as a
wild river.
``(bb) South fork.--The
approximately 7.3-mile segment
of South Fork Silver Creek from
and including the headwaters to
the confluence with Silver
Creek, as a wild river.
``(cc) North fork.--
``(AA) Upper.--The
approximately 6-mile
segment from and
including the
headwaters downstream
to the western edge of
the Bureau of Land
Management boundary in
T. 35 S., R. 9 W., sec.
17, Willamette
Meridian, to be
administered by the
Secretary of the
Interior as a
recreational river.
``(BB) Lower.--The
approximately 8.7-mile
segment of North Fork
Silver Creek from the
western edge of the
Bureau of Land
Management boundary in
T. 35 S., R. 9 W., sec.
17, Willamette
Meridian, to the
confluence with Silver
Creek, as a wild river.
``(dd) Tributaries.--
``(AA) Little
silver creek.--The
approximately 3.2-mile
segment of Little
Silver Creek from and
including the
headwaters to the
confluence with Silver
Creek, as a wild river.
``(BB) Todd
creek.--The
approximately 5-mile
segment of Todd Creek
from and including the
headwaters to the
confluence with Silver
Creek, as a wild river.
``(viii) Lower illinois river tributary
watersheds.--
``(I) Lawson creek.--
``(aa) Mainstem.--The
approximately 15-mile segment
of Lawson Creek from and
including the headwaters to the
confluence with the Illinois
River, as a wild river.
``(bb) South fork.--The
approximately 4.3-mile segment
of South Fork Lawson Creek from
and including the headwaters to
the confluence with Lawson
Creek, as a wild river.
``(II) Collier creek.--
``(aa) North fork.--The
approximately 3.1-mile segment
of North Fork Collier Creek
from and including the
headwaters to the Kalmiopsis
Wilderness boundary, as a wild
river.
``(bb) South fork.--The
approximately 1.8-mile segment
of South Fork Collier Creek
from and including the
headwaters to the Kalmiopsis
Wilderness boundary, as a wild
river.
``(cc) Horse sign creek.--
The approximately 5.9-mile
segment of Horse Sign Creek
from and including the
headwaters to the confluence
with the Illinois River, as a
wild river.''.
(d) Owyhee, Oregon.--Section 3(a)(55) of the Wild and Scenic Rivers
Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)(55)) is amended--
(1) in the third sentence, by striking ``by this
paragraph'' and inserting ``by this subparagraph'';
(2) in the first sentence, by striking ``The South Fork''
and inserting the following:
``(A) In general.--The South Fork''; and
(3) by adding at the end the following:
``(B) Additions.--In addition to the segment
described in subparagraph (A), there are designated the
following stream segments that are additional to or
tributaries to the segment described in that
subparagraph, to be administered by the Secretary of
the Interior in the following classes:
``(i) Lower owyhee river.--The
approximately 15.7-mile segment of the Owyhee
River from the base of Owyhee Dam in T. 22 S.,
R. 45 E., sec. 20, Willamette Meridian, to the
north boundary of SW\1/4\SE\1/4\ sec. 13, T. 21
S., R. 45 E., Willamette Meridian, as a
recreational river.
``(ii) Middle fork owyhee river.--The
approximately 8.7-mile segment of the Middle
Fork Owyhee River from the north boundary of
SE\1/4\ sec. 32, T. 35 S., R. 46 E., Willamette
Meridian, to the confluence with the North Fork
Owyhee River, as a wild river.
``(iii) Pole creek.--The approximately 8.2-
mile segment of Pole Creek from the border
between the States of Oregon and Idaho to the
confluence with the Middle Fork Owyhee River,
as a wild river.
``(iv) Big antelope creek.--The
approximately 8.9-mile segment of Big Antelope
Creek from the south boundary of NW\1/4\NW\1/4\
sec. 16, T. 36 S., R. 46 E., Willamette
Meridian, to the confluence with the Owyhee
River, as a wild river.
``(v) Dry creek.--The approximately 24.2-
mile segment of Dry Creek from the west
boundary of NE\1/4\SE\1/4\ sec. 6, T. 24 S., R.
41 E., Willamette Meridian, to Owyhee Reservoir
pool, as a wild river.
``(C) Incorporation of existing wild and scenic
rivers.--
``(i) North fork owyhee, oregon.--The 8-
mile segment from the boundary between the
States of Oregon and Idaho to the confluence
with the Owyhee River, to be administered by
the Secretary of the Interior as a wild river.
``(ii) West little owyhee, oregon.--The 51-
mile segment from and including the headwaters
to the confluence with the Owyhee River, to be
administered by the Secretary of the Interior
as a wild river.''.
(e) Chetco, Oregon.--Section 3(a)(69) of the Wild and Scenic Rivers
Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)(69)) is amended--
(1) in subparagraph (B), by striking ``subparagraph (A)''
and inserting ``subparagraphs (A) and (B)'';
(2) by redesignating subparagraph (B) as subparagraph (C);
and
(3) by inserting after subparagraph (A) the following:
``(B) Additions.--In addition to the segments
described in subparagraph (A), there are designated the
following stream segments, to be administered by the
Secretary of Agriculture in the following classes:
``(i) Upper tributaries.--
``(I) Mislatnah creek.--The
approximately 5.3-mile segment of
Mislatnah Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with the
Chetco River, as a wild river.
``(II) Craggie creek.--The
approximately 2.3-mile segment of
Craggie Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with
Mislatnah Creek, as a wild river.
``(ii) South fork.--
``(I) Upper south fork chetco.--The
approximately 9.9-mile segment of the
South Fork Chetco River from and
including the headwaters to the west
boundary of T. 39 S., R. 12 W., sec.
10, Willamette Meridian, as a wild
river.
``(II) Lower south fork chetco.--
The approximately 1.2-mile segment of
the South Fork Chetco River from the
west boundary of T. 39 S., R. 12 W.,
sec. 10, Willamette Meridian, to the
confluence with the Chetco River, as a
scenic river.
``(III) Quail prairie creek.--The
approximately 6.8-mile segment of Quail
Prairie Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with the
South Fork Chetco River, as a scenic
river.
``(IV) West coon creek.--The
approximately 3.6-mile segment of West
Coon Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with the
South Fork Chetco River, as a scenic
river.
``(V) Basin creek.--The
approximately 2.4-mile segment of Basin
Creek from and including the headwaters
to the confluence with the South Fork
Chetco River, as a scenic river.
``(VI) Red mountain creek.--The
approximately 3-mile segment of Red
Mountain Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with the
South Fork Chetco River, as a wild
river.
``(iii) Oregon redwoods tributaries.--
``(I) Emily creek.--The
approximately 8.3-mile segment of Emily
Creek from and including the headwaters
to the confluence with the Chetco
River, as a wild river.
``(II) Little emily creek.--The
approximately 1.8-mile segment of
Little Emily Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with
the Chetco River, as a wild river.
``(III) Redwood creek.--The
approximately 0.8-mile segment of
Redwood Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with the
Chetco River, as a scenic river.
``(IV) Big redwood creek.--The
approximately 1.6-mile segment Big
Redwood Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with the
Chetco River, as a scenic river.
``(V) Mill creek.--The
approximately 1.4-mile segment of Mill
Creek from and including the headwaters
to the west boundary of T. 40 S., R. 12
W., sec. 19, Willamette Meridian, as a
scenic river.
``(VI) Jack creek.--The
approximately 2.1-mile segment of Jack
Creek from and including the headwaters
to the boundary between public land and
private land in T. 40 S., R. 12 W.,
sec. 31, Willamette Meridian, as a
scenic river.
``(VII) Babyfoot creek.--
``(aa) In general.--The
approximately 1-mile segment of
Babyfoot Creek from and
including Babyfoot Lake, and
including all tributary
streams, associated wetlands,
and springs, to the point at
which Babyfoot Creek enters the
Kalmiopsis Wilderness in T. 38
S., R. 9 E., sec. 30,
Willamette Meridian, as a wild
river.
``(bb) Withdrawal.--Subject
to valid existing rights, the
Babyfoot Lake Botanical Area is
withdrawn from the application
of the Federal mining laws in
accordance with subparagraph
(C).''.
(f) Clackamas, Oregon.--Section 3(a)(70) of the Wild and Scenic
Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)(70)) is amended--
(1) by redesignating subparagraphs (A) through (F) as
clauses (i) through (iv), respectively, and indenting
appropriately;
(2) in the matter preceding clause (i) (as so
redesignated), by striking ``The 47-mile'' and inserting the
following:
``(A) In general.--The 47-mile''; and
(3) by adding at the end the following:
``(B) Additions.--In addition to the segments
described in subparagraph (A), there are designated the
following stream segments, to be administered by the
Secretary of Agriculture, except as otherwise provided,
in the following classes:
``(i) Fish creek.--The 13.5-mile segment of
Fish Creek from and including the headwaters to
the confluence with the Clackamas River, as a
recreational river.
``(ii) South fork.--
``(I) South fork.--The
approximately 9.2-mile segment of the
South Fork Clackamas River from and
including the headwaters to the
confluence with the Clackamas River, as
a wild river.
``(II) East fork south fork
clackamas.--The approximately 3.7-mile
segment of the East Fork South
Clackamas River from and including the
headwaters (including Helen Lake) to
the confluence with the South Fork
Clackamas River, as a scenic river.
``(III) Memaloose creek.--The
approximately 9-mile segment of the
Memaloose Creek from and including the
headwaters (including Memaloose Lake)
to the confluence with the South Fork
Clackamas River, as a scenic river.
``(iii) North fork.--The approximately 14-
mile segment of the North Fork Clackamas River
from and including the headwaters to the North
Fork Reservoir Pool, to be administered by the
Secretary of the Interior and the Secretary of
Agriculture as a scenic river.
``(iv) Oak grove fork.--
``(I) Upper oak grove fork.--The
approximately 3.6-mile segment of the
Oak Grove Fork Clackamas River from the
boundary of the Warm Springs Indian
Reservation (including Clackamas Lake
and associated wetlands) to Timothy
Reservoir Pool, as a scenic river.
``(II) Middle oak grove fork.--The
approximately 10-mile segment of the
Oak Grove Fork Clackamas River from 0.1
mile below Timothy Reservoir Dam to
Harriet Reservoir Pool, as a
recreational river.
``(III) Lower oak grove fork.--The
approximately 5.1-mile segment of the
Oak Grove Fork Clackamas River from
0.25 mile below Harriet Reservoir Dam
to the confluence with the Clackamas
River, as a recreational river.''.
(g) Deschutes, Oregon.--Section 3(a)(73) of the Wild and Scenic
Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)(73)) is amended--
(1) in each of subparagraphs (A) through (D), by striking
the semicolon at the end and inserting a period;
(2) in subparagraph (B), by striking ``the 11'' and
inserting ``The 11'';
(3) in subparagraph (C), by striking ``the 3'' and
inserting ``The 3'';
(4) in subparagraph (D), by striking ``the 19'' and
inserting ``The 19'';
(5) in subparagraph (E), by striking ``the 100'' and
inserting ``The 100''; and
(6) by adding at the end the following:
``(F) The 8.4-mile segment from and including Lava
Lake and Little Lava Lake and associated wetlands to
the Crane Prairie Reservoir Pool as a recreational
river, to be administered by the Secretary of
Agriculture.
``(G) Tributaries.--In addition to the segments
described in subparagraphs (A) through (F), there are
designated the following stream segments that are
tributaries to the segments described in those
subparagraphs, to be administered by the Secretary of
Agriculture in the following classes:
``(i) Fall river.--
``(I) Upper.--The approximately
3.6-mile segment of Fall River from the
source to the east boundary of T. 20
S., R. 9 E., sec. 36, Willamette
Meridian, as a recreational river.
``(II) Lower.--The approximately
4.1-mile segment of Fall River from the
north boundary of NW\1/4\SW\1/4\ sec.
33, T. 20 S., R. 10 E., Willamette
Meridian, to the confluence with the
Deschutes River, as a recreational
river.
``(ii) Browns creek.--The approximately
2.7-mile segment of Browns Creek from the
source at multiple springs in T. 21 S., R. 8
E., sec. 30, Willamette Meridian, including
approximately 1.5 miles of an unnamed wetland
meadow tributary that enters Browns Creek in
NW\1/4\SW\1/4\ sec. 30, T. 21 S., R. 8 E.,
Willamette Meridian, to Wickiup Reservoir Pool,
as a recreational river.
``(iii) Paulina creek.--The approximately
8.6-mile segment of Paulina Creek from 0.01
miles below road 2100-505 at Paulina Lake to
the boundary of the Deschutes National Forest,
as a scenic river.
``(iv) Cultus river.--The approximately
1.9-mile segment of the Cultus River from the
sources at multiple springs to the Crane
Prairie Reservoir Pool, as a scenic river.''.
(h) Donner Und Blitzen, Oregon.--Section 3(a)(74) of the Wild and
Scenic Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)(74)) is amended by adding at the
end the following:
``(J) The approximately 3.1-mile segment of Little
Fish Creek from and including the headwaters to the
confluence with Fish Creek.
``(K) The approximately 2.2-mile segment of Grove
Creek from and including the headwaters to the
confluence with Fish Creek.''.
(i) Eagle Creek, Oregon.--Section 3(a)(75) of the Wild and Scenic
Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a))(75) is amended--
(1) in the matter preceding subparagraph (A)--
(A) by striking ``27'' and inserting ``10''; and
(B) by striking ``Creek; to be'' and inserting
``Creek, to be'';
(2) in each of subparagraphs (A) and (B), by striking the
semicolon at the end and inserting a period;
(3) in subparagraph (B), by striking ``the 15.5'' and
inserting ``The 15.5'';
(4) in subparagraph (C)--
(A) by striking ``the 6'' and inserting ``The 6'';
and
(B) by striking ``; and'' and inserting a period;
(5) in subparagraph (D), by striking ``the 1.5'' and
inserting ``The 1.5''; and
(6) by adding at the end the following:
``(E) The 0.5-mile segment of West Eagle Creek from
the Eagle Cap Wilderness boundary to 0.01 miles above
Forest Service Road 7700, as a wild river.
``(F) The approximately 5.8-mile segment of West
Eagle Creek from 0.01 miles above Forest Service Road
7700 to the confluence with Eagle Creek, as a
recreational river.
``(G) The approximately 3.7-mile segment of East
Fork Eagle Creek from the Eagle Cap Wilderness boundary
to the north boundary of SW\1/4\ sec. 28, T. 6 S., R.
44 E., Willamette Meridian, as a recreational river.''.
(j) Grande Ronde, Oregon.--Section 3(a) of the Wild and Scenic
Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)) is amended by striking paragraph (77)
and inserting the following:
``(77) Grande ronde, oregon.--The following segments, to be
administered by the Secretary of Agriculture, except as
otherwise provided, in the following classes:
``(A) Lower mainstem.--
``(i) The 1.5-mile segment of the mainstem
from the confluence with the Wallowa River to
the Umatilla National Forest boundary in T. 3
N., R. 40 E., sec. 11, as a recreational river.
``(ii) The 17.4-mile segment of the
mainstem from the Umatilla National Forest
boundary in T. 3 N., R. 40 E., sec. 11, to the
Wallowa-Whitman National Forest boundary
approximately \1/2\ mile east of Grossman
Creek, as a wild river.
``(iii) The 9-mile segment of the mainstem
from the Wallowa-Whitman National Forest
boundary approximately \1/2\ mile east of
Grossman Creek to Wildcat Creek, to be
administered by the Secretary of the Interior
as a wild river.
``(iv) The 15.9-mile segment of the
mainstem from Wildcat Creek to the border
between the States of Oregon and Washington, to
be administered by the Secretary of the
Interior as a recreational river.
``(B) Upper mainstem.--
``(i) Upper.--The approximately 7.9-mile
segment of the mainstem from and including the
headwaters and associated wetlands to the
confluence with the East Fork Grande Ronde
River, as a wild river.
``(ii) Grande ronde lake creek.--The
approximately 1.8-mile segment of Grande Ronde
Lake Creek from and including Grande Ronde Lake
and adjacent and downstream wetlands to the
confluence with the Grande Ronde River, as a
scenic river.
``(iii) Middle.--The approximately 3.7-mile
segment of the mainstem from the confluence
with the East Fork Grande Ronde to the south
boundary of T. 5 S., R. 36 E., sec. 32,
Willamette Meridian, as a recreational river.
``(iv) Lower.--The approximately 8.2-mile
segment of the mainstem from the south boundary
of T. 5 S., R. 36 E., sec. 18, Willamette
Meridian, to the north boundary of SW\1/4\ sec.
14, T. 4 S., R. 35 E., Willamette Meridian, as
a scenic river.
``(C) Tributaries.--
``(i) East fork grande ronde river.--The
approximately 3.9-mile segment of the East Fork
Grande Ronde River from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with the Grande
Ronde River, as a scenic river.
``(ii) Five points creek.--The
approximately 12.8-mile segment of Five Points
Creek from and including the headwaters to the
west boundary of NE\1/4\ sec. 30, T. 2 S., R.
37 E., Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(iii) Middle fork five points creek.--The
approximately 2.4-mile segment of Middle Fork
Five Points Creek from the source at and
including Conklin Spring to the confluence with
Five Points Creek, as a scenic river.
``(iv) Mount emily creek.--The
approximately 3.8-mile segment of Mount Emily
Creek from and including the headwaters to the
confluence with Five Points Creek, as a scenic
river.
``(v) Catherine creek.--
``(I) North fork.--
``(aa) Upper.--The
approximately 2.1-mile segment
of North Fork Catherine Creek
from the Eagle Cap Wilderness
boundary to the confluence with
Middle Fork Catherine Creek, as
a wild river.
``(bb) Lower.--The
approximately 3.1-mile segment
of North Fork Catherine Creek
from the confluence with Middle
Fork Catherine Creek to the
confluence with South Fork
Catherine Creek, as a
recreational river.
``(II) Middle fork.--The
approximately 5.5-mile segment of North
Fork Catherine Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with
North Fork Catherine Creek, as a scenic
river.
``(III) South fork.--
``(aa) South fork.--The
approximately 8.7-mile segment
of South Fork Catherine Creek
from the Eagle Cap Wilderness
boundary to the confluence with
North Fork Catherine Creek, as
a scenic river.
``(bb) Tributaries.--
``(AA) Collins
creek.--The
approximately 2.1-mile
segment of Collins
Creek from and
including the
headwaters to the
confluence with South
Fork Catherine Creek,
as a wild river.
``(BB) Sand pass
creek.--The
approximately 2.1-mile
segment of Sand Pass
Creek from and
including the
headwaters to the
confluence with South
Fork Catherine Creek,
as a wild river.
``(CC) Pole
creek.--The
approximately 3.5-mile
segment of Pole Creek
from and including the
headwaters to the
confluence with South
Fork Catherine Creek,
as a wild river.
``(vi) Beaver creek.--
``(I) Upper.--The approximately
5.2-mile segment of Beaver Creek from
and including the headwaters to La
Grande Reservoir pool, as a scenic
river.
``(II) Lower.--The approximately
6.5-mile segment from the north
boundary of SE\1/4\SE\1/4\ sec. 5, T. 5
S., R. 37 E., Willamette Meridian, to
the north boundary of T. 4 S., R. 36
E., sec. 22, Willamette Meridian, as a
scenic river.
``(vii) Lookingglass creek.--The
approximately 8.7-mile segment from the west
boundary of T. 4 N., R. 38 E., sec. 33,
Willamette Meridian, to the east boundary of T.
3 N., R. 39 E., sec. 9, Willamette Meridian, as
a wild river.
``(viii) Little lookingglass creek.--The
approximately 7.9-mile segment of Little
Lookingglass Creek from and including the
headwaters to the south boundary of T. 4 N., R.
39 E., sec. 26, Willamette Meridian, as a
scenic river.
``(ix) Mottet creek.--
``(I) Upper.--The approximately
2.6-mile segment of Mottet Creek from
and including the headwaters, including
Mottet Spring, to Jubilee Reservoir
Pool, as a scenic river.
``(II) Lower.--The approximately
5.6-mile segment of Mottet Creek from
100 feet below Jubilee Reservoir
Spillway to the east boundary of T. 3
N., R. 39 E., sec. 3, Willamette
Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(x) Summer creek.--The approximately 5.9-
mile segment of Summer Creek from and including
the headwaters (including Dusty Spring) to the
confluence with Lookingglass Creek, as a scenic
river.
``(xi) Indian creek.--The approximately
9.5-mile segment from and including the
headwaters to the west boundary of NE\1/4\ sec.
10, T. 2 S., R. 40 E., Willamette Meridian, as
a scenic river.
``(xii) East fork indian creek.--The
approximately 4.5-mile segment from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
Indian Creek, as a wild river.
``(xiii) Camp creek.--The approximately 4-
mile segment of Camp Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with Indian
Creek, as a wild river.
``(xiv) Mud creek.--The approximately 12.2-
mile segment of Mud Creek from the south
boundary of T. 3 N., R. 44 E., sec. 33,
Willamette Meridian, to the north boundary of
T. 4 N., R. 43 E., sec. 21, Willamette
Meridian, as a wild river.
``(xv) Tope creek.--The approximately 7.5-
mile segment of Tope Creek from the south
boundary of T. 3 N., R. 43 E., sec. 34,
Willamette Meridian, to the confluence with Mud
Creek, as a wild river.
``(xvi) Wildcat creek.--The approximately
14.3-mile segment of Wildcat Creek from the
north boundary of T. 2 N., R. 43 E., sec. 5,
Willamette Meridian, to the north boundary of
T. 5 N., R. 43 E., sec. 31, Willamette
Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(xvii) Bear creek.--
``(I) Upper.--The approximately 2-
mile segment of Bear Creek from and
including the headwaters to 0.01 mile
above Forest Service Road 62, as a
scenic river.
``(II) Lower.--The approximately
5.5-mile segment of Bear Creek from
0.01 mile above Forest Service Road 62
to the confluence with the Grande Ronde
River, as a wild river.
``(xviii) Clear creek.--The approximately
7.4-mile segment of Clear Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
the Grande Ronde River, as a scenic river.''.
(k) Imnaha, Oregon.--Section 3(a) of the Wild and Scenic Rivers Act
(16 U.S.C. 1274(a)) is amended by striking paragraph (78) and inserting
the following:
``(78) Imnaha, oregon.--The following segments, to be
administered by the Secretary of Agriculture in the following
classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--
``(i) Upper.--The 6-mile segment from the
confluence with the North and South Forks of
the Imnaha River to Indian Crossing, as a wild
river.
``(ii) Middle.--The 58-mile segment from
Indian Crossing to Cow Creek, as a recreational
river.
``(iii) Lower.--The 4-mile segment from Cow
Creek to the mouth of the Imnaha River, as a
scenic river.
``(B) South fork.--The 9-mile segment of the South
Fork Imnaha River from and including the headwaters to
the confluence with the Imnaha River, as a wild river.
``(C) Tributaries.--
``(i) Big sheep creek.--
``(I) Upper.--The approximately 12-
mile segment of Big Sheep Creek from
the Eagle Cap Wilderness boundary to
the north boundary of T. 3 S., R. 47
E., sec. 29, Willamette Meridian, as a
scenic river.
``(II) Middle.--The approximately
3.4-mile segment of Big Sheep Creek
from the west boundary of T. 2 S., R.
47 E., sec. 24, Willamette Meridian, to
the north boundary of SE\1/4\SE\1/4\
sec. 6, T. 2 S., R. 48 E., Willamette
Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(ii) Carrol creek.--The approximately
7.3-mile segment of Carrol Creek from and
including the headwaters to the north boundary
of T. 3 S., R. 47 E., sec. 19, Willamette
Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(iii) Grouse creek.--The approximately
14.3-mile segment of Grouse Creek from and
including the headwaters to the east boundary
of T. 3 S., R. 48 E., sec. 18, Willamette
Meridian, as a wild river.
``(iv) Lick creek.--The approximately 7.8-
mile segment of Lick Creek from the Eagle Cap
Wilderness boundary to the confluence with Big
Sheep Creek, as a scenic river.
``(v) Mccully creek.--The approximately
2.5-mile segment of McCully Creek from the
Eagle Cap Wilderness boundary to the north
boundary of T. 3 S., R. 45 E., sec. 25,
Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(vi) Crazyman creek.--The approximately
7.2-mile segment of Crazyman Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
the Imnaha River, as a wild river.
``(vii) Pumpkin creek.--The approximately
8.4-mile segment of Pumpkin Creek from the
south boundary of T. 1 N., R. 48 E., sec. 25,
Willamette Meridian, to the north boundary of
SW\1/4\SE\1/4\ sec. 24, T. 2 N., R. 48 E.,
Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(viii) Horse creek.--The approximately
16.9-mile segment of Horse Creek from and
including the headwaters to the north boundary
of SE\1/4\SE\1/4\ sec. 25, T. 2 N., R. 48 E.,
Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(ix) Lightning creek.--The approximately
17.4-mile segment of Lightning Creek from and
including the headwaters to the private land
boundary of NE\1/4\ sec. 20, T. 2 N., R. 49 E.,
Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(x) Medicine creek.--The approximately
6.6-mile segment of Medicine Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
Sleepy Creek, as a wild river.
``(xi) Sleepy creek.--The approximately
11.7-mile segment of Sleepy Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
Lightning Creek, as a wild river.
``(xii) Cow creek.--The approximately 17.1-
mile segment of Cow Creek from and including
the headwaters to the north boundary of SW\1/
4\NW\1/4\ sec. 16, T. 3 N., R. 49 E.,
Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(xiii) Long prong.--The approximately
7.2-mile segment of Long Prong from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
Cow Creek, as a wild river.''.
(l) John Day, Oregon.--Section 3(a) of the Wild and Scenic Rivers
Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)) is amended by striking paragraph (79) and
inserting the following:
``(79) John day, oregon.--
``(A) Mainstem.--The 147.5-mile segment from
Service Creek to Tumwater Falls as a recreational
river, to be administered through a cooperative
management agreement between the State of Oregon and
the Secretary of the Interior as provided in section
10(e).
``(B) Additional segments.--The following stream
segments that are tributaries to the segment described
in subparagraph (A), to be administered by the
Secretary of Agriculture, except as otherwise provided:
``(i) Thirtymile creek.--The approximately
9.3-mile segment of Thirtymile Creek from the
east boundary of T. 5 S., R. 20 E., sec. 4,
Willamette Meridian, to the confluence with the
John Day River, to be administered by the
Secretary of the Interior as a scenic river.
``(ii) Bridge creek.--The approximately
17.4-mile segment of Bridge Creek, from the
east boundary of NW\1/4\SE\1/4\ sec. 35, T. 11
S., R. 21 E., Willamette Meridian, to the
confluence with the John Day River, to be
administered by the Secretary of the Interior
as a recreational river.
``(iii) Rock creek.--
``(I) Rock creek, upper.--The
approximately 2.2-mile segment of Rock
Creek from and including the headwaters
to 0.01 miles below Forest Service Road
38, as a recreational river.
``(II) Rock creek, lower.--The
approximately 6.2-mile segment of Rock
Creek 0.01 miles below Forest Service
Road 38 to 0.01 mile above Rock Creek
Irrigation Ditch, as a wild river.
``(iv) Cottonwood creek.--
``(I) Mainstem.--The approximately
8.2-mile segment of Cottonwood Creek
from and including the headwaters to
the Ochoco National Forest boundary, as
a wild river.
``(II) East fork.--The
approximately 3.1-mile segment of East
Fork Cottonwood Creek from and
including the headwaters to the
confluence with Cottonwood Creek, as a
wild river.
``(v) Rail creek.--The approximately 5.7-
mile segment of Rail Creek from and including
the headwaters to the west boundary of T. 14
S., R. 35 E., sec. 20, Willamette Meridian, as
a scenic river.
``(vi) Deardorff creek and tributaries.--
``(I) Deardorff creek.--The
approximately 5.8-mile segment of
Deardorff Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with Pole
Creek, as a recreational river.
``(II) North fork deardorff
creek.--The approximately 2.3-mile
segment of North Fork Deardorff Creek
from and including the headwaters to
the confluence with South Fork
Deardorff Creek, as a wild river.
``(III) South fork deardorff
creek.--The approximately 2-mile
segment of South Fork Deardorff Creek
from and including the headwaters to
the confluence with North Fork
Deardorff Creek, as a wild river.
``(IV) Little baldy creek.--The
approximately 2.5-mile segment of
Little Baldy Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with
Deardorff Creek, as a scenic river.
``(V) Alder gulch.--The
approximately 1.6-mile segment of Alder
Gulch from and including the headwaters
to the confluence with Deardorff Creek,
as a scenic river.
``(vii) Reynolds creek.--
``(I) Upper.--The approximately
5.1-mile stretch of Reynolds Creek from
and including the headwaters to 0.01
mile above Forest Service Road 2635, as
a wild river.
``(II) Lower.--The approximately 2-
mile stretch of Reynolds Creek from
0.01 mile above Forest Service Road
2635 to the west boundary of NE\1/4\
sec. 30, T. 13 S., R. 35 E., Willamette
Meridian, as a recreational river.
``(viii) Standard creek.--The approximately
3.6-mile segment of Standard Creek from and
including the headwaters to the point at which
Standard Creek crosses into private land in
SE\1/4\SE\1/4\ sec. 1, T. 12 S., R. 33 E.,
Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.''.
(m) Joseph Creek, Oregon and Washington.--Section 3(a) of the Wild
and Scenic Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)) is amended by striking
paragraph (80) and inserting the following:
``(80) Joseph creek, oregon and washington.--The following
segments, to be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture in
the following classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--The 31.8-mile segment from Joseph
Creek Ranch, 1 mile downstream from Cougar Creek, to
the north boundary of SE\1/4\NE\1/4\ sec. 8, T. 6 N.,
R. 46 E., Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(B) Tributaries.--
``(i) Swamp creek.--
``(I) Middle.--The approximately 8-
mile segment of Swamp Creek from the
south boundary of T. 2 N., R. 45 E.,
sec. 29, Willamette Meridian, to the
north boundary of SE\1/4\NE\1/4\ sec.
30, T. 3 N., R. 45 E., Willamette
Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(II) Lower.--The approximately
8.6-mile segment of Swamp Creek from
the north boundary of SE\1/4\NE\1/4\
sec. 30, T. 3 N., R. 45 E., Willamette
Meridian, to the confluence with Joseph
Creek, as a wild river.
``(ii) Davis creek.--
``(I) Upper.--The approximately
4.2-mile segment of Davis Creek from
the Forest Service ownership boundary
in NE\1/4\ sec. 13, T. 2 N., R. 44 E.,
Willamette Meridian, to the north
boundary of T. 3 N., R. 44 E., sec. 36,
Willamette Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(II) Lower.--The approximately
5.5-mile segment of Davis Creek from
the north boundary of T. 3 N., R. 44
E., sec. 36, Willamette Meridian, to
the confluence with Swamp Creek, as a
wild river.
``(iii) Cottonwood creek.--The
approximately 8.8-mile segment of Cottonwood
Creek from and including the headwaters
(including Box Spring) to the north boundary of
T. 5 N., R. 46 E., sec. 13, Willamette
Meridian, as a wild river.
``(iv) Dead horse creek.--The approximately
2.3-mile segment of Dead Horse Creek from and
including the headwaters (including the Cold
Spring tributary) to the confluence with
Cottonwood Creek, as a wild river.
``(v) Bear creek and tributaries.--
``(I) Bear creek.--The
approximately 4.6-mile segment of Bear
Creek from and including the headwaters
to the confluence with Cottonwood
Creek, as a wild river.
``(II) Tributary number 1.--The
approximately 2-mile segment of a
tributary of Bear Creek from and
including the headwaters in T. 5 N., R.
46 E., sec. 26, Willamette Meridian,
including Wildhorse Spring, to the
confluence with Bear Creek, as a wild
river.
``(III) Tributary number 2.--The
approximately 2.1-mile segment of a
tributary of Bear Creek from and
including the headwaters in NW\1/4\
sec. 23, T. 5 N., R. 46 E., Willamette
Meridian, to the confluence with Bear
Creek, as a wild river.
``(vi) Basin creek.--The approximately 6.2-
mile segment of Basin Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with
Cottonwood Creek, as a wild river.
``(vii) Brushy creek.--The approximately
1.1-mile segment of Brushy Creek from and
including the headwaters in T. 5 N., R. 46 E.,
sec. 15, Willamette Meridian, to the confluence
with Basin Creek, as a wild river.
``(viii) Broady creek.--
``(I) Upper.--The approximately
3.7-mile segment of Broady Creek from
and including the headwaters to the
confluence with East Fork Broady Creek,
as a scenic river.
``(II) Lower.--The approximately
7.9-mile segment of Broady Creek from
the confluence with East Fork Broady
Creek to the confluence with Cottonwood
Creek, as a wild river.
``(ix) West fork broady creek.--The
approximately 3.8-mile segment of West Fork
Broady Creek from and including the headwaters
to the confluence with Broady Creek, as a
recreational river.
``(x) East fork broady creek.--The
approximately 3.8-mile segment of East Fork
Broady Creek from and including the headwaters
to the confluence with Broady Creek, as a wild
river.
``(xi) Peavine creek.--The approximately
6.3-mile segment of Peavine Creek from and
including the headwaters (including Stewart
Spring) to the confluence with Joseph Creek, as
a wild river.
``(xii) Lupine creek.--
``(I) Upper.--The approximately
1.4-mile segment of Lupine Creek from
and including the headwaters to the
north boundary of T. 4 N., R. 45 E.,
sec. 15, Willamette Meridian, as a
scenic river.
``(II) Lower.--The approximately
3.1-mile segment of Lupine Creek from
the north boundary of T. 4 N., R. 45
E., sec. 15, Willamette Meridian, to
the confluence with Peavine Creek, as a
wild river.
``(xiii) Cold spring creek.--The
approximately 4-mile segment of Cold Spring
Creek from and including the headwaters to the
confluence with Cabin Creek, as a recreational
river.
``(xiv) Cabin creek.--The approximately
3.1-mile segment of Cabin Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
Cold Spring Creek, as a wild river.
``(xv) Horse creek.--The approximately 2.9-
mile segment of Horse Creek from the confluence
of Cabin Creek and Cold Spring Creek to the
west boundary of NE\1/4\ sec. 30, T. 6 N., R.
47 E., Willamette Meridian, as a recreational
river.
``(xvi) Chesnimnus creek.--
``(I) Mainstem.--The approximately
19.5-mile segment of Chesnimnus Creek
from and including the headwaters to
the west boundary of NE\1/4\NW\1/4\
sec. 23, T. 3 N., R. 46 E., Willamette
Meridian, as a recreational river.
``(II) South fork.--The
approximately 5-mile segment of South
Fork Chesnimnus Creek from and
including the headwaters to the
confluence with Chesnimnus Creek, as a
scenic river.
``(III) Tributaries.--
``(aa) Billy creek.--The
approximately 6.6-mile segment
of Billy Creek from and
including the headwaters,
including Billy Spring, to the
confluence with Chesnimnus
Creek, as a scenic river.
``(bb) Devils run creek.--
The approximately 7.4-mile
segment of Devils Run Creek
from and including the
headwaters, including Billy
Spring, to the confluence with
Chesnimnus Creek, as a scenic
river.''.
(n) Little Deschutes, Oregon.--Section 3(a) of the Wild and Scenic
Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)) is amended by striking paragraph (81)
and inserting the following:
``(81) Little deschutes, oregon.--The following segments,
to be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture in the
following classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--
``(i) Upper.--The 12-mile segment from the
source in NW\1/4\ sec. 15, T. 26 S., R. 6\1/2\
E., Willamette Meridian, to the north boundary
of T. 26 S., R. 7 E., sec. 12, Willamette
Meridian, as a recreational river.
``(ii) Middle.--The 5.9-mile segment from
the south boundary of T. 25 S., R. 7 E., sec.
36, Willamette Meridian, to the north boundary
of T. 25 S., R. 8 E., sec. 20, Willamette
Meridian, as a recreational river.
``(iii) Lower.--The 8-mile segment from the
National Forest ownership boundary in T. 25 S.,
R. 8 E., sec. 5, Willamette Meridian, to the
east boundary of T. 24 S., R. 8 E., sec. 35,
Willamette Meridian, as a recreational river.
``(B) Tributaries.--
``(i) Hemlock creek.--The approximately
5.1-mile segment of Hemlock Creek from and
including the headwaters to the east boundary
of T. 26 S., R. 7 E., sec. 2, Willamette
Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(ii) Spruce creek.--The approximately 4.3
miles from and including the headwaters to the
confluence with Hemlock Creek, as a scenic
river.
``(iii) Swamp creek.--The approximately 4.9
miles from and including the headwaters to the
confluence with Hemlock Creek, as a scenic
river.''.
(o) Malheur, Oregon.--Section 3(a) of the Wild and Scenic Rivers
Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)) is amended by striking paragraph (83) and
inserting the following:
``(83) Malheur, oregon.--The following segments, to be
administered by the Secretary of Agriculture and the Secretary
of the Interior in the following classes:
``(A) Upper mainstem.--
``(i) Upper.--The 7-mile segment from
Bosonberg Creek to Malheur Ford, as a scenic
river.
``(ii) Middle.--The 6.7-mile segment from
Malheur Ford to the Malheur National Forest
boundary, as a wild river.
``(iii) Lower.--The approximately 4.2-mile
segment of the Malheur River from the Malheur
National Forest Boundary to the west boundary
of T. 18 S., R. 34 E., sec. 33, Willamette
Meridian, as a wild river.
``(B) Middle mainstem.--The approximately 15.8-mile
segment from the confluence with the South Fork Malheur
River to the north boundary of T. 22 S., R. 38 E., sec.
8, Willamette Meridian, as a recreational river.
``(C) Tributaries.--
``(i) Pine creek.--
``(I) Upper pine creek.--The
approximately 10.1-mile segment of Pine
Creek from and including the headwaters
to the south boundary of T. 20 S., R.
33 E., sec. 23, Willamette Meridian, as
a recreational river.
``(II) Lower pine creek.--The
approximately 6.5-mile segment of Pine
Creek from the west boundary of E\1/2\
sec. 16, T. 20 S., R. 33 E., Willamette
Meridian, to the Malheur National
Forest boundary, as a wild river.
``(ii) Bluebucket creek.--The approximately
1.5-mile segment of Bluebucket Creek from the
east boundary of T. 18 S., R. 34 E., sec. 34,
Willamette Meridian, to the confluence with the
Malheur River, as a wild river.
``(iii) Summit creek.--
``(I) Upper summit creek.--The
approximately 4-mile segment of Summit
Creek from and including the headwaters
to the Forest Service ownership
boundary in NE\1/4\ sec. 3, T. 16 S.,
R. 34 E., Willamette Meridian, as a
scenic river.
``(II) Lower summit creek.--The
approximately 11.9-mile segment of
Summit Creek from the north boundary of
T. 16 S., R. 34 E., sec. 10, Willamette
Meridian, to the confluence with the
Malheur River, as a scenic river.
``(iv) Crooked creek.--The approximately
10-mile segment of Crooked Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
Lake Creek, as a scenic river.
``(v) Big creek.--The approximately 5.4-
mile segment of Big Creek from the Strawberry
Mountain Wilderness boundary to the south
boundary of T. 16 S., R. 33 E., sec. 14,
Willamette Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(vi) Snowshoe creek.--The approximately
1.1-mile segment of Snowshoe Creek from the
Strawberry Mountain Wilderness boundary to the
confluence with Big Creek, as a wild river.
``(vii) Bosonberg creek.--The approximately
4.4-mile segment of Bosonberg Creek from and
including the headwaters to the west boundary
of SE\1/4\ sec. 13, T. 16 S., R. 33 E.,
Willamette Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(viii) Corral basin creek.--The
approximately 3.6-mile segment of Corral Basin
Creek from and including the headwaters to the
confluence with Big Creek, as a scenic river.
``(ix) Meadow fork big creek.--The
approximately 1.5-mile segment of Meadow Fork
Big Creek from the Strawberry Mountain
Wilderness boundary to the confluence with Big
Creek, as a scenic river.
``(x) Lake creek.--The approximately 4.4-
mile segment of Lake Creek from the Strawberry
Mountain Wilderness boundary to the west
boundary of T. 16 S., R. 33 E., sec. 15,
Willamette Meridian, as a scenic river.''.
(p) Mckenzie, Oregon.--Section 3(a) of the Wild and Scenic Rivers
Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)) is amended by striking paragraph (84) and
inserting the following:
``(84) Mckenzie, oregon.--The following segments, to be
administered by the Secretary of Agriculture and the Secretary
of the Interior:
``(A) Mainstem, upper.--The 12.7-mile segment from
Clear Lake to Scott Creek in the following classes:
``(i) The 1.8-mile segment from Clear Lake
to the head of maximum pool at Carmen
Reservoir, as a recreational river.
``(ii) The 4.3-mile segment from a point
100 feet downstream from Carmen Dam to the
maximum pool at Trail Bridge Reservoir, as a
recreational river.
``(iii) The 6.6-mile segment from the
developments at the base of the Trail Bridge
Reservoir Dam to Scott Creek, as a recreational
river.
``(B) Mainstem, middle.--
``(i) Paradise reach.--The approximately
5.8-mile segment of the McKenzie River from the
confluence with Scott Creek to the west
boundary of T. 16 S., R. 6 E., sec. 18,
Willamette Meridian, as a recreational river.
``(ii) Horse creek mouth reach.--The
approximately 0.8-mile segment of the McKenzie
River from the east boundary of SW\1/4\ sec.
14, T. 16 S., R. 5 E., Willamette Meridian, to
the confluence with Florence Creek, as a
recreational river.
``(iii) Delta creek diffluence to
confluence.--The approximately 5-mile segment
of the McKenzie River from the south and east
boundaries of N\1/2\NE\1/4\ sec. 19, T. 16 S.,
R. 5 E., Willamette Meridian, including the
Delta Creek side channel, to the confluence
with the South Fork McKenzie River, as a
recreational river.
``(iv) Lower elevation headwaters reach.--
The approximately 5.5-mile segment of the
McKenzie River from the north boundary of SW\1/
4\NW\1/4\ sec. 11, T. 17 S., R. 3 E.,
Willamette Meridian, to the west boundary of T.
16 S., R. 3 E., sec. 31, Willamette Meridian,
as a recreational river.
``(v) Non-federal land.--The Secretary of
Agriculture and the Secretary of the Interior
shall not include any non-Federal land within
the detailed boundaries required under
subsection (b) for any segment designated under
this subparagraph.
``(C) South fork.--
``(i) Upper.--The approximately 16.3-mile
segment of the South Fork McKenzie River from
the west boundary of T. 18 S., R. 6.5 E., sec.
34, Willamette Meridian, to Cougar Reservoir
pool, as a recreational river.
``(ii) Lower.--The approximately 4.2-mile
segment of the South Fork McKenzie River from
the south boundary of N\1/2\ sec. 31, T. 16 S.,
R. 5 E., Willamette Meridian, including any
associated wetlands, to the confluence with the
McKenzie River, as a recreational river.
``(D) Lakes.--
``(i) Clear lake.--Clear Lake, to be
managed as a scenic river.
``(ii) Fish lake.--Fish Lake, to be managed
as a scenic river.
``(E) Tributaries.--
``(i) Anderson creek.--The approximately
7.3-mile segment of Anderson Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
the McKenzie River, as a scenic river.
``(ii) Bear creek.--The approximately 3.5-
mile segment of Bear Creek from the east
boundary of T. 16 S., R. 3 E., sec. 34,
Willamette Meridian, to the south boundary of
NW\1/4\ sec. 32, T. 16 S., R. 3 E., Willamette
Meridian, as a wild river.
``(iii) Deer creek.--The approximately 9.6-
mile segment of Deer Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with the
McKenzie River, as a scenic river.
``(iv) Fish lake creek.--The approximately
1.5-mile segment of Fish Lake Creek from Fish
Lake to Clear Lake, as a scenic river.
``(v) Gate creek.--The approximately 3-mile
segment of Gate Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with the Smith
River, as a scenic river.
``(vi) Hackleman creek.--The approximately
7.1-mile segment of Hackleman Creek from and
including the headwaters to Fish Lake, as a
scenic river.
``(vii) Heart lake creek.--The
approximately 1.7-mile segment of Heart Lake
Creek from and including the headwaters above,
including any associated wetlands of Heart
Lake, to the confluence with Hackleman Creek,
as a wild river.
``(viii) Horse creek.--
``(I) Upper.--The approximately
12.8-mile segment of Horse Creek from
the confluence with Mosquito Creek to
the confluence with Owl Creek, as a
recreational river.
``(II) Lower.--The approximately
.6-mile segment of Horse Creek from the
east boundary of NW\1/4\ sec. 23, T. 16
S., R. 5 E., Willamette Meridian, to
the confluence with the McKenzie River,
as a wild river.
``(III) Forks of horse creek.--
``(aa) West fork.--The
approximately 1-mile segment of
West Fork Horse Creek from the
diffluence with East Fork Horse
Creek to the north boundary of
S\1/2\, SW\1/4\SE\1/4\ sec. 15,
T. 16 S., R. 5 E., Willamette
Meridian, as a wild river.
``(bb) East fork.--The
approximately 1-mile segment of
East Fork Horse Creek from the
east boundary of NW\1/4\ sec.
23, T. 16 S., R. 5 E.,
Willamette Meridian, to the
confluence with the McKenzie
River, as a wild river.
``(ix) Ikenick creek.--The approximately
4.1-mile segment of Ikenick Creek from and
including the headwaters, including any
associated wetlands, to the confluence with
Clear Lake, as a scenic river.
``(x) Lost creek.--The approximately 4-mile
segment of Lost Creek from the source at an
unnamed spring, including any associated
wetlands, to the confluence with the McKenzie
River, as a scenic river.
``(xi) Olallie creek.--The approximately
2.8-mile segment of Olallie Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
the McKenzie River, as a scenic river.
``(xii) Roaring river.--The approximately
5.7-mile segment of the Roaring River from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
the South Fork McKenzie River, as a scenic
river.
``(xiii) White branch creek.--The
approximately 5.8-mile segment of White Branch
Creek from the Three Sisters Wilderness
boundary to the confluence with Lost Creek, as
a scenic river.
``(F) Transfer of administrative jurisdiction.--If
the Secretary of the Army determines that the Corps of
Engineers land in T. 16 S., R. 5 E., secs. 19 and 30,
Willamette Meridian, is unnecessary for the operation
of the Cougar Dam and Reservoir, the Secretary of the
Army shall transfer administrative jurisdiction over
the land to the Secretary of Agriculture for inclusion
in the National Forest System.''.
(q) Metolius, Oregon.--Section 3(a)(85) of the Wild and Scenic
Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)(85)) is amended--
(1) by redesignating subparagraphs (A) and (B) as clauses
(i) and (ii), respectively, and indenting appropriately;
(2) in the matter preceding clause (i) (as so
redesignated), by striking ``(85)'' and all that follows
through ``following classes'' and inserting the following:
``(85) Metolius, oregon.--The following segments, to be
administered by the Secretary of Agriculture:
``(A) Mainstem.--The 28.6-mile segment from the
south Deschutes National Forest boundary to Lake Billy
Chinook in the following classes:'';
(3) in clause (i) (as so redesignated), by striking ``; to
be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture;'' at the end
and inserting a period;
(4) in clause (ii) (as so redesignated)--
(A) by striking ``the 17.1'' and inserting ``The
17.1''; and
(B) by striking ``by the Secretary of
Agriculture''; and
(5) by adding at the end the following:
``(B) Tributaries.--
``(i) Jack creek.--The approximately 4.7-
mile segment of Jack Creek from 3 groups of
springs at the head of Jack Creek to the
confluence with the Metolius River, as a
recreational river.
``(ii) Canyon creek.--The approximately 12-
mile segment from the Mount Jefferson
Wilderness boundary to the confluence with the
Metolius River, as a scenic river.
``(iii) Brush creek.--The approximately
6.7-mile segment of Brush Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
the Metolius River, as a scenic river.
``(iv) Candle creek.--The approximately
3.9-mile segment of Candle Creek from the Mount
Jefferson Wilderness boundary to the confluence
with the Metolius River, as a scenic river.
``(v) Roaring creek.--The approximately
2.1-mile segment of Roaring Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
Canyon Creek, as a scenic river.
``(vi) Street creek.--The approximately 3-
mile segment of Street Creek from and including
the headwaters to the Reservoir Billy Chinook
pool, as a scenic river.
``(vii) Spring creek.--The approximately
3.6-mile segment of Spring Creek from and
including the headwaters to the Reservoir Billy
Chinook pool, as a scenic river.''.
(r) North Fork Crooked, Oregon.--Section 3(a) of the Wild and
Scenic Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)) is amended by striking paragraph
(87) and inserting the following:
``(87) North fork crooked, oregon.--
``(A) Mainstem.--The following segments, to be
administered by the Secretary of Agriculture, except as
otherwise provided, in the following classes:
``(i) The 2.3-mile segment from the source
near the intersection of Forest Service Roads
4230 and 4225 to Sera Spring, as a recreational
river.
``(ii) The 3.7-mile segment from the west
boundary of T. 14 S., R. 22 E., sec. 19,
Willamette Meridian, to the bridge across from
the Deep Creek Campground, as a recreational
river.
``(iii) The 8-mile segment from the bridge
across from the Deep Creek Campground to the
Ochoco National Forest boundary, \1/2\ mile
from Lame Dog Creek, as a scenic river.
``(iv) The 1.5-mile segment from the Ochoco
National Forest boundary to Upper Falls, to be
administered by the Secretary of the Interior
as a scenic river.
``(v) The 11.1-mile segment from Upper
Falls to Committee Creek, to be administered by
the Secretary of the Interior as a wild river.
``(vi) The 5-mile segment from Committee
Creek to 1 mile from the confluence with the
Crooked River, to be administered by the
Secretary of the Interior as a recreational
river.
``(B) Tributaries.--
``(i) Deep creek.--The approximately 8.5-
mile segment of Deep Creek from the confluence
of Jackson Creek and Happy Camp Creek to the
confluence with the North Fork Crooked River,
as a recreational river.
``(ii) Jackson creek.--The approximately
8.4-mile segment of Jackson Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
Happy Camp Creek, as a recreational river.
``(iii) Derr creek.--The approximately 3.6-
mile segment of Derr Creek from and including
the headwaters, including Derr Meadows, to the
confluence with Jackson Creek, as a scenic
river.
``(iv) Allen creek.--The approximately 6.1-
mile segment of Allen Creek from and including
the headwaters to the south boundary of T. 13
S., R. 21 E., sec. 35, Willamette Meridian, as
a scenic river.
``(v) Little summit creek.--
``(I) Upper.--The approximately
3.7-mile segment of Little Summit Creek
from and including the headwaters to
the north boundary of T. 14 S., R. 23
E., sec. 25, Willamette Meridian, as a
recreational river.
``(II) Lower.--The approximately
4.4-mile segment of Little Summit Creek
from the north boundary of T. 14 S., R.
23 E., sec. 26, Willamette Meridian, to
the confluence with Deep Creek, as a
recreational river.
``(vi) Lookout creek.--
``(I) Upper.--The approximately 4-
mile segment of Lookout Creek from and
including the headwaters to the east
boundary of T. 15 S., R. 20 E., sec. 2,
Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(II) Lower.--The approximately 3-
mile segment of Lookout Creek from the
east boundary of T. 15 S., R. 20 E.,
sec. 2, Willamette Meridian, to the
confluence with the North Fork Crooked
River, as a wild river.
``(vii) Brush creek.--The approximately
5.3-mile segment of Brush Creek from and
including the headwaters to 0.01 mile above
Forest Service Road 42, as a wild river.
``(viii) Peterson creek.--
``(I) Upper peterson creek.--The
approximately 3.6-mile segment of
Peterson Creek from and including the
headwaters to the north boundary of
SE\1/4\NE\1/4\ sec. 28, T. 13 S., R. 22
E., Willamette Meridian, as a wild
river.
``(II) Lower peterson creek.--The
approximately 5-mile segment from the
north boundary of SE\1/4\NW\1/4\ sec.
28, T. 13 S., R. 22 E., to the west
boundary of T. 14 S., R. 22 E., sec. 7,
Willamette Meridian, as a recreational
river.
``(ix) Porter creek.--The approximately
4.6-mile segment of Porter Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
the North Fork Crooked River, as a recreational
river.
``(x) Crazy creek.--The approximately 3.6-
mile segment of Crazy Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with Deep
Creek, as a recreational river.''.
(s) North Fork John Day, Oregon.--Section 3(a) of the Wild and
Scenic Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)) is amended by striking paragraph
(88) and inserting the following:
``(88) North fork john day, oregon.--The following
segments, to be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture
and the Secretary of the Interior, except as otherwise
provided, in the following classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--
``(i) The 3.5-mile segment from and
including the headwaters in the North Fork of
the John Day Wilderness at T. 8 S., R. 36 E.,
sec. 13, Willamette Meridian, to the North Fork
of the John Day Wilderness boundary, as a wild
river.
``(ii) The 7.5-mile segment from the North
Fork of the John Day Wilderness boundary to
Trail Creek, as a recreational river.
``(iii) The 24.3-mile segment from Trail
Creek to Big Creek, as a wild river.
``(iv) The 10.5-mile segment from Big Creek
to Texas Bar Creek, as a scenic river.
``(v) The approximately 8.3-mile segment
from Texas Bar Creek to the confluence with
Camas Creek, as a recreational river.
``(vi) The approximately 18.4-mile segment
from the confluence with Camas Creek to the
confluence with Wrightman Canyon Creek, as a
recreational river.
``(vii) The approximately 16.6-mile segment
from the confluence with Wrightman Canyon Creek
to the north boundary of NE\1/4\ sec. 18, T. 8
S., R. 28 E., Willamette Meridian, as a scenic
river.
``(viii) The approximately 2.3-mile segment
from the north boundary of NE\1/4\ sec. 18, T.
8 S., R. 28 E., Willamette Meridian, to the
south boundary of NW\1/4\ sec. 20, T. 8 S., R.
28 E., Willamette Meridian, as a recreational
river.
``(B) Tributaries.--
``(i) Fox creek.--The approximately 4.5-
mile segment of Fox Creek from and including
the headwaters to the west boundary of T. 11
S., R. 30 E., sec. 11, Willamette Meridian, as
a wild river.
``(ii) Big wall creek.--The approximately
17-mile segment of Big Wall Creek from and
including the headwaters to the east boundary
of NW\1/4\NW\1/4\ sec. 31, T. 7 S., R. 28 E.,
Willamette Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(iii) Little wall creek.--The
approximately 16.6-mile segment of Little Wall
Creek from and including the headwaters to the
south boundary of NE\1/4\SE\1/4\ sec. 30, T. 7
S., R. 28 E., Willamette Meridian, as a scenic
river.
``(iv) Skookum creek.--The approximately
12.7-mile segment of Skookum Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
the Little Wall Creek, as a scenic river.
``(v) Ditch creek.--The approximately 15-
mile segment of Ditch Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with the North
Fork John Day River, as a scenic river.
``(vi) Little potamus creek.--The
approximately 9.1-mile segment of Little
Potamus Creek from and including the headwaters
to the confluence with Potamus Creek, as a
scenic river.
``(vii) Potamus creek.--The approximately
19-mile segment of Potamus Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
the North Fork John Day River, as a scenic
river.
``(viii) Fivemile creek.--The approximately
18.5-mile segment of Fivemile Creek from and
including the headwaters to the west boundary
of T. 5 S., R. 30 E., sec. 36, Willamette
Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(ix) North fork cable creek.--The
approximately 6.7-mile segment of North Fork
Cable Creek from and including the headwaters
to the west boundary of SE\1/4\NE\1/4\ sec. 4,
T. 6 S., R. 33 E., Willamette Meridian, as a
wild river.
``(x) South fork cable creek.--The
approximately 8.3-mile segment of South Fork
Cable Creek from and including the headwaters
to the north boundary of SE\1/4\NE\1/4\ sec. 5,
T. 6 S., R. 33 E., Willamette Meridian, as a
wild river.
``(xi) Camas creek.--The approximately
11.1-mile segment of Camas Creek from the north
boundary of SE\1/4\SE\1/4\ sec. 16, T. 5 S., R.
31 E., Willamette Meridian, to the confluence
with the North Fork John Day River, as a
recreational river.
``(xii) Lane creek.--The approximately 7.2-
mile segment from and including the headwaters
to the confluence with Camas Creek, to be
administered by the Secretary of Agriculture as
a scenic river.
``(xiii) Bridge creek and tributaries.--
``(I) Bridge creek.--The
approximately 9.1-mile segment of
Bridge Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with the
Camas Creek, as a wild river.
``(II) North fork bridge creek.--
The approximately 3.5-mile segment of
North Fork Bridge Creek from and
including the headwaters to the
confluence with the Bridge Creek, as a
wild river.
``(xiv) Granite creek.--The approximately
8.1-mile segment of Granite Creek from and
including the headwaters to the west boundary
of SE\1/4\NW\1/4\ sec. 1, T. 9 S., R. 35 E.,
Willamette Meridian, as a recreational river.
``(xv) Boulder creek.--The approximately
5.3-mile segment of Boulder Creek, from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
Granite Creek, as a scenic river.
``(xvi) Boundary creek.--The approximately
5-mile segment of Boundary Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
Bull Run Creek, as a recreational river.
``(xvii) Bull run creek.--The approximately
7-mile segment of Bull Run Creek from and
including the headwaters to the north boundary
of T. 9 S., R. 35.5 E., sec. 14, Willamette
Meridian, as a recreational river.
``(xviii) Crawfish creek.--The
approximately 4.3-mile segment of Crawfish
Creek from and including Crawfish Meadow to the
confluence with the North Fork John Day River,
as a scenic river.
``(xix) Onion creek.--The approximately
4.8-mile segment of Onion Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
the North Fork John Day River, as a scenic
river.
``(xx) Desolation creek.--
``(I) Mainstem.--
``(aa) Upper.--The
approximately 9.1-mile segment
from the confluence of the
north and south forks of
Desolation Creek to the west
boundary of T. 8 S., R. 33 E.,
sec. 6, Willamette Meridian, as
a recreational river.
``(bb) Lower.--The
approximately 1.9-mile segment
from the south boundary of T. 7
S., R. 32 E., sec. 6,
Willamette Meridian, to the
confluence with the North Fork
John Day River, as a scenic
river.
``(II) Forks.--
``(aa) North fork
desolation creek.--The
approximately 6.8-mile segment
from and including the
headwaters to the confluence
with South Fork Desolation
Creek, as a scenic river.
``(bb) South fork
desolation creek.--
``(AA) Upper.--The
approximately 8.9-mile
segment of South Fork
Desolation Creek from
and including the
headwaters, including
an unnamed tributary
arising in McCalpine
Meadow, to 0.01 mile
above Forest Service
Road 45, as a wild
river.
``(BB) Lower.--The
approximately 1-mile
segment of South Fork
Desolation Creek from
0.01 mile above Forest
Service Road 45 to the
confluence with North
Fork Desolation Creek,
as a scenic river.
``(xxi) Mccalpine meadow creek.--The
approximately 0.5-mile segment of McCalpine
Meadow Creek from the source at an unnamed
spring in NW\1/4\SE\1/4\ sec. 4, T. 10 S., R.
34 E., Willamette Meridian, to the confluence
with South Fork Desolation Creek in SE\1/
4\NE\1/4\ sec. 4, T. 10 S., R. 34 E.,
Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.''.
(t) North Fork Malheur, Oregon.--Section 3(a) of the Wild and
Scenic Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)) is amended by striking paragraph
(89) and inserting the following:
``(89) North fork malheur, oregon.--The following segments,
to be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture, except as
otherwise provided, in the following classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--
``(i) Upper.--The 25.5-mile segment from
and including the headwaters to the Malheur
National Forest boundary, as a scenic river.
``(ii) Lower.--The approximately 5.4-mile
segment from the Malheur National Forest
boundary to the south boundary of NW\1/4\ sec.
11, T. 18 S., R. 36 E., Willamette Meridian, as
a scenic river.
``(B) Tributaries.--
``(i) Sheep creek.--
``(I) Upper.--The approximately
5.1-mile segment of Sheep Creek from
and including the headwaters to 0.1
mile above the confluence with the
North Fork Malheur River, as a wild
river.
``(II) Lower.--The approximately
0.1-mile segment of Sheep Creek from
0.1 mile above the confluence with the
North Fork Malheur River to the
confluence with the North Fork Malheur
River, as a recreational river.
``(ii) Horseshoe creek.--
``(I) Upper.--The approximately
2.5-mile segment of Horse Creek from
and including the headwaters to 0.01
mile above Forest Service Road 13, as a
wild river.
``(II) Lower.--The approximately
0.2-mile segment of Horseshoe Creek
from 0.01 mile above Forest Service
Road 13 to the confluence with the
North Fork Malheur River, as a
recreational river.
``(iii) Swamp creek.--
``(I) Upper.--The approximately
4.5-mile segment of Swamp Creek from
and including the headwaters to 0.01
mile above Forest Service Road 13, as a
wild river.
``(II) Lower.--The approximately
0.2-mile segment of Swamp Creek from
0.01 mile above Forest Service Road 13
to the confluence with the North Fork
Malheur River, as a recreational river.
``(iv) Flat creek.--The approximately 3.4-
mile segment of Flat Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with the North
Fork Malheur River, as a scenic river.
``(v) Elk creek.--
``(I) Mainstem.--The approximately
1-mile segment of Elk Creek from the
confluence of the North and South Forks
of Elk Creek to the confluence with the
North Fork Malheur River, as a
recreational river.
``(II) North fork elk creek.--The
approximately 4.8-mile segment of North
Fork Elk Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with South
Fork Elk Creek, as a scenic river.
``(III) South fork elk creek.--The
approximately 4.1-mile segment of South
Fork Elk Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with North
Fork Elk Creek, as a wild river.
``(vi) Little crane creek.--The
approximately 9.9-mile segment of Little Crane
Creek from and including the headwaters to the
confluence with Crane Creek, as a scenic river.
``(vii) Crane creek.--The approximately
6.9-mile segment of Crane Creek from the
confluence with Buttermilk Creek to the
confluence with the North Fork Malheur River,
as a wild river.''.
(u) North Fork of the Middle Fork of the Willamette, Oregon.--
Section 3(a) of the Wild and Scenic Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)) is
amended by striking paragraph (90) and inserting the following:
``(90) North fork of the middle fork of the willamette,
oregon.--
``(A) Mainstem.--The 42.3-mile segment from Waldo
Lake to the Willamette National Forest boundary, to be
administered by the Secretary of Agriculture in the
following classes:
``(i) The 8.8-mile segment from Waldo Lake
to the south section line of T. 19 S., R. 5.5
E., sec. 36, as a wild river.
``(ii) The 6.5-mile segment from the south
section line of T. 19 S., R. 5.5 E., sec. 36,
to Fisher Creek, as a scenic river.
``(iii) The 27-mile segment from Fisher
Creek to the Willamette National Forest
boundary, as a recreational river.
``(B) Waldo lake.--Waldo Lake, including the
associated watershed, to be administered by the
Secretary of Agriculture as a scenic river.''.
(v) North Fork Owyhee, Oregon.--Section 3(a) of the Wild and Scenic
Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)) is amended by striking paragraph (91).
(w) North Fork Smith, Oregon.--Section 3(a)(92) of the Wild and
Scenic Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)(92)) is amended--
(1) in subparagraph (B), by striking ``scenic'' and
inserting ``wild'';
(2) by redesignating subparagraphs (A) through (C) as
clauses (i) through (iii), respectively, and indenting
appropriately;
(3) in the matter preceding clause (i) (as so
redesignated), by striking ``The 13-mile'' and inserting the
following:
``(A) In general.--The 13-mile''; and
(4) by adding at the end the following:
``(B) Additions.--The following segments of the
source tributaries of the North Fork Smith River, to be
administered by the Secretary of Agriculture in the
following classes:
``(i) The 13.26-mile segment of Baldface
Creek from and including the headwaters,
including all perennial tributaries, to the
confluence with the North Fork Smith in T. 39
S., R 10 W., T. 40 S., R. 10 W., and T. 41 S.,
R. 11 W., Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(ii) The 3.58-mile segment from and
including the headwaters of Taylor Creek to the
confluence with Baldface Creek, as a wild
river.
``(iii) The 4.38-mile segment from and
including the headwaters of the unnamed
tributary to Biscuit Creek and the headwaters
of Biscuit Creek to the confluence with
Baldface Creek, as a wild river.
``(iv) The 2.27-mile segment from and
including the headwaters of Spokane Creek to
the confluence with Baldface Creek, as a wild
river.
``(v) The 1.25-mile segment from and
including the headwaters of Rock Creek to the
confluence with Baldface Creek, flowing south
from T. 40 S., R. 10 W., sec. 19, Willamette
Meridian, as a wild river.
``(vi) The 1.31-mile segment from and
including the headwaters of the unnamed
tributary number 2 to the confluence with
Baldface Creek, flowing north from T. 40 S., R.
10 W., sec. 27, Willamette Meridian, as a wild
river.
``(vii) The 3.6-mile segment from the 2
headwaters of the unnamed tributary number 3 to
the confluence with Baldface Creek, flowing
south from T. 40 S., R. 10 W., secs. 9 and 10,
Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(viii) The 1.57-mile segment from and
including the headwaters of the unnamed
tributary number 4 to the confluence with
Baldface Creek, flowing north from T. 40 S., R.
10 W., sec. 26, Willamette Meridian, as a wild
river.
``(ix) The 0.92-mile segment from and
including the headwaters of the unnamed
tributary number 5 to the confluence with
Baldface Creek, flowing north from T. 40 S., R.
10 W., sec. 13, Willamette Meridian, as a wild
river.
``(x) The 4.9-mile segment from and
including the headwaters of Cedar Creek to the
confluence with North Fork Smith River, as a
wild river.
``(xi) The 2.38-mile segment from and
including the headwaters of Packsaddle Gulch to
the confluence with North Fork Smith River, as
a wild river.
``(xii) The 2.4-mile segment from and
including the headwaters of Hardtack Creek to
the confluence with North Fork Smith River, as
a wild river.
``(xiii) The 2.21-mile segment from and
including the headwaters of the unnamed creek
to the confluence with North Fork Smith River,
flowing east from T. 40 S., R. 11 W., sec. 29,
Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(xiv) The 3.06-mile segment from and
including the headwaters of Horse Creek to the
confluence with North Fork Smith River, as a
wild river.
``(xv) The 2.61-mile segment of Fall Creek
from the Oregon State border to the confluence
with North Fork Smith River, as a wild river.
``(xvi)(I) Except as provided in subclause
(II), the 4.57-mile segment from and including
the headwaters of North Fork Diamond Creek to
the confluence with Diamond Creek, as a wild
river.
``(II) Notwithstanding subclause (I), the
portion of the segment described in that
subclause that starts 100 feet above Forest
Service Road 4402 and ends 100 feet below
Forest Service Road 4402 shall be administered
as a scenic river.
``(xvii) The 1.02-mile segment from and
including the headwaters of Diamond Creek to
the Oregon State border in T. 40 S., R. 10 W.,
sec. 14, Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(xviii) The 1.14-mile segment from and
including the headwaters of Acorn Creek to the
confluence with Horse Creek, as a wild river.
``(xix) The 8.58-mile segment from and
including the headwaters of Chrome Creek to the
confluence with North Fork Smith River, as a
wild river.
``(xx) The 2.98-mile segment from and
including the headwaters of Chrome Creek
tributary number 1 to the confluence with
Chrome Creek, 0.82 miles upstream from the
mouth of Chrome Creek in the Kalmiopsis
Wilderness, flowing south from T. 40 S., R. 11
W., sec. 15, Willamette Meridian, as a wild
river.
``(xxi) The 2.19-mile segment from and
including the headwaters of Chrome Creek
tributary number 2 to the confluence with
Chrome Creek, 3.33 miles upstream from the
mouth of Chrome Creek in the Kalmiopsis
Wilderness, flowing south from T. 40 S., R. 11
W., sec. 12, Willamette Meridian, as a wild
river.
``(xxii) The 1.27-mile segment from and
including the headwaters of Chrome Creek
tributary number 3 to the confluence with
Chrome Creek, 4.28 miles upstream from the
mouth of Chrome Creek in the Kalmiopsis
Wilderness, flowing north from T. 40 S., R. 10
W., sec. 18, Willamette Meridian, as a wild
river.
``(xxiii) The 2.27-mile segment from and
including the headwaters of Chrome Creek
tributary number 4 to the confluence with
Chrome Creek, 6.13 miles upstream from the
mouth of Chrome Creek, flowing south from
Chetco Peak in the Kalmiopsis Wilderness in T.
39 S., R. 11 W., sec. 36, Willamette Meridian,
as a wild river.
``(xxiv) The 0.6-mile segment from and
including the headwaters of Wimer Creek to the
border between the States of Oregon and
California, flowing south from T. 41 S., R. 10
W., sec. 17, Willamette Meridian, as a wild
river.''.
(x) North Fork Sprague, Oregon.--Section 3(a) of the Wild and
Scenic Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)) is amended by striking paragraph
(93) and inserting the following:
``(93) North fork sprague, oregon.--The following segments,
to be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture in the
following classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--The 15-mile segment from the Head
of River Spring in SW\1/4\ sec. 15, T. 35 S., R. 16 E.,
Willamette Meridian, to the NW\1/4\SW\1/4\ sec. 11, T.
35 S., R. 15 E., Willamette Meridian, as a scenic
river.
``(B) Tributaries.--
``(i) Dead cow creek.--The approximately
4.6-mile segment of Dead Cow Creek from and
including Dead Horse Lake to the confluence
with the North Fork Sprague River, as a scenic
river, except that the area including Dead
Horse Lake shall be managed as a recreational
river.
``(ii) School creek.--The approximately
4.5-mile segment of School Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
the North Fork Sprague River, as a scenic
river.''.
(y) North Powder, Oregon.--Section 3(a) of the Wild and Scenic
Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)) is amended by striking paragraph (94)
and inserting the following:
``(94) North powder, oregon.--The following segments, to be
administered by the Secretary of Agriculture in the following
classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--The 6-mile segment from and
including the headwaters to the Wallowa-Whitman
National Forest boundary at River Mile 20, as a scenic
river.
``(B) Tributaries.--
``(i) Dutch flat creek.--The approximately
6.7-mile segment of Dutch Flat Creek from and
including the headwaters to the Wallowa-Whitman
National Forest boundary, as a wild river.
``(ii) Van patten creek.--The approximately
1.6-mile segment of Van Patten Creek from 0.01
mile below Van Patten Lake to the confluence
with Dutch Flat Creek, as a wild river.
``(iii) Rock creek.--The approximately 7.3-
mile segment of Rock Creek from and including
the headwaters, and including Rock Lake and
Bucket Lake, to the north boundary of SE\1/
4\NE\1/4\ sec. 7, T. 8 S., R. 38 E., Willamette
Meridian, as a wild river.
``(iv) North fork rock creek.--The
approximately 3.3-mile segment of North Fork
Rock Creek from and including the headwaters
(including Mayflower Meadow) to the confluence
with Rock Creek, as a wild river.
``(v) Killamacue creek.--The approximately
4-mile segment of Killamacue Creek from and
including the headwaters (including Killamacue
Lake) to the confluence with Rock Creek, as a
wild river.
``(vi) North fork north powder river.--The
approximately 2.5-mile segment of the North
Fork of the North Powder River, from and
including the headwaters (including Lost Lake)
to the confluence with the North Powder River,
as a wild river.''.
(z) North Umpqua, Oregon.--Section 3(a) of the Wild and Scenic
Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)) is amended by striking paragraph (95)
and inserting the following;
``(95) North umpqua, oregon.--The following segments, to be
administered by the Secretary of Agriculture, except as
otherwise provided, in the following classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--
``(i) Upper middle mainstem.--The 25.4-mile
segment from the Soda Springs Powerhouse to the
Umpqua National Forest boundary, as a
recreational river.
``(ii) Lower middle mainstem.--The 9.3-mile
segment from the Umpqua National Forest
boundary to the west boundary of E\1/2\NE\1/4\
sec. 11, T. 26 S., R. 3 W., Willamette
Meridian, to be administered by the Secretary
of the Interior as a recreational river.
``(iii) Uppermost mainstem.--
``(I) Upper.--The approximately
2.6-mile segment of North Umpqua River
from the confluence with Tolo Creek to
0.01 miles above Forest Service Road
60, as a wild river.
``(II) Lower.--The approximately 4-
mile segment of the North Umpqua River
from 0.01 mile above Forest Service
Road 60, including any associated
wetlands in the Kelsay Valley and
Crystal Springs to the Lemolo Reservoir
Pool, as a scenic river.
``(iv) Middle upper mainstem.--The
approximately 15.6-mile segment of the North
Umpqua River from the confluence with White
Mule Creek to Toketee Reservoir pool, as a
scenic river.
``(v) Lower upper mainstem.--The
approximately 1.5-mile segment from 0.01 mile
below Forest Service Road 34 bridge to
Powerline crossing in SE\1/4\ sec. 27, T. 26
S., R. 3 E., Willamette Meridian, as a scenic
river.
``(B) Upper north umpqua tributaries.--
``(i) Spring river.--The approximately 1.1-
mile segment of Spring River from the source at
2 springs to the confluence with the North
Umpqua River, including any associated
wetlands, as a wild river.
``(ii) Thirsty creek.--The approximately
6.2-mile segment of Thirsty Creek from and
including the headwaters until the point at
which Thirsty Creek goes underground, to be
administered as a wild river.
``(C) Fish creek watershed.--
``(i) Fish creek.--
``(I) Upper.--The approximately
9.9-mile segment of Fish Creek from
Rogue-Umpqua Divide Wilderness boundary
to Fish Creek Diversion Dam pool, as a
scenic river.
``(II) Lower.--The approximately
6.8-mile segment of Fish Creek from 100
feet below the Fish Creek Diversion Dam
to the confluence with the North Umpqua
River, as a recreational river.
``(ii) Pine creek.--The approximately 2.5-
mile segment of Pine Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with Fish
Creek, as a scenic river.
``(iii) Grave creek.--The approximately 4-
mile segment of Grave Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with Fish
Creek, as a scenic river.
``(D) Main steamboat creek watershed.--
``(i) Steamboat creek.--The approximately
23.9-mile segment of Steamboat Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
the North Umpqua River, as a recreational
river.
``(ii) East fork steamboat creek.--The
approximately 3-mile segment of East Fork
Steamboat Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with Steamboat
Creek, as a scenic river.
``(iii) Horse heaven creek.--The
approximately 4.5-mile segment of Horse Heaven
Creek from the Forest Service boundary above
Hobart Creek to the confluence with Steamboat
Creek, as a scenic river.
``(iv) City creek.--The approximately 7.1-
mile segment of City Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with Steamboat
Creek, as a scenic river.
``(v) St. peter creek.--The approximately
2.6-mile segment of St. Peter Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
City Creek, as a scenic river.
``(vi) Annie creek.--The approximately 1-
mile segment of Annie Creek from the Forest
Service boundary below Grouse Mountain Falls to
the confluence with City Creek, as a scenic
river.
``(vii) Big bend creek.--The approximately
10.6-mile segment of Big Bend Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
Steamboat Creek, as a scenic river.
``(viii) Bulldog creek.--The approximately
4.9-mile segment of Big Bulldog Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
Big Bend Creek, as a scenic river.
``(E) Canton creek subwatershed of steamboat creek
watershed.--
``(i) Canton creek.--
``(I) Upper.--The approximately 5-
mile segment of Canton Creek from and
including the headwaters to the Umpqua
National Forest boundary, as a scenic
river.
``(II) Lower.--The approximately
12-mile segment of Canton Creek from
the Umpqua National Forest boundary to
the confluence with Steamboat Creek, to
be administered by the Secretary of the
Interior as a recreational river.
``(ii) Mckinley creek.--The approximately
2.7-mile segment of McKinley Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
Canton Creek, as a scenic river.
``(iii) No man creek.--The approximately
2.6-mile segment of No Man Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
Canton Creek, as a scenic river.
``(iv) Chilcoot creek.--
``(I) Mainstem.--The approximately
1.3-mile segment of Chilcoot Creek from
the confluence of the North Fork
Chilcoot Creek and South Fork Chilcoot
Creek to the confluence with Canton
Creek, to be administered by the
Secretary of Agriculture and the
Secretary of the Interior as a scenic
river.
``(II) Forks.--
``(aa) North fork chilcoot
creek.--The approximately 3.2-
mile segment of North Fork
Chilcoot Creek from and
including the headwaters to the
confluence with South Fork
Chilcoot Creek, as a wild
river.
``(bb) South fork chilcoot
creek.--The approximately 2.2-
mile segment of North Fork
Chilcoot Creek from and
including the headwaters to the
confluence with North Fork
Chilcoot Creek, as a wild
river.
``(v) Hipower creek.--The approximately
6.4-mile segment of Hipower Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
Canton Creek (including the unnamed tributary
from and including the headwaters north of
Hipower Bluffs in T. 25 S., R. 1 E., sec. 17,
Willamette Meridian, to the confluence with
Hipower Creek), to be administered by the
Secretary of Agriculture and the Secretary of
the Interior as a scenic river.
``(F) North umpqua canyon tributaries.--
``(i) Dog creek.--The approximately 3-mile
segment of Dog Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with the North
Umpqua River, as a scenic river.
``(ii) Dry creek.--The approximately 3.6-
mile segment of Dry Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with the North
Umpqua River, as a scenic river.
``(iii) Jack creek.--The approximately 2.5-
mile segment of Jack Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with the North
Umpqua River, as a scenic river.
``(iv) Cougar creek.--The approximately
7.2-mile segment of Cougar Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
the North Umpqua River, as a scenic river.
``(v) Wright creek.--The approximately 3.4-
mile segment of Wright Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with the North
Umpqua River, as a scenic river.
``(vi) Fairview creek.--The approximately
3.5-mile segment of Fairview Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
the North Umpqua River, as a scenic river.
``(vii) Williams creek.--The approximately
3-mile segment of Williams Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
the North Umpqua River, as a scenic river.
``(viii) Calf creek.--The approximately
8.6-mile segment of Calf Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
the North Umpqua River, as a scenic river.
``(ix) Twin lakes creek.--The approximately
2.5-mile segment of Twin Lakes Creek from the
source and including Twin Lakes to the
confluence with Calf Creek, as a wild river.
``(x) Copeland creek.--
``(I) Upper mainstem.--The
approximately 3.1-mile segment of
Copeland Creek from and including the
headwaters to the west boundary of T.
27 S., R. 2 E., sec. 22, Willamette
Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(II) Lower mainstem.--The
approximately 9-mile segment of
Copeland Creek from the west boundary
of T. 27 S., R. 2 E., sec. 22,
Willamette Meridian, to the confluence
with the North Umpqua River, as a
recreational river.
``(III) Forks.--
``(aa) West fork copeland
creek.--The approximately 2.3-
mile segment of West Copeland
Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence
with Copeland Creek, as a
scenic river.
``(bb) East fork copeland
creek.--The approximately 3.6-
mile segment of East Copeland
Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence
with Copeland Creek, as a
scenic river.''.
(aa) Quartzville Creek, Oregon.--Section 3(a) of the Wild and
Scenic Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)) is amended by striking paragraph
(97) and inserting the following:
``(97) Quartzville creek, oregon.--
``(A) Mainstem.--The approximately 24-mile segment
from and including the headwaters in the Willamette
National Forest to slack water in Green Peter
Reservoir, to be administered by the Secretary of the
Interior and the Secretary of Agriculture as a
recreational river.
``(B) Tributaries.--The approximately 4-mile
segment of Yellowstone Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with Quartzville Creek, to
be administered by the Secretary of the Interior as a
scenic river.''.
(bb) Sandy, Oregon.--Section 3(a)(100) of the Wild and Scenic
Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)(100)) is amended--
(1) by redesignating subparagraphs (A) through (C) as
clauses (i) through (iii), respectively, and indenting
appropriately;
(2) by striking the paragraph designation and heading and
all that follows through ``as follows:'' and inserting the
following:
``(100) Sandy, oregon.--The following segments, to be
administered in the following classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--'';
(3) in subparagraph (A) (as so designated)--
(A) in clause (i) (as so redesignated), by striking
the semicolon at the end and inserting a period;
(B) in clause (ii) (as so redesignated)--
(i) by striking ``the 7.9'' and inserting
``The 7.9''; and
(ii) by striking ``; and'' and inserting a
period;
(C) in clause (iii) (as so redesignated), by
striking ``the 12.5-mile'' and inserting ``The 12.5
mile''; and
(D) by adding at the end the following:
``(iv) The 1.1-mile segment
from the confluence with the
Salmon River to the west
boundary of Barlow Wayside
Park, to be administered by the
Secretary of the Interior as a
recreational river.
``(v) The 2.3-mile segment
from the north boundary of
SW\1/4\SE\1/4\ sec. 21, T. 2
S., R. 6 E., Willamette
Meridian to the west boundary
of NE\1/4\, sec. 19, T. 2 S.,
R. 6 E., Willamette Meridian,
to be administered by the
Secretary of the Interior as a
recreational river.
``(vi) The 6.8-mile segment
from the south boundary of T. 2
S., R. 5 E., sec. 13,
Willamette Meridian, to the
west boundaries of T. 2 S., R.
5 E., secs. 8 and 17,
Willamette Meridian, to be
administered by the Secretary
of the Interior as a
recreational river.''; and
(4) by adding at the end the following:
``(B) Tributaries.--
``(i) Lost creek.--The approximately 9-mile
segment from and including the headwaters to
the confluence with the Sandy River, to be
administered by the Secretary of Agriculture as
a scenic river.
``(ii) Clear fork sandy river.--The
approximately 5.2-mile segment from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
the Sandy River, to be administered by the
Secretary of Agriculture as a scenic river.
``(iii) North boulder creek.--The
approximately 3.5-mile segment from and
including the headwaters to the west boundary
of T. 2 S., R. 7 E., sec. 18, Willamette
Meridian, to be administered by the Secretary
of the Interior and the Secretary of
Agriculture as a scenic river.
``(iv) Little sandy river.--The
approximately 2.2-mile segment of the Little
Sandy River from the west boundary of T. 2 S.,
R. 5 S., sec. 11, Willamette Meridian, to the
Bull Run Management Unit boundary, as a scenic
river.''.
(cc) South Fork John Day, Oregon.--Section 3(a) of the Wild and
Scenic Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)) is amended by striking paragraph
(101) and inserting the following:
``(101) South fork john day, oregon.--The following
segments, to be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture,
except as otherwise provided, in the following classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--The approximately 54-mile segment
from and including the headwaters in the Malheur
National Forest to Smokey Creek, to be administered by
the Secretary of the Interior and the Secretary of
Agriculture as a recreational river.
``(B) Tributaries.--
``(i) Murderers creek.--
``(I) Upper.--The approximately 2-
mile segment of Murderers Creek from
and including the headwaters to 0.01
mile above Forest Service Road 21, as a
scenic river.
``(II) Middle.--
``(aa) In general.--The
approximately 11.2-mile segment
of Murderers Creek from 0.01
mile above Forest Service Road
21 to the east boundary of
SW\1/4\SW\1/4\ sec. 10., T. 15
S., R. 28 E., Willamette
Meridian, as a recreational
river.
``(bb) Detailed
boundaries.--Non-Federal land
located in a segment designated
by item (aa) shall not be
included in the detailed
boundaries of the segment
required under subsection (b).
``(III) Lower.--The approximately
4.5-mile segment of Murderers Creek
from the east boundary of SW\1/4\SW\1/
4\ sec. 10, T. 15 S., R. 28 E.,
Willamette Meridian, to the confluence
with South Fork Murderers Creek, as a
wild river.
``(IV) South fork.--The
approximately 10-mile segment of South
Fork Murderers Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with
Murderers Creek, as a scenic river.
``(V) Thorn creek.--The
approximately 7.2-mile segment of Thorn
Creek from and including the headwaters
to the west boundary of T. 15 S., R. 27
E., sec. 1, Willamette Meridian, as a
wild river.
``(VI) Tex creek.--The
approximately 7.4-mile segment of Tex
Creek from and including the headwaters
to the confluence with Murderers Creek,
as a recreational river.
``(ii) Deer creek.--The approximately 12.5-
mile segment of Deer Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with the South
Fork John Day River, as a recreational
river.''.
(dd) Whychus Creek, Oregon.--Section 3(a) of the Wild and Scenic
Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)) is amended by striking paragraph (102)
and inserting the following:
``(102) Whychus creek, oregon.--The following segments to
be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture, except as
otherwise provided, in the following classes:
``(A) Designations.--Several segments, comprising
70.9 miles, from the source to the hydrologic Gaging
Station 800 feet upstream from the intake of the
Plainview Ditch (including the Soap Creek, the North
and South Forks of Whychus Creek, the East and West
Forks of Park Creek, and Park Creek) as follows:
``(i) The 6.6-mile segment and several
tributaries from the source to the Three
Sisters Wilderness boundary, as a wild river.
``(ii) The 8.8-mile segment from the
boundary of the Three Sisters Wilderness Area
to the hydrologic Gaging Station 800 feet
upstream from the intake of the Plainview
Ditch, as a scenic river.
``(iii) The approximately 5.9-mile segment
of Snow Creek from 100 feet below the Snow
Creek irrigation ditch diversion to the
confluence with Whychus Creek, as a scenic
river.
``(iv) The approximately 7.6-mile segment
of Whychus Creek from the Crooked River
National Grassland boundary to the confluence
with the Deschutes River, to be administered by
the Secretary of the Interior as a wild river,
except that the segment 0.01 mile above to 0.01
mile below the centerline of Forest Service
Road PU-3121 shall be managed as a scenic
river.
``(B) Withdrawal.--Subject to valid existing
rights, the Federal land within the boundaries of the
river segments designated by subparagraph (A) is
withdrawn from all forms of--
``(i) entry, appropriation, or disposal
under the public land laws;
``(ii) location, entry, and patent under
the mining laws; and
``(iii) disposition under all laws relating
to mineral and geothermal leasing or mineral
materials.
``(C) Effect.--Nothing in this paragraph prohibits
the construction of facilities necessary for emergency
protection for the town of Sisters, Oregon, relating to
a rapid discharge of Carver Lake if no other reasonable
flood warning or control alternative exists.''.
(ee) Upper Rogue, Oregon.--Section 3(a) of the Wild and Scenic
Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)) is amended by striking paragraph (104)
and inserting the following:
``(104) Upper rogue, oregon.--The following segments, to be
administered by the Secretary of Agriculture:
``(A) Mainstem.--The 40.3-mile segment from the
Crater Lake National Park boundary to the Rogue River
National Forest boundary in the following classes:
``(i) The 0.5-mile segment from the Crater
Lake National Park boundary to approximately
0.1-mile downstream from the forest road
6530760 (West Lake Road) crossing, as a scenic
river.
``(ii) The 6.1-mile segment from
approximately 0.1 mile downstream from the
forest road 6530760 (West Lake Road) crossing
to Minnehaha Creek, as a wild river.
``(iii) The 33.7-mile segment from
Minnehaha Creek to the Rogue River National
Forest boundary, as a scenic river.
``(B) Forks.--
``(i) Middle fork.--The approximately 6.7-
mile segment of the Middle Fork Rogue River
from the Sky Lakes Wilderness boundary to the
Rogue River-Siskiyou National Forest boundary,
as a scenic river.
``(ii) South fork.--
``(I) Upper.--The approximately
12.4-mile segment of the South Fork
Rogue River from the Sky Lakes
Wilderness boundary to South Fork
Reservoir Pool, as a scenic river.
``(II) Middle.--The approximately
0.7-mile segment of the South Fork
Rogue River from 0.01 mile below South
Fork Dam to the Rogue River-Siskiyou
National Forest boundary, as a
recreational river.
``(C) Tributaries.--
``(i) Bybee creek.--The approximately 9.7-
mile segment from the Crater Lake National Park
boundary to the confluence with the Rogue
River, as a scenic river.
``(ii) Castle creek.--The approximately
8.7-mile segment of Castle Creek from the
Crater Lake National Park boundary to the
confluence with the Rogue River, as a scenic
river.
``(iii) Muir creek.--
``(I) Mainstem.--The approximately
2.6-mile segment of Muir Creek and any
associated wetlands from the confluence
of West Fork Muir Creek and East Fork
Muir Creek to the confluence with the
Rogue Rover, as a scenic river.
``(II) West fork.--The
approximately 1.9-mile segment of West
Fork Muir Creek from the Rogue-Umpqua
Divide Wilderness boundary to the
confluence with East Fork Muir Creek,
as a scenic river.
``(III) East fork.--The
approximately 7-mile segment of East
Fork Muir Creek from the source,
including Beaver Meadows, to the
confluence with West Fork Muir Creek,
as a scenic river.
``(iv) Red blanket creek.--The
approximately 8.7-mile segment of Red Blanket
Creek from the Sky Lakes Wilderness boundary to
the Rogue River-Siskiyou National Forest
boundary, as a scenic river.
``(v) Union creek.--The approximately 15.3-
mile segment of Union Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with the Rogue
River, as a scenic river.
``(vi) Sherwood creek.--The approximately
3.6-mile segment of Sherwood Creek from the
source at and including Three Lakes to the
confluence with East Fork Muir Creek, as a
scenic river.
``(vii) Foster creek.--The approximately
8.3-mile segment of Foster Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
the Rogue River, to be administered as a scenic
river.
``(viii) Hershberger creek.--The
approximately 4.4-mile segment of Hershberger
Creek from and including the headwaters to the
confluence with Foster Creek, to be
administered as a scenic river.
``(ix) Minnehaha creek.--The approximately
5-mile segment of Minnehaha Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
the Rogue River, to be administered as a scenic
river.''.
(ff) West Little Owyhee, Oregon.--Section 3(a) of the Wild and
Scenic Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)) is amended by striking paragraph
(106).
(gg) White, Oregon.--Section 3(a)(107) of the Wild and Scenic
Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)(107)) is amended--
(1) by redesignating subparagraphs (A) through (F) as
clauses (i) through (vi), respectively, and indenting
appropriately;
(2) in the matter preceding clause (i) (as so
redesignated), by striking ``The 46.5-mile'' and inserting the
following:
``(A) In general.--The 46.5-mile'';
(3) in each of clauses (ii), (iii), and (iv) (as so
redesignated), by striking the semicolon at the end and
inserting a period;
(4) in clause (ii) (as so redesignated), by striking ``the
13.6'' and inserting ``The 13.6'';
(5) in clause (iii) (as so redesignated), by striking ``the
6.5'' and inserting ``The 6.5'';
(6) in clause (iv) (as so redesignated), by striking ``the
17.5'' and inserting ``The 17.5'';
(7) by striking clauses (v) and (vi) (as so redesignated)
and inserting the following:
``(v) The 6.9-mile segment from Three Mile
Creek to the confluence with the Deschutes
River, to be administered by the Secretary of
the Interior as a recreational river.
``(vi) Notwithstanding subsection (b), the
lateral boundaries of the segment designated by
this subparagraph shall include an average of
640 acres per mile measured from the ordinary
high water mark on both sides of the river
segment.''; and
(8) by adding at the end the following:
``(B) Boulder creek.--In addition to the segments
described in subparagraph (A), there are designated the
following segments of Boulder Creek, to be administered
by the Secretary of Agriculture, in the following
classes:
``(i) Upper.--The approximately 8.2-mile
segment of Boulder Creek from and including the
headwaters to the pool of the diversion dam in
T. 4 S., R. 10 E., sec. 27, Willamette
Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(ii) Lower.--The approximately 3.2-mile
segment of Boulder Creek from the pool of the
diversion dam in T. 4 S., R. 10 E., sec. 27,
Willamette Meridian, to the confluence with the
White River, as a scenic river.''.
(hh) South Fork Clackamas River, Oregon.--Section 3(a) of the Wild
and Scenic Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)) is amended by striking
paragraph (171).
(ii) Middle Fork Hood, Oregon.--Section 3(a)(173) of the Wild and
Scenic Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)(173)) is amended--
(1) by striking ``The 3.7-mile'' and inserting the
following:
``(A) In general.--The 3.7-mile''; and
(2) by adding at the end the following:
``(B) Additions.--In addition to the segment
described in subparagraph (A), there are designated the
following segments, to be administered by the Secretary
of Agriculture, in the following classes:
``(i) Coe branch.--The approximately 5.8-
mile segment of the Coe branch from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
the Middle Fork Hood River, as a wild river.
``(ii) Elliott branch.--The approximately
5.8-mile segment of the Elliott branch from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
the Middle Fork Hood River, as a wild river.''.
(jj) Zigzag.--Section 3(a) of the Wild and Scenic Rivers Act (16
U.S.C. 1274(a)) is amended by striking paragraph (175) and inserting
the following:
``(175) Zigzag river, oregon.--The following segments in
the State of Oregon, to be administered by the Secretary of
Agriculture in the following classes:
``(A) The 4.3-mile segment of the Zigzag River from
the headwaters to the Mount Hood Wilderness boundary,
as a wild river.
``(B) The approximately 2.2-mile segment of the
Zigzag River from the east boundary of T. 3 S., R. 8
E., sec. 15, Willamette Meridian, to the confluence
with Lady Creek, as a recreational river''.
(kk) East Fork Hood, Oregon.--Section 3(a)(177) of the Wild and
Scenic Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)(177)) is amended--
(1) by striking ``The 13.5-mile'' and inserting the
following:
``(A) In general.--The 13.5-mile''; and
(2) by adding at the end the following:
``(B) Additions.--In addition to the segment
described in subparagraph (A), there are designated the
following segments, to be administered by the Secretary
of Agriculture, in the following classes:
``(i) Dog river.--The approximately 4.6-
mile segment from 0.1 miles below the diversion
in T. 2 S., R. 10 E., sec. 11, Willamette
Meridian, to the point at which the segment
first leaves Forest Service ownership, as a
scenic river.
``(ii) Cold spring creek.--The
approximately 6.1-mile segment of Cold Springs
Creek from and including the headwaters to the
confluence with the East Fork Hood River, as a
wild river.''.
(ll) Molalla, Oregon.--Section 3(a)(216) of the Wild and Scenic
Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)(216)) is amended by striking subparagraph
(A) and inserting the following:
``(A) In general.--The following segments in the
State of Oregon, to be administered by the Secretary of
the Interior:
``(i) Middle molalla river.--The
approximately 15.1-mile segment from the
southern boundary of T. 7 S., R. 4 E., sec. 19,
Willamette Meridian, downstream to the edge of
the Bureau of Land Management boundary in T. 6
S., R. 3 E., sec. 7, Willamette Meridian, as a
recreational river.
``(ii) Uppermost molalla river.--The
approximately 2.4-mile segment of the Molalla
River from and including the headwaters to the
west boundary of T. 7 S., R. 4 E., sec. 35,
Willamette Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(iii) Table rock fork molalla river.--The
approximately 6.2-mile segment from the
easternmost Bureau of Land Management boundary
line in NE\1/4\ sec. 4, T. 7 S., R. 4 E.,
Willamette Meridian, downstream to the
confluence with the Molalla River, as a
recreational river.''.
(mm) Nestucca, Oregon.--Section 3(a) of the Wild and Scenic Rivers
Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)) is amended by striking paragraph (217) and
inserting the following:
``(217) Nestucca, oregon.--The following segments, to be
administered by the Secretary of Agriculture, except as
otherwise provided, in the following classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--The approximately 24-mile segment
from the confluence with Walker Creek downstream to the
west boundary of E\1/2\SE\1/4\ sec. 32, T. 3 S., R. 8
W., Willamette Meridian, to be administered as a
recreational river.
``(B) Tributaries.--
``(i) Elk creek.--The approximately 6.3-
mile segment of Elk Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with the
Nestucca River, to be administered by the
Secretary of the Interior as a recreational
river.
``(ii) Alder creek.--The approximately 3.9-
mile segment of Alder Creek from and including
the headwaters to the north boundary of T. 3
S., R. 9 W., sec. 36, Willamette Meridian, as a
scenic river.
``(iii) Beulah creek.--The approximately
3.4-mile segment of Beulah Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
Niagara Creek, as a scenic river.
``(iv) Boulder creek.--The approximately
2.7-mile segment of Boulder Creek from and
including the headwaters to the north boundary
of S\1/2\SW\1/4\sec. 2, T. 4 S., R. 9 W.,
Willamette Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(v) Dahl fork powder creek.--The
approximately 2.4-mile segment of Dahl Fork
Powder Creek from and including the headwaters
to the confluence with Powder Creek, as a
scenic river.
``(vi) George creek.--The approximately
1.5-mile segment of George Creek from and
including the headwaters to the west boundary
of T. 4 S., R. 9 W., sec. 7, Willamette
Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(vii) Left branch powder creek.--The
approximately 3-mile segment of Left Branch
Powder Creek from and including the headwaters
to the north boundary of S\1/2\NW\1/4\ sec. 9,
T. 4 S., R. 8 W., Willamette Meridian, as a
scenic river.
``(viii) Limestone creek.--The
approximately 3.1-mile segment of Boulder Creek
from and including the headwaters to the east
boundary of T. 3 S., R. 8 W., sec. 31,
Willamette Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(ix) Mina creek.--The approximately 2-
mile segment of Mina Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with the
Nestucca River, as a scenic river.
``(x) Niagara creek.--The approximately 7-
mile segment of Niagara Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
the Nestucca River, as a scenic river.
``(xi) Pheasant creek.--The approximately
3-mile segment of Pheasant Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
Niagara Creek, as a scenic river.
``(xii) Powder creek.--The approximately
3.6-mile segment of Powder Creek from and
including the headwaters to the east boundary
of NW\1/4\NW\1/4\ sec. 9, T. 4 S., R. 8 W.,
Willamette Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(xiii) Shueble creek.--The approximately
0.9-mile segment of Shueble Creek from and
including the headwaters to the north boundary
of SW\1/4\NE\1/4\ sec. 9, T. 4 S., R. 8 W.,
Willamette Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(xiv) Tony creek.--The approximately 2.3-
mile segment of Tony Creek from and including
the headwaters to the north boundary of S\1/
2\SW\1/4\ sec. 34, T. 3 S., R. 9 W., Willamette
Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(xv) East beaver creek.--The
approximately 8.1-mile segment of East Beaver
Creek from and including the headwaters to the
south boundary of NW\1/4\NW\1/4\ sec. 15, T. 3
S., R. 9 W., Willamette Meridian, to be
administered by the Secretary of Agriculture
and the Secretary of the Interior as a
recreational river.''.
(nn) Walker Creek and North Fork Silver Creek, Oregon.--Section
3(a) of the Wild and Scenic Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)) is amended
by striking paragraphs (218) and (219).
(oo) Jenny Creek, Oregon and California.--Section 3(a) of the Wild
and Scenic Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)) is amended by striking
paragraph (220) and inserting the following:
``(220) Jenny creek, oregon and california.--The following
segments, to be administered by the Secretary of the Interior
in the following classes:
``(A) Mainstems.--
``(i) Mainstem headwaters.--The
approximately 26.1-mile segment originating
from the 3 headwaters as follows:
``(I) Central mainstem.--The
approximately 1.4-mile segment
originating in SW\1/4\ sec. 26, T. 38
S., R. 4 E., Willamette Meridian, above
the Pacific Crest National Scenic
Trail.
``(II) West mainstem.--The
approximately 2.2-mile segment
originating in NE\1/4\ sec. 27, T. 39
S., R. 4 E., Willamette Meridian, above
the Pacific Crest National Scenic
Trail.
``(III) East mainstem.--The
approximately 1.7-mile segment
originating in SW\1/4\ sec. 35, T. 38
S., R. 4 E., Willamette Meridian,
downstream to the Iron Gate Reservoir
pool, to be administered by the
Secretary of the Interior as a scenic
river, except that, on the removal of
Iron Gate Dam, the lower terminus shall
extend to the confluence with the
Klamath River.
``(ii) Alternative mainstem of jenny
creek.--The approximately 0.7-mile segment
known as `Jenny Creek' from the confluence of
Soda Creek and Grizzly Creek to the confluence
with Jenny Creek that flows southward into
NW\1/4\ sec. 10, T. 39 S., R. 4 E., Willamette
Meridian.
``(B) Tributaries.--
``(i) Grizzly creek.--The approximately
2.1-mile segment of Grizzly Creek from the west
boundary of SE\1/4\SE\1/4\ sec. 32, T. 38 S.,
R. 4 E., Willamette Meridian, to the confluence
with Soda Creek, as a recreational river.
``(ii) Soda creek.--The approximately 3.8-
mile segment of Soda Creek from and including
the headwaters and including the unnamed fork
that includes Dogwood Spring to the confluence
with Grizzly Creek, as a recreational river.
``(iii) Skookum creek.--
``(I) Upper.--The approximately 6-
mile segment of Skookum Creek from and
including the headwaters to the border
between the States of Oregon and
California, as a recreational river.
``(II) Lower.--The approximately 1-
mile segment of Skookum Creek from the
border of the States of Oregon and
California to the confluence with Jenny
Creek, as a wild river.
``(iv) Hartwell draw.--The approximately
0.8-mile segment of Hartwell Draw from the Soda
Mountain Wilderness boundary to the confluence
with Skookum Creek, as a scenic river.
``(v) Keene creek.--
``(I) Upper.--The approximately
0.9-mile segment of Keene Creek from
ithe headwaters to Hyatt Reservoir
pool, as a recreational river.
``(II) Lower.--The approximately
6.5-mile segment of Keene Creek from
the north boundary of S\1/2\ sec. 4, T.
40 S., R. 3 E., Willamette Meridian, to
the confluence with Jenny Creek, as a
recreational river.
``(III) Parsnip lakes area.--The
Parsnip Lakes Area, including all
lakes, marshes, and connector streams
in T. 40 S., R. 3 E., sec. 10,
Willamette Meridian, to the confluence
with Keene Creek, as a wild river.
``(vi) South fork keene creek.--The
approximately 3.6-mile segment of South Fork
Keene Creek from and including the headwaters
to the confluence with Keene Creek, as a scenic
river.
``(vii) Devils gulch.--The approximately
2.2-mile segment of Devils Gulch from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
South Fork Keene Creek, as a recreational
river.
``(viii) Cottonwood creek.--The
approximately 2.8-mile segment of Cottonwood
Creek from and including the headwaters
(including Cottonwood Glades) to the confluence
with Keene Creek, as a recreational river.
``(ix) Burnt creek.--The approximately 2.6-
mile segment of Burnt Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with Keene
Creek, as a recreational river.
``(x) Mill creek.--The approximately 4.2-
mile segment of Mill Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with Keene
Creek, as a recreational river.
``(xi) Lincoln creek.--The approximately
2.6-mile segment of Lincoln Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
Keene Creek, as a recreational river.
``(xii) West fork lincoln creek.--The
approximately 4.3-mile segment of West Fork
Lincoln Creek from and including the headwaters
in T. 40 S., R. 3 E., sec. 23, Willamette
Meridian, to the confluence with Lincoln Creek,
as a recreational river.
``(xiii) Beaver creek.--The approximately
5.9-mile segment of Beaver Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
Jenny Creek, as a recreational river.
``(xiv) South fork beaver creek.--The
approximately 2.8-mile segment of South Fork
Beaver Creek from and including the headwaters
to the confluence with Beaver Creek, as a
recreational river.
``(xv) Hoxie creek.--The approximately 2.9-
mile segment of Hoxie Creek from the eastern
boundary of T. 38 S., R. 4 E., sec. 17,
Willamette Meridian, to Howard Prairie
Reservoir pool, as a recreational river.
``(xvi) Green creek.--The approximately
2.5-mile segment of Green Creek from and
including the headwaters, including Big
Springs, to the south boundary of T. 38 S., R.
4 E., sec. 35, Willamette Meridian, as a
recreational river.
``(xvii) Unnamed tributary to johnson
creek.--The 0.6-mile segment of an unnamed
tributary to Johnson Creek from the east
boundary of T. 39 S., R. 4 E., sec. 23,
Willamette Meridian, to the confluence with
Johnson Creek, as a wild river.
``(xviii) Bluejay creek.--The approximately
1-mile segment of Bluejay Creek from Bluejay
Spring to the confluence with Jenny Creek, as a
recreational river.
``(xix) Johnson creek.--
``(I) Upper.--The approximately
3.2-mile segment of Johnson Creek from
the source at an unnamed spring by
Surveyor Mountain Campground and an
unnamed spring in NE\1/4\NW\1/4\ sec.
27, T. 38 S., R. 5 E., Willamette
Meridian, to the south boundary of T.
38 S., R. 5 E., sec. 29, Willamette
Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(II) Lower.--The approximately
1.2-mile segment of Johnson Creek from
the east boundary of T. 39 S., R. 4 E.,
sec. 23, Willamette Meridian, to the
confluence with Jenny Creek, as a wild
river.
``(xx) West fork johnson creek.--The
approximately 7.7-mile segment of West Fork
Johnson Creek from and including the headwaters
and including all streams in T. 38 S., R. 4 E.,
sec. 25, Willamette Meridian, and T. 38 S., R.
5 E., secs. 20, 29, 30, 31, and 32, Willamette
Meridian, to the south boundary of T. 38 S., R.
5 E., secs. 29 and 31, Willamette Meridian, as
a recreational river.
``(xxi) East fork johnson creek.--The
approximately 1.2-mile segment of East Fork
Johnson Creek from and including the
headwaters, including an unnamed spring in
NE\1/4\NE\1/4\ sec. 28, T. 38 S., R. 5 E.,
Willamette Meridian, to the south boundary of
T. 38 S., R. 5 E., sec. 29, Willamette
Meridian, as a recreational river.
``(xxii) Cold creek.--The approximately 2-
mile segment of Cold Creek from and including
the headwaters to the west boundary of T. 39
S., R. 5 E., sec. 3, Willamette Meridian, as a
scenic river.
``(xxiii) Sheepy creek.--The approximately
3.5-mile segment of Sheepy Creek that includes
all stream reaches on public land in T. 39 S.,
R. 5 E., secs. 11 and 13, Willamette Meridian
and T. 39 S., R. 6 E., sec. 7, Willamette
Meridian, as a recreational river.
``(xxiv) East fork beaver creek.--The
approximately 1.2-mile segment from 0.1 mile
below the irrigation canal in T. 39 S., R. 3
E., sec. 29, Willamette Meridian, as a
recreational river.
``(xxv) Unnamed tributary to jenny creek.--
The approximately 0.9-mile segment from 0.1
mile below the irrigation canal in T. 39 S., R.
4 E., sec. 28, Willamette Meridian, as a scenic
river.''.
(pp) Lobster Creek, Oregon.--Section 3(a) of the Wild and Scenic
Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)) is amended by striking paragraph (222)
and inserting the following:
``(222) Lobster creek, oregon.--The following segments, to
be administered by the Secretary of the Interior in the
following classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--The approximately 4.1-mile segment
from T. 15 S., R. 8 W., sec. 35, Willamette Meridian,
downstream to the northern edge of the Bureau of Land
Management boundary in T. 15 S., R. 8 W., sec. 15,
Willamette Meridian, as a recreational river.
``(B) East fork.--The approximately 4.1-mile
segment of East Fork Lobster Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with Lobster Creek, as
a recreational river.
``(C) South fork.--The approximately 3-mile segment
of South Fork Lobster Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with Lobster Creek, as a
recreational river.''.
(qq) Elk Creek, Oregon.--Section 3(a)(223) of the Wild and Scenic
Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a)(223)) is amended--
(1) by striking ``The approximately'' and inserting the
following:
``(A) Mainstem.--The approximately''; and
(2) by adding at the end the following:
``(B) Bitter lick creek.--The approximately 6.5-
mile segment of Bitter Lick Creek from and including
the headwaters to the south boundary of T. 31 S., R. 1
E., sec. 36, Willamette Meridian, to be administered by
the Secretary of Agriculture as a wild river.''.
SEC. 8. DESIGNATION OF ADDITIONAL COMPONENTS OF THE NATIONAL WILD AND
SCENIC RIVERS SYSTEM.
Section 3(a) of the Wild and Scenic Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274(a))
is amended by adding at the end the following:
``(231) Applegate headwaters, oregon and california.--The
following segments, to be administered by the Secretary of
Agriculture in the following classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--The approximately 5-mile segment
of the Applegate River from the confluence of the Butte
Fork Applegate River and the Middle Fork Applegate
River in SE\1/4\SE\1/4\ sec. 25, T. 48 N., R. 12 W.,
Mount Diablo Meridian, to Applegate Reservoir Pool at
Seattle Bar, as a recreational river.
``(B) Forks.--
``(i) Middle fork.--
``(I) Upper.--The approximately 2-
mile segment of the Middle Fork
Applegate River from the west boundary
of T. 48 N., R. 12 W., sec. 19, Mount
Diablo Meridian, to the confluence with
Camp Gulch, as a wild river.
``(II) Middle.--The approximately
5.4-mile segment of the Middle Fork
Applegate River from the confluence
with Camp Gulch to 0.01 mile above
Forest Service Road 1040, as a scenic
river.
``(III) Lower.--The approximately
1.3-mile segment of the Middle Fork
Applegate River from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with the
Butte Fork Applegate River, as a
recreational river.
``(ii) Butte fork.--The approximately 1.2-
mile segment of the Butte Fork Applegate River
from the Red Buttes Wilderness boundary to the
confluence with Middle Fork Applegate River, as
a wild river.
``(C) Tributaries.--
``(i) Stricklin gulch.--The approximately
1.3-mile segment of Stricklin Gulch from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
the Applegate River, as a wild river.
``(ii) Reservoir gulch.--The approximately
1.3-mile segment of Reservoir Gulch from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
the Applegate River, as a wild river.
``(iii) Lick gulch.--The approximately 1.4-
mile segment of Lick Gulch from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with the
Applegate River, as a wild river.
``(iv) Cook and green creek.--The
approximately 5-mile segment of Cook and Green
Creek from and including the headwaters to the
confluence with the Applegate River, as a wild
river.
``(v) Bear gulch.--The approximately 1.3-
mile segment of Bear Gulch from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with the
Applegate River, as a scenic river.
``(vi) Whisky creek.--
``(I) Upper.--The approximately
1.7-mile segment of Whisky Creek from
and including the headwaters to the
south boundary of T. 41 S., R. 4 W.,
sec. 7, Willamette Meridian, as a
scenic river.
``(II) Lower.--The approximately
3.3-mile segment of Whisky Creek
California-Oregon border to the
confluence with the Applegate River, as
a scenic river.
``(vii) Marble gulch.--The approximately
0.5-mile segment of Marble Gulch from the Red
Buttes Wilderness boundary to the confluence
with the Middle Fork Applegate River, as a
scenic river.
``(viii) French gulch.--The approximately
0.5-mile segment of French Gulch from the Red
Buttes Wilderness boundary to the confluence
with the Middle Fork Applegate River, as a
scenic river.
``(ix) Bean gulch.--The approximately 1.6-
mile segment of Bean Gulch from the Red Buttes
Wilderness boundary to the confluence with the
Middle Fork Applegate River, as a scenic river.
``(x) Camp gulch.--The approximately 0.8-
mile segment of Camp Gulch from the Red Buttes
Wilderness boundary to the confluence with the
Middle Fork Applegate River, as a scenic river.
``(xi) Slide creek.--The approximately 1.1-
mile segment of Slide Creek from and including
the headwaters in T. 47 N., R. 11 W., sec. 6,
Mount Diablo Meridian, to the confluence with
the Butte Fork Applegate River in SE\1/4\NE\1/
4\ sec. 36, T. 48 N., R. 12 W., Mount Diablo
Meridian, as a wild river.
``(xii) Echo canyon creek.--The
approximately 2-mile segment of Echo Canyon
Creek from and including the headwaters
(including Echo Lake) to the confluence with
the Butte Fork Applegate River, as a wild
river.
``(xiii) Tamarack creek.--The approximately
2.5-mile segment of Tamarack Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
Elliott Creek, as a scenic river.
``(xiv) Kettle creek.--The approximately
1.5-mile segment of Kettle Creek from and
including the headwaters (including Kettle
Lake) to the confluence with the Silver Fork
Elliott Creek, as a scenic river.
``(xv) Elliott creek.--The approximately 9-
mile segment of Elliott Creek from the
confluence of the Wards Fork and Dog Fork of
Elliott Creek to the confluence with the
Applegate River south of the California-Oregon
border, as a scenic river.
``(D) Stein gulch fork.--The approximately 1.3-mile
segment of Stein Gulch from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with Elliott Creek, as a
scenic river.
``(E) Non-federal land.--The Secretary of
Agriculture shall not include any non-Federal land in
the Elliot Creek watershed within the detailed
boundaries required under subsection (b) for a segment
designated by this paragraph.
``(232) Bear and deer creeks, oregon.--The following
segments, to be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture in
the following classes:
``(A) Upper bear creek.--The approximately 4-mile
segment of Bear Creek from the Eagle Cap Wilderness
boundary to the north boundary of T. 1 S., R. 42 E.,
sec. 22, Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(B) Lower bear creek.--The approximately 0.5-mile
segment of Bear Creek from the north boundary of T. 1
S., R. 42 E., sec. 22, Willamette Meridian, to the
north boundary of SE\1/4\NE\1/4\ sec. 15, T. 1 S., R.
41 E., Willamette Meridian, as a recreational river.
``(C) Doc creek.--The approximately 4.5-mile
segment of Doc Creek from the Eagle Cap Wilderness
boundary to the confluence with Chaparral Creek, as a
wild river.
``(D) Deer creek.--The approximately 9-mile segment
of Deer Creek from and including the headwaters to the
north boundary of SE\1/4\NE\1/4\ sec. 31, T. 1 N., R.
43 E., Willamette Meridian, to be administered by the
Secretary of Agriculture and the Secretary of the
Interior as a scenic river.
``(E) Sage creek.--The approximately 4.1-mile
segment of Sage Creek from and including the headwaters
to the confluence with Deer Creek, as a scenic river.
``(233) Bear creek headwaters, oregon.--The following
segments, to be administered by the Secretary of the Interior
in the following classes:
``(A) Emigrant creek.--The approximately 6.2-mile
segment of Emigrant Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with Baldy Creek, as a
recreational river.
``(B) Porcupine creek.--The approximately 3.6-mile
segment of Porcupine Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with Emigrant Creek, as a
scenic river.
``(C) Green mountain creek.--The approximately 5-
mile segment of Green Mountain Creek from and including
the headwaters in T. 40 S., R. 2 E., sec. 25,
Willamette Meridian, and T. 40 S., R. 3 E., secs. 19
and 30, Willamette Meridian, to the confluence with
Emigrant Creek, as a wild river.
``(D) Baldy creek.--The approximately 9.1-mile
segment of Baldy Creek from and including the
headwaters in T. 40 S., R. 3 E., secs. 16, 17, 18, 19,
21, 28, and 29, Willamette Meridian, to the confluence
with Emigrant Creek, as a recreational river.
``(E) Sampson creek.--The approximately 7.7-mile
segment of Sampson Creek from and including the
headwaters to Emigrant Reservoir, as a recreational
river.
``(F) Right fork sampson creek.--The approximately
2-mile segment of the Right Fork Sampson Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with Sampson
Creek, as a wild river.
``(G) Cattle creek.--The approximately 2.6-mile
segment of Cattle Creek from and including the
headwaters to Emigrant Reservoir pool, as a
recreational river.
``(H) Soda creek.--The approximately 1.3-mile
segment of Soda Creek from and including the headwaters
to 0.1 mile above Oregon Highway 66, as a recreational
river.
``(I) Gaerky creek.--The approximately 3.6-mile
segment of Gaerky Creek from and including the
headwaters to the southern boundary of T. 38 S., R. 1
E., sec. 36, Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(J) Walker creek.--The approximately 3.9-mile
segment of Walker Creek from and including the
headwaters to 0.01 mile above Dead Indian Memorial
Road, as a scenic river.
``(K) Sweathouse canyon creek.--The approximately
2.7-mile segment of Sweathouse Canyon Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with Walker
Creek, as a scenic river.
``(L) Dosier flat fork of cove creek.--The
approximately 1.1-mile segment of the Dosier Flat Fork
of Cove Creek from the south boundary of T. 39 S., R. 2
E., sec. 3, Willamette Meridian, to the north boundary
of T. 39 S., R. 2 E., sec. 3, Willamette Meridian, as a
recreational river.
``(M) Black canyon.--The approximately 2.8-mile
segment of Black Canyon from and including the
headwaters to the south boundary of NE\1/4\NW\1/4\ sec.
18, T. 8 S., R. 48 E., Willamette Meridian, to be
administered by the Secretary of the Interior as a wild
river.
``(234) Black canyon creek, oregon.--The following
segments, to be administered by the Secretary of the Interior
in the following classes:
``(A) Upper.--The approximately 2.2-mile segment of
Black Canyon Creek from and including the headwaters to
the west boundary of T. 20 S., R. 40 E., sec. 19,
Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(B) Lower.--The approximately 1.7-mile segment of
Black Canyon Creek from the west boundary of T. 20 S.,
R. 40 E., sec. 19, Willamette Meridian, to the west
boundary of NE\1/4\SE\1/4\ sec. 25, T. 20 S., R. 39 E.,
Willamette Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(235) Blue, oregon.--The approximately 8.7-mile segment
of the Blue River from the confluence of Mann Creek and Wolf
Creek to Blue River Reservoir pool, to be administered by the
Secretary of Agriculture as a recreational river.
``(236) Breitenbush, oregon.--The following segments, to be
administered by the Secretary of Agriculture in the following
classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--
``(i) Upper.--The approximately 0.2-mile
segment of the Breitenbush River from the
confluence of the North and South Forks of the
Breitenbush River to the west boundary of T. 9
S., R. 9 E., sec. 21, Willamette Meridian, as a
scenic river.
``(ii) Lower.--The approximately 9.1-mile
segment of the Breitenbush River from the west
boundary of NE\1/4\ sec. 20, T. 9 S., R. 7 E.,
Willamette Meridian, to Detroit Reservoir pool,
as a recreational river.
``(B) Forks.--
``(i) North fork breitenbush river.--The
approximately 11.9-mile segment of the North
Fork Breitenbush River from the Warm Springs
Reservation boundary to the confluence with the
South Fork Breitenbush River, as a scenic
river.
``(ii) South fork breitenbush river.--The
approximately 5.6.-mile segment of the South
Fork Breitenbush River from the Mount Jefferson
Wilderness boundary to the confluence with the
North Fork Breitenbush River, as a scenic
river.
``(C) Tributaries.--
``(i) Devils creek.--The approximately 6.1-
mile segment of Devils Creek from and including
the headwaters to the north boundary of SE\1/4\
sec. 20, T. 9 S., R. 9 E., Willamette Meridian,
as a scenic river.
``(ii) Humbug creek.--The approximately
6.4-mile segment of Humbug Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
the Breitenbush River, as a scenic river.
``(iii) East fork humbug creek.--The
approximately 6.5-mile segment of East Fork
Humbug Creek from and including the headwaters
to the confluence with Humbug Creek, as a
scenic river.
``(iv) French creek.--The approximately
5.8-mile segment of French Creek from the
headwater forks arising in T. 9 S., R. 5 E.,
secs. 29 and 30, Willamette Meridian, including
several waterfalls to Detroit Reservoir pool,
as a recreational river.
``(237) Brice creek, oregon.--The approximately 13.2-mile
segment of Brice Creek from and including the headwaters to the
Umpqua National Forest boundary, to be administered by the
Secretary of Agriculture as a recreational river.
``(238) Buck creek, oregon.--The following segments, to be
administered by the Secretary of Agriculture, in the following
classes:
``(A) Upper.--The approximately 7.2-mile segment of
Buck Creek from and including the headwaters that arise
from several springs in secs. 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21,
28, 29, and 30, T. 30 S., R. 12 E., Willamette
Meridian, to 0.01 mile above Forest Service Road 7645,
as a wild river.
``(B) Lower.--The approximately 7.2-mile segment of
Buck Creek from 0.01 mile above Forest Service Road
7645 to the north boundary of S\1/2\ sec. 12, T. 29 S.,
R. 12 E., Willamette Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(239) Burnt, oregon.--
``(A) In general.--The approximately 15.1-mile
segment of the Burnt River from the south boundary of
T. 12 S., R. 41 E., sec. 20, Willamette Meridian, to
the east boundary of SW\1/4\ sec. 26, T. 11 S., R. 42
E., Willamette Meridian, to be administered by the
Secretary of the Interior as a recreational river.
``(B) Non-federal land.--The Secretary of the
Interior shall not include any non-Federal land within
the detailed boundaries required under subsection (b)
for the segment designated by subparagraph (A).
``(240) Calapooia, oregon.--The approximately 4.1-mile
segment of the Calapooia River from and including the
headwaters to the boundary of the Willamette National Forest,
to be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture as a
recreational river.
``(241) Canyon creek, oregon.--The approximately 5.7-mile
segment of Canyon Creek from the east boundary of W\1/2\ sec.
10, T. 22 S., R. 39 E., Willamette Meridian, to the confluence
with Hunter Creek, to be administered by the Secretary of the
Interior as a wild river.
``(242) Chewaucan, oregon.--The following segments, to be
administered by the Secretary of Agriculture in the following
classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--The approximately 22-mile segment
of the Chewaucan River from the west boundary of T. 36
S., R. 18 E., sec. 15, Willamette Meridian, to the east
boundary of T. 33 S., R. 18 E., sec. 27, Willamette
Meridian, as a recreational river.
``(B) Swamp creek.--The approximately 4.7-mile
section of Swamp Creek from the east boundary of T. 36
S., R. 18 E., sec. 25, Willamette Meridian, to the
confluence with the Chewaucan River, as a scenic river.
``(C) Detailed boundaries.--The Secretary of
Agriculture shall not include any non-Federal land
within the detailed boundaries required under
subsection (b) for a segment designated by this
paragraph.
``(243) Cottonwood creek, oregon.--The approximately 20.2-
mile segment of Cottonwood Creek from the west boundary of E\1/
2\NE\1/4\ sec. 8, T. 23 S., R. 39 E., Willamette Meridian, to
the east boundary of T. 21 S., R. 41 E., sec. 15, Willamette
Meridian, to be administered by the Secretary of the Interior
as a wild river.
``(244) Crabtree creek, oregon.--The approximately 5.2-mile
segment of Crabtree Creek from and including the headwaters
(including Crabtree Lake) to the south boundary of T. 11 S., R.
2 E., sec. 12, Willamette Meridian, to be administered by the
Secretary of the Interior as a scenic river.
``(245) Deep creek, oregon.--The following segments, to be
administered by the Secretary of Agriculture and the Secretary
of the Interior in the following classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--
``(i) Upper mainstem.--The approximately
1.4-mile segment of Deep Creek from the
confluence of the South Fork Deep Creek and the
Middle Fork Deep Creek to the east boundary of
W\1/2\ sec. 29, T. 40 S., R. 22 E., Willamette
Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(ii) Middle mainstem.--
``(I) Upper.--The approximately
3.9-mile segment of Deep Creek from the
west boundary of T. 39 S., R. 23 E.,
sec. 30, Willamette Meridian, to the
confluence with Drake Creek, as a wild
river.
``(II) Middle.--The approximately
1.9-mile segment of Deep Creek from the
confluence with Drake Creek to the east
boundary of NW\1/4\ sec. 23, T. 39 S.,
R. 23 E., Willamette Meridian, as a
recreational river.
``(III) Lower.--The approximately
2.7-mile segment of Deep Creek from the
west boundary of sec. 24, T. 39 S., R.
23 E., Willamette Meridian, to the east
boundary of W\1/2\ sec. 20, T. 39 S.,
R. 24 E., Willamette Meridian, as a
recreational river.
``(B) Forks.--
``(i) South fork deep creek.--The
approximately 3.6-mile segment of South Fork
Deep Creek from and including the headwaters to
the confluence with North Fork Deep Creek, as a
scenic river.
``(ii) Middle fork deep creek.--The
approximately 3.1-mile segment of Middle Fork
Deep Creek from and including the headwaters to
the confluence with South Fork Deep Creek, as a
scenic river.
``(iii) North fork deep creek.--The
approximately 2.9-mile segment of North Fork
Deep Creek from and including the headwaters to
the confluence with South Fork Deep Creek, as a
scenic river.
``(C) Tributaries.--
``(i) Dismal creek.--The approximately 8.2-
mile segment of Dismal Creek from and including
the headwaters (including the Dismal Swamp and
any associated wetlands and springs) to the
north boundary of T. 40 S., R. 32 E., sec. 32,
Willamette Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(ii) West fork dismal creek.--The
approximately 3.1-mile segment of West Fork
Dismal Creek from and including the headwaters
to the confluence with Dismal Creek, as a wild
river.
``(iii) Camas creek.--The approximately
3.3-mile segment of Camas Creek from the north
boundary of T. 39 S., R. 22 E., sec. 12,
Willamette Meridian, to the confluence with
Deep Creek, as a wild river.
``(246) Drift creek, oregon.--The following segments, to be
administered by the Secretary of Agriculture in the following
classes:
``(A) Middle mainstem.--The approximately 12.3-mile
segment of Drift Creek from the east boundary of T. 7
S., R. 10 W., sec. 36, Willamette Meridian, to the west
boundary of T. 8 S., R. 10 W., sec. 7, Willamette
Meridian, to be administered as a wild river, except
that the portion of Drift Creek that flows through the
permitted area of the Drift Creek Organizational Camp
shall be administered as a scenic river.
``(B) Tributaries.--
``(i) Quarry creek.--The approximately 2.7-
mile segment of Quarry Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with Drift
Creek, as a wild river.
``(ii) Wildcat creek.--The approximately
2.5-mile segment of Wildcat Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
Drift Creek, as a wild river.
``(iii) North creek.--The approximately
2.5-mile segment of North Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
Drift Creek, as a wild river.
``(iv) Smith creek.--The approximately 3.7-
mile segment of Smith Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with Drift
Creek, as a wild river.
``(v) Sampson creek.--The approximately
0.8-mile segment of Sampson Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
Drift Creek, as a wild river.
``(247) East steens mountain, oregon.--The following
segments, to be administered by the Secretary of the Interior
in the following classes:
``(A) Indian creek.--
``(i) Upper.--The approximately 2.5-mile
segment of Indian Creek from and including the
headwaters to 0.01 mile above the road crossing
in T. 34 S., R. 34 E., sec. 30, Willamette
Meridian, as a wild river.
``(ii) Lower.--The approximately 3.9-mile
segment of Indian Creek from 0.01 mile above
road crossing in T. 34 S., R. 34 E., sec. 30,
Willamette Meridian, to the east boundary of T.
34 S., R. 34 E., sec. 29, Willamette Meridian,
as a scenic river.
``(B) Pike creek.--The approximately 2.9-mile
segment of Pike Creek from and including the headwaters
to the east boundary of T. 34 S., R. 34 E., sec. 20,
Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(C) Little alvord creek.--The approximately 3.2-
mile segment of Little Alvord Creek from and including
the headwaters to the east boundary of NW\1/4\SW\1/4\
sec. 9, T. 35 S., R. 34 E., Willamette Meridian, as a
wild river.
``(D) Big alvord creek.--The approximately 3.6-mile
segment of Big Alvord Creek from and including the
headwaters to the east boundary of SE\1/4\SW\1/4\ sec.
33, T. 33 S., R. 34 E., Willamette Meridian, as a wild
river.
``(E) Cottonwood creek.--The approximately 2.8-mile
segment of Cottonwood Creek from and including the
headwaters to the east boundary of T. 34 S., R. 33 E.,
sec. 28, Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(F) Little mccoy creek.--The approximately 3.5-
mile segment of Little McCoy Creek from and including
the headwaters to the east boundary of W\1/2\ sec. 2,
T. 33 S., R. 34 E., Willamette Meridian, as a wild
river.
``(G) Castle rock creek.--The approximately 3.1-
mile segment of Castle Rock Creek from and including
the headwaters to the east boundary of W\1/2\ sec. 35,
T. 32 S., R. 34 E., Willamette Meridian, as a wild
river.
``(H) Mann creek.--The approximately 1.4-mile
segment of Mann Creek from the north boundary of SE\1/
4\ sec. 28, T. 32 S., R. 34 E., Willamette Meridian, to
the east boundary of T. 32 S., R. 34 E., sec. 27,
Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(I) Mosquito creek.--The approximately 4.2-mile
segment of Mosquito Creek from and including the
headwaters to the east boundary of T. 33 S., R. 34 E.,
sec. 10, Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(J) Buena vista creek.--The approximately 2-mile
segment of Buena Vista Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with Mosquito Creek, as a
wild river.
``(K) Willow creek.--The approximately 3.6-mile
segment of Willow Creek from and including the
headwaters to the east boundary of T. 33 S., R. 34 E.,
sec. 15, Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(248) Fairview creek, oregon.--The approximately 3.5-mile
segment of Fairview Creek from and including the headwaters to
0.01 mile above Sharps Creek Road, to be administered by the
Secretary of Agriculture as a scenic river.
``(249) Fall creek, oregon.--The approximately 18.1-mile
segment of Fall Creek from and including the headwaters to the
west boundary of T. 18 S., R. 2 E., sec. 31, Willamette
Meridian, to be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture as
a recreational river.
``(250) Fall creek, oregon and california.--
``(A) In general.--The approximately 6-mile segment
of Fall Creek from the north boundary of T. 40 S., R. 4
E., sec. 35, Willamette Meridian, to the south boundary
of T. 48 N., R. 4 W., sec. 18, Mount Diablo Meridian,
to be administered by the Secretary of the Interior as
a recreational river.
``(B) Non-federal land.--The Secretary of the
Interior shall not include any non-Federal land within
the detailed boundaries required under subsection (b)
for the segment designated by subparagraph (A).
``(251) Forks of carberry creek, oregon.--The following
segments, to be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture in
the following classes:
``(A) Forks.--
``(i) Steve fork.--
``(I) Mainstem.--The approximately
10.7-mile segment of Steve Fork of
Carberry Creek from and including the
headwaters to the east boundary of T.
40 S., R. 4 W., sec. 19, Willamette
Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(II) Right hand fork.--The
approximately 3.6-mile segment
(consisting of 4 segments of 0.3, 1.1,
1.5, and 0.7 miles) of Right Hand Fork
Steve Fork of Carberry Creek from and
including the headwaters to the
confluence with Steve Fork of Carberry
Creek, as a recreational river.
``(ii) Sturgis fork.--The approximately
7.7-mile segment of Sturgis Fork from and
including the headwaters to the east boundary
of T. 40 S., R. 5 W., sec. 13, Willamette
Meridian, as a recreational river.
``(B) Tributaries.--
``(i) Osier creek.--The approximately 1.8-
mile segment of Osier Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with Steve
Fork of Carberry Creek, as a scenic river.
``(ii) Low gap creek.--The approximately
2.1-mile segment of Low Gap Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
Steve Fork of Carberry Creek, as a scenic
river.
``(iii) O'connell creek.--The approximately
2-mile segment of O'Connell Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
Steve Fork of Carberry Creek, as a recreational
river.
``(iv) Little craggy creek.--The
approximately 1.2-mile segment of Little Craggy
Creek from and including the headwaters to the
confluence with Right Hand Fork Steve Fork of
Carberry Creek, as a scenic river.
``(v) Craggy creek.--The approximately 1.6-
mile segment of Craggy Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with Right
Hand Fork Steve Fork of Carberry Creek, as a
scenic river.
``(vi) Lewis creek.--The approximately 1.8-
mile segment of Lewis Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with Sturgis
Fork Carberry Creek, as a wild river.
``(vii) Miller lake creek.--The
approximately 1.2-mile segment of Miller Lake
Creek from and including the headwaters
(including Miller Lake and an unnamed lake
above Miller Lake) to the confluence with
Sturgis Fork Carberry Creek, as a scenic river.
``(viii) Bigelow creek.--The approximately
2.2-mile segment of Bigelow Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
Sturgis Fork Carberry Creek, as a scenic river.
``(ix) Deer creek.--The approximately 1.3-
mile segment of Deer Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with Sturgis
Fork Carberry Creek, as a scenic river.
``(x) O'brien creek.--The approximately
4.8-mile segment of O'Brien Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
Sturgis Fork Carberry Creek, as a scenic river.
``(xi) Brush creek.--The approximately 4.3-
mile segment of Brush Creek from and including
the headwaters to the south boundary of NE\1/4\
sec. 21, T. 40 S., R. 4 E., Willamette
Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(xii) Broadenaxe creek.--The
approximately 2.1-mile segment of Broadenaxe
Creek from and including the headwaters to the
confluence with Brush Creek, as a scenic river.
``(xiii) Long gulch.--The approximately
2.2-mile segment of Long Gulch from and
including the headwaters to the west boundary
of NE\1/4\SE\1/4\ sec. 19, T. 38 S., R. 3 W.,
Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(252) Forks of the burnt, oregon.--The following
segments, to be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture in
the following classes:
``(A) Forks.--
``(i) North fork.--
``(I) Upper.--The approximately
9.3-mile segment of the North Fork
Burnt River from and including the
headwaters to the north boundary of
SE\1/4\NE\1/4\ sec. 25, T. 10 S., R.
35.5 E., Willamette Meridian, as a
recreational river.
``(II) Lower.--The approximately
6.9-mile segment of the North Fork
Burnt River from the boundary of SW\1/
4\NE\1/4\ sec. 3, T. 11 S., R. 36 E.,
Willamette Meridian, to the north
boundary of NW\1/4\ SW\1/4\ sec. 30, T.
11 S., R. 37 E., Willamette Meridian,
as a recreational river.
``(ii) West fork.--The approximately 3.8-
mile segment of the West Fork Burnt River from
the confluences of North, Middle, and South
Three Sisters Creeks to the Wallowa-Whitman
National Forest boundary, as a recreational
river.
``(iii) Middle fork.--The approximately
6.1-mile segment of the Middle Fork Burnt River
from and including the headwaters to the
Wallowa-Whitman National Forest boundary, as a
recreational river.
``(iv) South fork.--The approximately 5.3-
mile segment of the South Fork Burnt River from
and including the headwaters to the Wallowa-
Whitman National Forest boundary, as a
recreational river.
``(B) Bullrun creek.--The approximately 2.6-mile
segment of Bullrun Creek from the Monument Rock
Wilderness boundary to 0.01 mile above the Eldorado
Ditch, as a wild river.
``(253) Forks of the walla walla, oregon.--The following
segments, to be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture in
the following classes:
``(A) Forks.--
``(i) North fork walla walla river.--The
approximately 8.2-mile segment of the North
Fork Walla Walla River from and including the
headwaters to the west boundary of T. 5 N., R.
38 E., sec. 29, Willamette Meridian, as a wild
river.
``(ii) South fork walla walla river.--The
approximately 19.6-mile segment of the South
Fork Walla Walla River from and including the
headwaters to the west boundary of SE\1/4\SE\1/
4\ sec. 10, T. 4 N., R. 37 E., Willamette
Meridian, to be administered by the Secretary
of Agriculture and the Secretary of the
Interior as a wild river.
``(B) Tributaries.--
``(i) Skiphorton creek.--The approximately
3.3-mile segment of Skiphorton Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
the South Fork Walla Walla River, as a wild
river.
``(ii) Reser creek.--The approximately 4.6-
mile segment of Reser Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with the South
Fork Walla Walla River, as a wild river.
``(254) Guano creek, oregon.--The following segments, to be
administered by the Secretary of the Interior in the following
classes:
``(A) Guano creek.--
``(i) Upper.--The approximately 14.5-mile
segment of Guano Creek from and including the
headwaters to Jacobs Reservoir pool, as a
scenic river.
``(ii) Lower.--The approximately 10.1-mile
segment of Guano Creek from 100 feet below
Jacobs Reservoir Dam to Shirk Lake, as a wild
river.
``(B) Shirk lake.--
``(i) In general.--Shirk Lake and any
associated wetlands.
``(ii) Effect.--Nothing in this Act affects
the management of water levels at Shirk Lake
due to the exercise of existing valid rights or
for the benefit of native wildlife.
``(255) Headwaters of pine creek, oregon.--The following
segments, to be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture in
the following classes:
``(A) Pine creek.--The approximately 1.3-mile
segment of Pine Creek from the confluence of Middle
Fork West Fork Pine Creek to the south boundary of T. 6
S., R. 45 E., sec. 22, Willamette Meridian, as a wild
river.
``(B) West fork pine creek.--The approximately 0.6-
mile segment of West Fork Pine Creek from the Eagle Cap
Wilderness boundary to the confluence with Middle Fork
Pine Creek, as a wild river.
``(C) Middle fork pine creek.--The approximately
1.1-mile segment of Middle Fork Pine Creek from the
Eagle Cap Wilderness boundary to the confluence with
West Fork Pine Creek, as a wild river.
``(D) East fork pine creek.--The approximately 7.9-
mile segment of East Fork Pine Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with Pine Creek, as a
scenic river.
``(E) Trail creek.--The approximately 4.4-mile
segment of Trail Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with Clear Creek, as a
scenic river.
``(F) Clear creek.--
``(i) Upper.--The approximately 4.1-mile
segment of Clear Creek from 0.01 mile below
Clear Creek Reservoir to the south boundary of
NE\1/4\ sec. 30, T. 6 S., R. 46 E., Willamette
Meridian, as a wild river.
``(ii) Lower.--The approximately 5-mile
segment of Clear Creek from the south boundary
of NE\1/4\ sec. 30, T. 6 S., R. 46 E.,
Willamette Meridian, to the south boundary of
N\1/2\NE\1/4\ sec. 19, T. 7 S., R. 46 E.,
Willamette Meridian, as a recreational river.
``(G) Fish creek.--The approximately 8.4-mile
segment of Fish Creek from and including the headwaters
to the south boundary of T. 7 S., R. 47 E., sec. 18,
Willamette Meridian, as a recreational river.
``(H) Lake fork creek.--
``(i) Upper.--The approximately 12.9-mile
segment of Lake Fork Creek from and including
the headwaters to 100 feet above the Lake Fork
Campground, as a wild river.
``(ii) Lower.--The approximately 0.5-mile
segment of Lake Fork Creek from 100 feet above
Lake Fork Campground to the confluence with
North Pine Creek, as a recreational river.
``(I) Elk creek.--The approximately 8.1-mile
segment of Elk Creek from and including the headwaters
to the confluence with Lake Fork Creek, as a wild
river.
``(256) Honey Creek, Oregon.--The following segments, to be
administered by the Secretary of Agriculture in the following
classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--The approximately 7.3-mile segment
of Honey Creek from and including the headwaters to the
east boundary of T. 36 S., R. 22 E., sec. 29,
Willamette Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(B) Tributaries.--
``(i) Little honey creek.--The
approximately 7.3-mile segment of Little Honey
Creek from and including the headwaters to the
east boundary of T. 36 S., R. 22 E., sec. 29,
Willamette Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(ii) White pine marsh creek.--The
approximately 3.5-mile segment of headwaters
above and including White Pine Marsh to the
confluence with Little Honey Creek, as a scenic
river.
``(257) Hosmer lake, oregon.--The following segments, to be
administered by the Secretary of Agriculture in the following
classes:
``(A) Hosmer lake.--Hosmer Lake and any associated
wetlands, as a scenic river.
``(B) Tributaries.--
``(i) Quinn creek.--The approximately 2.2-
mile segment of Quinn Creek from the source at
several springs in and including Quinn Meadows
to Hosmer Lake, as a scenic river.
``(ii) Sink creek.--The approximately 2.5-
mile segment of Sink Creek from the source at
Blacktail Spring and other springs to the
confluence with Quinn Creek, as a scenic river.
``(258) Hunter creek, oregon.--The following segments, to
be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture and the
Secretary of the Interior, in the following classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--The approximately 6.9-mile segment
of Hunter Creek from and including the headwaters to
the southern boundary of N\1/2\NW\1/4\ sec. 13, T. 37
S., R. 14 W., Willamette Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(B) Tributaries.--
``(i) North fork hunter creek.--The
approximately 2.9-mile segment of North Fork
Hunter Creek from and including the headwaters
to the south boundary of T. 37 S., R. 14 W.,
sec. 11, Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(ii) Elko creek.--The approximately 2-
mile segment of Elko Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with Hunter
Creek, as a scenic river.
``(iii) Bog creek.--The approximately 0.8-
mile segment of an unnamed stream locally known
as `Bog Creek' from and including the
headwaters in SE\1/4\ sec. 13, T. 37 S., R. 14
W., Willamette Meridian, including Hunter Creek
Bog, to the west boundary of SE\1/4\ sec. 13,
T. 37 S., R. 14 W., Willamette Meridian, as a
scenic river.
``(iv) Pyramid rock creek.--The
approximately 1.8-mile segment known locally as
`Pyramid Rock Creek' from and including the 3
headwaters in the N\1/2\N\1/2\ sec. 19, T. 37
S., R. 13 W., Willamette Meridian, as a scenic
river.
``(259) Jack creek, oregon.--The approximately 30.7-mile
segment of Jack Creek from and including the headwaters, and
any associated wetlands along the stream, to the west boundary
of NW\1/4\ sec. 9, T. 30 S., R. 10 E., Willamette Meridian, to
be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture as a scenic
river.
``(260) Lava lake, oregon.--The following segments, to be
administered by the Secretary of Agriculture in the following
classes:
``(A) Lava lake.--Lava Lake and any associated
wetlands, as a scenic river.
``(B) Tributaries.--
``(i) Park creek.--The approximately 6-mile
segment of Park Creek from the confluence of
North Fork Park Creek and South Fork Park Creek
to Lava Lake, including the area known as `The
Parks', as a scenic river.
``(ii) North fork park creek.--The
approximately 3-mile segment of North Fork Park
Creek from and including the headwaters to the
confluence with South Fork Park Creek, as a
scenic river.
``(261) Little applegate, oregon.--The following segments,
to be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture and the
Secretary of the Interior, in the following classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--
``(i) In general.--The approximately 5.5-
mile segment of the Little Applegate River from
the south boundary of T. 40 S., R. 10 W., sec.
4, Willamette Meridian, to the west boundary of
NE\1/4\NE\1/4\ sec. 27, T. 39 S., R. 2 W.,
Willamette Meridian, as a recreational river.
``(ii) Non-federal land.--The Secretary of
the Interior shall not include any non-Federal
land within the detailed boundaries required
under subsection (b) for the segment designated
by clause (i).
``(B) Tributaries.--
``(i) Bear gulch.--The approximately 1.8-
mile segment of Bear Gulch from and including
the headwaters in T. 39 S., R. 2 W., secs. 14
and 15, Willamette Meridian, to the confluence
with the Little Applegate River, as a scenic
river.
``(ii) Muddy gulch creek.--The
approximately 1.6-mile segment of Muddy Gulch
Creek from and including the headwaters in T.
39 S., R. 2 W., sec. 11, Willamette Meridian,
to south boundary of NE\1/4\ sec. 23, T. 39 S.,
R. 2 W., Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(iii) Birch creek.--The approximately
2.3-mile segment of Birch Creek from and
including the headwaters in T. 39 S., R. 2 W.,
secs. 11 and 12, Willamette Meridian, to the
confluence with Muddy Gulch Creek in SW\1/
4\SW\1/4\ sec. 13, T. 39 S., R. 2 W.,
Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(iv) Owl gulch.--The approximately 1.4-
mile segment of Owl Gulch from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with the
Little Applegate River, as a recreational
river.
``(v) Glade creek.--The approximately 1.1-
mile segment of Glade Creek from the south
boundary of T. 39 S., R. 1 W., sec. 31,
Willamette Meridian, to the confluence with the
Little Applegate River, as a wild river.
``(262) Little north fork wilson, oregon.--The
approximately 3.2-mile segment of the Little North Fork Wilson
River from the east boundary of T. 1 S., R. 9 W., sec. 12,
Willamette Meridian, to the south boundary of T. 1 S., R. 9 W.,
sec. 13, Willamette Meridian, to be administered by the
Secretary of the Interior as a scenic river.
``(263) Middle fork john day, oregon.--The following
segments, to be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture in
the following classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--
``(i) Upper.--The approximately 4.7-mile
segment from the south boundary of T. 11 S., R.
34 E., sec. 12, Willamette Meridian, to the
west boundary of NE\1/4\SE\1/4\ sec. 5, T. 11
S., R. 34 E., Willamette Meridian, as a
recreational river.
``(ii) Lower.--The approximately 4.1-mile
segment from the east boundary of NW\1/4\NW\1/
4\ sec. 13, T. 10 S., R. 32 E., Willamette
Meridian, to the north boundary of SW\1/4\ sec.
34, T. 9 S., R. 32 E., Willamette Meridian, as
a recreational river.
``(B) Tributaries.--
``(i) Big boulder creek.--The approximately
6.3-mile segment of Big Boulder Creek from and
including the headwaters to the west boundary
of E\1/2\SW\1/4\ sec. 23, T.10 S., R. 33 E.,
Willamette Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(ii) Little butte creek.--The
approximately 3.2-mile segment of Little Butte
Creek from and including the headwaters to the
confluence with the Middle Fork John Day River,
as a wild river.
``(iii) Camp creek.--The approximately
15.1-mile segment of Camp Creek from and
including the headwaters to the north boundary
of SE\1/4\NE\1/4\ sec. 25, T. 10 S., R. 32 E.,
Willamette Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(iv) Caribou creek.--The approximately
4.3-mile segment of Caribou Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
the Middle Fork John Day River, as a scenic
river.
``(v) Deerhorn creek.--The approximately
3.9-mile segment of Deerhorn Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
the Middle Fork John Day River, as a wild
river.
``(vi) Granite boulder creek.--The
approximately 7-mile segment of Granite Boulder
Creek from and including the headwaters at
several springs to the point at which Granite
Boulder Creek enters private land in NE\1/4\
sec. 2, T. 13 S., R. 19 E., Willamette
Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(vii) West fork granite boulder creek.--
The approximately 2.3-mile segment of West Fork
Granite Boulder Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with Granite
Boulder Creek, as a wild river.
``(viii) Vinegar creek.--The approximately
9.7-mile segment of Vinegar Creek from and
including the headwaters at several springs to
the point at which Vinegar Creek enters non-
Federal land in T. 11 S., R. 35 E., sec. 20,
Willamette Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(ix) Clear creek.--The approximately 12-
mile segment of Clear Creek from and including
the headwaters (including Looney Spring) to the
point at which Clear Creek enters non-Federal
land in T. 11 S., R. 35 E., sec. 26, Willamette
Meridian, as a recreational river.
``(264) Middle fork willamette, oregon.--The following
segments, to be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture in
the following classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--
``(i) Upper.--The approximately 15.3-mile
segment of the Middle Fork Willamette River
from and including the headwaters (including
Timpanogas Lake and Big Swamp) to the
confluence with Echo Creek, as a scenic river.
``(ii) Lower.--The approximately 14.3-mile
segment of the Middle Fork Willamette River
from the confluence with Echo Creek to Hills
Creek Reservoir pool, as a recreational river.
``(B) Tributaries.--
``(i) Tumblebug creek.--The approximately
7.4-mile segment of Tumblebug Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
the Middle Fork Willamette River, as a scenic
river.
``(ii) West fork tumblebug creek.--The
approximately 2.4-mile segment of West Fork
Tumblebug Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with Tumblebug
Creek, as a scenic river.
``(iii) Salt creek.--The approximately
14.1-mile segment of Salt Creek from the source
(including the Betty Lakes, Gold Lake Bog, Gold
Lake, Salt Creek Falls, Diamond Creek Falls,
and Too Much Bear Lake) to the confluence with
Twin Creek, as a scenic river.
``(iv) Skyline creek.--The approximately 3-
mile segment of Skyline Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
Salt Creek, as a wild river.
``(v) Ray creek.--The approximately 2.4-
mile segment of Ray Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with Salt
Creek, as a scenic river.
``(vi) Unnamed tributary.--The
approximately 2.8-mile segment of the unnamed
tributary with the source in and including an
unnamed lake at elevation 5,526 feet to the
confluence with Salt Creek, as a wild river.
``(vii) Swift creek.--The approximately
5.7-mile segment of Swift Creek from and
including the headwaters to the south boundary
of T. 23 S., R. 4 E., sec. 36, Willamette
Meridian, as a recreational river.
``(viii) Bear creek.--The approximately 2-
mile segment of Bear Creek from the Diamond
Peak Wilderness boundary to the confluence with
Swift Creek, as a scenic river.
``(ix) Indigo creek.--The approximately
1.9-mile segment of Indigo Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
the Middle Fork Willamette River, as a scenic
river.
``(265) Middle santiam, oregon.--The following segments, to
be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture in the
following classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--The approximately 5.4-mile segment
of the Middle Santiam River from the south boundary of
T. 13 S., R. 5 E., sec. 12, Willamette Meridian, to the
Middle Santiam Wilderness boundary, as a scenic river.
``(B) Tributaries.--
``(i) Swamp creek.--The approximately 2.6-
mile segment of Swamp Creek from and including
the headwaters to the Middle Santiam Wilderness
boundary, as a scenic river.
``(ii) Pyramid creek.--The approximately
9.2-mile segment of Pyramid Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
the Middle Santiam River, as a scenic river.
``(iii) South pyramid creek.--The
approximately 3.9-mile segment of South Pyramid
Creek from and including the headwaters to the
confluence with the Middle Santiam River, as a
scenic river.
``(iv) Cougar creek.--The approximately
4.4-mile segment of Cougar Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
the Middle Santiam River, as a scenic river.
``(v) Scar creek.--The approximately 3-mile
segment of Scar Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with Pyramid
Creek, as a scenic river.
``(266) Meacham creek, oregon.--The following segments, to
be administered by the Secretary of the Interior in the
following classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--
``(i) In general.--The approximately 16
miles of Meacham Creek from the west boundary
of T. 1 N., R. 35 E., sec. 35, Willamette
Meridian, to the confluence with the Umatilla
River, as a recreational river.
``(ii) Detailed boundaries.--Only Federal
land or land owned by, or held in trust for, an
Indian Tribe, shall be included in the detailed
boundaries required under subsection (b) for
the segment designated by clause (i).
``(B) Forks.--
``(i) North fork meacham creek.--The
approximately 8.8-mile segment of North Fork
Meacham Creek from and including the headwaters
to the east boundary of NW\1/4\ sec. 30, T. 1
N., R. 37 E., Willamette Meridian, as a
recreational river.
``(ii) East meacham creek.--The
approximately 5.5-mile segment of East Meacham
Creek from and including the headwaters to the
confluence with Meacham Creek, as a wild river.
``(C) Tributaries.--
``(i) Owsley creek.--The approximately 5-
mile segment of Owsley Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with East
Meacham Creek, as a wild river.
``(ii) Bear creek.--The approximately 5.4-
mile segment of Bear Creek from and including
the headwaters to the north boundary of SW\1/4\
sec. 30, T. 1 N., R. 37 E., Willamette
Meridian, as a wild river.
``(iii) Pot creek.--The approximately 8-
mile segment of Pot Creek from and including
the headwaters (including Dead Horse Spring) to
the confluence with North Fork Meacham Creek,
as a wild river.
``(267) North fork siletz, oregon.--The following segments,
to be administered by the Secretary of the Interior in the
following classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--The approximately 3.4-mile segment
of the North Fork Siletz River from the west boundary
of E\1/2\SW\1/4\ sec. 19, T. 7 S., R. 8 W., Willamette
Meridian, to the south boundary of T. 7 S., R. 8 W.,
sec. 32, Willamette Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(B) Warnicke creek.--The approximately 6.8-mile
segment of Warnicke Creek from the east boundary of T.
7 S., R. 8 W., sec. 17, Willamette Meridian, to the
confluence with the North Fork Siletz River, as a
scenic river.
``(268) North santiam, oregon.--The following segments, to
be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture in the
following classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--
``(i) Upper mainstem.--The approximately
3.4-mile segment of the North Santiam River
from the Mount Jefferson Wilderness boundary
(including Big Meadows) to 0.1 mile above
Oregon Highway 22 in T. 12 S., R. 7 E., sec.
29, Willamette Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(ii) Middle mainstem.--The approximately
9-mile segment of the North Santiam River from
0.1 mile above Oregon Highway 22 in T. 12 S.,
R. 7 E., sec. 29, Willamette Meridian, to the
north boundary of SW\1/4\SW\1/4\ sec. 29, T. 11
S., R. 7 E., Willamette Meridian, as a
recreational river.
``(iii) Lower mainstem.--The approximately
9.5-mile segment of the North Santiam River
from the south boundary of NW\1/4\NW\1/4\ sec.
15, T. 11 S., R. 7 E., Willamette Meridian, to
the west boundary of T. 10 S., R. 6 E., sec.
24, Willamette Meridian, as a recreational
river.
``(B) Whitewater creek.--
``(i) Upper.--The approximately 4-mile
segment of Whitewater Creek from the Mount
Jefferson Wilderness boundary to the west
boundary of E\1/2\ sec. 22, T. 10 S., R. 6 E.,
Willamette Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(ii) Lower.--The approximately 1-mile
segment of Whitewater Creek from the east
boundary of NW\1/4\NE\1/4\ sec. 28, T. 10 S.,
R. 7 E., Willamette Meridian, to the confluence
with the North Santiam River, as a recreational
river.
``(269) Ochoco creek, oregon.--The following segments, to
be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture in the
following classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--The approximately 7-mile segment
of Ochoco Creek from the source at Ochoco Spring and 4
named springs in NE\1/4\ sec. 16, T. 13 S., R. 20 E.,
Willamette Meridian, to the west boundary of NE\1/
4\SE\1/4\ sec. 34, T. 13 S., R. 19 E., Willamette
Meridian, as a recreational river.
``(B) Canyon creek.--
``(i) Upper.--The approximately 2-mile
segment of Canyon Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with Cline Creek,
as a wild river.
``(ii) Lower.--The approximately 4-mile
segment of Canyon Creek from the confluence
with Cline Creek to the confluence with Ochoco
Creek, as a recreational river.
``(270) Odell creek, oregon.--The following segments, to be
administered by the Secretary of Agriculture, in the following
classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--The approximately 8.1-mile segment
of Odell Creek from the gauging station below the
outlet of Odell Lake to Davis Lake, as a scenic river.
``(B) Tributaries.--The approximately 1.7-mile
segment of Maklaks Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with Odell Creek, as a
scenic river.
``(271) Oregon canyon mountains, oregon.--The following
segments, to be administered by the Secretary of the Interior
in the following classes:
``(A) Whitehorse creek.--The approximately 15.3-
mile segment of Whitehorse Creek from and including the
headwaters to the north boundary of S\1/2\SW\1/4\ sec.
29, T. 38 S., R. 39 E., Willamette Meridian, as a wild
river.
``(B) Little whitehorse creek.--The approximately
15.8-mile segment of Little Whitehorse Creek from and
including the headwaters to the east boundary of NW\1/
4\SE\1/4\ sec. 30, T. 38 S., R. 39 E., Willamette
Meridian, as a wild river.
``(C) Unnamed tributary.--The approximately 5.6-
mile segment of an unnamed tributary from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with Little Whitehorse
Creek in SE\1/4\SW\1/4\ sec. 8, T. 40 S., R. 49 E.,
Willamette Meridian, to be administered by the
Secretary of the Interior as a wild river.
``(D) Fifteenmile creek.--The approximately 12-mile
segment of Fifteenmile Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with Whitehorse Creek, as
a wild river.
``(E) Oregon canyon creek.--The approximately 7.4-
mile segment of Oregon Canyon Creek from and including
the headwaters to the north boundary of SW\1/4\NE\1/4\
sec. 2, T. 39 S., R. 40 E., Willamette Meridian, as a
wild river.
``(F) East fork oregon canyon creek.--The
approximately 4.7-mile segment of East Fork Oregon
Canyon Creek from and including the headwaters to the
confluence with Oregon Canyon Creek, as a wild river.
``(G) West fork oregon canyon creek.--The
approximately 1.5-mile segment of West Fork Oregon
Canyon Creek from and including the headwaters to the
confluence with Oregon Canyon Creek, as a wild river.
``(H) Unnamed tributary.--The approximately 3.7-
mile segment of an unnamed tributary of Oregon Canyon
Creek from and including the headwaters (including Box
Canyon, Island Canyon, and Fall Canyon) to the
confluence with Oregon Canyon Creek in T. 39 S., R. 40
E., sec. 36, Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(I) North fork mcdermitt creek.--The
approximately 4.5-mile segment of North Fork McDermitt
Creek from and including the headwaters to the
confluence with McDermitt Creek, as a wild river.
``(J) Mcdermitt creek.--
``(i) Upper.--The approximately 8.2-mile
segment of McDermitt Creek from and including
the headwaters to the south boundary of NE\1/4\
sec. 10, T. 41 S., R. 39 E., Willamette
Meridian, as a wild river.
``(ii) Middle.--The approximately 7.5-mile
segment of McDermitt Creek from the east
boundary of T. 41 S., R. 40 E., sec. 22,
Willamette Meridian, to the east boundary of T.
47 N., R. 36 E., sec. 3, Mount Diablo Meridian,
as a wild river.
``(K) Antelope creek.--The approximately 10.1-mile
segment of Antelope Creek from and including the
headwaters to the north boundary of NE\1/4\ sec. 9, T.
37 S., R. 37 E., Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(L) Cottonwood creek.--The approximately 7.4-mile
segment of Cottonwood Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with Whitehorse Creek, as
a wild river.
``(M) Doolittle creek.--The approximately 8.6-mile
segment of Doolittle Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with Whitehorse Creek, as
a wild river.
``(N) Indian creek.--
``(i) Upper.--The approximately 3-mile
segment of Indian Creek from and including the
headwaters to the south boundary of T. 40 S.,
R. 40 E., sec. 24, Willamette Meridian, as a
wild river.
``(ii) Lower.--The approximately 6.8-mile
of Indian Creek from the south boundary of T.
40 S., R. 40 E., sec. 24, Willamette Meridian,
to the confluence with McDermitt Creek, as a
scenic river.
``(O) Sage creek.--The approximately 4.2-mile
segment of Sage Creek from and including the headwaters
to the east boundary of T. 41 S., R. 39 E., sec. 17,
Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(P) Line canyon creek.--The approximately 3.9-
mile segment of Line Canyon Creek from and including
the headwaters to the east boundary of SW\1/4\SW\1/4\
sec. 21, T. 41 S., R. 39 E., Willamette Meridian, as a
wild river.
``(272) Oregon dunes, oregon.--The following segments, to
be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture in the
following classes:
``(A) Berry creek and lily lake.--
``(i) Berry creek.--The approximately 3.9-
mile segment of Berry Creek from and including
the headwaters to the Pacific Ocean, as a
scenic river.
``(ii) Quarry creek.--The approximately .5-
mile segment of Quarry Creek from the south
boundary of T. 17 S., R. 12 W., sec. 15,
Willamette Meridian, including Lily Lake, to
the confluence with Berry Creek, as a scenic
river.
``(B) Sutton creek.--The approximately 4.2-mile
segment of Sutton Creek from the mouth of Sutton Lake
to the Pacific Ocean, as a scenic river.
``(C) Siltcoos river.--The approximately 1.7-mile
segment of the Siltcoos River from Tyee Campground to
the Pacific Ocean, as a scenic river.
``(D) Tahkenitch creek.--The approximately 2.9-mile
segment of Tahkenitch Creek from the 100 feet below
U.S. Route 101 to the Pacific Ocean, as a wild river.
``(E) Threemile creek.--The approximately 2.1-mile
segment of Threemile Creek from the Oregon Dunes
National Recreation Area boundary to the Pacific Ocean,
as a scenic river.
``(F) Threemile lake.--Threemile Lake (including
associated wetlands, ponds, and tributaries of
Threemile Lake) and Butterfly Lake, as a wild river.
``(G) Tenmile creek.--The approximately 2.1-mile
segment of Tenmile Creek from the eastern boundary of
the Oregon Dunes National Recreation Area to the
Pacific Ocean, as a wild river.
``(H) Accommodating nature.--In preparing the
detailed boundaries of the segments designated by this
paragraph, the Secretary of Agriculture shall--
``(i) accommodate the dynamic nature of the
stream mouths entering the Pacific Ocean; and
``(ii) if determined to be appropriate by
the Secretary of Agriculture, expand the
detailed boundaries of the applicable segment
to accommodate significant movement of a stream
mouth.
``(273) Pipe fork, oregon.--The following segments, to be
administered by the Secretary of Agriculture and the Secretary
of the Interior in the following classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--
``(i) Upper.--The approximately 0.7-mile
segment of Pipe Fork from and including the
headwaters (including Larkspur Spring) to the
confluence with an unnamed tributary in SW\1/
4\SW\1/4\ sec. 35, T. 39 S., R. 5 W.,
Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(ii) Lower.--The approximately 0.8-mile
segment of Pipe Fork from the confluence with
an unnamed tributary in SW\1/4\SW\1/4\ sec. 35,
T. 39 S., R. 5 W., Willamette Meridian, as a
scenic river.
``(B) Unnamed tributary.--The approximately 0.8-
mile segment of an unnamed tributary from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with Pipe Fork in
SW\1/4\SW\1/4\ sec. 35, T. 39 S., R. 5 W., Willamette
Meridian, as a wild river.
``(274) Pistol, oregon.--The following segments, to be
administered by the Secretary of Agriculture in the following
classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--The approximately 6.6-mile segment
of the Pistol River from and including the headwaters
to the west boundary of T. 38 S., R. 13 W., sec. 2,
Willamette Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(B) Forks.--
``(i) North fork.--The approximately 4.6-
mile segment of the North Fork Pistol River
from and including the headwaters to the south
boundary of T. 37 S., R. 13 W., sec. 32,
Willamette Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(ii) East fork.--The approximately 4.6-
mile segment of the East Fork Pistol River from
the confluence with Windy Creek and Cedar Creek
to the confluence with Pistol River, as a wild
river.
``(C) Tributaries.--
``(i) Cedar creek.--The approximately 1.3-
mile segment of Cedar Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with Windy
Creek, as a wild river.
``(ii) Meadow creek.--The approximately
2.9-mile segment of Meadow Creek from and
including the headwaters including Snow Camp
Meadow to the confluence with the Pistol River,
as a scenic river.
``(iii) Sunrise creek.--The approximately
4.2-mile segment of Sunrise Creek from and
including the headwaters to north boundary of
T. 38 S., R. 13 E., sec. 21, Willamette
Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(iv) Panther lake creek.--The
approximately 2.7-mile segment of an unnamed
tributary arising from and including Panther
Lake to the confluence with the East Fork
Pistol River, as a wild river.
``(v) Windy creek.--The approximately 4.4-
mile segment of Windy Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with Cedar
Creek, as a wild river.
``(275) Pueblo mountains, oregon.--The following segments,
to be administered by the Secretary of the Interior in the
following classes:
``(A) Denio creek.--The approximately 5.9-mile
segment of Denio Creek from and including the
headwaters to the south boundary of NE\1/4\NW\1/4\ sec.
20, T. 41 S., R. 35 E., Willamette Meridian, as a wild
river.
``(B) Van horn creek.--The approximately 6.8-mile
segment of Van Horn Creek from and including the
headwaters to the north boundary of T. 41 S., R. 35 E.,
sec. 4, Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(C) Arizona creek.--The approximately 3.4-mile
segment of Arizona Creek from and including the
headwaters to 0.01 miles west of Fields-Denio County
Road 201, as a wild river.
``(D) Little cottonwood creek.--The approximately
6.9-mile segment of Little Cottonwood Creek from and
including the headwaters to 0.01 mile west of Fields-
Denio County Road 201, as a wild river.
``(E) Willow creek.--The approximately 4.7-mile
segment of Willow Creek from and including the
headwaters to 0.01 mile west of Fields-Denio County
Road 201, as a wild river.
``(276) Rattlesnake creek, oregon.--The approximately 11.3-
mile segment of Rattlesnake Creek from the south boundary of T.
37 S., R. 44 E., sec. 4, Willamette Meridian, to the north
boundary of SE\1/4\ sec. 19, T. 35 S., R. 42 E., Willamette
Meridian, to be administered by the Secretary of the Interior
as a wild river.
``(277) Scotch creek, oregon and california.--The following
segments, to be administered by the Secretary of the Interior
in the following classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--
``(i) Upper.--The approximately 6.9-mile
segment of Scotch Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with Slide Creek,
as a wild river.
``(ii) Lower.--
``(I) In general.--The
approximately 1.2-mile segment of
Scotch Creek from the confluence with
Slide Creek to the Iron Gate Reservoir
pool, as a recreational river.
``(II) Extension.--On the removal
of Iron Gate Dam, the lower terminus of
the segment designated by subclause (I)
shall extend to the confluence with the
Klamath River.
``(B) Tributaries.--
``(i) Slide creek.--The approximately 5.7-
mile segment of Slide Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with Scotch
Creek, as a wild river.
``(ii) Brushy gulch.--The approximately
3.2-mile segment of Brushy Gulch from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
Slide Creek, as a wild river.
``(iii) Wildcat gulch.--The approximately
2.3-mile segment of Wildcat Gulch from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
Slide Creek, as a wild river.
``(278) Seldom creek, oregon.--The following segments, to
be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture in the
following classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--The approximately 4-mile segment
of Seldom Creek from the eastern right-of-way edge of
the county road that intersects with Oregon Route 140
in SE\1/4\NE\1/4\ sec. 35, T. 36 S., R. 5 E.,
Willamette Meridian, to the confluence with Fourmile
Creek, to be administered by the Secretary of
Agriculture as a scenic river.
``(B) Mountain lakes creek.--The approximately 2.4-
mile segment of an unnamed stream, locally known as
`Mountain Lakes Creek', from the Mountain Lakes
Wilderness boundary to the confluence with Seldom Creek
in T. 36 S., R. 5 E., sec. 36, Willamette Meridian, to
be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture as a
scenic river.
``(279) Silver creek, oregon.--The following segments, to
be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture and the
Secretary of the Interior in the following classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--
``(i) Uppermost.--The approximately 5.3-
mile segment of Silver Creek from the north
boundary of SE\1/4\SE\1/4\ sec. 16, T. 19 S.,
R. 26 E., Willamette Meridian, to 0.01 mile
below Forest Service Road 45S, as a
recreational river.
``(ii) Upper.--The approximately 15.8-mile
segment of Silver Creek from 0.01 mile below
Forest Service Road 45S to the confluence with
Sawmill Creek, as a wild river.
``(iii) Middle.--The approximately 0.5-mile
segment of Silver Creek from the confluence
with Sawmill Creek to the south boundary of T.
21 S., R. 26 E., sec. 20, Willamette Meridian,
as a recreational river.
``(iv) Lower.--The approximately 3.3-mile
segment of Silver Creek from the south boundary
of T. 21 S., R. 26 E., sec. 20, Willamette
Meridian, to the confluence with Nicoll Creek,
as a recreational river.
``(v) Lowermost.--The approximately 1.5
mile segment of Silver Creek from the
confluence with Nicoll Creek to the south
boundary of T. 22 S., R. 25 E., sec. 13,
Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(B) Wickiup creek.--The approximately 7.2-mile
segment of Wickiup Creek from and including the
headwaters to the west boundary of T. 21 S., R. 26 E.,
sec. 11, Willamette Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(280) Silvies, oregon.--The approximately 3.3-mile
segment of the Silvies River from the north boundary of T. 21
S., R. 29 E., sec. 14, SW\1/4\, NE\1/4\, Willamette Meridian,
to the east boundary of T. 21 S., R. 29 E., sec. 25, SW\1/4\,
NE\1/4\, Willamette Meridian, to be administered by the
Secretary of Agriculture and the Secretary of the Interior as a
scenic river.
``(281) Sitka Spruce, Oregon.--The following segments, to
be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture in the
following classes:
``(A) Gwynn creek.--The approximately 2.8-mile
segment of Gwynn Creek from and including the
headwaters to the Pacific Ocean, as a scenic river.
``(B) Cape creek.--The approximately 3.2-mile
segment of Cape Creek from and including the headwaters
to the Pacific Ocean, as a scenic river.
``(C) North cape creek.--The approximately 1.4-mile
segment of North Cape Creek from and including the
headwaters to the Pacific Ocean, as a scenic river.
``(282) Cedar log creek, oregon.--The approximately 1.7-
mile segment of Cedar Log Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with Slate Creek, to be
administered by the Secretary of Agriculture as a wild river.
``(283) Smith, oregon.--The following segments, to be
administered by the Secretary of Agriculture and the Secretary
of the Interior in the following classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--The approximately 67.9-mile
segment of Smith River from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with Spencer Creek, as a
recreational river.
``(B) Forks.--
``(i) North fork smith river.--The
approximately 15.4-mile segment from the north
boundary of S\1/2\ sec. 7, T. 19 S., R. 9 W.,
Willamette Meridian, to the south boundary of
N\1/2\NE\1/4\ sec. 32, T. 19 S., R. 10 W.,
Willamette Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(ii) West fork smith river.--The
approximately 16.9-mile segment of the West
Fork Smith River from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with the Smith
River, as a recreational river.
``(iii) South fork smith river.--The
approximately 7.7-mile segment of the South
Fork Smith River from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with the Smith
River, as a recreational river.
``(C) Tributaries.--
``(i) Middle fork north fork smith river.--
The approximately 4.9-mile segment of the
Middle Fork North Fork Smith River from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
North Fork Smith River, as a scenic river.
``(ii) West branch north fork smith
river.--The approximately 3.2-mile segment of
the West Branch of the North Fork Smith River
from and including the headwaters to the
confluence with the North Fork Smith River, as
a scenic river.
``(iii) Little south fork smith river.--The
approximately 3.1-mile segment of the Little
South Fork Smith River from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with the South
Fork Smith River, to be administered by the
Secretary of the Interior as a recreational
river.
``(iv) Kentucky creek.--The approximately
1.8-mile segment of Kentucky Creek from the
east boundary of T. 19 S., R. 9 W., sec. 17,
Willamette Meridian, to the confluence with the
North Fork Smith River, as a scenic river.
``(284) South fork alsea, oregon.--The approximately 9.3-
mile segment of the South Fork Alsea River from and including
the headwaters to the Bureau of Land Management boundary in T.
14 S., R. 7 W., sec. 26, Willamette Meridian, to be
administered by the Secretary of the Interior as a recreational
river.
``(285) South fork coquille, oregon.--The following
segments, to be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture in
the following classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--The approximately 25.6-mile
segment of the South Fork Coquille River from the west
boundary of T. 32 S., R. 10 W., sec. 4, Willamette
Meridian, to the Rogue River-Siskiyou National Forest
boundary, as a recreational river.
``(B) Tributaries.--
``(i) Johnson creek.--The approximately
7.4-mile segment of Johnson Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
the South Fork Coquille River, as a scenic
river.
``(ii) Jim hayes creek.--The approximately
1.5-mile segment of Jim Hayes Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
Johnson Creek, as a wild river.
``(iii) Rock creek.--The approximately 6.4-
mile segment of Rock Creek from the Forest
Service boundary in T. 33 S., R. 12 W., sec.
32, Willamette Meridian, to the confluence with
the South Fork Coquille River, as a scenic
river.
``(iv) Sucker creek.--The approximately
3.9-mile segment of Sucker Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
Johnson Creek, as a wild river.
``(286) Crooked creek, oregon.--The following segments, to
be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture in the
following classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--The approximately 5.5-mile segment
from the confluence of North Fork Crooked Creek and
South Fork Crooked Creek to the Fremont National Forest
boundary, as a wild river.
``(B) Forks.--
``(i) North fork.--The approximately 1.9-
mile segment of North Fork Crooked Creek from
and including the headwaters to the confluence
with South Fork Crooked Creek, as a scenic
river.
``(ii) South fork.--The approximately 1.9-
mile segment of South Fork Crooked Creek from
and including the headwaters to the confluence
with North Fork Crooked Creek, as a scenic
river.
``(287) South fork crooked, oregon.--The approximately
15.4-mile segment of the South Fork Crooked River from the
south boundary of N\1/2\ sec. 11, T. 19 S., R. 22 E.,
Willamette Meridian, to the north boundary of T. 17 S., R. 22
E., sec. 24, Willamette Meridian, to be administered by the
Secretary of the Interior as a wild river.
``(288) South fork little butte creek, oregon.--The
following segments, to be administered by the Secretary of
Agriculture and the Secretary of the Interior in the following
classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--
``(i) Upper.--The approximately 6.2-mile
segment of South Fork Little Butte Creek from
and including the headwaters to South Fork Dam
pool, as a recreational river.
``(ii) Lower.--The approximately 8.5-mile
segment of South Fork Little Butte Creek from
150 feet below South Fork Dam, as a
recreational river.
``(B) Tributaries.--
``(i) Lost creek.--The approximately 2.4-
mile segment of Lost Creek from the south
boundary of T. 37 S., R. 2 E., sec. 35,
Willamette Meridian, and including Lost Lake,
to 50 feet above the diversion structure in
SE\1/4\NW\1/4\ sec. 27, T. 37 S., R. 2 E.,
Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(ii) Bybee gulch.--The approximately 0.8-
mile segment of Bybee Gulch from the east
boundary of NW\1/4\ sec. 1, T. 38 S., R. 2 E.,
Willamette Meridian, to the confluence with
Lost Creek at the waterfalls in SE\1/4\SE\1/4\
sec. 35, T. 37 S., R. 2 E., Willamette
Meridian, as scenic river.
``(iii) Dead indian creek.--The
approximately 3-mile segment of Dead Indian
Creek from the east boundary of T. 38 S., R. 3
E., sec. 3, Willamette Meridian, to the
confluence with Little South Fork Butte Creek,
as a scenic river.
``(289) Sixes, oregon.--The following segments, to be
administered by the Secretary of Agriculture and the Secretary
of the Interior in the following classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--The approximately 4.2-mile segment
of the Sixes River from the east boundary of T. 32 S.,
R. 13 W., sec. 8, Willamette Meridian, to the east
boundary of NE\1/4\SE\1/4\ sec. 11, T. 32 S., R. 14 W.,
Willamette Meridian, as a recreational river.
``(B) South fork.--The approximately 7.3-mile
segment of the South Fork Sixes River from and
including the headwaters to the west boundary of T. 32
S., R. 13 W., sec. 18, Willamette Meridian, as a wild
river.
``(C) North fork dry creek.--The approximately 3.1-
mile segment of North Fork Dry Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with Dry Creek, as a
wild river.
``(D) Bee creek.--The approximately 2.3-mile
segment of Bee Creek from and including the headwaters
to the confluence with the South Fork Sixes River, as a
wild river.
``(290) Smith, oregon.--The 0.9-mile segment of the Smith
River from and including the headwaters of Rowdy Creek to the
border between the States of Oregon and California, to be
administered by the Secretary of Agriculture as a wild river.
``(291) South fork indian creek, oregon.--The following
segments, to be administered by the Secretary of the Interior
in the following classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--The approximately 3.1-mile segment
of South Fork Indian Creek from the downstream right-
of-way boundary of Gregory Road in SE\1/4\SE\1/4\ sec.
19, T. 18 S., R. 39 E., Willamette Meridian, to the
east boundary of SW\1/4\ sec. 15, T. 18 S., R. 39 E.,
Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(B) Unnamed tributary.--The approximately 0.7-
mile segment of an unnamed tributary from the west
boundary of SW\1/4\SE\1/4\ sec. 20, T. 18 S., R. 39 E.,
Willamette Meridian, to the confluence with South Fork
Indian Creek, as a wild river.
``(292) South fork sprague river, oregon.--The following
segments, to be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture in
the following classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--
``(i) Upper.--The approximately 9.3-mile
segment of the South Fork Sprague River from
the Gearhart Mountain Wilderness boundary in T.
36 S., R. 16 E., sec. 1, Willamette Meridian,
to the west boundary of NE\1/4\ sec. 10, T. 37
E., R. 16 E., Willamette Meridian, as a scenic
river.
``(ii) Middle.--The approximately 6.8-mile
segment of the South Fork Sprague River from
south boundary of NW\1/4\SE\1/4\ sec. 1, T. 37
S., R. 15 E., Willamette Meridian, to the north
boundary of S\1/2\NW\1/4\ sec. 8, T. 37 S., R.
15 E., Willamette Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(B) Tributaries.--
``(i) Corral creek.--The approximately 0.8-
mile segment of Corral Creek from the Gearhart
Mountain Wilderness boundary to the confluence
with the South Fork Sprague River, as a scenic
river.
``(ii) Camp creek.--The approximately 2-
mile segment of Camp Creek from the Gearhart
Mountain Wilderness boundary to the confluence
with the South Fork Sprague River, as a scenic
river.
``(iii) Brownsworth creek.--The
approximately 1.7-mile segment of Brownsworth
Creek from the north boundary of SE\1/4\ sec.
36, T. 36 S., R. 15 E., Willamette Meridian, to
the confluence with the South Fork Sprague
River, as a scenic river.
``(iv) Deming creek.--The approximately 5-
mile segment of Deming Creek from the Gearhart
Wilderness boundary to the south boundary of T.
36 S., R. 15 E., sec. 9, Willamette Meridian,
as a scenic river.
``(293) South santiam, oregon.--The following segments, to
be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture in the
following classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--The approximately 13.2-mile
segment of the South Santiam River from the confluence
of Sevenmile Creek and Latiwi Creek to the west
boundary of T. 13 S., R. 3 E., sec. 34, Willamette
Meridian, as a recreational river.
``(B) Tributaries.--
``(i) Sevenmile creek.--The approximately
4.9-mile segment of Sevenmile Creek from the
south boundary of NE\1/4\ sec. 13, T. 14 S., R.
5 E., Willamette Meridian, to the confluence
with Latiwi Creek, as a scenic river.
``(ii) Latiwi creek.--The approximately
3.9-mile segment of Latiwi Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
Sevenmile Creek, as a scenic river.
``(iii) Sheep creek.--The approximately
2.6-mile segment of Sheep Creek from the east
boundary of T. 13 S., R. 5 E., sec. 28,
Willamette Meridian, to the confluence with the
South Santiam River, as a recreational river.
``(iv) Cub creek.--The approximately 2-mile
segment of Cub Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with Moose Creek,
as a scenic river.
``(v) Boulder creek.--The approximately
3.5-mile segment of Boulder Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
the South Santiam River, as a wild river.
``(vi) Elk creek.--The approximately 2-mile
segment of Elk Creek from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with the South
Santiam River, as a wild river.
``(vii) Moose creek.--The approximately
10.1-mile segment of Moose Creek from the
Forest Service boundary 0.4 mile upstream from
the western edge of T. 13 S., R. 4 E., sec. 4,
Willamette Meridian, to the confluence with the
South Santiam River, as a scenic river.
``(viii) Falls creek.--
``(I) Upper.--The approximately
3.6-mile segment of Falls Creek from
the source at and including Gordon
Meadows to 100 feet above the
hydroelectric diversion, as a wild
river.
``(II) Lower.--The approximately
2.6-mile segment of Falls Creek from
100 feet below the hydroelectric
diversion to the confluence with the
South Santiam River, as a scenic river.
``(294) Succor creek, oregon.--
``(A) Mainstem.--The approximately 14-mile segment
of Succor Creek from the west boundary of NE\1/4\SE\1/
4\ sec. 17, T. 25 S., R. 46 E., Willamette Meridian, to
50 feet above the diversion dam in SE\1/4\NE\1/4\ sec.
28, T. 23 S., R. 46 E., Willamette Meridian, to be
administered by the Secretary of the Interior as a
scenic river.
``(B) Tributaries.--
``(i) South fork carter creek.--The
approximately 2.2-mile segment of South Fork
Carter Creek from the south boundary of NW\1/
4\NE\1/4\ sec. 11, T. 27 S., R. 45 E.,
Willamette Meridian, to the north boundary S\1/
2\NW\1/4\ sec. 36, T. 26 S., R. 45 E.,
Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(ii) Unnamed tributary of south fork
carter creek.--The approximately 0.8-mile
segment of an unnamed tributary to South Fork
Carter Creek from the south boundary of NW\1/4\
sec. 12, T. 27 S., R. 45 E., Willamette
Meridian to the confluence with South Fork
Carter Creek in SE\1/4\SE\1/4\ sec. 2, T. 27
S., R. 45 E., Willamette Meridian, as a wild
river.
``(295) Trout creek mountains, oregon.--The following
segments, to be administered by the Secretary of the Interior
in the following classes:
``(A) Willow creek.--
``(i) Upper.--The approximately 12-mile
segment of Willow Creek from and including the
headwaters to the north boundary of SW\1/
4\NW\1/4\ sec. 2, T. 39 S., R. 38 E.,
Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(ii) Lower.--The approximately 8-mile
segment of Willow Creek from the north boundary
of SW\1/4\NW\1/4\ sec. 2, T. 39 S., R. 38 E.,
Willamette Meridian, to the north boundary of
T. 37 S., R. 36 E., sec. 22, Willamette
Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(B) Big trout creek.--The approximately 12.4-mile
segment of Big Trout Creek from the east boundary of
SW\1/4\NE\1/4\ sec. 15, T. 41 S., R. 38 E., Willamette
Meridian, to the north boundary of T. 39 S., R. 37 E.,
sec. 35, Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(C) East fork big trout creek.--The approximately
6.7-mile segment of East Fork Big Trout Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with Big
Trout Creek, as a wild river.
``(D) Little trout creek.--
``(i) Upper.--The approximately 6-mile
segment of Little Trout Creek from and
including the headwaters to the north boundary
of T. 39 S., R. 37 E., sec. 24, Willamette
Meridian, as a wild river.
``(ii) Lower.--The approximately 1.7-mile
segment of Little Trout Creek from the north
boundary of T. 39 S., R. 37 E., sec. 24,
Willamette Meridian, to the west boundary of
NE\1/4\ sec. 14, T. 39 S., R. 37 E., Willamette
Meridian, as a scenic river.
``(E) Kings river.--The approximately 2.1-mile
segment of Kings River from the Oregon-Nevada border to
the Nevada-Oregon border, as a wild river.
``(296) Twelvemile creek, oregon.--The following segments,
to be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture and the
Secretary of the Interior in the following classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--
``(i) Upper.--The approximately 5.8-mile
segment of Twelvemile Creek from and including
the headwaters to the east boundary of T. 41
S., R. 22 E., sec. 23, Willamette Meridian, as
a wild river.
``(ii) Middle.--The approximately 6.9-mile
segment of Twelvemile Creek from the west
boundary of SE\1/4\ sec. 20, T. 41 S., R. 23
E., Willamette Meridian, to the north boundary
of SE\1/4\SW\1/4\ sec. 12, T. 41 S., R. 23 E.,
Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(B) Forks.--
``(i) North fork.--The approximately 3.8-
mile segment of North Fork Twelvemile Creek
from and including the headwaters to the
confluence with Twelvemile Creek, as a wild
river.
``(ii) South fork.--The approximately 2-
mile segment of South Fork Twelvemile Creek
from and including the headwaters to the
confluence with Twelvemile Creek, as a wild
river.
``(297) Tumalo creek, oregon.--The following segments, to
be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture in the
following classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--The approximately 11.6-mile
segment of Tumalo Creek from the confluence of North
Fork Tumalo Creek and Middle Fork Tumalo Creek to the
east boundary of T. 17 S., R. 11 E., sec. 33,
Willamette Meridian, as a recreational river.
``(B) Forks.--
``(i) Middle fork.--The approximately 4.8-
mile segment of Middle Fork Tumalo Creek from
and including the headwaters to the confluence
with North Fork Tumalo Creek, as a wild river.
``(ii) South fork.--The approximately 2.4-
mile segment of South Fork Tumalo Creek from
and including the headwaters to the confluence
with Tumalo Creek, as a wild river.
``(iii) North fork.--The approximately 2.2-
mile segment of North Fork Tumalo Creek from
the Three Sisters Wilderness boundary to the
confluence with Middle Fork Tumalo Creek, as a
wild river.
``(C) Bridge creek.--The approximately 3.6-mile
segment of Bridge Creek from and including the
headwaters to 0.01 mile above the diversion dam, as a
wild river.
``(298) Umatilla headwaters, oregon.--The following
segments, to be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture in
the following classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--The approximately 8-mile segment
of the Umatilla River from the confluence of the North
Fork Umatilla River and the South Fork Umatilla River
to the Umatilla Indian Reservation, as a recreational
river.
``(B) Forks.--
``(i) North fork umatilla river.--
``(I) Upper.--The approximately 2-
mile segment of the North Fork Umatilla
River from and including the headwaters
to the North Fork Umatilla Wilderness
boundary, as a scenic river.
``(II) Lower.--The approximately
0.3-mile segment of the North Fork
Umatilla River from the North Fork
Umatilla Wilderness boundary to the
confluence with the South Fork Umatilla
River, as a recreational river.
``(ii) South fork umatilla river.--
``(I) Upper.--The approximately
7.2-mile segment of the South Fork
Umatilla River from and including the
headwaters to 0.01 mile above Forest
Service Road 32, as a wild river.
``(II) Lower.--The approximately
4.1-mile segment of South Fork Umatilla
River from 0.01 mile above Forest
Service Road 32 to the confluence with
the North Fork Umatilla River, as a
recreational river.
``(C) Tributaries.--
``(i) Pearson creek.--The approximately
8.2-mile segment of Pearson Creek from and
including the headwaters to the north boundary
of T. 3 S., R. 33 E., sec. 4, Willamette
Meridian, as a recreational river.
``(ii) Bobsled creek.--The approximately 4-
mile segment of Bobsled Creek from and
including the headwaters to the confluence with
the Umatilla River, as a wild river.
``(iii) Ryan creek.--The approximately 7.1-
mile segment of Ryan Creek from and including
the headwaters to the confluence with the
Umatilla River, as a wild river.
``(iv) Shimmiehorn creek.--The
approximately 6.7-mile segment of Shimmiehorn
Creek from and including the headwaters to the
confluence with the South Fork Umatilla River,
as a wild river.
``(v) Thomas creek.--The approximately 2.4-
mile segment of Thomas Creek from the
confluence with Spring Creek to the confluence
with the South Fork Umatilla River, as a
recreational river.
``(vi) Spring creek.--The approximately
5.7-mile segment of Spring Creek from the
headwaters to the confluence with the South
Fork Umatilla River, as a recreational river.
``(299) Applegate, oregon.--The following segments, to be
administered by the Secretary of Agriculture and the Secretary
of the Interior in the following classes:
``(A) Kinney creek.--The approximately 4.2-mile
segment of Kinney Creek from and including the
headwaters to the east boundary of NE\1/4\SE\1/4\ sec.
18, T. 40 S., R. 3 W., Willamette Meridian, to be
administered by the Secretary of Agriculture as a
recreational river.
``(B) Palmer creek.--
``(i) Mainstem.--The approximately 5-mile
segment of Palmer Creek from and including the
headwaters to the west boundary of T. 40 S., R.
3 W., sec. 7, Willamette Meridian, as a
recreational river.
``(ii) Tributaries.--
``(I) Sourdough gulch.--The
approximately 1.4-mile segment of
Sourdough Gulch from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with
Palmer Creek, as a recreational river.
``(II) Lime gulch.--The
approximately 0.9-mile segment of Lime
Gulch from and including the headwaters
to the confluence with Palmer Creek, as
a recreational river.
``(III) Bailey gulch.--The
approximately 1.6-mile segment of
Bailey Gulch from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with
Palmer Creek, as a recreational river.
``(IV) Nine dollar gulch.--The
approximately 3.1-mile segment of Nine
Dollar Gulch from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with
Palmer Creek, as a recreational river.
``(V) Dark canyon.--The
approximately 1.6-mile segment of Dark
Canyon from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with
Palmer Creek, as a recreational river.
``(C) Mule creek.--
``(i) Mainstem.--The approximately 3.6-mile
segment of Mule Creek from and including the
headwaters to the west boundary of T. 40 S., R.
3 W., sec. 17, Willamette Meridian, as a wild
river.
``(ii) Hole in the ground creek.--The
approximately 1.1-mile segment of Hole in the
Ground Creek from and including the headwaters
to the confluence with Mule Creek, as a wild
river.
``(D) Star gulch.--
``(i) Mainstem.--The approximately 7.7-mile
segment of Star Gulch from and including the
headwaters to the east boundary of NW\1/4\ sec.
28, T. 39 S., R. 3 W., Willamette Meridian, as
a recreational river.
``(ii) Tributaries.--
``(I) 1918 gulch.--The
approximately 1.6-mile segment of 1918
Gulch from and including the headwaters
to the confluence with Star Gulch, as a
scenic river.
``(II) 1917 gulch.--The
approximately 1.2-mile segment of 1917
Gulch from and including the headwaters
to the confluence with Star Gulch, as a
scenic river.
``(III) 1916 gulch.--The
approximately 0.9-mile segment of 1916
Gulch from and including the headwaters
to the confluence with Star Gulch, as a
scenic river.
``(IV) Ladybug gulch.--The
approximately 1.7-mile segment of
Ladybug Gulch from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with Star
Gulch, as a scenic river.
``(V) Deadman gulch.--The
approximately 0.7-mile segment of
Deadman Gulch from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with Star
Gulch, as a scenic river.
``(300) Upper klamath lake marsh, oregon.--The following
segments, to be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture
and the Secretary of the Interior in the following classes:
``(A) Crystal creek.--The approximately 9.4-mile
segment of Crystal Creek from and including the source
at Crystal Spring (including Malone Springs) to Pelican
Bay, as a scenic river.
``(B) Recreation creek.--
``(i) In general.--The approximately 2.3-
mile segment of Recreation Creek from the
diffluence with Crystal Creek to Pelican Bay,
as a scenic river.
``(ii) Non-federal land.--The Secretary of
Agriculture and the Secretary of the Interior
shall not include any non-Federal land or
National Forest System land in which
recreational cabins are located within the
detailed boundaries required under subsection
(b) for the segment designated by clause (i).
``(C) Cherry creek.--The approximately 0.5-mile
segment of Cherry Creek from the south boundary of N\1/
2\SE\1/4\, SE\1/4\NE\1/4\ sec. 11, T. 34 S., R. 6 E.,
Willamette Meridian, to the confluence with Fourmile
Creek, as a scenic river.
``(301) Upper warm springs, oregon.--The approximately 6.5-
mile segment of the Warms Springs River from and including the
headwaters (including Warm Springs Meadow, Trapper Springs
Meadow, and an unnamed meadow located between Warm Springs
Meadow and Trapper Springs Meadow) to the Mount Hood National
Forest boundary, to be administered by the Secretary of
Agriculture as a scenic river.
``(302) West steens mountain, oregon.--The following
segments, to be administered by the Secretary of the Interior
in the following classes:
``(A) Big bridge creek.--The approximately 4.9-mile
segment of Big Bridge Creek from the west boundary of
NE\1/4\NE\1/4\ sec. 14, T. 32 S., R. 32.75 E.,
Willamette Meridian, to the confluence with Little
Bridge Creek, as a wild river.
``(B) Little bridge creek.--The approximately 4.1-
mile segment of Little Bridge Creek from the west
boundary of SE\1/4\NE\1/4\ sec. 11, T. 32 S., R. 32.75
E., Willamette Meridian, to the confluence with Big
Bridge Creek, as a wild river.
``(C) Krumbo creek.--The approximately 12.5-mile
segment of Krumbo Creek from and including the
headwaters to Krumbo Reservoir, as a scenic river.
``(D) Mccoy creek.--The approximately 15.6-mile
segment of McCoy Creek from and including the
headwaters to the north boundary of T. 31 S., R. 33 E.,
sec. 6, Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(E) Mud creek.--The approximately 5.7-mile
segment of Mud Creek from the east boundary of T. 32
S., R. 32.75 E., sec. 19, Willamette Meridian, to the
Malheur National Wildlife Refuge boundary, as a wild
river.
``(F) Home creek.--The approximately 4.9-mile
segment of Home Creek from the east boundary of T. 35
S., R. 32.5 E., sec. 17, Willamette Meridian, to the
west boundary of SE\1/4\NE\1/4\ sec. 10, T. 35 S., R.
32 E., Willamette Meridian, as a wild river.
``(303) Willamina creek, oregon.--The approximately 6-mile
segment of Willamina Creek from the south boundary of T. 4 S.,
R. 6 E., sec. 5, Willamette Meridian, to the west boundary of
T. 4 S., R. 7 W., sec. 25, Willamette Meridian, to be
administered by the Secretary of the Interior as a recreational
river.
``(304) Williamson, oregon.--The approximately 9.3-mile
segment of the Williamson River from the west boundary of W\1/
2\ sec. 12, T. 33 S., R. 7 E., Willamette Meridian, to the
confluence with Spring Creek, to be administered by the
Secretary of Agriculture as a scenic river.
``(305) Winchuck, oregon.--The following segments, to be
administered by the Secretary of Agriculture in the following
classes:
``(A) Mainstem.--The approximately 2.4-mile segment
of the Winchuck River from the confluence of the East
Fork Winchuck River and Wheeler Creek to the west
boundary of T. 41 S., R. 12 W., sec. 10, Willamette
Meridian, as a recreational river.
``(B) Tributaries.--
``(i) East fork winchuck river.--The
approximately 7.6-mile segment of the East Fork
Winchuck River from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with Wheeler
Creek, as a scenic river.
``(ii) Fourth of july creek.--The
approximately 4.8-mile segment of Fourth of
July Creek from and including the headwaters to
the confluence with the East Fork Winchuck
River, as a scenic river.
``(iii) Wheeler creek.--
``(I) Upper.--The approximately
7.2-mile segment of Wheeler Creek from
and including the headwaters to the
confluence with Willow Creek, as a
scenic river.
``(II) Lower.--The approximately
4.1-mile segment of Wheeler Creek from
the confluence with Willow Creek to the
confluence with the East Fork Winchuck
River, as a recreational river.
``(iv) Moser creek.--The approximately 1-
mile segment of Moser Creek from and including
the headwaters to the west boundary of E\1/2\
sec. 18, T. 41 S., R. 12 W., Willamette
Meridian, as a wild river.
``(v) Unnamed tributary.--The approximately
0.6-mile segment of an unnamed tributary
generally flowing parallel to Moser Creek from
and including the headwaters in T. 41 S., R. 12
W., sec. 7, Willamette Meridian, to the edge of
the National Forest System land, as a wild
river.
``(306) Yachats, oregon.--The approximately 4-mile segment
of the Yachats River from and including the headwaters to the
north boundary of T. 15 S., R. 10 W., sec. 7, Willamette
Meridian, to be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture as
a scenic river.
``(307) North fork trask river, oregon.--The following
segments, to be administered by the Secretary of the Interior,
in the following classes:
``(A) The approximately 11.9-mile segment of the
North Fork Trask River from the confluence with the
Middle Fork of the North Fork Trask River to the
confluence with the Trask River, as a recreational
river.
``(B) The approximately 6.5-mile segment of the
Middle Fork of the North Fork Trask River from 0.1 mile
below Barney Reservoir to the confluence with the North
Fork Trask River, as a recreational river.
``(308) Marks creek, oregon.--The following segments, to be
administered by the Secretary of Agriculture, in the following
classes:
``(A) Upper.--The approximately 2.2-mile segment of
Marks Creek from and including the headwaters to the
entry of private land in NE\1/4\ sec. 2, T. 13 S., R.
19 E., Willamette Meridian, as a recreational river.
``(B) Middle.--The approximately 9.2-mile segment
of Marks Creek from the Forest Service ownership
boundary in T. 13 S., R. 19 E., sec. 9, Willamette
Meridian, to the south boundary of T. 14 S., R. 18 E.,
sec. 11, Willamette Meridian, as a recreational river.
``(309) West fork hood river, oregon.--
``(A) Mainstem.--The approximately 5.6-mile segment
from the confluence of McGee Creek and Elk Creek to the
Mount Hood National Forest boundary in T. 1 S., R. 8.5
E., sec. 1, to be administered by the Secretary of
Agriculture as a recreational river.
``(B) Tributaries.--
``(i) Lake branch.--The approximately 8.3-
mile segment from the source at Lost Lake to
the Mount Hood National Forest boundary, to be
administered by the Secretary of Agriculture,
as a recreational river.
``(ii) Mcgee creek.--The approximately 5.6-
mile segment from and including the headwaters
to the confluence with Elk Creek, as a scenic
river.
``(310) Still creek, oregon.--The approximately 12.2-mile
segment from the west boundary of E\1/2\NW\1/4\ sec. 25, T. 3
S., R. 8.5 E., Willamette Meridian, to be administered by the
Secretary of Agriculture as a recreational river.
``(311) Middle fork fivemile creek, oregon.--The
approximately 7.7-mile segment from and including the
headwaters to the confluence with the South Fork Fivemile
Creek, to be administered by the Secretary of Agriculture as a
scenic river.''.
SEC. 9. PROTECTION OF CERTAIN AREAS.
(a) Essential Serpentine Wetland Withdrawal.--
(1) Definitions.--In this subsection:
(A) Essential serpentine wetland.--The term
``essential serpentine wetland'' means an essential
wetland in the State of Oregon or California identified
in the interagency conservation strategy.
(B) Interagency conservation strategy.--The term
``interagency conservation strategy'' means the joint
document prepared by the Forest Service and the Bureau
of Land Management entitled ``Conservation Strategy for
Epilobium oreganum, Gentiana setigera, Hastingsia
bracteosa var. bracteosa, H. bracteosa var.
atropurpurea, and Viola primulifolia ssp. occidentalis
in Serpentine Darlingtonia Wetlands of Southwest Oregon
and Northwest California'' and dated 2018.
(C) Secretaries.--The term ``Secretaries'' means
the Secretary of Agriculture and the Secretary of the
Interior, acting jointly.
(2) Withdrawal.--Subject to valid existing rights, all
Federal land that is included in an essential serpentine
wetland is withdrawn from all forms of--
(A) entry, appropriation, new rights-of-way, or
disposal under the public land laws;
(B) location, entry, and patent under the mining
laws; and
(C) disposition under all laws relating to mineral
and geothermal leasing or mineral materials.
(3) Maps.--
(A) Publication.--Not later than 1 year after the
date of enactment of this Act, the Secretaries shall
publish a large-scale draft map and descriptions of
each essential serpentine wetland, to be prepared in
accordance with the interagency conservation strategy,
that include--
(i) the essential serpentine wetland; and
(ii) any additional area of land or water
that contributes to the maintenance of the
direct hydrologic regime of the essential
serpentine wetland.
(B) Public review.--During the 90-day period
beginning on the date of publication of the draft maps
and descriptions under subparagraph (A), the
Secretaries shall provide an opportunity for the public
to review, and provide comments on, the draft maps and
descriptions published under that subparagraph.
(C) Final withdrawal maps.--After responding to any
comments received during the public review period under
subparagraph (B), the Secretaries shall publish on
appropriate websites, and record in appropriate
databases, final maps depicting the boundaries of each
essential serpentine wetland.
(4) Implementation of the interagency conservation
strategy.--The Secretaries shall give priority to implementing
the interagency conservation strategy, including by amending
applicable land and resource management plans to reflect--
(A) the land allocation of essential serpentine
wetland; and
(B) the management strategy applicable to essential
serpentine wetland.
(b) Illinois Watershed Special Management Areas Withdrawal.--
(1) Definition of special management area.--In this
subsection, the term ``special management area'' means each of
the following:
(A) The Eight Dollar Mountain Botanical Area.
(B) The Page Mountain Botanical Area.
(C) The Bolan Lake Botanical Area.
(D) The Grayback Mountain Botanical Area.
(E) The Game Lake Botanical Area.
(F) The Sourgame Botanical Area.
(G) The Snow Camp Botanical Area.
(H) The Oregon Mountain Botanical Area.
(I) The Eight Dollar Mountain Area of Critical
Environmental Concern.
(J) The Rough and Ready Flat Area of Critical
Environmental Concern.
(K) The Brewer Spruce Area of Critical
Environmental Concern.
(L) The West Fork Illinois River Area of Critical
Environmental Concern.
(M) The Waldo-Takilma Area of Critical
Environmental Concern.
(N) The French Flat Area of Critical Environmental
Concern.
(O) The Rough and Ready Area of Critical
Environmental Concern.
(P) The Woodcock Bog Area of Critical Environmental
Concern.
(Q) The Reeves Creek Area of Critical Environmental
Concern.
(R) The Deer Creek Area of Critical Environmental
Concern.
(S) The North Fork Silver Creek Area of Critical
Environmental Concern.
(2) Withdrawal.--To more fully protect and enhance the
outstandingly remarkable values for which the Illinois Wild and
Scenic River was established and expanded and to advance the
conservation of botanical and other values of land in the
special management areas, subject to valid existing rights, the
Federal land within the boundaries of the special management
areas is withdrawn from all forms of--
(A) entry, appropriation, or disposal under the
public land laws;
(B) location, entry, and patent under the mining
laws; and
(C) disposition under all laws relating to mineral
and geothermal leasing or mineral materials.
<all> | River Democracy Act of 2021 | A bill to amend the Wild and Scenic Rivers Act to designate certain river segments in the State of Oregon as components of the National Wild and Scenic Rivers System, and for other purposes. | River Democracy Act of 2021 | Sen. Wyden, Ron | D | OR |
5 | 3,479 | S.1426 | Taxation | Parent Tax Credit Act
This bill allows an eligible individual a tax credit of $6,000 ($12,000 in the case of a joint tax return), with a limitation based on a minimum earned income level. The bill defines eligible individual as any individual who has a qualifying child who is not yet 13. The eligible individual may not be a nonresident alien, any alien unlawfully present in the United States, and any individual who is a dependent of another taxpayer. To be eligible for the credit, the taxpayer must include on the return of tax a valid Social Security account number.
The bill requires the Internal Revenue Service to establish a program for making advance payments of the credit to taxpayers on a monthly basis.
The bill terminates the child and dependent care tax credit after 2021. | To amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to establish a refundable
tax credit for parents.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Parent Tax Credit Act''.
SEC. 2. ESTABLISHMENT OF PARENT TAX CREDIT.
(a) In General.--Subpart C of part IV of subchapter A of chapter 1
of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 is amended by inserting after
section 36B the following new section:
``SEC. 36C. PARENT TAX CREDIT.
``(a) In General.--In the case of an eligible individual, there
shall be allowed as a credit against the tax imposed by this subtitle
for the taxable year an amount equal to $6,000 ($12,000 in the case of
a joint return).
``(b) Limitation Based on Earned Income.--
``(1) In general.--No credit shall be allowed under this
section to any taxpayer for any taxable year in which the
earned income (as defined in section 32(c)(2)) of such taxpayer
during such taxable year is not equal to or greater than the
minimum income level.
``(2) Minimum income level.--For purposes of this
subsection, the minimum income level shall be an amount equal
to the product of--
``(A) the minimum wage rate in effect under section
6(a)(1) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 (29
U.S.C. 206(a)(1)), multiplied by
``(B) 1040 hours.
``(c) Eligible Individual.--The term `eligible individual' means
any individual--
``(1) who, for the taxable year, has a qualifying child (as
defined in section 152(c)) who has not attained age 13 as of
the close of such taxable year, and
``(2) other than--
``(A) any nonresident alien individual,
``(B) any alien (as defined in section 101(a) of
the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1101(a))
who is unlawfully present in the United States (within
the meaning of that Act), and
``(C) any individual with respect to whom a
deduction under section 151 is allowable to another
taxpayer for a taxable year beginning in the calendar
year in which the individual's taxable year begins.
``(d) Identification Number Requirement.--
``(1) In general.--No credit shall be allowed under
subsection (a) to an eligible individual who does not include
on the return of tax for the taxable year--
``(A) such individual's valid identification
number,
``(B) in the case of a joint return, the valid
identification number of such individual's spouse, and
``(C) in the case of a qualifying child described
in subsection (c)(1), the valid identification number
of such qualifying child.
``(2) Valid identification number.--
``(A) In general.--For purposes of paragraph (1),
the term `valid identification number' means a social
security number (as such term is defined in section
24(h)(7)).
``(B) Adoption taxpayer identification number.--For
purposes of paragraph (1)(C), in the case of a
qualifying child who is adopted or placed for adoption,
the term `valid identification number' shall include
the adoption taxpayer identification number of such
child.
``(3) Special rule for members of the armed forces.--
Paragraph (1)(B) shall not apply in the case where at least 1
spouse was a member of the Armed Forces of the United States at
any time during the taxable year and at least 1 spouse
satisfies paragraph (1)(A).
``(4) Mathematical or clerical error authority.--Any
omission of a correct valid identification number required
under this subsection shall be treated as a mathematical or
clerical error for purposes of applying section 6213(g)(2) to
such omission.
``(e) Taxable Year Must Be Full Taxable Year.--Except in the case
of a taxable year closed by reason of the death of the taxpayer, no
credit shall be allowable under this section in the case of a taxable
year covering a period of less than 12 months.
``(f) Restrictions on Taxpayer Who Improperly Claimed Credit in
Prior Year.--Rules similar to the rules under section 24(g) shall apply
for purposes of this section.
``(g) Adjustment for Inflation.--
``(1) In general.--In the case of any taxable year
beginning after 2022, each dollar amount in subsection (a)
shall be increased by an amount equal to--
``(A) such dollar amount, multiplied by
``(B) the cost-of-living adjustment determined
under section 1(f)(3) for the calendar year in which
the taxable year begins, determined by substituting
`2021'for `2016' in subparagraph (A)(ii) thereof.
``(2) Rounding.--If any increase under paragraph (1) is not
a multiple of $100, such increase shall be rounded to the next
lowest multiple of $100.''.
(b) Advance Payment of Credit.--
(1) In general.--Chapter 77 of the Internal Revenue Code of
1986, as amended by section 9611(b) of the American Rescue Plan
Act of 2021 (Public Law 117-2), is amended by inserting after
section 7527A the following new section:
``SEC. 7527B. ADVANCE PAYMENT OF PARENT TAX CREDIT.
``(a) In General.--As soon as practicable after the date of the
enactment of this section, the Secretary shall establish a program for
making advance payments of the credit allowed under section 36C
(determined without regard to subsection (h) of such section), on a
monthly basis, to taxpayers (with the exception of any taxpayer who
elects not to receive such payments pursuant to subsection (c)(1)).
``(b) Limitation.--With respect to any taxable year, the Secretary
may make payments under subsection (a) only to the extent that--
``(1) the total amount of such payments made to any
taxpayer during such taxable year does not exceed the amount
estimated by the Secretary as would be allowable under section
36C for such taxable year, as estimated based on--
``(A) any information provided by the taxpayer
under subsection (c)(2), or
``(B) if no information described in subparagraph
(A) has been provided, any information with respect to
such taxpayer for the most recent taxable year for
which a return has been filed by the taxpayer, and
``(2) for each monthly payment, such payment does not
exceed an amount equal to the quotient of--
``(A) the amount of the credit estimated under
paragraph (1) for such taxable year, divided by
``(B) 12.
``(c) On-Line Information Portal.--The Secretary shall establish an
on-line portal which allows taxpayers to--
``(1) elect not to receive payments under this section, and
``(2) provide information to the Secretary which would be
relevant to the determination under subsection (b)(1),
including information regarding--
``(A) for purposes of section 36C(c)(1), whether
the taxpayer has any qualifying children, including by
reason of the birth of a child,
``(B) a change in the taxpayer's marital status,
``(C) a significant change in the taxpayer's earned
income, and
``(D) any other factor which the Secretary may
provide.
``(d) Notice of Payments.--Not later than January 31 of the
calendar year following any calendar year during which the Secretary
makes one or more payments to any taxpayer under this section, the
Secretary shall provide such taxpayer with a written notice which
includes the taxpayer's taxpayer identity (as defined in section
6103(b)(6)), the aggregate amount of such payments made to such
taxpayer during such calendar year, and such other information as the
Secretary determines appropriate.
``(e) Administrative Provisions.--
``(1) Application of electronic funds payment
requirement.--The payments made by the Secretary under
subsection (a) shall be made by electronic funds transfer to
the same extent and in the same manner as if such payments were
Federal payments not made under this title.
``(2) Application of certain rules.--Rules similar to the
rules of subparagraphs (B) and (C) of section 6428A(f)(3) shall
apply for purposes of this section.''.
(2) Reconciliation of credit and advance credit.--Section
36C of such Code, as added by subsection (a), is amended by
adding at the end the following:
``(h) Reconciliation of Credit and Advance Credit.--
``(1) In general.--The amount of the credit allowed under
this section for any taxable year shall be reduced (but not
below zero) by the aggregate amount of any advance payments of
such credit under section 7527B for such taxable year.
``(2) Failure to satisfy earned income requirement.--In the
case of any taxpayer who received any advance payment under
section 7527B for the taxable year and whose earned income for
such taxable year was not equal to or greater than the minimum
income level (as determined under subsection (b)(2)), for the
period of 2 taxable years subsequent to such taxable year--
``(A) no advance payment may be provided under
section 7527B to such taxpayer in either taxable year
during such period, and
``(B) the amount of the credit which would (but for
this paragraph) otherwise be allowable to such taxpayer
under subsection (a) in either taxable year during such
period shall be reduced by one-half of such amount.''.
(c) Exception From Reduction or Offset.--Any credit allowed to any
individual under section 36C of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (as
added by subsection (a)) or any advance payment of such credit under
section 7527B of such Code (as added under subsection (b)) shall not
be--
(1) subject to reduction or offset pursuant to section 3716
or 3720A of title 31, United States Code,
(2) subject to reduction or offset pursuant to subsection
(d), (e), or (f) of section 6402 of the Internal Revenue Code
of 1986, or
(3) reduced or offset by other assessed Federal taxes that
would otherwise be subject to levy or collection.
(d) Conforming Amendments.--
(1) Section 6211(b)(4)(A) of the Internal Revenue Code of
1986 is amended--
(A) by inserting ``36C,'' after ``36B,'', and
(B) by striking ``and 7527A'' and inserting
``7527A, and 7527B''.
(2) Section 6213(g)(2)(L) of such Code is amended by
inserting ``36C,'' after ``32,''.
(3) Paragraph (2) of section 1324(b) of title 31, United
States Code, is amended--
(A) by inserting ``36C,'' after ``36B,'', and
(B) by striking ``or 7527A'' and inserting ``7527A,
or 7527B''.
(4) The table of sections for subpart C of part IV of
subchapter A of chapter 1 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986
is amended by inserting after the item relating to section 36B
the following new item:
``Sec. 36C. Parent Tax Credit.''.
(5) The table of sections for chapter 77 of such Code is
amended by inserting after the item relating to section 7527A
the following new item:
``Sec. 7527B. Advance payment of Parent Tax Credit.''.
(e) Termination of Child and Dependent Care Credit.--Section 21 of
the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 is amended by adding at the end the
following:
``(i) Termination.--This section shall not apply to any taxable
year beginning after December 31, 2021.''.
(f) Effective Date.--The amendments made by this section shall
apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2021.
<all> | Parent Tax Credit Act | A bill to amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to establish a refundable tax credit for parents. | Parent Tax Credit Act | Sen. Hawley, Josh | R | MO |
6 | 10,134 | H.R.8131 | Commerce | Increasing Competition for Medical Residency Act
This bill repeals the antitrust exemption for graduate medical resident matching programs. | To amend the Pension Funding Equity Act of 2004 to repeal the antitrust
exemption applicable to graduate medical resident matching programs.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Increasing Competition for Medical
Residency Act''.
SEC. 2. REPEALER.
Section 207 of the Pension Funding Equity Act of 2004 (15 U.S.C.
37B) is repealed.
SEC. 3. EFFECTIVE DATE.
This Act shall take effect on the March 18 that 1st occurs after
the date of the enactment of this Act.
<all> | Increasing Competition for Medical Residency Act | To amend the Pension Funding Equity Act of 2004 to repeal the antitrust exemption applicable to graduate medical resident matching programs. | Increasing Competition for Medical Residency Act | Rep. Spartz, Victoria | R | IN |
7 | 11,947 | H.R.4921 | Social Welfare | Strengthening Social Security Act of 2021
This bill expands benefits, and increases specified taxes, related to the Social Security retirement and disability benefits program.
Changes to benefits include (1) increasing the primary insurance amount for certain beneficiaries, (2) calculating cost-of-living adjustments by using a price index that tracks the spending patterns of older consumers, and (3) establishing an alternative benefit for widows or widowers in two-income households.
Changes to taxes include phasing out the cap on earnings subject to the Social Security payroll tax. Under current law, the maximum amount subject to this tax is $142,800. | To improve the retirement security of American families by
strengthening Social Security.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Strengthening Social Security Act of
2021''.
SEC. 2. DETERMINATION OF TAXABLE WAGES AND SELF-EMPLOYMENT INCOME ABOVE
CONTRIBUTION AND BENEFIT BASE AFTER 2022.
(a) Determination of Taxable Wages Above Contribution and Benefit
Base After 2022.--
(1) Amendments to the internal revenue code of 1986.--
Section 3121 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 is amended--
(A) in subsection (a)(1), by inserting ``the
applicable percentage (determined under subsection
(c)(1)) of'' before ``that part of the remuneration'';
and
(B) in subsection (c), by striking ``(c) Included
and Excluded Service.--For purposes of this chapter,
if'' and inserting the following:
``(c) Special Rules for Wages and Employment.--
``(1) Applicable percentage of remuneration in determining
taxable wages.--For purposes of subsection (a)(1), the
applicable percentage for a calendar year shall be equal to--
``(A) for 2023, 80 percent,
``(B) for 2024 through 2026, the applicable
percentage under this paragraph for the previous year,
decreased by 20 percentage points, and
``(C) for 2027 and each year thereafter, 0 percent.
``(2) Included and excluded service.--For purposes of this
chapter, if''.
(2) Amendments to the social security act.--Section 209 of
the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 409) is amended--
(A) in subsection (a)(1)(I)--
(i) by inserting ``and before 2023'' after
``1974''; and
(ii) by inserting ``and'' after the
semicolon;
(B) in subsection (a)(1), by adding at the end the
following new subparagraph:
``(J) The applicable percentage (determined under
subsection (l)) of that part of remuneration which,
after remuneration (other than remuneration referred to
in the succeeding subsections of this section) equal to
the contribution and benefit base (determined under
section 230) with respect to employment has been paid
to an individual during any calendar year after 2022
with respect to which such contribution and benefit
base is effective, is paid to such individual during
such calendar year;''; and
(C) by adding at the end the following new
subsection:
``(l) For purposes of subsection (a)(1)(J), the applicable
percentage for a calendar year shall be equal to--
``(1) for 2023, 80 percent,
``(2) for 2024 through 2026, the applicable percentage
under this subsection for the previous year, decreased by 20
percentage points, and
``(3) for 2027 and each year thereafter, 0 percent.''.
(3) Effective date.--The amendments made by this subsection
shall apply with respect to remuneration paid in calendar years
after 2022.
(b) Determination of Taxable Self-Employment Income Above
Contribution and Benefit Base After 2022.--
(1) Amendments to the internal revenue code of 1986.--
Section 1402 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 is amended--
(A) in subsection (b)(1), by striking ``that part
of the net earnings'' and all that follows through
``minus'' and inserting the following: ``an amount
equal to the applicable percentage (as determined under
subsection (d)(2)) of that part of the net earnings
from self-employment which is in excess of the
difference (not to be less than zero) between (i) an
amount equal to the contribution and benefit base (as
determined under section 230 of the Social Security
Act) which is effective for the calendar year in which
such taxable year begins, and''; and
(B) in subsection (d)--
(i) by striking ``(d) Employee and Wages.--
The term'' and inserting the following:
``(d) Rules and Definitions.--
``(1) Employee and wages.--The term''; and
(ii) by adding at the end the following:
``(2) Applicable percentage of net earnings from self-
employment in determining taxable self-employment income.--For
purposes of subsection (b)(1), the applicable percentage for a
taxable year beginning in any calendar year referred to in such
paragraph shall be equal to--
``(A) for 2023, 80 percent,
``(B) for 2024 through 2026, the applicable
percentage under this paragraph for the previous year,
decreased by 20 percentage points, and
``(C) for 2027 and each year thereafter, 0
percent.''.
(2) Amendments to the social security act.--Section 211 of
the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 411) is amended--
(A) in subsection (b)--
(i) in paragraph (1)(I)--
(I) by striking ``or'' after the
semicolon; and
(II) by inserting ``and before
2023'' after ``1974'';
(ii) by redesignating paragraph (2) as
paragraph (3); and
(iii) by inserting after paragraph (1) the
following:
``(2) For any taxable year beginning in any calendar year
after 2022, an amount equal to the applicable percentage (as
determined under subsection (l)) of that part of net earnings
from self-employment which is in excess of the difference (not
to be less than zero) between--
``(A) an amount equal to the contribution and
benefit base (as determined under section 230) that is
effective for such calendar year, and
``(B) the amount of the wages paid to such
individual during such taxable year, or''; and
(B) by adding at the end the following:
``(l) For purposes of subsection (b)(2), the applicable percentage
for a taxable year beginning in any calendar year referred to in such
paragraph shall be equal to--
``(1) for 2023, 80 percent,
``(2) for 2024 through 2026, the applicable percentage
under this subsection for the previous year, decreased by 20
percentage points, and
``(3) for 2027 and each year thereafter, 0 percent.''.
(3) Effective date.--The amendments made by this subsection
shall apply with respect to taxable years beginning during or
after calendar year 2023.
SEC. 3. ADJUSTMENTS TO BEND POINTS IN DETERMINING PRIMARY INSURANCE
AMOUNT AND INCLUSION OF SURPLUS EARNINGS FOR BENEFIT
DETERMINATIONS.
(a) Adjustments Relating to First Bend Point.--
(1) Increase in first bend point factor.--
(A) In general.--Section 215(a)(1)(A)(i) of the
Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 415(a)(1)(A)(i)) is
amended by striking ``90 percent'' and inserting ``95
percent''.
(B) Effective date; application rule.--The
amendment made by subparagraph (A) shall apply with
respect to computations or recomputations of primary
insurance amounts made on or after January 1, 2027,
except that section 215(a)(1)(A)(i) of the Social
Security Act shall be applied by making the following
substitutions for ``95 percent'' for computations and
recomputations made in the following calendar years:
(i) For calendar year 2027, by substituting
``91 percent''.
(ii) For calendar year 2028, by
substituting ``92 percent''.
(iii) For calendar year 2029, by
substituting ``93 percent''.
(iv) For calendar year 2030, by
substituting ``94 percent''.
(2) Increase in first bend point.--Section 215(a)(1)(B) of
such Act (42 U.S.C. 415(a)(1)(B)) is amended--
(A) by redesignating clause (iii) as clause (iv);
and
(B) by inserting after clause (ii) the following
new clause:
``(iii) With respect to computations or recomputations of
primary insurance amounts made on or after January 1, 2027, the
amount determined under clause (i) of this subparagraph for
purposes of subparagraph (A)(i) for such calendar year shall be
increased by--
``(I) for calendar year 2028, 1 percent,
``(II) for each of calendar years 2029 through
2041, the percent determined under this clause for the
preceding year increased by 1 percentage point, and
``(III) for calendar year 2042 and each year
thereafter, 15 percent.''.
(3) Application of increase; recomputations.--The
amendments made by this subsection shall apply with respect to
every individual who becomes entitled to old-age or disability
insurance benefits under title II of the Social Security Act,
or who dies (before becoming so entitled), in any calendar
year. Notwithstanding section 215(f)(1) of the Social Security
Act, the Commissioner of Social Security shall recompute the
primary insurance amount of each such individual on the first
day of each calendar year during the period beginning with
calendar year 2027 and ending with calendar year 2042 to the
extent necessary to carry out the amendments made by this
section.
(b) Inclusion of Surplus Average Indexed Monthly Earnings in
Determination of Primary Insurance Amounts.--Section 215(a)(1)(A) of
the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 415(a)(1)(A)) is amended--
(1) in clauses (i), (ii), and (iii), by inserting ``basic''
before ``average indexed monthly earnings'' each place it
appears;
(2) in clause (ii), by striking ``and'' at the end;
(3) in clause (iii), by adding ``and'' at the end; and
(4) by inserting after clause (iii) the following new
clause:
``(iv) 5 percent of the individual's surplus average
indexed monthly earnings,''.
(c) Basic AIME and Surplus AIME.--
(1) Basic aime.--Section 215(b)(1) of such Act (42 U.S.C.
415(b)(1)) is amended--
(A) by inserting ``basic'' before ``average''; and
(B) in subparagraph (A), by striking ``paragraph
(3)'' and inserting ``paragraph (3)(A)'' and by
inserting before the comma the following: ``to the
extent such total does not exceed the contribution and
benefit base for the applicable year''.
(2) Surplus aime.--
(A) In general.--Section 215(b)(1) of such Act (as
amended by paragraph (1)) is amended--
(i) by redesignating subparagraphs (A) and
(B) as clauses (i) and (ii), respectively;
(ii) by inserting ``(A)'' after ``(b)(1)'';
and
(iii) by adding at the end the following
new subparagraph:
``(B)(i) An individual's surplus average indexed monthly earnings
shall be equal to the quotient obtained by dividing--
``(I) the total (after adjustment under paragraph (3)(B))
of such individual's surplus earnings (determined under clause
(ii)) for such individual's benefit computation years
(determined under paragraph (2)), by
``(II) the number of months in those years.
``(ii) For purposes of clause (i) and paragraph (3)(B), an
individual's surplus earnings for a benefit computation year are the
total of such individual's wages paid in and self-employment income
credited to such benefit computation year, to the extent such total
(before adjustment under paragraph (3)(B)) exceeds the contribution and
benefit base for such year.''.
(B) Conforming amendment.--The heading for section
215(b) of such Act is amended by striking ``Average
Indexed Monthly Earnings'' and inserting ``Basic
Average Indexed Monthly Earnings; Surplus Average
Indexed Monthly Earnings''.
(3) Adjustment of surplus earnings for purposes of
determining surplus aime.--Section 215(b)(3) of such Act (42
U.S.C. 415(b)(3)) is amended--
(A) in subparagraph (A), by striking ``subparagraph
(B)'' and inserting ``subparagraph (C)'' and by
inserting ``and determination of basic average indexed
monthly income'' after ``paragraph (2)'';
(B) by redesignating subparagraph (B) as
subparagraph (C); and
(C) by inserting after subparagraph (A) the
following new subparagraph:
``(B) For purposes of determining under paragraph (1)(B) an
individual's surplus average indexed monthly earnings, the individual's
surplus earnings (described in paragraph (2)(B)(ii)) for a benefit
computation year shall be deemed to be equal to the product of--
``(i) the individual's surplus earnings for such year (as
determined without regard to this subparagraph), and
``(ii) the quotient described in subparagraph (A)(ii).''.
(d) Effective Date.--The amendments made by subsections (b) and (c)
shall apply with respect to individuals who initially become eligible
(within the meaning of section 215(a)(3)(B) of the Social Security Act)
for old-age or disability insurance benefits under title II of the
Social Security Act, or who die (before becoming eligible for such
benefits), in any calendar year after 2027.
SEC. 4. CONSUMER PRICE INDEX FOR ELDERLY CONSUMERS.
(a) In General.--The Bureau of Labor Statistics of the Department
of Labor shall prepare and publish an index for each calendar month to
be known as the ``Consumer Price Index for Elderly Consumers'' that
indicates changes over time in expenditures for consumption which are
typical for individuals in the United States who have attained early
retirement age (as defined under section 216(l)(2) of the Social
Security Act (42 U.S.C. 416(l)(2)) for purposes of an old-age, wife's,
or husband's insurance benefit).
(b) Effective Date.--Subsection (a) shall apply with respect to
calendar months ending on or after June 30 of the calendar year in
which this Act is enacted.
(c) Authorization of Appropriations.--There are authorized to be
appropriated such sums as are necessary to carry out the provisions of
this section.
SEC. 5. COMPUTATION OF COST-OF-LIVING INCREASES FOR SOCIAL SECURITY
BENEFITS.
(a) In General.--Section 215(i) of the Social Security Act (42
U.S.C. 415(i)) is amended--
(1) in paragraph (1)(G), by inserting before the period the
following: ``, and, with respect to any monthly insurance
benefit payable under this title, effective for adjustments
under this subsection to the primary insurance amount on which
such benefit is based (or to any such benefit under section 227
or 228), the applicable Consumer Price Index shall be deemed to
be the Consumer Price Index for Elderly Consumers and such
primary insurance amount shall be deemed adjusted under this
subsection using such Index''; and
(2) in paragraph (4), by striking ``and by section 9001''
and inserting ``, by section 9001'', and by inserting after
``1986,'' the following: ``and by section 5(a) of the
Strengthening Social Security Act of 2021,''.
(b) Conforming Amendments in Applicable Former Law.--Section
215(i)(1)(C) of the Social Security Act, as in effect in December 1978
and applied in certain cases under the provisions of such Act in effect
after December 1978, is amended by inserting before the period the
following: ``, and, with respect to any monthly insurance benefit
payable under this title, effective for adjustments under this
subsection to the primary insurance amount on which such benefit is
based (or to any such benefit under section 227 or 228), the applicable
Consumer Price Index shall be deemed to be the Consumer Price Index for
Elderly Consumers and such primary insurance amount shall be deemed
adjusted under this subsection using such Index''.
(c) Effective Date.--The amendments made by this section shall
apply to determinations made by the Commissioner of Social Security
under section 215(i)(2) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C.
415(i)(2)) with respect to cost-of-living computation quarters ending
on or after September 30, 2022.
SEC. 6. IMPROVING SOCIAL SECURITY BENEFITS FOR WIDOWS AND WIDOWERS IN
TWO-INCOME HOUSEHOLDS.
(a) In General.--
(1) Widows.--Section 202(e) of the Social Security Act (42
U.S.C. 402(e)) is amended--
(A) in paragraph (1)--
(i) in subparagraph (B), by inserting
``and'' at the end;
(ii) in subparagraph (C)(iii), by striking
``and'' at the end;
(iii) by striking subparagraph (D);
(iv) by redesignating subparagraphs (E) and
(F) as subparagraphs (D) and (E), respectively;
and
(v) in the flush matter following
subparagraph (E)(ii), as so redesignated, by
striking ``or becomes entitled to an old-age
insurance benefit'' and all that follows
through ``such deceased individual,'';
(B) by striking subparagraph (A) in paragraph (2)
and inserting the following:
``(2)(A) Except as provided in subsection (k)(5),
subsection (q), and subparagraph (D) of this paragraph, such
widow's insurance benefit for each month shall be equal to the
greater of--
``(i) subject to paragraph (9), the primary
insurance amount (as determined for purposes of this
subsection after application of subparagraphs (B) and
(C)) of such deceased individual, or
``(ii) subject to paragraphs (9) and (10), in the
case of a fully insured widow or surviving divorced
wife, 75 percent of the sum of any old-age or
disability insurance benefit for which the widow or the
surviving divorced wife is entitled for such month and
the primary insurance amount (as determined for
purposes of this subsection after application of
subparagraphs (B) and (C)) of such deceased
individual.'';
(C) in paragraph (5)--
(i) in subparagraph (A), by striking
``paragraph (1)(F)'' and inserting ``paragraph
(1)(E)''; and
(ii) in subparagraph (B), by striking
``paragraph (1)(F)(i)'' and inserting
``paragraph (1)(E)(i)''; and
(D) by adding at the end the following new
paragraphs:
``(9) For purposes of clauses (i) and (ii) of paragraph
(2)(A), in the case of a surviving divorced wife, the amount
determined under either such clause (and, for purposes of
clause (ii) of paragraph (2)(A), as determined after
application of paragraph (10)) shall be equal to the applicable
percentage (as determined under section 202(b)(2)(B)) of such
amount (as determined before application of this paragraph but
after application of subsection (k)(3)).
``(10) For purposes of paragraph (2)(A)(ii), the amount
determined under such paragraph shall not exceed the primary
insurance amount for such month of a hypothetical individual--
``(A) who became entitled to old-age insurance
benefits upon attaining early retirement age during the
month in which the deceased individual referred to in
paragraph (1) became entitled to old-age or disability
insurance benefits, or died (before becoming entitled
to such benefits), and
``(B) to whom wages and self-employment income were
credited in each of such hypothetical individual's
elapsed years (within the meaning of section
215(b)(2)(B)(iii)) in an amount equal to the national
average wage index (as described in section 209(k)(1))
for each such year.''.
(2) Widowers.--Section 202(f) of the Social Security Act
(42 U.S.C. 402(f)) is amended--
(A) in paragraph (1)--
(i) in subparagraph (B), by inserting
``and'' at the end;
(ii) in subparagraph (C)(iii), by striking
``and'' at the end;
(iii) by striking subparagraph (D);
(iv) by redesignating subparagraphs (E) and
(F) as subparagraphs (D) and (E), respectively;
and
(v) in the flush matter following
subparagraph (E)(ii), as so redesignated, by
striking ``or becomes entitled to an old-age
insurance benefit'' and all that follows
through ``such deceased individual,'';
(B) by striking subparagraph (A) in paragraph (2)
and inserting the following:
``(2)(A) Except as provided in subsection (k)(5),
subsection (q), and subparagraph (D) of this paragraph, such
widower's insurance benefit for each month shall be equal to
the greater of--
``(i) subject to paragraph (9), the primary
insurance amount (as determined for purposes of this
subsection after application of subparagraphs (B) and
(C)) of such deceased individual, or
``(ii) subject to paragraphs (9) and (10), in the
case of a fully insured widower or surviving divorced
husband, 75 percent of the sum of any old-age or
disability insurance benefit for which the widower or
the surviving divorced husband is entitled for such
month and the primary insurance amount (as determined
for purposes of this subsection after application of
subparagraphs (B) and (C)) of such deceased
individual.'';
(C) in paragraph (5)--
(i) in subparagraph (A), by striking
``paragraph (1)(F)'' and inserting ``paragraph
(1)(E)''; and
(ii) in subparagraph (B), by striking
``paragraph (1)(F)(i)'' and inserting
``paragraph (1)(E)(i)''; and
(D) by adding at the end the following new
paragraphs:
``(9) For purposes of clauses (i) and (ii) of paragraph
(2)(A), in the case of a surviving divorced husband, the amount
determined under either such clause (and, for purposes of
clause (ii) of paragraph (2)(A), as determined after
application of paragraph (10)) shall be equal to the applicable
percentage (as determined under section 202(c)(2)(B)) of such
amount (as determined before application of this paragraph but
after application of subsection (k)(3)).
``(10) For purposes of paragraph (2)(A)(ii), the amount
determined under such paragraph shall not exceed the primary
insurance amount for such month of a hypothetical individual--
``(A) who became entitled to old-age insurance
benefits upon attaining early retirement age during the
month in which the deceased individual referred to in
paragraph (1) became entitled to old-age or disability
insurance benefits, or died (before becoming entitled
to such benefits), and
``(B) to whom wages and self-employment income were
credited in each of such hypothetical individual's
elapsed years (within the meaning of section
215(b)(2)(B)(iii)) in an amount equal to the national
average wage index (as described in section 209(k)(1))
for each such year.''.
(b) Effective Date.--The amendments made by this section shall
apply with respect to widow's and widower's insurance benefits payable
for months after December 2022.
SEC. 7. HOLDING SSI BENEFICIARIES HARMLESS.
For purposes of determining the income of an individual to
establish eligibility for, and the amount of, benefits payable under
title XVI of the Social Security Act, the amount of any benefit to
which the individual is entitled under title II of such Act shall be
deemed not to exceed the amount of the benefit that would be determined
for such individual under such title as in effect on the day before the
date of the enactment of this Act.
<all> | Strengthening Social Security Act of 2021 | To improve the retirement security of American families by strengthening Social Security. | Strengthening Social Security Act of 2021 | Rep. Sánchez, Linda T. | D | CA |
8 | 8,772 | H.R.1425 | Taxation | This bill repeals the limitation on the amount of distilled spirits excise taxes covered over (paid) to the treasuries of the Virgin Islands and Puerto Rico. | To amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to repeal the limitation on
the cover over of distilled spirits taxes to the Virgin Islands and
Puerto Rico.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. REPEAL OF LIMITATION ON COVER OVER OF DISTILLED SPIRITS
TAXES.
(a) In General.--Section 7652 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986
is amended by striking subsection (f) and by redesignating subsections
(g), (h), and (i) as subsections (f), (g), and (h), respectively.
(b) Conforming Amendment.--Section 7652(f)(1) of such Code, as
redesignated by subsection (a), is amended--
(1) by striking subparagraph (B), and
(2) by striking ``as if--'' and all that follows through
``the use and tax'' and inserting ``as if the use and tax''.
(c) Effective Date.--The amendments made by this section shall
apply to distilled spirits brought into the United States after
December 31, 2020.
<all> | To amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to repeal the limitation on the cover over of distilled spirits taxes to the Virgin Islands and Puerto Rico. | To amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to repeal the limitation on the cover over of distilled spirits taxes to the Virgin Islands and Puerto Rico. | Official Titles - House of Representatives
Official Title as Introduced
To amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to repeal the limitation on the cover over of distilled spirits taxes to the Virgin Islands and Puerto Rico. | Del. Plaskett, Stacey E. | D | VI |
9 | 11,607 | H.R.7419 | Crime and Law Enforcement | Victims of Child Abuse Act Reauthorization Act of 2022
This bill reauthorizes for FY2022-FY2028 and otherwise revises grants for local and regional children's advocacy centers (CACs). CACs coordinate a multidisciplinary response to child abuse. | To reauthorize the Victims of Child Abuse Act of 1990, and for other
purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Victims of Child Abuse Act
Reauthorization Act of 2022''.
SEC. 2. IMPROVING INVESTIGATION AND PROSECUTION OF CHILD ABUSE CASES.
The Victims of Child Abuse Act of 1990 (34 U.S.C. 20301 et seq.) is
amended--
(1) in section 211 (34 U.S.C. 20301)--
(A) in paragraph (1)--
(i) by striking ``3,300,000'' and inserting
``3,400,000''; and
(ii) by striking ``, and drug abuse is
associated with a significant portion of
these'';
(B) by redesignating paragraphs (3) through (8) as
paragraphs (4) through (9), respectively;
(C) by inserting afer paragraph (2) the following:
``(3) a key to a child victim healing from abuse is access
to supportive and healthy families and communities;''; and
(D) in paragraph (9)(B), as so redesignated, by
inserting ``, and operations of centers'' before the
period at the end;
(2) in section 212 (34 U.S.C. 20302)--
(A) in paragraph (5), by inserting ``coordinated
team'' before ``response''; and
(B) in paragraph (8), by inserting ``organizational
capacity'' before ``support'';
(3) in section 213 (34 U.S.C. 20303)--
(A) in subsection (a)--
(i) in the heading, by inserting ``and
Maintenance'' after ``Establishment'';
(ii) in the matter preceding paragraph
(1)--
(I) by striking ``, in coordination
with the Director of the Office of
Victims of Crime,''; and
(II) by inserting ``and maintain''
after ``establish'';
(iii) in paragraph (3)--
(I) by striking ``and victim
advocates'' and inserting ``victim
advocates, multidisciplinary team
leadership, and children's advocacy
center staff''; and
(II) by striking ``and'' at the
end;
(iv) by redesignating paragraph (4) as
paragraph (5);
(v) by inserting after paragraph (3) the
following:
``(4) provide technical assistance, training, coordination,
and organizational capacity support for State chapters; and'';
and
(vi) in paragraph (5), as so redesignated,
by striking ``and oversight to'' and inserting
``organizational capacity support, and
oversight of'';
(B) in subsection (b)--
(i) in paragraph (1)--
(I) in subparagraph (A), by
inserting ``and maintain'' after
``establish''; and
(II) in the matter following
subparagraph (B), by striking ``and
technical assistance to aid communities
in establishing'' and inserting
``training and technical assistance to
aid communities in establishing and
maintaining''; and
(ii) in paragraph (2)--
(I) in subparagraph (A)--
(aa) in clause (ii), by
inserting ``Center'' after
``Advocacy''; and
(bb) in clause (iii), by
striking ``of, assessment of,
and intervention in'' and
inserting ``and intervention in
child''; and
(II) in subparagraph (B), by
striking ``centers and interested
communities'' and inserting ``centers,
interested communities, and chapters'';
and
(C) in subsection (c)--
(i) in paragraph (2)--
(I) in subparagraph (B), by
striking ``evaluation, intervention,
evidence gathering, and counseling''
and inserting ``investigation and
intervention in child abuse''; and
(II) in subparagraph (E), by
striking ``judicial handling of child
abuse and neglect'' and inserting
``multidisciplinary response to child
abuse'';
(ii) in paragraph (3)(A)(i), by striking
``so that communities can establish
multidisciplinary programs that respond to
child abuse'' and inserting ``and chapters so
that communities can establish and maintain
multidisciplinary programs that respond to
child abuse and chapters can establish and
maintain children's advocacy centers in their
State'';
(iii) in paragraph (4)(B)--
(I) in clause (iii), by striking
``and'' at the end;
(II) in by redesignating clause
(iv) as clause (v); and
(III) by inserting after clause
(iii) the following:
``(iv) best result in supporting chapters
in each State; and''; and
(iv) in paragraph (6), by inserting ``under
this Act'' after ``recipients'';
(4) in section 214 (34 U.S.C. 20304)--
(A) by striking subsection (a) and inserting the
following:
``(a) In General.--The Administrator shall make grants to--
``(1) establish and maintain a network of care for child
abuse victims where investigation, prosecutions, and
interventions are continually occurring and coordinating
activities within local children's advocacy centers and
multidisciplinary teams;
``(2) develop, enhance, and coordinate multidisciplinary
child abuse investigations, intervention, and prosecution
activities;
``(3) promote the effective delivery of the evidence-based,
trauma-informed Children's Advocacy Center Model and the
multidisciplinary response to child abuse; and
``(4) develop and disseminate practice standards for care
and best practices in programmatic evaluation, and support
State chapter organizational capacity and local children's
advocacy center organizational capacity and operations in order
to meet such practice standards and best practices.'';
(B) in subsection (b), by striking ``, in
coordination with the Director of the Office of Victims
of Crime,'';
(C) in subsection (c)(2)--
(i) in subparagraph (C), by inserting ``to
the greatest extent practicable, but in no case
later than 72 hours,'' after ``hours''; and
(ii) by striking subparagraphs (D) through
(I) and inserting the following:
``(D) Forensic interviews of child victims by
trained personnel that are used by law enforcement,
health, and child protective service agencies to
interview suspected abuse victims about allegations of
abuse.
``(E) Provision of needed follow up services such
as medical care, mental healthcare, and victims
advocacy services.
``(F) A requirement that, to the extent
practicable, all interviews and meetings with a child
victim occur at the children's advocacy center or an
agency with which there is a linkage agreement
regarding the delivery of multidisciplinary child abuse
investigation, prosecution, and intervention services.
``(G) Coordination of each step of the
investigation process to eliminate duplicative forensic
interviews with a child victim.
``(H) Designation of a director for the children's
advocacy center.
``(I) Designation of a multidisciplinary team
coordinator.
``(J) Assignment of a volunteer or staff advocate
to each child in order to assist the child and, when
appropriate, the child's family, throughout each step
of intervention and judicial proceedings.
``(K) Coordination with State chapters to assist
and provide oversight, and organizational capacity that
supports local children's advocacy centers,
multidisciplinary teams, and communities working to
implement a multidisciplinary response to child abuse
in the provision of evidence-informed initiatives,
including mental health counseling, forensic
interviewing, multidisciplinary team coordination, and
victim advocacy.
``(L) Such other criteria as the Administrator
shall establish by regulation.''; and
(D) by striking subsection (f) and inserting the
following:
``(f) Grants to State Chapters for Assistance to Local Children's
Advocacy Centers.--In awarding grants under this section, the
Administrator shall ensure that a portion of the grants is distributed
to State chapters to enable State chapters to provide oversight,
training, and technical assistance to local centers on evidence-
informed initiatives including mental health, counseling, forensic
interviewing, multidisciplinary team coordination, and victim
advocacy.'';
(5) in section 214A (34 U.S.C. 20305)--
(A) in subsection (a)--
(i) in paragraph (1), by striking
``attorneys and other allied'' and inserting
``prosecutors and other attorneys and allied'';
and
(ii) in paragraph (2)(B), by inserting
``Center'' after ``Advocacy''; and
(B) in subsection (b)(1), by striking subparagraph
(A) and inserting the following:
``(A) a significant connection to prosecutors who
handle child abuse cases in State courts, such as a
membership organization or support service providers;
and''; and
(6) by striking section 214B (34 U.S.C. 20306) and
inserting the following:
``SEC. 214B. AUTHORIZATION OF APPROPRIATIONS.
``There are authorized to be appropriated to carry out sections
213, 214, and 214A, $40,000,000 for each of fiscal years 2022 through
2028.''.
<all> | Victims of Child Abuse Act Reauthorization Act of 2022 | To reauthorize the Victims of Child Abuse Act of 1990, and for other purposes. | Victims of Child Abuse Act Reauthorization Act of 2022 | Rep. Costa, Jim | D | CA |
10 | 1,495 | S.735 | Science, Technology, Communications | This bill directs the National Science Foundation (NSF) to conduct multiple pilot programs within the NSF to expand the number of institutions of higher education (including community colleges), and other eligible entities that the NSF determines appropriate, that are able to successfully compete for NSF grants.
The NSF shall review the results of the pilot programs and develop best practices for implementation across the NSF. | To amend the Scientific and Advanced-Technology Act of 1992 to further
support advanced technological manufacturing, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
<DELETED>SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.</DELETED>
<DELETED> This Act may be cited as the ``Advanced Technological
Manufacturing Act''.</DELETED>
<DELETED>SEC. 2. HARNESSING OUR NATION'S RESEARCH POTENTIAL.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (a) Establishment.--The Director of the National Science
Foundation shall conduct multiple pilot programs within the Foundation
to expand the number of institutions of higher education (including
such institutions that are community colleges), and other eligible
entities that the Director determines appropriate, that are able to
successfully compete for National Science Foundation grants.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (b) Components.--Each pilot program described in
subsection (a) shall include at least 1 of the following
elements:</DELETED>
<DELETED> (1) A mentorship program.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (2) Grant writing technical assistance.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (3) Targeted outreach.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (4) Programmatic support or solutions for
institutions or entities that do not have an experienced grant
management office.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (5) An increase in the number of grant reviewers
from institutions of higher education that have not
traditionally received funds from the National Science
Foundation.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (6) An increase of the term and funding, for a
period of 3 years or less, as appropriate, to a principal
investigator that is a first-time grant awardee, when paired
with regular mentoring on the administrative aspects of grant
management.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (c) Limitation.--As appropriate, each pilot program
described in subsection (a) shall work to reduce administrative
burdens.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (d) Agency-Wide Programs.--Not later than 5 years after
the date of enactment of this Act, the Director of the National Science
Foundation shall--</DELETED>
<DELETED> (1) review the results of the pilot programs
described in subsection (a); and</DELETED>
<DELETED> (2) develop agency-wide best practices from the
pilot programs for implementation across the Foundation, in
order to fulfill the requirement under section 3(e) of the
National Science Foundation Act of 1950 (42 U.S.C.
1862(e)).</DELETED>
<DELETED> (e) Institution of Higher Education.--In this section, the
term ``institution of higher education'' has the meaning given the term
in section 101 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C.
1001).</DELETED>
<DELETED>SEC. 3. ADVANCED SCIENTIFIC AND TECHNICAL
MANUFACTURING.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (a) Findings and Purpose.--Section 2 of the Scientific and
Advanced-Technology Act of 1992 (42 U.S.C. 1862h) is amended--
</DELETED>
<DELETED> (1) in subsection (a)--</DELETED>
<DELETED> (A) in paragraph (3), by striking
``science, mathematics, and technology'' and inserting
``science, technology, engineering, and mathematics or
STEM'';</DELETED>
<DELETED> (B) in paragraph (4), by inserting
``educated and'' before ``trained''; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> (C) in paragraph (5), by striking
``scientific and technical education and training'' and
inserting ``STEM education and training'';
and</DELETED>
<DELETED> (2) in subsection (b)--</DELETED>
<DELETED> (A) in paragraph (2), by striking
``mathematics and science'' and inserting ``STEM
fields''; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> (B) in paragraph (4), by striking
``mathematics and science instruction'' and inserting
``STEM instruction''.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (b) Modernizing References to STEM.--Section 3 of the
Scientific and Advanced-Technology Act of 1992 (42 U.S.C. 1862i) is
amended--</DELETED>
<DELETED> (1) in the section heading, by striking
``scientific and technical education'' and inserting ``stem
education'';</DELETED>
<DELETED> (2) in subsection (a)--</DELETED>
<DELETED> (A) in the subsection heading, by striking
``Scientific and Technical Education'' and inserting
``STEM Education'';</DELETED>
<DELETED> (B) in the matter preceding paragraph
(1)--</DELETED>
<DELETED> (i) by inserting ``and education
to prepare the skilled technical workforce to
meet workforce demands'' before ``, and to
improve'';</DELETED>
<DELETED> (ii) by striking ``core education
courses in science and mathematics'' and
inserting ``core education courses in STEM
fields'';</DELETED>
<DELETED> (iii) by inserting ``veterans and
individuals engaged in'' before ``work in the
home''; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> (iv) by inserting ``and on
building a pathway from secondary schools, to
associate-degree-granting institutions, to
careers that require technical training''
before ``, and shall be designed'';</DELETED>
<DELETED> (C) in paragraph (1)--</DELETED>
<DELETED> (i) by inserting ``and study''
after ``development''; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> (ii) by striking ``core science
and mathematics courses'' and inserting ``core
STEM courses'';</DELETED>
<DELETED> (D) in paragraph (2), by striking
``science, mathematics, and advanced-technology
fields'' and inserting ``STEM and advanced-technology
fields'';</DELETED>
<DELETED> (E) in paragraph (3)(A), by inserting ``to
support the advanced-technology industries that drive
the competitiveness of the United States in the global
economy'' before the semicolon at the end;</DELETED>
<DELETED> (F) in paragraph (4), by striking
``scientific and advanced-technology fields'' and
inserting ``STEM and advanced-technology fields'';
and</DELETED>
<DELETED> (G) in paragraph (5), by striking
``advanced scientific and technical education'' and
inserting ``advanced STEM and advanced-
technology'';</DELETED>
<DELETED> (3) in subsection (b)--</DELETED>
<DELETED> (A) by striking the subsection heading and
inserting the following: ``Centers of Scientific and
Technical Education.--'';</DELETED>
<DELETED> (B) in the matter preceding paragraph (1),
by striking ``not to exceed 10 in number'' and
inserting ``in advanced-technology fields'';</DELETED>
<DELETED> (C) in paragraph (2), by striking
``education in mathematics and science'' and inserting
``STEM education''; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> (D) in the flush matter following
paragraph (2), by striking ``in the geographic region
served by the center'';</DELETED>
<DELETED> (4) in subsection (c)--</DELETED>
<DELETED> (A) in paragraph (1)--</DELETED>
<DELETED> (i) in subparagraph (A)--
</DELETED>
<DELETED> (I) in the matter
preceding clause (i), by striking ``to
encourage'' and all that follows
through ``such means as--'' and
inserting ``to encourage the
development of career and educational
pathways with multiple entry and exit
points leading to credentials and
degrees, and to assist students
pursuing pathways in STEM fields to
transition from associate-degree-
granting colleges to bachelor-degree-
granting institutions, through such
means as--'';</DELETED>
<DELETED> (II) in clause (i), by
striking ``to ensure'' and inserting
``to develop articulation agreements
that ensure''; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> (III) in clause (ii), by
striking ``courses at the bachelor-
degree-granting institution'' and
inserting ``the career and educational
pathways supported by the articulation
agreements'';</DELETED>
<DELETED> (ii) in subparagraph (B)--
</DELETED>
<DELETED> (I) in clause (i), by
inserting ``veterans and individuals
engaged in'' before ``work in the
home'';</DELETED>
<DELETED> (II) in clause (iii)--
</DELETED>
<DELETED> (aa) by striking
``bachelor's-degree-granting
institutions'' and inserting
``institutions or work sites'';
and</DELETED>
<DELETED> (bb) by inserting
``or industry internships''
after ``summer programs'';
and</DELETED>
<DELETED> (III) by striking the
flush text following clause (iv);
and</DELETED>
<DELETED> (iii) by striking subparagraph
(C);</DELETED>
<DELETED> (B) in paragraph (2)--</DELETED>
<DELETED> (i) by striking ``mathematics and
science programs'' and inserting ``STEM
programs'';</DELETED>
<DELETED> (ii) by inserting ``and, as
appropriate, elementary schools,'' after ``with
secondary schools'';</DELETED>
<DELETED> (iii) by striking ``mathematics
and science education'' and inserting ``STEM
education'';</DELETED>
<DELETED> (iv) by striking ``secondary
school students'' and inserting ``students at
these schools'';</DELETED>
<DELETED> (v) by striking ``science and
advanced-technology fields'' and inserting
``STEM and advanced-technology fields'';
and</DELETED>
<DELETED> (vi) by striking ``agreements with
local educational agencies'' and inserting
``articulation agreements or dual credit
courses with local secondary schools, or other
means as the Director determines
appropriate,''; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> (C) in paragraph (3)--</DELETED>
<DELETED> (i) by striking subparagraph
(B);</DELETED>
<DELETED> (ii) by striking ``shall--'' and
all that follows through ``establish a'' and
inserting ``shall establish a'';</DELETED>
<DELETED> (iii) by striking ``the fields of
science, technology, engineering, and
mathematics'' and inserting ``STEM fields'';
and</DELETED>
<DELETED> (iv) by striking ``; and'' and
inserting ``, including jobs at Federal and
academic laboratories.'';</DELETED>
<DELETED> (5) in subsection (d)(2)--</DELETED>
<DELETED> (A) in subparagraph (D), by striking
``and'' after the semicolon;</DELETED>
<DELETED> (B) in subparagraph (E), by striking the
period at the end and inserting ``; and'';
and</DELETED>
<DELETED> (C) by adding at the end the
following:</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(F) as appropriate, applications that
apply the best practices for STEM education and
technical skills education through distance learning or
in a simulated work environment, as determined by
research described in subsection (f).'';</DELETED>
<DELETED> (6) in subsection (g), by striking the second
sentence;</DELETED>
<DELETED> (7) in subsection (h)(1)--</DELETED>
<DELETED> (A) in subparagraph (A), by striking
``2022'' and inserting ``2026'';</DELETED>
<DELETED> (B) in subparagraph (B), by striking
``2022'' and inserting ``2026''; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> (C) in subparagraph (C)--</DELETED>
<DELETED> (i) by striking ``up to
$2,500,000'' and inserting ``not less than
$3,000,000''; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> (ii) by striking ``2022'' and
inserting ``2026''; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> (8) in subsection (j)--</DELETED>
<DELETED> (A) by striking paragraph (1) and
inserting the following:</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) the term `advanced-technology' includes
technological fields such as advanced manufacturing,
agricultural-, biological- and chemical-technologies, energy
and environmental technologies, engineering technologies,
information technologies, micro and nano-technologies,
cybersecurity technologies, geospatial technologies, and new,
emerging technology areas;'';</DELETED>
<DELETED> (B) by striking paragraph (2) and
inserting the following:</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) the term `associate-degree-granting college'
means an institution of higher education (as defined in section
102 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1002)) that
offers a 2-year associate-degree program or 2-year certificate
program;'';</DELETED>
<DELETED> (C) in paragraph (3), by striking ``as
determined under section 101 of the Higher Education
Act of 1965'' and inserting ``as defined in section 102
of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C.
1002)'';</DELETED>
<DELETED> (D) in paragraph (4), by striking
``separate bachelor-degree-granting institutions'' and
inserting ``other entities'';</DELETED>
<DELETED> (E) by striking paragraph (7);</DELETED>
<DELETED> (F) by redesignating paragraphs (8) and
(9) as paragraphs (7) and (8), respectively;</DELETED>
<DELETED> (G) in paragraph (7), as redesignated by
subparagraph (F), by striking ``and'' after the
semicolon;</DELETED>
<DELETED> (H) in paragraph (8), as redesignated by
subparagraph (F)--</DELETED>
<DELETED> (i) by striking ``mathematics,
science, engineering, or technology'' and
inserting ``science, technology, engineering,
or mathematics''; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> (ii) by striking ``computer
science.'' and inserting ``computer science and
cybersecurity; and''; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> (I) by adding at the end the
following:</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(9) the term `skilled technical workforce' means
workers--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(A) in occupations that use significant
levels of science and engineering expertise and
technical knowledge; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(B) whose level of educational
attainment is less than a bachelor degree.''.</DELETED>
SECTION 1. HARNESSING OUR NATION'S RESEARCH POTENTIAL.
(a) Establishment.--The Director of the National Science Foundation
shall conduct multiple pilot programs within the Foundation to expand
the number of institutions of higher education (including such
institutions that are community colleges), and other eligible entities
that the Director determines appropriate, that are able to successfully
compete for National Science Foundation grants.
(b) Components.--Each pilot program described in subsection (a)
shall include at least 1 of the following elements:
(1) A mentorship program.
(2) Grant writing technical assistance.
(3) Targeted outreach, including to a minority-serving
institution (including a historically Black college or
university, a Tribal College or University, or a Hispanic-
serving institution) as described in any of paragraphs (1)
through (7) of section 371(a) of the Higher Education Act of
1965 (20 U.S.C. 1067q(a)).
(4) Programmatic support or solutions for institutions or
entities that do not have an experienced grant management
office.
(5) An increase in the number of grant reviewers from
institutions of higher education that have not traditionally
received funds from the National Science Foundation.
(6) An increase of the term and funding, for a period of 3
years or less, as appropriate, to a principal investigator that
is a first-time grant awardee, when paired with regular
mentoring on the administrative aspects of grant management.
(c) Limitation.--As appropriate, each pilot program described in
subsection (a) shall work to reduce administrative burdens.
(d) Agency-wide Programs.--Not later than 5 years after the date of
enactment of this Act, the Director of the National Science Foundation
shall--
(1) review the results of the pilot programs described in
subsection (a); and
(2) develop agency-wide best practices from the pilot
programs for implementation across the Foundation, in order to
fulfill the requirement under section 3(e) of the National
Science Foundation Act of 1950 (42 U.S.C. 1862(e)).
(e) Institution of Higher Education.--In this section, the term
``institution of higher education'' has the meaning given the term in
section 101 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1001).
SEC. 2. ADVANCED SCIENTIFIC AND TECHNICAL MANUFACTURING.
(a) Findings and Purpose.--Section 2 of the Scientific and
Advanced-Technology Act of 1992 (42 U.S.C. 1862h) is amended--
(1) in subsection (a)--
(A) in paragraph (3), by striking ``science,
mathematics, and technology'' and inserting ``science,
technology, engineering, and mathematics or STEM'';
(B) in paragraph (4), by inserting ``educated and''
before ``trained''; and
(C) in paragraph (5), by striking ``scientific and
technical education and training'' and inserting ``STEM
education and training''; and
(2) in subsection (b)--
(A) in paragraph (2), by striking ``mathematics and
science'' and inserting ``STEM fields''; and
(B) in paragraph (4), by striking ``mathematics and
science instruction'' and inserting ``STEM
instruction''.
(b) Modernizing References to STEM.--Section 3 of the Scientific
and Advanced-Technology Act of 1992 (42 U.S.C. 1862i) is amended--
(1) in the section heading, by striking ``scientific and
technical education'' and inserting ``stem education'';
(2) in subsection (a)--
(A) in the subsection heading, by striking
``Scientific and Technical Education'' and inserting
``STEM Education'';
(B) in the matter preceding paragraph (1)--
(i) by inserting ``and education to prepare
the skilled technical workforce to meet
workforce demands'' before ``, and to
improve'';
(ii) by striking ``core education courses
in science and mathematics'' and inserting
``core education courses in STEM fields'';
(iii) by inserting ``veterans and
individuals engaged in'' before ``work in the
home''; and
(iv) by inserting ``and on building a
pathway from secondary schools, to associate-
degree-granting institutions, to careers that
require technical training'' before ``, and
shall be designed'';
(C) in paragraph (1)--
(i) by inserting ``and study'' after
``development''; and
(ii) by striking ``core science and
mathematics courses'' and inserting ``core STEM
courses'';
(D) in paragraph (2), by striking ``science,
mathematics, and advanced-technology fields'' and
inserting ``STEM and advanced-technology fields'';
(E) in paragraph (3)(A), by inserting ``to support
the advanced-technology industries that drive the
competitiveness of the United States in the global
economy'' before the semicolon at the end;
(F) in paragraph (4), by striking ``scientific and
advanced-technology fields'' and inserting ``STEM and
advanced-technology fields''; and
(G) in paragraph (5), by striking ``advanced
scientific and technical education'' and inserting
``advanced STEM and advanced-technology'';
(3) in subsection (b)--
(A) by striking the subsection heading and
inserting the following: ``Centers of Scientific and
Technical Education.--'';
(B) in the matter preceding paragraph (1), by
striking ``not to exceed 12 in number'' and inserting
``in advanced-technology fields'';
(C) in paragraph (2), by striking ``education in
mathematics and science'' and inserting ``STEM
education''; and
(D) in the flush matter following paragraph (2), by
striking ``in the geographic region served by the
center'';
(4) in subsection (c)--
(A) in paragraph (1)--
(i) in subparagraph (A)--
(I) in the matter preceding clause
(i), by striking ``to encourage'' and
all that follows through ``such means
as--'' and inserting ``to encourage the
development of career and educational
pathways with multiple entry and exit
points leading to credentials and
degrees, and to assist students
pursuing pathways in STEM fields to
transition from associate-degree-
granting colleges to bachelor-degree-
granting institutions, through such
means as--'';
(II) in clause (i), by striking
``to ensure'' and inserting ``to
develop articulation agreements that
ensure''; and
(III) in clause (ii), by striking
``courses at the bachelor-degree-
granting institution'' and inserting
``the career and educational pathways
supported by the articulation
agreements'';
(ii) in subparagraph (B)--
(I) in clause (i), by inserting
``veterans and individuals engaged in''
before ``work in the home'';
(II) in clause (iii)--
(aa) by striking
``bachelor's-degree-granting
institutions'' and inserting
``institutions or work sites'';
and
(bb) by inserting ``or
industry internships'' after
``summer programs''; and
(III) by striking the flush text
following clause (iv); and
(iii) by striking subparagraph (C);
(B) in paragraph (2)--
(i) by striking ``mathematics and science
programs'' and inserting ``STEM programs'';
(ii) by inserting ``and, as appropriate,
elementary schools,'' after ``with secondary
schools'';
(iii) by striking ``mathematics and science
education'' and inserting ``STEM education'';
(iv) by striking ``secondary school
students'' and inserting ``students at these
schools'';
(v) by striking ``science and advanced-
technology fields'' and inserting ``STEM and
advanced-technology fields''; and
(vi) by striking ``agreements with local
educational agencies'' and inserting
``articulation agreements or dual credit
courses with local secondary schools, or other
means as the Director determines
appropriate,''; and
(C) in paragraph (3)--
(i) by striking subparagraph (B);
(ii) by striking ``shall--'' and all that
follows through ``establish a'' and inserting
``shall establish a'';
(iii) by striking ``the fields of science,
technology, engineering, and mathematics'' and
inserting ``STEM fields''; and
(iv) by striking ``; and'' and inserting
``, including jobs at Federal and academic
laboratories.'';
(5) in subsection (d)(2)--
(A) in subparagraph (D), by striking ``and'' after
the semicolon;
(B) in subparagraph (E), by striking the period at
the end and inserting``; and''; and
(C) by adding at the end the following:
``(F) as appropriate, applications that apply the
best practices for STEM education and technical skills
education through distance learning or in a simulated
work environment, as determined by research described
in subsection (f).'';
(6) in subsection (g), by striking the second sentence;
(7) in subsection (h)(1)--
(A) in subparagraph (A), by striking ``2022'' and
inserting ``2026'';
(B) in subparagraph (B), by striking ``2022'' and
inserting ``2026''; and
(C) in subparagraph (C)--
(i) by striking ``up to $2,500,000'' and
inserting ``not less than $3,000,000''; and
(ii) by striking ``2022'' and inserting
``2026''; and
(8) in subsection (j)--
(A) by striking paragraph (1) and inserting the
following:
``(1) the term `advanced-technology' includes technological
fields such as advanced manufacturing, agricultural-,
biological- and chemical-technologies, energy and environmental
technologies, engineering technologies, information
technologies, micro and nano-technologies, cybersecurity
technologies, geospatial technologies, and new, emerging
technology areas;'';
(B) by striking paragraph (2) and inserting the
following:
``(2) the term `associate-degree-granting college' means an
institution of higher education (as defined in section 102 of
the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1002)) that offers
a 2-year associate-degree program or 2-year certificate
program;'';
(C) in paragraph (3), by striking ``as determined
under section 101 of the Higher Education Act of 1965''
and inserting ``as defined in section 102 of the Higher
Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1002)'';
(D) in paragraph (4), by striking ``separate
bachelor-degree-granting institutions'' and inserting
``other entities'';
(E) by striking paragraph (7);
(F) by redesignating paragraphs (8) and (9) as
paragraphs (7) and (8), respectively;
(G) in paragraph (7), as redesignated by
subparagraph (F), by striking ``and'' after the
semicolon;
(H) in paragraph (8), as redesignated by
subparagraph (F)--
(i) by striking ``mathematics, science,
engineering, or technology'' and inserting
``science, technology, engineering, or
mathematics''; and
(ii) by striking ``computer science and
cybersecurity.'' and inserting ``computer
science and cybersecurity; and''; and
(I) by adding at the end the following:
``(9) the term `skilled technical workforce' means
workers--
``(A) in occupations that use significant levels of
science and engineering expertise and technical
knowledge; and
``(B) whose level of educational attainment is less
than a bachelor degree.''.
(c) Authorization of Appropriations.--Section 5 of the Scientific
and Advanced-Technology Act of 1992 (42 U.S.C. 1862j) is amended to
read as follows:
``SEC. 5. AUTHORIZATION OF APPROPRIATIONS.
``There are authorized to be appropriated, from sums otherwise
authorized to be appropriated, to the Director for carrying out this
Act, $150,000,000 for each of fiscal years 2022 through 2027.''.
Calendar No. 198
117th CONGRESS
1st Session
S. 735
_______________________________________________________________________ | Advanced Technological Manufacturing Act | A bill to amend the Scientific and Advanced-Technology Act of 1992 to further support advanced technological manufacturing, and for other purposes. | Advanced Technological Manufacturing Act | Sen. Wicker, Roger F. | R | MS |
11 | 8,713 | H.R.1188 | Finance and Financial Sector | Greater Accountability in Pay Act of 2021
This bill requires specified issuers of securities to disclose compensation information regarding executive officers and employees. | To amend the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 to require issuers to
disclose information on pay raises made to executives and non-executive
employees, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Greater Accountability in Pay Act of
2021''.
SEC. 2. PAY RAISE DISCLOSURES.
Section 13 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78m)
is amended by adding at the end the following:
``(s) Pay Raise Disclosures.--An issuer required to file an annual
report under this section or section 15(d), that is not an emerging
growth company, shall include in such report--
``(1) the percentage increase in the median of the annual
total compensation of all executive officers (as such term is
defined in section 240.3b-7 of title 17, Code of Federal
Regulations) of the issuer over the last completed fiscal year;
``(2) the percentage increase in the median of the annual
total compensation of all employees of the issuer, excluding
executive officers, over the last completed fiscal year;
``(3) the ratio of the percentage described in paragraph
(1) to the percentage described in paragraph (2);
``(4) a comparison of the percentage described in paragraph
(1) to the percentage change over the same period in the
Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers published by the
Bureau of Labor Statistics of the Department of Labor; and
``(5) a comparison of the percentage described in paragraph
(2) to the percentage change over the same period in the
Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers published by the
Bureau of Labor Statistics of the Department of Labor.''.
Union Calendar No. 38
117th CONGRESS
1st Session
H. R. 1188
[Report No. 117-55]
_______________________________________________________________________ | Greater Accountability in Pay Act of 2021 | To amend the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 to require issuers to disclose information on pay raises made to executives and non-executive employees, and for other purposes. | Greater Accountability in Pay Act of 2021
Greater Accountability in Pay Act | Rep. Velazquez, Nydia M. | D | NY |
12 | 12,714 | H.R.8378 | Health | Protect Statutory Termination of Abortions from Taxpayer-funded Excursions Lines Act or the Protect S.T.A.T.E. Lines Act
This bill prohibits, subject to some exceptions, the use of federal funds to pay for an individual's interstate travel for an abortion. The funding prohibition does not apply to abortions performed in cases of rape or incest or when necessary to resolve a pregnancy-related physical condition that endangers the individual's life. | To prohibit the use of Federal funds for travel expenses of any
individual traveling across State lines for purposes of having an
abortion, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Protect Statutory Termination of
Abortions from Taxpayer-funded Excursions Lines Act'' or the ``Protect
S.T.A.T.E. Lines Act''.
SEC. 2. PROHIBITION ON USE OF FEDERAL FUNDS FOR TRAVEL EXPENSES OF
INDIVIDUALS CROSSING STATE LINES FOR AN ABORTION.
(a) In General.--No Federal funds may be obligated or expended for
the travel expenses of any individual traveling across State lines for
purposes of having an abortion. In this subsection, the term ``State''
means any of the 50 States, the District of Columbia, and any territory
or possession of the United States.
(b) Exception.--The limitation in subsection (a) shall not apply to
any travel expenses--
(1) if the pregnancy is the result of an act of rape or
incest; or
(2) in the case where a woman suffers from a physical
disorder, physical injury, or physical illness, including a
life-endangering physical condition caused by or arising from
the pregnancy itself, that would, as certified by a physician,
place the woman in danger of death unless an abortion is
performed.
<all> | Protect S.T.A.T.E. Lines Act | To prohibit the use of Federal funds for travel expenses of any individual traveling across State lines for purposes of having an abortion, and for other purposes. | Protect S.T.A.T.E. Lines Act
Protect Statutory Termination of Abortions from Taxpayer-funded Excursions Lines Act | Rep. Cawthorn, Madison | R | NC |
13 | 13,475 | H.R.2692 | Government Operations and Politics | Ban Corporate PACs Act
This bill prohibits for-profit corporations from establishing or operating a separate segregated political fund (commonly known as a political action committee or PAC). Existing funds must terminate not later than one year after the date of enactment of this bill. | To amend the Federal Election Campaign Act of 1971 to limit the
authority of corporations to establish and operate separate segregated
funds utilized for political purposes, including the establishment or
operation of a political committee, to nonprofit corporations, and for
other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Ban Corporate PACs Act''.
SEC. 2. LIMITING AUTHORITY OF CORPORATIONS TO ESTABLISH OR OPERATE
SEPARATE SEGREGATED FUNDS FOR POLITICAL PURPOSES TO
NONPROFIT CORPORATIONS.
(a) Limitation.--
(1) In general.--Section 316(b)(2)(C) of the Federal
Election Campaign Act of 1971 (52 U.S.C. 30118(b)(2)(C)) is
amended by striking ``a corporation'' and inserting ``a
nonprofit corporation''.
(2) Definition.--Section 316(b) of such Act (52 U.S.C.
30118(b)) is amended by adding at the end the following new
paragraph:
``(8) For purposes of this section, the term `nonprofit
corporation' means a corporation described in section 501(c) of the
Internal Revenue Code of 1986 and exempt from taxation under section
501(a) of such Code, other than a corporation which is ineligible to be
exempt from taxation under section 501(a) of such Code if it
establishes a separate segregated fund under this subsection.''.
(b) Permitting Solicitation of Contributions Only From Executive
and Administrative Personnel.--Section 316(b) of such Act (52 U.S.C.
30118(b)) is amended--
(1) in paragraph (4)(A)(i), by striking ``its stockholders
and their families and'';
(2) in paragraph (4)(B)--
(A) by striking ``a corporation'' the first place
it appears and inserting ``a nonprofit corporation'';
(B) by striking ``any stockholder, executive or
administrative personnel,'' and inserting ``any
executive or administrative personnel''; and
(C) by striking ``stockholders, executive or
administrative personnel,'' and inserting ``executive
or administrative personnel'';
(3) in paragraph (4)(D)--
(A) by striking ``stockholders and'';
(B) by striking ``such stockholders or personnel''
and inserting ``such personnel''; and
(C) by striking ``such stockholders and personnel''
and inserting ``such personnel''; and
(4) in paragraph (5), by striking ``stockholders and''.
(c) Treatment of Government Contractors.--Section 317(b) of such
Act (52 U.S.C. 30119(b)) is amended--
(1) by striking ``any corporation'' and inserting ``any
nonprofit corporation''; and
(2) by striking ``a corporation'' and inserting ``a
nonprofit corporation''.
SEC. 3. EFFECTIVE DATE; TRANSITION FOR EXISTING FUNDS AND COMMITTEES.
(a) Effective Date.--The amendments made by this Act shall take
effect on the date of the enactment of this Act.
(b) Transition for Existing Funds and Committees.--In the case of a
separate segregate fund established and operating under section
316(b)(2)(C) of the Federal Election Campaign Act of 1971 (52 U.S.C.
30118(b)(2)(C)) as of the date of the enactment of this Act which is
not a fund of a nonprofit corporation as defined in section 316(b)(8)
of such Act (as added by section 2(a)(2)), the fund shall terminate and
disburse its entire balance not later than 1 year after the date of the
enactment of this Act.
<all> | Ban Corporate PACs Act | To amend the Federal Election Campaign Act of 1971 to limit the authority of corporations to establish and operate separate segregated funds utilized for political purposes, including the establishment or operation of a political committee, to nonprofit corporations, and for other purposes. | Ban Corporate PACs Act | Rep. Harder, Josh | D | CA |
14 | 9,634 | H.R.3663 | Labor and Employment | Apprenticeships to College Act
This bill requires the Department of Labor to enter into an interagency agreement with the Department of Education to promote and support integration and alignment of programs under the national apprenticeship system with secondary, 2- and 4-year postsecondary, and adult education. | To support the establishment of an apprenticeship college consortium.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Apprenticeships to College Act''.
SEC. 2. APPRENTICESHIP COLLEGE CONSORTIUM.
(a) In General.--Not later than 1 year after the date of enactment
of this Act, in order to cooperate with the Secretary of Education and
promote awareness and adoption of apprenticeship programs, the
Secretary of Labor shall--
(1) enter into an interagency agreement with the Secretary
of Education to promote and support integration and alignment
of programs under the national apprenticeship system with
secondary, postsecondary, and adult education, through the
activities described in this section; and
(2) submit to the Committee on Education and Labor of the
House of Representatives and the Committee on Health,
Education, Labor, and Pensions of Senate, such agreement and
any modifications to such agreement.
(b) Apprenticeship College Consortium.--In order to support the
establishment of a college consortium of postsecondary educational
institutions, related instruction providers, sponsors, qualified
intermediaries, and employers for the purposes of promoting stronger
connections between programs under the national apprenticeship system
and participating 2- and 4-year postsecondary educational institutions,
the interagency agreement under subsection (a) shall include a
description of how the Secretaries will--
(1) support data sharing systems that align education
records and records of programs under the national
apprenticeship system regarding whether program participants
who receive financial aid under title IV of the Higher
Education Act of 1965 enroll in, or complete, postsecondary
coursework while participating in a program under such system;
(2) provide guidance on how to align eligible funding from,
planning processes for, and the requirements of the Carl D.
Perkins Career and Technical Education Act of 2006 (20 U.S.C.
2301 et seq.), the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, and the Higher
Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1001 et seq.) with this Act;
(3) require all participants of the apprenticeship college
consortium to enter into agreements to--
(A) have an articulation agreement with a
participating sponsor of an apprenticeship program,
which may include a 2- or 4-year postsecondary
educational institution;
(B) create or expand the awarding and articulation
of academic credit for related instruction completed
and credentials awarded to program participants as part
of a program under the national apprenticeship system;
and
(C) support the creation or expansion of electronic
transcripts for apprenticeship programs and all
academic content, including related instruction and on-
the-job training;
(4) provide technical assistance on eligible uses of
financial aid, including the Federal work study program under
part C of title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20
U.S.C. 1087-51 et seq.), for related instruction for programs
under the national apprenticeship system;
(5) provide to consortium participants or potential
participants information regarding--
(A) a list of apprenticeship programs in related
occupations offered in the State or available under the
Office of Apprenticeship that may become part of the
consortium;
(B) information on how to develop an apprenticeship
program;
(C) information on Federal, State, and local
financial resources available to assist with the
establishment and implementation of apprenticeship
programs; and
(D) information on related qualified intermediaries
or industry or sector partnerships supporting
apprenticeship programs, as applicable; and
(6) support information regarding the apprenticeship
consortium being made available on a publicly accessible
website, including--
(A) a list of participating members of the
consortium, apprenticeship programs provided,
credentials awarded with each program, and available
apprenticeable occupations; and
(B) models of articulation agreements, prior
learning assessments, and competency-based curriculum
for related instruction for illustrative purposes.
<all> | Apprenticeships to College Act | To support the establishment of an apprenticeship college consortium. | Apprenticeships to College Act | Rep. Harder, Josh | D | CA |
15 | 5,665 | H.R.6866 | Transportation and Public Works | Safer Seas Act
This bill addresses sexual assault and sexual harassment in the U.S. maritime industry.
Among other provisions, the bill | To amend title 46, United States Code, to provide for certain
protections against sexual harassment and sexual assault, and for other
purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Safer Seas Act''.
SEC. 2. DEFINITIONS.
(a) In General.--Section 2101 of title 46, United States Code, is
amended--
(1) by redesignating paragraphs (45) through (54) as
paragraphs (47) through (56), respectively; and
(2) by inserting after paragraph (44) the following:
``(45) `sexual assault' means any form of abuse or contact
as defined in chapter 109A of title 18, or a substantially
similar State, local, or Tribal offense.
``(46) `sexual harassment' means--
``(A) conduct that--
``(i) involves unwelcome sexual advances,
requests for sexual favors, or deliberate or
repeated offensive comments or gestures of a
sexual nature if any--
``(I) submission to such conduct is
made either explicitly or implicitly a
term or condition of employment, pay,
career, benefits, or entitlements of
the individual;
``(II) submission to, or rejection,
of such conduct by an individual is
used as a basis for decisions affecting
that individual's job, pay, career,
benefits, or entitlements;
``(III) such conduct has the
purpose or effect of unreasonably
interfering with an individual's work
performance or creates an intimidating,
hostile, or offensive work environment;
or
``(IV) conduct may have been by an
individual's supervisor, a supervisor
in another area, a co-worker, or
another credentialed mariner; and
``(ii) is so severe or pervasive that a
reasonable person would perceive, and the
victim does perceive, the environment as
hostile or offensive;
``(B) any use or condonation associated with
firsthand or personal knowledge, by any individual in a
supervisory or command position, of any form of sexual
behavior to control, influence, or affect the career,
pay, benefits, entitlements, or employment of a
subordinate; and
``(C) any deliberate or repeated unwelcome verbal
comment or gesture of a sexual nature by any fellow
employee of the complainant.''.
(b) Report.--The Commandant of the Coast Guard shall submit to the
Committee on Transportation and Infrastructure of the House of
Representatives and the Committee on Commerce, Science, and
Transportation of the Senate a report describing any changes the
Commandant may propose to the definitions added by the amendments in
subsection (a).
SEC. 3. CONVICTED SEX OFFENDER AS GROUNDS FOR DENIAL.
(a) In General.--Chapter 75 of title 46, United States Code, is
amended by adding at the end the following:
``Sec. 7511. Convicted sex offender as grounds for denial
``(a) Sexual Abuse.--A license, certificate of registry, or
merchant mariner's document authorized to be issued under this part
shall be denied to an individual who has been convicted of a sexual
offense prohibited under chapter 109A of title 18, except for
subsection (b) of section 2244 of title 18, or a substantially similar
State, local, or Tribal offense.
``(b) Abusive Sexual Contact.--A license, certificate of registry,
or merchant mariner's document authorized to be issued under this part
may be denied to an individual who within 5 years before applying for
the license, certificate, or document, has been convicted of a sexual
offense prohibited under subsection (b) of section 2244 of title 18, or
a substantially similar State, local, or Tribal offense.''.
(b) Clerical Amendment.--The analysis for chapter 75 of title 46,
United States Code, is amended by adding at the end the following:
``7511. Convicted sex offender as grounds for denial.''.
SEC. 4. SEXUAL HARASSMENT OR SEXUAL ASSAULT AS GROUNDS FOR SUSPENSION
OR REVOCATION.
(a) In General.--Chapter 77 of title 46, United States Code, is
amended by inserting after section 7704 the following:
``Sec. 7704a. Sexual harassment or sexual assault as grounds for
suspension or revocation
``(a) Sexual Harassment.--If it is shown at a hearing under this
chapter that a holder of a license, certificate of registry, or
merchant mariner's document issued under this part, within 5 years
before the beginning of the suspension and revocation proceedings, is
the subject of an official finding of sexual harassment, then the
license, certificate of registry, or merchant mariner's document may be
suspended or revoked.
``(b) Sexual Assault.--If it is shown at a hearing under this
chapter that a holder of a license, certificate of registry, or
merchant mariner's document issued under this part, within 10 years
before the beginning of the suspension and revocation proceedings, is
the subject of an official finding of sexual assault, then the license,
certificate of registry, or merchant mariner's document shall be
revoked.
``(c) Official Finding.--
``(1) In general.--In this section, the term `official
finding' means--
``(A) a legal proceeding or agency finding or
decision that determines the individual committed
sexual harassment or sexual assault in violation of any
Federal, State, local, or Tribal law or regulation; or
``(B) a determination after an investigation by the
Coast Guard that, by a preponderance of the evidence,
the individual committed sexual harassment or sexual
assault if the investigation affords appropriate due
process rights to the subject of the investigation.
``(2) Investigation by the coast guard.--An investigation
by the Coast Guard under paragraph (1)(B) shall include, at a
minimum, evaluation of the following materials that, upon
request, shall be provided to the Coast Guard:
``(A) Any inquiry or determination made by the
employer or former employer of the individual as to
whether the individual committed sexual harassment or
sexual assault.
``(B) Any investigative materials, documents,
records, or files in the possession of an employer or
former employer of the individual that are related to
the claim of sexual harassment or sexual assault by the
individual.
``(3) Administrative law judge review.--
``(A) Coast guard investigation.--A determination
under paragraph (1)(B) shall be reviewed and affirmed
by an administrative law judge within the same
proceeding as any suspension or revocation of a
license, certificate of registry, or merchant mariner's
document under subsection (a) or (b).
``(B) Legal proceeding.--A determination under
paragraph (1)(A) that an individual committed sexual
harassment or sexual assault is conclusive in
suspension and revocation proceedings.''.
(b) Clerical Amendment.--The chapter analysis of chapter 77 of
title 46, United States Code, is amended by inserting after the item
relating to section 7704 the following:
``7704a. Sexual harassment or sexual assault as grounds for suspension
or revocation.''.
SEC. 5. ACCOMMODATION; NOTICES.
Section 11101 of title 46, United States Code, is amended--
(1) in subsection (a)(3), by striking ``and'' at the end;
(2) in subsection (a)(4), by striking the period at the end
and inserting ``; and'';
(3) in subsection (a), by adding at the end the following:
``(5) each crew berthing area shall be equipped with
information regarding--
``(A) vessel owner or company policies prohibiting
sexual assault and sexual harassment, retaliation, and
drug and alcohol usage; and
``(B) procedures and resources to report crimes,
including sexual assault and sexual harassment,
including information--
``(i) on the contact information, website
address, and mobile application to the Coast
Guard Investigative Services for reporting of
crimes and the Coast Guard National Command
Center;
``(ii) on vessel owner or company
procedures to report violations of company
policy and access resources;
``(iii) on resources provided by outside
organizations such as sexual assault hotlines
and counseling;
``(iv) on the retention period for
surveillance video recording after an incident
of sexual harassment or sexual assault is
reported; and
``(v) additional items specified in
regulations issued by, and at the discretion
of, the Secretary of the department in which
the Coast Guard is operating.''; and
(4) in subsection (d), by adding at the end the following:
``In each washing space in a visible location there shall be
information regarding procedures and resources to report crimes
upon the vessel, including sexual assault and sexual
harassment, and vessel owner or company policies prohibiting
sexual assault and sexual harassment, retaliation, and drug and
alcohol usage.''.
SEC. 6. PROTECTION AGAINST DISCRIMINATION.
Section 2114(a)(1) of title 46, United States Code, is amended--
(1) by redesignating subparagraphs (B) through (G) as
subsections (C) through (H), respectively; and
(2) by inserting after subparagraph (A) the following:
``(B) the seaman in good faith has reported or is about to
report to the vessel owner, Coast Guard or other appropriate
Federal agency or department sexual harassment or sexual
assault against the seaman or knowledge of sexual harassment or
sexual assault against another seaman;''.
SEC. 7. ALCOHOL PROHIBITION.
(a) Regulations.--
(1) In general.--Not later than 1 year after the date of
enactment of this Act, the Secretary of the department in which
the Coast Guard is operating shall, taking into account the
safety and security of every individual on documented vessels,
issue such regulations as are necessary relating to alcohol
consumption on documented vessels, according to the following
requirements:
(A) The Secretary shall determine safe levels of
alcohol consumption by crewmembers aboard documented
vessels engaged in commercial service.
(B) If the Secretary determines there is no alcohol
policy that can be implemented to ensure a safe
environment for crew and passengers, the Secretary
shall implement a prohibition on possession and
consumption of alcohol by crewmembers while aboard a
vessel, except when possession is associated with the
commercial sale or gift to non-crewmembers aboard the
vessel.
(2) Immunity from civil liability.--Any crewmember who
reports an incident of sexual assault or sexual harassment that
is directly related to a violation of the regulations issued
under paragraph (1) is immune from civil liability for any
related violation of such regulations.
SEC. 8. SURVEILLANCE REQUIREMENTS.
(a) In General.--Part B of subtitle II of title 46, United States
Code, is amended by adding at the end the following:
``CHAPTER 49--OCEANGOING NON-PASSENGER COMMERCIAL VESSELS
``Sec.
``4901. Surveillance requirements.
``Sec. 4901. Surveillance requirements
``(a) In General.--A vessel engaged in commercial service that does
not carry passengers, shall maintain a video surveillance system.
``(b) Applicability.--The requirements in this section shall apply
to--
``(1) documented vessels with overnight accommodations for
at least 10 persons on board--
``(A) is on a voyage of at least 600 miles and
crosses seaward of the Boundary Line; or
``(B) is at least 24 meters (79 feet) in overall
length and required to have a load line under chapter
51;
``(2) documented vessels of at least 500 gross tons as
measured under section 14502, or an alternate tonnage measured
under section 14302 as prescribed by the Secretary under
section 14104 on an international voyage; and
``(3) vessels with overnight accommodations for at least 10
persons on board that are operating for no less than 72 hours
on waters superjacent to the Outer Continental Shelf.
``(c) Placement of Video and Audio Surveillance Equipment.--
``(1) In general.--The owner of a vessel to which this
section applies shall install video and audio surveillance
equipment aboard the vessel not later than 2 years after
enactment of the Safer Seas Act, or during the next scheduled
drydock, whichever is later.
``(2) Locations.--Video and audio surveillance equipment
shall be placed in passageways on to which doors from
staterooms open. Such equipment shall be placed in a manner
ensuring the visibility of every door in each such passageway.
``(d) Notice of Video and Audio Surveillance.--The owner of a
vessel to which this section applies shall provide clear and
conspicuous signs on board the vessel notifying the crew of the
presence of video and audio surveillance equipment.
``(e) Access to Video and Audio Records.--
``(1) In general.--The owner of a vessel to which this
section applies shall provide to any Federal, State, or other
law enforcement official performing official duties in the
course and scope of a criminal or marine safety investigation,
upon request, a copy of all records of video and audio
surveillance that the official believes is relevant to the
investigation.
``(2) Civil actions.--Except as proscribed by law
enforcement authorities or court order, the owner of a vessel
to which this section applies shall, upon written request,
provide to any individual or the individual's legal
representative a copy of all records of video and audio
surveillance--
``(A) in which the individual is a subject of the
video and audio surveillance;
``(B) the request is in conjunction with a legal
proceeding or investigation; and
``(C) that may provide evidence of any sexual
harassment or sexual assault incident in a civil
action.
``(3) Limited access.--The owner of a vessel to which this
section applies shall ensure that access to records of video
and audio surveillance is limited to the purposes described in
this paragraph and not used as part of a labor action against a
crewmember or employment dispute unless used in a criminal or
civil action.
``(f) Retention Requirements.--The owner of a vessel to which this
section applies shall retain all records of audio and video
surveillance for not less than 150 days after the footage is obtained.
Any video and audio surveillance found to be associated with an alleged
incident should be preserved for not less than 4 years from the date of
the alleged incident. The Federal Bureau of Investigation and the Coast
Guard are authorized access to all records of video and audio
surveillance relevant to an investigation into criminal conduct.
``(g) Definition.--In this section, the term `owner' means the
owner, charterer, managing operator, master, or other individual in
charge of a vessel.
``(h) Exemption.--Fishing vessels, fish processing vessels, and
fish tender vessels are exempt from this section.''.
(b) Clerical Amendment.--The table of chapters for subtitle II of
title 46, United States Code, is amended by adding after the item
related to chapter 47 the following:
``49. Oceangoing non-passenger commercial vessels........... 4901''.
SEC. 9. MASTER KEY CONTROL.
(a) In General.--Chapter 31 of title 46, United States Code, is
amended by adding at the end the following:
``Sec. 3106. Master key control system
``(a) In General.--The owner of a vessel subject to inspection
under section 3301 shall--
``(1) ensure that such vessel is equipped with a vessel
master key control system, manual or electronic, which provides
controlled access to all copies of the vessel's master key of
which access shall only be available to the individuals
described in paragraph (2);
``(2) establish a list of all crew, identified by position,
allowed to access and use the master key and maintain such list
upon the vessel, within owner records and included in the
vessel safety management system.
``(3) record in a logbook, located in a centralized
location that is readily accessible to law enforcement
personnel, information on all access and use of the vessel's
master key; and
``(4) make the list under paragraph (2) and the logbook
under paragraph (3) available upon request to any agent of the
Federal Bureau of Investigation, any member of the Coast Guard,
and any law enforcement officer performing official duties in
the course and scope of an investigation.
``(b) Prohibited Use.--Crew not included on the list described in
subsection (a)(2) shall not have access to or use the master key unless
in an emergency and shall immediately notify the master and owner of
the vessel following use of such key.
``(c) Requirements for Logbook.--The logbook described in
subsection (a)(3)--
``(1) may be--
``(A) electronic;
``(B) included in the vessel safety management
system; and
``(2) shall include--
``(A) dates and times of access;
``(B) the room or location accessed; and
``(C) the name and rank of the crewmember who used
the master key.
``(d) Penalty.--Any crewmember who uses the master key without
having been granted access pursuant to subsection (a)(2) shall be
liable to the United States Government for a civil penalty of not more
than $1,000 and may be subject to suspension or revocation under
section 7703.
``(e) Exemption.--This section shall not apply to vessels subject
to section 3507(f).''.
(b) Clerical Amendment.--The analysis for chapter 31 of title 46,
United States Code, is amended by adding at the end the following:
``3106. Master key control system.''.
SEC. 10. SAFETY MANAGEMENT SYSTEMS.
Section 3203 of title 46, United States Code, is amended--
(1) in subsection (a)--
(A) by redesignating paragraphs (5) and (6) as
paragraphs (7) and (8); and
(B) by inserting after paragraph (4) the following:
``(5) with respect to sexual harassment and sexual assault,
procedures for, and annual training requirements for all
shipboard personnel on--
``(A) prevention;
``(B) bystander intervention;
``(C) reporting;
``(D) response; and
``(E) investigation;
``(6) the logbook required under section 3106;'';
(2) by redesignating subsections (b) and (c) as subsections
(c) and (d), respectively; and
(3) by inserting after subsection (a) the following:
``(b) Procedures and Training Requirements.--In prescribing
regulations for the procedures and training requirements described in
subsection (a)(5), such procedures and requirements shall be consistent
with the requirements to report sexual harassment or sexual assault
under section 10104.''.
SEC. 11. REQUIREMENT TO REPORT SEXUAL ASSAULT AND HARASSMENT.
Section 10104 of title 46, United States Code is amended by
striking paragraphs (a) and (b) and inserting the following:
``(a) Mandatory Reporting by Crewmember.--
``(1) In general.--A crewmember of a documented vessel
shall report to the Secretary any complaint or incident of
sexual harassment or sexual assault of which the crewmember has
firsthand or personal knowledge.
``(2) Penalty.--A crewmember with firsthand or personal
knowledge of a sexual assault or sexual harassment incident on
a documented vessel who knowingly fails to report in compliance
with paragraph (a)(1) is liable to the United States Government
for a civil penalty of not more than $5,000.
``(3) Amnesty.--A crewmember who fails to make the required
reporting in paragraph (a)(1) shall not be subject to the
penalty described in paragraph (a)(2) if the complaint is
shared in confidence with the crewmember directly from the
assaulted individual or the crewmember is a victim advocate as
defined in section 12291 of title 34, United States Code.
``(b) Mandatory Reporting by Vessel Owner.--
``(1) In general.--A vessel owner or managing operator of a
documented vessel or the employer of a seafarer on that vessel
shall report to the Secretary any complaint or incident of
harassment, sexual harassment, or sexual assault in violation
of employer policy or law, of which such vessel owner or
managing operator of a vessel engaged in commercial service, or
the employer of the seafarer is made aware. Such reporting
shall include results of any investigation into the incident,
if applicable, and any action taken against the offending
crewmember.
``(2) Penalty.--A vessel owner or managing operator of a
vessel engaged in commercial service, or the employer of a
seafarer on that vessel who knowingly fails to report in
compliance with paragraph (b)(1) is liable to the United States
Government for a civil penalty of not more than $25,000.
``(c) Reporting Procedures.--
``(1) A report required by subsection (a) shall be made as
soon as practicable, but no later than 10 days after the
individual develops firsthand or personal knowledge of the
sexual assault or sexual harassment incident to the Coast Guard
National Command Center by the fastest telecommunication
channel available.
``(2) A report required under subsection (b) shall be made
immediately after the vessel owner, managing operator, or
employer of the seafarer gains knowledge of a sexual assault or
sexual harassment incident by the fastest telecommunication
channel available, and such report shall be made to the Coast
Guard National Command Center--
``(A) the nearest Coast Guard Captain of the Port;
or
``(B) the appropriate officer or agency of the
government of the country in whose waters the incident
occurs.
``(3) A report in subsections (a) and (b) shall include, to
the best of the reporter's knowledge--
``(A) the name, official position or role in
relation to the vessel, and contact information of the
individual making the report;
``(B) the name and official number of the
documented vessel;
``(C) the time and date of the incident;
``(D) the geographic position or location of the
vessel when the incident occurred; and
``(E) a brief description of the alleged sexual
harassment or sexual assault being reported.
``(4) After receipt of the report made under this
subsection, the Coast Guard will collect information related to
the identity of each alleged victim, alleged perpetrator, and
witness through means designed to protect, to the extent
practicable, the personal identifiable information of such
individuals.
``(d) Regulations.--The requirements of this section are effective
as of the date of enactment of Safer Seas Act. The Secretary may issue
additional regulations to implement the requirements of this
section.''.
SEC. 12. CIVIL ACTIONS FOR PERSONAL INJURY OR DEATH OF SEAMEN.
(a) Personal Injury to or Death of Seamen.--Section 30104 of title
46, United States Code, is amended by inserting ``, including an injury
resulting from sexual assault or sexual harassment,'' after ``in the
course of employment''.
(b) Time Limit on Bringing Maritime Action.--Section 30106 of title
46, United States Code, is amended--
(1) in the section heading by striking ``for personal
injury or death'';
(2) by striking ``Except as otherwise'' and inserting the
following:
``(a) In General.--Except as otherwise''; and
(3) by adding at the end the following:
``(b) Extension for Sexual Offense.--A civil action under
subsection (a) arising out of a maritime tort for a claim of sexual
harassment or sexual assault shall be brought not less than 5 years
after the cause of action for a claim of sexual harassment or sexual
assault arose.''.
(c) Clerical Amendment.--The analysis for chapter 301 of title 46,
United States Code, is amended by striking the item related to section
30106 and inserting the following:
``30106. Time limit on bringing maritime action.''.
SEC. 13. EXEMPTION FROM REQUIREMENT TO OBTAIN MARINER LICENSE.
Section 51309 of title 46, United States Code, is amended by adding
at the end the following:
``(d) Exemption From Requirement To Obtain License.--The Secretary
may modify or waive the requirements of section 51306(a)(2) for
students who provide reasonable concerns with obtaining a merchant
mariner license, including fear for safety while at sea after instances
of trauma, medical condition, or inability to obtain required sea time
or endorsement so long as such inability is not due to a lack of
proficiency or violation of Academy policy. The issuance of a
modification or waiver under this subsection shall not delay or impede
graduation from the Academy.''.
SEC. 14. PROTECTION OF CADETS FROM SEXUAL ASSAULT ONBOARD VESSELS.
(a) In General.--Section 51322 of title 46, United States Code, is
amended--
(1) by striking subsection (a) and inserting the following:
``(a) Safety Criteria.--The Maritime Administrator, after
consulting with the United States Coast Guard, shall establish--
``(1) criteria, to which an owner or operator of a vessel
engaged in commercial service shall adhere prior to carrying a
cadet performing their Sea Year service from the United States
Merchant Marine Academy that addresses prevention of, and
response to, sexual harassment, dating violence, domestic
violence, sexual assault, and stalking; and
``(2) a process for collecting pertinent information from
such owners or operators and verifying their compliance with
the criteria.
``(b) Minimum Standards.--At a minimum, the criteria established
under subsection (a) shall require the vessel owners or operators to
have policies that address--
``(1) communication between a cadet and an individual
ashore who is trained in responding to incidents of sexual
harassment, dating violence, domestic violence, sexual assault,
and stalking;
``(2) the safety and security of cadet staterooms while a
cadet is onboard the vessel, including the installation of
functional door locks and policies prohibiting shipboard
personnel from entering cadet staterooms;
``(3) requirements for crew to report complaints or
incidents of sexual assault, sexual harassment, dating
violence, domestic violence, and stalking consistent with the
requirements in section 10104;
``(4) the maintenance of records of reports of sexual
harassment, dating violence, domestic violence, sexual assault,
and stalking onboard a vessel carrying a cadet;
``(5) the maintenance of records of sexual harassment,
dating violence, domestic violence, sexual assault, and
stalking training as required under subsection (f);
``(6) a requirement for the owner or operator provide each
cadet a copy of the policies and procedures related to sexual
harassment, dating violence, domestic violence, sexual assault,
and stalking policies that pertain to the vessel on which they
will be employed; and
``(7) any other issues the Maritime Administrator
determines necessary to ensure the safety of cadets during Sea
Year training.
``(c) Self-Certification by Owners or Operators.--The Maritime
Administrator shall require the owner or operator of any commercial
vessel that is carrying a cadet from the United States Merchant Marine
Academy to annually certify that--
``(1) the vessel owner or operator is in compliance with
the criteria established under subsection (a); and
``(2) the vessel is in compliance with the International
Convention of Safety of Life at Sea, 1974 (32 UST 47) and
sections 8106 and 70103(c).
``(d) Information, Training, and Resources.--The Maritime
Administrator shall ensure that a cadet participating in Sea Year--
``(1) receives training specific to vessel safety,
including sexual harassment, dating violence, domestic
violence, sexual assault, and stalking prevention and response
training, prior to the cadet boarding a vessel for Sea Year
training;
``(2) is equipped with a satellite communication device and
has been trained on its use;
``(3) has access to a helpline to report incidents of
sexual harassment, dating violence, domestic violence, sexual
assault, or stalking that is monitored by trained personnel;
and
``(4) is informed of the legal requirements for vessel
owners and operators to provide for the security of individuals
onboard, including requirements under section 70103(c) and
chapter 81.'';
(2) by redesignating subsections (b) through (d) as
subsections (e) through (g), respectively;
(3) in subsection (e), by striking paragraph (2) and
inserting the following:
``(2) Access to information.--The vessel operator shall
make available to staff conducting a vessel check such
information as the Maritime Administrator determines is
necessary to determine whether the vessel is being operated in
compliance with safety criteria developed pursuant to
subsection (a).
``(3) Removal of students.--If staff of the Academy or
staff of the Maritime Administration determine that a
commercial vessel is not in compliance with the criteria
established under subsection (a), the staff--
``(A) may remove a cadet of the Academy from the
vessel; and
``(B) shall report such determination of non-
compliance to the owner or operator of the vessel.'';
(4) in subsection (f), as so redesignated, by striking ``or
the seafarer union'' and inserting ``and the seafarer union'';
and
(5) by adding at the end the following:
``(h) Noncommercial Vessels.--
``(1) In general.--A public vessel (as defined in section
2101) shall not be subject to the requirements of this section.
``(2) Requirements for participation.--The Maritime
Administrator may establish criteria and requirements that the
operators of public vessels shall meet to participate in the
Sea Year program of the United States Merchant Marine Academy
that addresses prevention of, and response to, sexual
harassment, dating violence, domestic violence, sexual assault,
and stalking.''.
(b) Regulations.--
(1) In general.--The Maritime Administrator may prescribe
rules as necessary to carry out the amendments made by this
section.
(2) Interim rules.--The Maritime Administrator may
prescribe interim rules necessary to carry out the amendments
made by this section. For this purpose, the Maritime
Administrator in prescribing rules under paragraph (1) is
excepted from compliance with the notice and comment
requirements of section 553 of title 5, United States Code. All
rules prescribed under the authority of the amendments made by
this section shall remain in effect until superseded by a final
rule.
(c) Conforming Amendments.--
(1) Sea year compliance.--Section 3514 of the National
Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2017 (46 U.S.C. 51318
note) is repealed.
(2) Access of academy cadets to dod safe or equivalent
helpline.--Section 3515 of the National Defense Authorization
Act for Fiscal Year 2018 (46 U.S.C. 51518 note) is amended by
striking subsection (b) and redesignating subsection (c) as
subsection (b).
<all> | Safer Seas Act | To amend title 46, United States Code, to provide for certain protections against sexual harassment and sexual assault, and for other purposes. | Safer Seas Act | Rep. DeFazio, Peter A. | D | OR |
16 | 7,300 | H.R.6670 | Labor and Employment | Schedules That Work Act This bill provides employees with the right to request changes to their work schedules related to the number of hours they are required to work or be on call, the location of the work, the amount of notification about work schedule assignments, and fluctuations in work hours. Employers must negotiate in good faith with employees who make such requests and comply with certain work schedule notice and split shift pay requirements for retail, food service, cleaning, hospitality, or warehouse employees. | To permit employees to request changes to their work schedules without
fear of retaliation and to ensure that employers consider these
requests, and to require employers to provide more predictable and
stable schedules for employees in certain occupations with evidence of
unpredictable and unstable scheduling practices that negatively affect
employees, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE; FINDINGS.
(a) Short Title.--This Act may be cited as the ``Schedules That
Work Act''.
(b) Findings.--Congress finds the following:
(1) The vast majority of the United States workforce today
is juggling responsibilities at home and at work. Women are
primary breadwinners or co-breadwinners in \2/3\ of families
with children in the United States.
(2) Despite the dual responsibilities of today's workforce,
many workers have little notice of their work schedules and
lack the ability to make changes to the work hours in such
schedules, which undermines their ability to accommodate family
responsibilities.
(3)(A) Mothers working in low-paid jobs are more likely to
be the primary or sole breadwinner for their families than
mothers working in higher-paid jobs. For example, nearly 7 in
10 mothers in the \1/5\ of households in the United States with
the lowest incomes bring home all or most of their families'
income, compared to less than \1/3\ of their counterparts in
the highest-income quintile.
(B) At the same time, low-paid workers often have the least
control over their work hours and face the most unpredictable
schedules. In some industries, ``just-in-time'' scheduling
practices, which base workers' schedules on perceived consumer
demand to minimize labor costs, are particularly common.
Employers using these practices often post work schedules with
little notice, vary work hours widely from week to week, cancel
shifts at the last minute, and schedule employees for ``on
call'' shifts (requiring an employee to call in to work to find
out whether the employee will have to work later that day) or
``clopening'' shifts (requiring an employee to work a closing
shift at night followed by an opening shift a few hours later).
For example, national survey data show that--
(i) about \2/3\ of hourly retail and food service
workers receive their work schedules with less than 2
weeks' advance notice and about \1/3\ receive their
schedule with less than 1 week's notice;
(ii) more than 1 in 5 hourly retail and food
service workers have been scheduled for on-call shifts,
and more than 1 in 3 have worked ``clopening'' shifts;
and
(iii) 65 percent of hourly retail and food service
workers would like a more stable and predictable
schedule.
(4) Unfair work scheduling practices make it difficult for
low-paid workers to--
(A) provide necessary care for children and other
family members, including securing and maintaining
stable child care;
(B) access and receive needed care for the workers'
own serious health conditions;
(C) pursue workforce training;
(D) get or keep a second job, which many workers
need to make ends meet;
(E) plan for and access transportation to reach
worksites; and
(F) qualify for and maintain eligibility for needed
public benefits and work supports, such as child care
subsidies and benefits under the supplemental nutrition
assistance program, due to fluctuations in income and
work hours.
(5) Unstable work schedules pre-date the pandemic and
economic recession caused by COVID-19, but the harm of these
workplace practices is exacerbated as millions of workers risk
their own health and safety at jobs with few protections,
volatile schedules, and inadequate hours, in an effort to
support themselves and their families. Employers have continued
to use ``just-in-time'' scheduling practices throughout the
pandemic, even as workers face additional caregiving challenges
due to school and child care closures and quarantines.
(6) A growing body of research demonstrates that unstable
and unpredictable work schedules have significant detrimental
impacts on sleep quality, mental health, and happiness, and are
associated with unstable child care arrangements and negative
health and behavioral outcomes for children. And impacts are
likely to be the most severe for workers of color and their
families, as workers of color are more likely than their White
counterparts--even compared to White coworkers at the same
company--to experience unstable work schedules. Unstable and
unpredictable work schedules--and the work-family conflict they
produce--are also associated with higher rates of turnover,
which creates further instability for employers and workers.
Some examples of the detrimental impacts of unstable and
unpredictable work schedules are as follows:
(A) Unstable work schedules lead to more household
economic strain and time conflicts and undermine the
well-being of parents, all of which can negatively
impact children's health and behavior.
(B) Workers with the most severe instability in
their work schedules also face the highest risk of
negative behavior and health outcomes for their
children.
(C) The exposure of a parent to on-call shifts and
last-minute shift changes are associated with more
unstable child care arrangements and with the use of
siblings to provide care.
(D) Work schedule instability causes more work-
family conflict, which increases the chance that a
worker will be forced to leave his or her job, which is
associated with downward mobility of the earnings of
the worker.
(E)(i) Relative to White workers, workers of color
are more likely to--
(I) have cancelled shifts;
(II) have on-call shifts;
(III) be involuntary part-time workers;
(IV) have trouble getting time off; and
(V) work ``clopening'' shifts, as described
in paragraph (3)(B).
(ii) The statistics described in clause (i) remain
true after controlling for demographics, human capital,
worker power, firm segregation, and discordance with
the race or ethnicity of the worker and the manager.
Race gaps in job quality are greater for women of
color.
(F) Workers who receive shorter advanced notice,
who work on-call shifts, who experience last-minute
shift cancellation and timing changes, or with more
volatile work hours are more likely to experience
hunger, residential hardships, and more overall
economic hardship.
(7) Unpredictable and unstable work schedules are common in
a wide range of occupations, with evidence of particular
concentration in food service, retail, cleaning, hospitality,
and warehouse occupations. These occupations are critically
important to the United States economy.
(8) Employers that have implemented fair work scheduling
policies that allow workers to have more control over their
work schedules, and provide more predictable and stable
schedules, have experienced significant benefits, including
reductions in absenteeism and workforce turnover, and increased
worker morale and engagement. For example, when Gap Inc.
piloted strategies to make work schedules more stable and
predictable for employees, the Gap Inc. stores that implemented
these strategies experienced higher productivity and a 7
percent increase in sales, compared to those Gap Inc. stores
that did not implement these strategies.
(9) This Act is a first step in responding to the needs of
workers for a voice in the timing of their work hours and for
more predictable schedules.
SEC. 2. DEFINITIONS.
In this Act:
(1) Bona fide business reason.--The term ``bona fide
business reason'' means--
(A) the identifiable burden of additional costs to
an employer, including the cost of productivity loss,
retraining or hiring employees, or transferring
employees from one facility to another facility;
(B) a significant detrimental effect on the
employer's ability to meet organizational needs or
customer demand;
(C) a significant inability of the employer,
despite best efforts, to reorganize work among existing
(as of the date of the reorganization) staff;
(D) a significant detrimental effect on business
performance;
(E) insufficiency of work during the periods an
employee proposes to work;
(F) the need to balance competing scheduling
requests when it is not possible to grant all such
requests without a significant detrimental effect on
the employer's ability to meet organizational needs; or
(G) such other reason as may be specified by the
Secretary of Labor (or, as applicable, the
corresponding administrative officer specified in
section 7(e)).
(2) Career-related educational or training program.--The
term ``career-related educational or training program'' means
an educational or training program or program of study offered
by a public, private, or nonprofit career and technical
education school, institution of higher education, or other
entity that provides academic education, career and technical
education, or training (including remedial education or English
as a second language, as appropriate), that is a program that
leads to a recognized postsecondary credential (as identified
under section 122(d) of the Workforce Innovation and
Opportunity Act (29 U.S.C. 3152(d))), and provides career
awareness information. The term includes a program allowable
under the Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act (29 U.S.C.
3101 et seq.), the Carl D. Perkins Career and Technical
Education Act of 2006 (20 U.S.C. 2301 et seq.), or the Higher
Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1001 et seq.), without regard
to whether or not the program is funded under the corresponding
Act.
(3) Caregiver.--The term ``caregiver'' means an individual
with the status of being a significant provider of--
(A) ongoing care or education, including
responsibility for securing the ongoing care or
education, of a child; or
(B) ongoing care, including responsibility for
securing the ongoing care, of--
(i) a person with a serious health
condition who is in a family relationship with
the individual; or
(ii) a parent of the individual, who is age
65 or older.
(4) Child.--The term ``child'' means a biological, adopted,
or foster child, a stepchild, a legal ward, or a child of a
person standing in loco parentis to that child, who is--
(A) under age 18; or
(B) age 18 or older and incapable of self-care
because of a mental or physical disability.
(5) Commerce terms.--The terms ``commerce'' and ``industry
or activity affecting commerce'' have the meanings given the
terms in section 101 of the Family and Medical Leave Act of
1993 (29 U.S.C. 2611).
(6) Covered employer.--
(A) In general.--The term ``covered employer''--
(i) means any person engaged in commerce or
in any industry or activity affecting commerce
who employs 15 or more employees (described in
paragraph (9)(A));
(ii) includes any person who acts, directly
or indirectly, in the interest of such an
employer to any of the employees (described in
paragraph (9)(A)) of such employer;
(iii) includes any successor in interest of
such an employer; and
(iv) includes an agency described in
subparagraph (A)(iii) of section 101(4) of the
Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993 (29 U.S.C.
2611(4)), to which subparagraph (B) of such
section shall apply.
(B) Rule.--For purposes of determining the number
of employees who work for a person described in
subparagraph (A)(i), all employees (described in
paragraph (9)(A)) performing work for compensation on a
full-time, part-time, or temporary basis shall be
counted, except that if the number of such employees
who perform work for such a person for compensation
fluctuates, the number may be determined for a calendar
year based upon the average number of such employees
who performed work for the person for compensation
during the preceding calendar year.
(C) Person.--In this paragraph, the term ``person''
has the meaning given the term in section 3 of the Fair
Labor Standards Act of 1938 (29 U.S.C. 203).
(7) Domestic partner.--The term ``domestic partner'' means
the individual recognized as being in a relationship with an
employee under any domestic partnership, civil union, or
similar law of the State or political subdivision of a State in
which the employee resides.
(8) Employ.--The term ``employ'' has the meaning given the
term in section 3 of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 (29
U.S.C. 203).
(9) Employee.--The term ``employee'' means an individual
who is--
(A) an employee, as defined in section 3(e) of the
Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 (29 U.S.C. 203(e)),
who is not described in any of subparagraphs (B)
through (G);
(B) a State employee described in section 304(a) of
the Government Employee Rights Act of 1991 (42 U.S.C.
2000e-16c(a));
(C) a covered employee, as defined in section 101
of the Congressional Accountability Act of 1995 (2
U.S.C. 1301), other than an applicant for employment;
(D) a covered employee, as defined in section
411(c) of title 3, United States Code;
(E) a Federal officer or employee covered under
subchapter V of chapter 63 of title 5, United States
Code;
(F) an employee of the Library of Congress; or
(G) an employee of the Government Accountability
Office.
(10) Employer.--The term ``employer'' means a person--
(A) who is--
(i) a covered employer, as defined in
paragraph (6), who is not described in any of
clauses (ii) through (vii);
(ii) an entity employing a State employee
described in section 304(a) of the Government
Employee Rights Act of 1991;
(iii) an employing office, as defined in
section 101 of the Congressional Accountability
Act of 1995;
(iv) an employing office, as defined in
section 411(c) of title 3, United States Code;
(v) an employing agency covered under
subchapter V of chapter 63 of title 5, United
States Code;
(vi) the Librarian of Congress; or
(vii) the Comptroller General of the United
States; and
(B) who is engaged in commerce (including
government), in the production of goods for commerce,
or in an enterprise engaged in commerce (including
government) or in the production of goods for commerce.
(11) Family relationship.--The term ``family relationship''
means a relationship with--
(A) a child, spouse, domestic partner, parent,
grandchild, grandparent, sibling, or parent of a spouse
or domestic partner; or
(B) any individual related to the employee involved
by blood or affinity, whose close association with the
employee is the equivalent of a family relationship
described in subparagraph (A).
(12) Grandchild.--The term ``grandchild'' means the child
of a child.
(13) Grandparent.--The term ``grandparent'' means the
parent of a parent.
(14) Hospitality establishment.--The term ``hospitality
establishment'' means a hotel, motel, inn, or similar transient
lodging establishment.
(15) Minimum number of expected work hours.--The term
``minimum number of expected work hours'' means the minimum
number of hours an employee will be assigned to work on a
weekly or monthly basis.
(16) Nonexempt employee.--The term ``nonexempt employee''
means an employee who is not employed in a bona fide executive,
administrative, or professional capacity, as defined for
purposes of section 13(a)(1) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of
1938 (29 U.S.C. 213(a)(1)).
(17) On-call shift.--The term ``on-call shift'' means any
time during which an employer requires an employee to--
(A) be available to work; and
(B) contact the employer or the designee of the
employer, or wait to be contacted by the employer or
designee, to determine whether the employee is required
to report to work at that time.
(18) Parent.--The term ``parent'' means a biological or
adoptive parent, a stepparent, or a person who stood in a
parental relationship to an employee when the employee was a
child.
(19) Parental relationship.--The term ``parental
relationship'' means a relationship in which a person assumed
the obligations incident to parenthood for a child and
discharged those obligations before the child reached
adulthood.
(20) Retail, food service, cleaning, hospitality, or
warehouse employee.--The term ``retail, food service, cleaning,
hospitality, or warehouse employee'' means a nonexempt employee
who is employed in a hospitality establishment, in a warehouse
establishment, or in any of the following occupations, as
described by the Bureau of Labor Statistics Standard
Occupational Classification System (as in effect on the day
before the date of enactment of this Act):
(A) Retail sales occupations consisting of
occupations described in 41-1010 and 41-2000, and all
subdivisions thereof, of such System, which includes
first-line supervisors of sales workers, cashiers,
gambling change persons and booth cashiers, counter and
rental clerks, parts salespersons, and retail
salespersons.
(B) Food preparation and serving related
occupations as described in 35-0000, and all
subdivisions thereof, of such System, which includes
supervisors of food preparation and serving workers,
cooks and food preparation workers, food and beverage
serving workers, and other food preparation and serving
related workers.
(C) Cleaning occupations as described in 37-2011,
37-2012, and 37-2019 of such System, which includes
janitors and cleaners, maids and housekeeping cleaners,
and building cleaning workers.
(21) Secretary.--The term ``Secretary'' means the Secretary
of Labor.
(22) Secretary's designated employee.--The term
``Secretary's designated employee'' means an employee employed
in an occupation, other than a retail, food service, cleaning,
hospitality, or warehouse occupation, that is designated by the
Secretary under section 9(a)(2) as appropriate for coverage
under section 4.
(23) Serious health condition.--The term ``serious health
condition'' has the meaning given the term in section 101 of
the Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993 (29 U.S.C. 2611).
(24) Sibling.--The term ``sibling'' means a brother or
sister, whether related by half blood, whole blood, or
adoption, or as a stepsibling.
(25) Split shift.--The term ``split shift'' means a
schedule of daily hours in which the hours worked are not
consecutive, except that--
(A) a schedule in which the total time out for
meals does not exceed one hour shall not be treated as
a split shift; and
(B) a schedule in which the break in the employee's
work shift is requested by the employee shall not be
treated as a split shift.
(26) Spouse.--
(A) In general.--The term ``spouse'' means a person
with whom an individual entered into--
(i) a marriage as defined or recognized
under State law in the State in which the
marriage was entered into; or
(ii) in the case of a marriage entered into
outside of any State, a marriage that is
recognized in the place where entered into and
could have been entered into in at least 1
State.
(B) Same-sex or common law marriage.--Such term
includes an individual in a same-sex or common law
marriage that meets the requirements of subparagraph
(A).
(27) State.--The term ``State'' has the meaning given the
term in section 3 of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 (29
U.S.C. 203).
(28) Warehouse establishment.--The term ``warehouse
establishment'' means any business that engages primarily in
the storage of goods, wares, or commodities for hire or
compensation, and, in connection with such storage, may include
the loading, packing, sorting, stacking, wrapping,
distribution, or delivery of those goods, wares, or
commodities.
(29) Work schedule.--The term ``work schedule'' means all
of an employee's work shifts and on-call shifts, including
specific start and end times for each shift, during a
consecutive 7-day period.
(30) Work schedule change.--The term ``work schedule
change'' means any modification to an employee's work schedule,
such as an addition or reduction of hours, cancellation of a
shift, or a change in the date or time of a work shift, by an
employer.
(31) Work shift.--The term ``work shift'' means the
specific hours of the workday during which an employee works.
SEC. 3. RIGHT TO REQUEST AND RECEIVE A FLEXIBLE, PREDICTABLE, OR STABLE
WORK SCHEDULE.
(a) Right To Request.--An employee may apply to the employee's
employer to request a change in the terms and conditions of employment
as they relate to--
(1) the number of hours the employee is required to work or
be on call for work;
(2) the times when the employee is required to work or be
on call for work;
(3) the location where the employee is required to work;
(4) the amount of notification the employee receives of
work schedule assignments; and
(5) minimizing fluctuations in the number of hours the
employee is scheduled to work on a daily, weekly, or monthly
basis.
(b) Employer Obligation To Engage in an Interactive Process.--
(1) In general.--If an employee applies to the employee's
employer to request a change in the terms and conditions of
employment as set forth in subsection (a), the employer shall
engage in a timely, good-faith interactive process with the
employee that includes a discussion of potential schedule
changes that would meet the employee's needs.
(2) Result.--Such process shall result in--
(A) subject to subsections (c) and (d), either
granting or denying the request; and
(B) in the event of a denial--
(i) considering alternatives to the
proposed change that might meet the employee's
needs and granting or denying a request for an
alternative change in the terms and conditions
of employment as set forth in subsection (a);
and
(ii) stating the reason for denial,
including whether any such reason is a bona
fide business reason.
(3) Information.--If information provided by the employee
making a request under this section requires clarification, the
employer shall explain what further information is needed and
give the employee reasonable time to produce the information.
(c) Requests Related to Caregiving, Enrollment in Education or
Training, or a Second Job.--If an employee makes a request for a change
in the terms and conditions of employment as set forth in subsection
(a) because of a serious health condition of the employee, due to the
employee's responsibilities as a caregiver, or due to the employee's
enrollment in a career-related educational or training program, or if
an employee makes a request for such a change for a reason related to a
second job, the employer shall grant the request, unless the employer
has a bona fide business reason for denying the request.
(d) Other Requests.--If an employee makes a request for a change in
the terms and conditions of employment as set forth in subsection (a),
for a reason other than those reasons set forth in subsection (c), the
employer may deny the request for any reason that is not unlawful. If
the employer denies such a request, the employer shall provide the
employee with the reason for the denial, including whether any such
reason is a bona fide business reason.
SEC. 4. REQUIREMENTS FOR ADVANCE NOTICE OF WORK SCHEDULES,
PREDICTABILITY PAY, AND SPLIT SHIFT PAY FOR RETAIL, FOOD
SERVICE, CLEANING, HOSPITALITY, WAREHOUSE, OR SECRETARY'S
DESIGNATED EMPLOYEES.
(a) Advance Notice Requirement.--
(1) Providing notice of work schedules.--
(A) In general.--An employer shall provide a
retail, food service, cleaning, hospitality, or
warehouse employee, or Secretary's designated employee,
with the work schedule of the employee--
(i) not less than 14 days before the first
day of such work schedule; or
(ii) in the case of a new retail, food
service, cleaning, hospitality, or warehouse
employee, or Secretary's designated employee,
on or before the first day of work of such
employee.
(B) Compensation for failure to provide notice of
work schedule.--An employer that violates subparagraph
(A) shall compensate each affected employee in the
amount of $75 per day that a work schedule is not
provided in violation of such subparagraph.
(C) Work schedule change.--An employer may make a
work schedule change for the work schedule of a retail,
food service, cleaning, hospitality, or warehouse
employee, or Secretary's designated employee, provided
in accordance with subparagraph (A) if--
(i) such work schedule change is made not
less than 14 days prior to the first day on
which the change is to take effect; or
(ii) the employer provides predictability
pay for such change in accordance with
subsection (b).
(D) Minimum expected work hours.--
(i) In general.--An employer shall inform a
retail, food service, cleaning, hospitality, or
warehouse employee, or Secretary's designated
employee, of an estimate of the minimum number
of expected work hours the employee will be
assigned to work per month for the following
12-month period--
(I) in the case of a new retail,
food service, cleaning, hospitality, or
warehouse employee, or Secretary's
designated employee, on or before the
first day of work of such employee; or
(II) in the case of a retail, food
service, cleaning, hospitality, or
warehouse employee, or Secretary's
designated employee, who is employed by
the employer on the date of enactment
of this Act, not later than 90 days
after such date.
(ii) Updating minimum expected work
hours.--An employer shall, not less than once
each year, provide each employee an updated
estimate of the minimum number of expected work
hours the employee will be assigned to work per
month for the following 12-month period. Such a
revised estimate shall be provided not later
than the earlier of (as applicable)--
(I) 1 year after the date on which
the estimate was provided under clause
(i) or the most recent update of an
estimate was provided under this
clause; or
(II) the day before the effective
date of a significant change to the
minimum expected work hours of the
employee due to changes in the
availability of the employee or to the
business needs of the employer.
(2) Notifications in writing.--The notifications required
under subparagraphs (A) and (D) of paragraph (1) shall be made
to the employee involved in writing.
(3) Schedule posting requirement.--
(A) In general.--Every employer employing any
retail, food service, cleaning, hospitality, or
warehouse employee, or Secretary's designated employee,
shall post a copy of the work schedule of each such
employee and keep it posted in a conspicuous place in
every establishment where such employee is employed so
as to permit the employee involved to readily observe
the copy. Availability of that schedule by electronic
means accessible to all retail, food service, cleaning,
hospitality, or warehouse employees, or Secretary's
designated employees, of that employer shall be
considered compliance with this subparagraph.
(B) Right to decline.--A retail, food service,
cleaning, hospitality, or warehouse employee, or
Secretary's designated employee, may decline, without
penalty, to work any hours not included in the work
schedule posted under subparagraph (A) as work hours
for the employee.
(C) Consent.--Except as described in subsection
(b)(2), if a retail, food service, cleaning,
hospitality, or warehouse employee, or Secretary's
designated employee, voluntarily consents to work any
hours not posted under subparagraph (A), such consent
must be recorded in writing.
(4) Rule of construction.--Nothing in this subsection shall
be construed to prohibit an employer from--
(A) providing greater advance notice of the work
schedule of a retail, food service, cleaning,
hospitality, or warehouse employee, or Secretary's
designated employee, than is required under this
subsection; or
(B) using any means, in addition to the written
means required under paragraph (2), of notifying a
retail, food service, cleaning, hospitality, or
warehouse employee, or Secretary's designated employee,
of the work schedule of the employee.
(b) Predictability Pay for Work Schedule Changes Made With Less
Than 14 Days' Notice.--
(1) In general.--Except as provided in paragraph (2), for
each work schedule change provided to a retail, food service,
cleaning, hospitality, or warehouse employee, or Secretary's
designated employee, that occurs less than 14 days prior to the
first day on which the change is to take effect, the employer
of the affected employee shall be required to provide the
affected employee with pay (referred to in this subsection as
``predictability pay'') at the following rates:
(A) The employee's regular rate of pay per hour
that the employee works plus one additional hour at
such regular rate per work schedule change if the
employer--
(i) adds any hours to the hours the
employee is scheduled to work under subsection
(a); or
(ii) changes the date, time, or location of
the work shift the employee is scheduled to
work under subsection (a) with no loss of
hours.
(B) Not less than \1/2\ times the employee's
regular rate of pay per hour for any hour that the
employee is scheduled to work under subsection (a) and
does not work due to the employer reducing or canceling
such scheduled hours of work.
(2) Exceptions to predictability pay.--An employer shall
not be required to pay predictability pay under paragraph (1),
or to obtain written consent pursuant to subsection (a)(3)(C),
under any of the following circumstances:
(A) A retail, food service, cleaning, hospitality,
or warehouse employee, or Secretary's designated
employee, requests a shift change in writing, including
through the use of sick leave, vacation leave, or any
other leave policy offered by the employer.
(B) A schedule change is the result of a mutually
agreed upon shift trade or coverage arrangement between
retail, food service, cleaning, hospitality, or
warehouse employees, or Secretary's designated
employees, subject to any policy of the employer
regarding required conditions for employees to exchange
shifts.
(C) The employer's operations cannot begin or
continue due to--
(i) a threat to the property of an employee
or the employer;
(ii) the failure of a public utility or the
shutdown of public transportation;
(iii) a fire, flood, or other natural
disaster;
(iv) a state of emergency declared by the
President of the United States or by the
Governor of the State, or the mayor of the
city, in which the operations are located; or
(v) a severe weather condition that poses a
threat to employee safety.
(c) Split Shift Pay Requirement.--An employer shall pay a retail,
food service, cleaning, hospitality, or warehouse employee, or
Secretary's designated employee, for 1 additional hour at the
employee's regular rate of pay for each day during which the employee
works a split shift.
(d) Pay Stub Transparency.--Any pay provided to an employee
pursuant to subsection (a), (b), or (c) (referred to in this subsection
as ``additional pay'') shall be included in the employee's regular
paycheck. The employer shall identify, in the corresponding written
wage statement or pay stub, the total number of hours of additional pay
provided for the pay period involved and whether the additional pay was
due to the requirements of subsection (a), the requirements of
subsection (b), or the requirements of subsection (c).
SEC. 5. RIGHT TO REST BETWEEN WORK SHIFTS.
(a) In General.--An employee employed by a covered employer may
decline, without penalty, to work any work shift or on-call shift that
is scheduled or otherwise occurs--
(1) less than 11 hours after the end of the work shift or
on-call shift for the previous day; or
(2) during the 11 hours following the end of a work shift
or on-call shift that spanned 2 days.
(b) Consent.--
(1) In general.--A covered employer shall obtain written
consent from an employee in order for the employee to work any
shift described in subsection (a). Such consent may be for each
such shift or for multiple shifts.
(2) Revocation.--An employee may revoke the consent
provided under paragraph (1), in writing, at any time during
the employment.
(c) Compensation.--For each instance that an employee employed by a
covered employer works a shift described in subsection (a), the covered
employer shall compensate the employee at 1.5 times the employee's
scheduled rate of pay for the hours worked that are less than 11 hours
apart from the hours worked during the previous shift.
SEC. 6. PROHIBITED ACTS.
(a) Interference With Rights.--It shall be unlawful for any
employer to interfere with, restrain, or deny the exercise or the
attempt to exercise, any right of--
(1) an employee as set forth in section 3;
(2) a retail, food service, cleaning, hospitality, or
warehouse employee, or Secretary's designated employee, as set
forth in section 4; or
(3) an employee of a covered employer as set forth in
section 5.
(b) Retaliation Prohibited.--It shall be unlawful for any employer
to discharge, threaten to discharge, demote, suspend, reduce work hours
of, or take any other adverse employment action against any employee in
retaliation for exercising the rights of an employee under this Act or
opposing any practice made unlawful by this Act. For purposes of
section 3, such retaliation shall include taking an adverse employment
action against any employee on the basis of that employee's request for
a change in work schedule, or because of an employee's eligibility or
perceived eligibility to request or receive a change in the terms and
conditions of employment, as described in such section, on the basis of
a reason set forth in section 3(c).
(c) Interference With Proceedings or Inquiries.--It shall be
unlawful for any person to discharge or in any other manner
discriminate against any individual because such individual--
(1) has filed any charge, or has instituted or caused to be
instituted any proceeding, under or related to this Act;
(2) has given or is about to give, any information in
connection with any inquiry or proceeding relating to any right
provided under this Act; or
(3) has testified, or is about to testify, in any inquiry
or proceeding relating to any right provided under this Act.
SEC. 7. REMEDIES AND ENFORCEMENT.
(a) Investigative Authority.--
(1) In general.--To ensure compliance with this Act, or any
regulation or order issued under this Act, the Secretary shall
have, subject to paragraph (3), the investigative authority
provided under section 11(a) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of
1938 (29 U.S.C. 211(a)).
(2) Obligation to keep and preserve records.--Each employer
shall make, keep, and preserve records pertaining to compliance
with this Act in accordance with regulations issued by the
Secretary under section 9.
(3) Required submissions generally limited to an annual
basis.--The Secretary shall not require, under the authority of
this subsection, any employer to submit to the Secretary any
books or records more than once during any 12-month period,
unless the Secretary has reasonable cause to believe there may
exist a violation of this Act or any regulation or order issued
pursuant to this Act, or is investigating a charge pursuant to
subsection (c).
(4) Subpoena powers.--For the purposes of any investigation
provided for in this section, the Secretary shall have the
subpoena authority provided for under section 9 of the Fair
Labor Standards Act of 1938 (29 U.S.C. 209).
(b) Civil Action by Employees.--
(1) Liability.--
(A) In general.--Any employer who violates section
6(a)(2) (with respect to a right set forth in
subsection (a), (b), or (c) of section 4), section 5,
or subsection (b) or (c) of section 6 (each such
provision referred to in this section as a ``covered
provision'') shall be liable to any employee affected
for--
(i) damages equal to the amount of--
(I) any wages, salary, employment
benefits (as defined in section 101 of
the Family and Medical Leave Act of
1993 (29 U.S.C. 2611)), or other
compensation denied, lost, or owed to
such employee by reason of the
violation; or
(II) in a case in which wages,
salary, employment benefits (as so
defined), or other compensation have
not been denied, lost, or owed to the
employee, any actual monetary losses
sustained by the employee as a direct
result of the violation;
(ii) interest on the amount described in
clause (i) calculated at the prevailing rate;
(iii) except as described in subparagraph
(B), an additional amount as liquidated damages
equal to the sum of the amount described in
clause (i) and the interest described in clause
(ii); and
(iv) such equitable relief as may be
appropriate, including employment,
reinstatement, and promotion.
(B) Exception for liquidated damages.--If an
employer who has violated a covered provision proves to
the satisfaction of the court that the act or omission
which violated the covered provision was in good faith
and that the employer had reasonable grounds for
believing that the act or omission was not a violation
of a covered provision, such court may, in the
discretion of the court, waive such liquidated damages.
(2) Right of action.--An action to recover the damages,
interest, or equitable relief set forth in paragraph (1) may be
maintained against any employer (including a public agency) in
any Federal or State court of competent jurisdiction by any one
or more employees for and on behalf of--
(A) the employees; or
(B) the employees and any other employees similarly
situated.
(3) Fees and costs.--The court in such an action shall, in
addition to any judgment awarded to the plaintiff, allow a
reasonable attorney's fee, reasonable expert witness fees, and
other costs of the action to be paid by the defendant.
(4) Limitations.--The right provided by paragraph (2) to
bring an action by or on behalf of any employee shall terminate
on the filing of a complaint by the Secretary in an action
under subsection (c)(4) in which a recovery is sought of the
damages, interest, or equitable relief described in paragraph
(1)(A) owing to an employee by an employer liable under
paragraph (1) unless the action described is dismissed without
prejudice on motion of the Secretary.
(c) Actions by the Secretary.--
(1) Administrative action.--The Secretary shall receive,
investigate, and attempt to resolve complaints of violations of
this Act in the same manner that the Secretary receives,
investigates, and attempts to resolve complaints of violations
of sections 6 and 7 of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 (29
U.S.C. 206 and 207), and may issue an order making
determinations, and assessing a civil penalty described in
paragraph (3) (in accordance with paragraph (3)), with respect
to such an alleged violation.
(2) Administrative review.--An affected person who takes
exception to an order issued under paragraph (1) may request
review of and a decision regarding such an order by an
administrative law judge. In reviewing the order, the
administrative law judge may hold an administrative hearing
concerning the order, in accordance with the requirements of
sections 554, 556, and 557 of title 5, United States Code. Such
hearing shall be conducted expeditiously. If no affected person
requests such review within 60 days after the order is issued
under paragraph (1), the order shall be considered to be a
final order that is not subject to judicial review.
(3) Civil penalty.--An employer who willfully and
repeatedly violates--
(A) section 4 or 5 shall be subject to a civil
penalty in an amount to be determined by the Secretary,
but not to exceed $100 per violation; and
(B) subsection (b) or (c) of section 6 shall be
subject to a civil penalty in an amount to be
determined by the Secretary, but not to exceed $1,100
per violation.
(4) Civil action.--The Secretary may bring an action in any
court of competent jurisdiction on behalf of aggrieved
employees to--
(A) restrain violations of this Act;
(B) award such equitable relief as may be
appropriate, including employment, reinstatement, and
promotion; and
(C) in the case of a violation of a covered
provision, recover the damages and interest described
in clauses (i) through (iii) of subsection (b)(1)(A).
(d) Limitation.--
(1) In general.--Except as provided in paragraph (2), an
action may be brought under this section not later than 2 years
after the date of the last event constituting the alleged
violation for which the action is brought.
(2) Willful violation.--In the case of such action brought
for a willful violation of section 6, such action may be
brought within 3 years of the date of the last event
constituting the alleged violation for which such action is
brought.
(3) Commencement.--In determining when an action is
commenced by the Secretary or by an employee under this section
for the purposes of this subsection, it shall be considered to
be commenced on the date when the complaint is filed.
(e) Other Administrative Officers.--
(1) Board.--In the case of employees described in section
2(9)(C), the authority of the Secretary under this Act shall be
exercised by the Board of Directors of the Office of
Congressional Workplace Rights.
(2) President; merit systems protection board.--In the case
of employees described in section 2(9)(D), the authority of the
Secretary under this Act shall be exercised by the President
and the Merit Systems Protection Board.
(3) Office of personnel management.--In the case of
employees described in section 2(9)(E), the authority of the
Secretary under this Act shall be exercised by the Office of
Personnel Management.
(4) Librarian of congress.--In the case of employees of the
Library of Congress, the authority of the Secretary under this
Act shall be exercised by the Librarian of Congress.
(5) Comptroller general.--In the case of employees of the
Government Accountability Office, the authority of the
Secretary under this Act shall be exercised by the Comptroller
General of the United States.
SEC. 8. NOTICE AND POSTING.
(a) In General.--Each employer shall post and keep posted, in
conspicuous places on the premises of the employer where notices to
employees and applicants for employment are customarily posted, a
notice, to be prepared or approved by the Secretary (or, as applicable,
the corresponding administrative officer specified in section 7(e))
setting forth excerpts from, or summaries of, the pertinent provisions
of this Act and information pertaining to the filing of a complaint
under this Act.
(b) Penalty.--Any employer that willfully violates this section may
be assessed a civil money penalty not to exceed $100 for each separate
offense.
SEC. 9. REGULATIONS.
(a) Secretary of Labor.--
(1) In general.--Except as provided in subsections (b)
through (f), not later than 180 days after the date of
enactment of this Act, the Secretary shall issue such
regulations as may be necessary to implement this Act.
(2) Regulations regarding additional occupations to be
covered.--
(A) In general.--In carrying out paragraph (1), the
Secretary shall issue regulations that specify a
process the Secretary will follow, in accordance with
subparagraph (B), to identify and designate occupations
in addition to retail, food service, cleaning,
hospitality, or warehouse occupations that are
appropriate for coverage under section 4. Nonexempt
employees in occupations designated under this
subparagraph shall be Secretary's designated employees.
(B) Criteria.--The regulations under subparagraph
(A) shall provide that the Secretary shall so designate
an additional occupation--
(i) in which not less than 10 percent of
workers employed in the occupation generally--
(I) receive advance notice of their
work schedules less than 14 days before
the first day of the work schedules; or
(II) experience fluctuations in the
number of hours the employees are
scheduled to work on a daily, weekly,
or monthly basis; or
(ii) for which the Secretary determines
such designation is appropriate.
(C) Data review.--In issuing regulations under
subparagraph (A), the Secretary shall specify the
process by which the Department of Labor will review
data from stakeholders, and data collected or generated
by the Department, in designating occupations.
(b) Board.--
(1) In general.--Not later than 180 days after the date of
enactment of this Act, the Board of Directors of the Office of
Congressional Workplace Rights shall issue such regulations as
may be necessary to implement this Act with respect to
employees described in section 2(9)(C). The procedures
applicable to regulations of the Board issued for the
implementation of the Congressional Accountability Act of 1995
(2 U.S.C. 1301 et seq.), prescribed in section 304 of that Act
(2 U.S.C. 1384), shall be the procedures applicable to
regulations issued under this subsection.
(2) Consideration.--In prescribing the regulations, the
Board shall take into consideration the enforcement and
remedies provisions concerning the Office, and applicable to
rights and protections under the Family and Medical Leave Act
of 1993 (29 U.S.C. 2601 et seq.), under the Congressional
Accountability Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1301 et seq.).
(3) Modifications.--The regulations issued under paragraph
(1) to implement this Act shall be the same as substantive
regulations issued by the Secretary to implement this Act,
except to the extent that the Board may determine, for good
cause shown and stated together with the regulations issued by
the Board, that a modification of such substantive regulations
would be more effective for the implementation of the rights
and protections under this Act with respect to the employees
described in section 2(9)(C).
(c) President.--
(1) In general.--Not later than 180 days after the date of
enactment of this Act, the President shall issue such
regulations as may be necessary to implement this Act with
respect to employees described in section 2(9)(D).
(2) Consideration.--In prescribing the regulations, the
President shall take into consideration the enforcement and
remedies provisions concerning the President and the Merit
Systems Protection Board, and applicable to rights and
protections under the Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993,
under chapter 5 of title 3, United States Code.
(3) Modifications.--The regulations issued under paragraph
(1) to implement this Act shall be the same as substantive
regulations issued by the Secretary to implement this Act,
except to the extent that the President may determine, for good
cause shown and stated together with the regulations issued by
the President, that a modification of such substantive
regulations would be more effective for the implementation of
the rights and protections under this Act with respect to the
employees described in section 2(9)(D).
(d) Office of Personnel Management.--
(1) In general.--Not later than 180 days after the date of
enactment of this Act, the Office of Personnel Management shall
issue such regulations as may be necessary to implement this
Act with respect to employees described in section 2(9)(E).
(2) Consideration.--In prescribing the regulations, the
Office shall take into consideration the enforcement and
remedies provisions concerning the Office under subchapter V of
chapter 63 of title 5, United States Code.
(3) Modifications.--The regulations issued under paragraph
(1) to implement this Act shall be the same as substantive
regulations issued by the Secretary to implement this Act,
except to the extent that the Office may determine, for good
cause shown and stated together with the regulations issued by
the Office, that a modification of such substantive regulations
would be more effective for the implementation of the rights
and protections under this Act with respect to the employees
described in section 2(9)(E).
(e) Librarian of Congress.--
(1) In general.--Not later than 180 days after the date of
enactment of this Act, the Librarian of Congress shall issue
such regulations as may be necessary to implement this Act with
respect to employees of the Library of Congress.
(2) Consideration.--In prescribing the regulations, the
Librarian shall take into consideration the enforcement and
remedies provisions concerning the Librarian of Congress under
title I of the Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993 (29 U.S.C.
2611 et seq.).
(3) Modifications.--The regulations issued under paragraph
(1) to implement this Act shall be the same as substantive
regulations issued by the Secretary to implement this Act,
except to the extent that the Librarian may determine, for good
cause shown and stated together with the regulations issued by
the Librarian, that a modification of such substantive
regulations would be more effective for the implementation of
the rights and protections under this Act with respect to
employees of the Library of Congress.
(f) Comptroller General.--
(1) In general.--Not later than 180 days after the date of
enactment of this Act, the Comptroller General shall issue such
regulations as may be necessary to implement this Act with
respect to employees of the Government Accountability Office.
(2) Consideration.--In prescribing the regulations, the
Comptroller General shall take into consideration the
enforcement and remedies provisions concerning the Comptroller
General under title I of the Family and Medical Leave Act of
1993 (29 U.S.C. 2611 et seq.).
(3) Modifications.--The regulations issued under paragraph
(1) to implement this Act shall be the same as substantive
regulations issued by the Secretary to implement this Act,
except to the extent that the Comptroller General may
determine, for good cause shown and stated together with the
regulations issued by the Comptroller General, that a
modification of such substantive regulations would be more
effective for the implementation of the rights and protections
under this Act with respect to employees of the Government
Accountability Office.
SEC. 10. RESEARCH, EDUCATION, AND TECHNICAL ASSISTANCE PROGRAM AND
SURVEYS.
(a) In General.--The Secretary shall provide information and
technical assistance to employers, labor organizations, and the general
public concerning compliance with this Act.
(b) Program.--In order to achieve the objectives of this Act--
(1) the Secretary, acting through the Administrator of the
Wage and Hour Division of the Department of Labor, shall issue
guidance on compliance with this Act regarding providing a
flexible, predictable, or stable work environment through
changes in the terms and conditions of employment as provided
in section 3(a); and
(2) the Secretary shall carry on a continuing program of
research, education, and technical assistance, including--
(A)(i) conducting pilot programs that implement
fairer work schedules, including by promoting cross
training, providing 3 weeks or more advance notice of
schedules, providing employees with a minimum number of
hours of work, and using electronic workforce
management systems to provide more flexible,
predictable, and stable schedules for employees; and
(ii) evaluating the results of such pilot programs
for employees, employee's families, and employers;
(B) publishing and otherwise making available to
employers, labor organizations, professional
associations, educational institutions, the various
communication media, and the general public the
findings of studies regarding fair work scheduling
policies and other materials for promoting compliance
with this Act;
(C) sponsoring and assisting State and community
informational and educational programs; and
(D) providing technical assistance to employers,
labor organizations, professional associations, and
other interested persons on means of achieving and
maintaining compliance with the provisions of this Act.
(c) Current Population Survey.--The Secretary, acting through the
Commissioner of the Bureau of Labor Statistics, and the Director of the
Bureau of the Census shall--
(1) include in the Current Population Survey questions on--
(A) the magnitude of fluctuation in the number of
hours the employee is scheduled to work on a daily,
weekly, or monthly basis;
(B) the extent of advance notice an employee
receives of the employee's work schedule;
(C) the extent to which an employee has input in
the employee's work schedule; and
(D) the number of hours that an employee would
prefer to work, relative to the number of hours the
employee is currently working; and
(2) at regular intervals, update and conduct the Contingent
Worker Supplement, the Work Schedules and Work at Home
Supplement, and other relevant supplements (as determined by
the Secretary), to the Current Population Survey and the
American Time Use Survey.
SEC. 11. RIGHTS RETAINED BY EMPLOYEES.
This Act provides minimum requirements and shall not be construed
to preempt, limit, or otherwise affect the applicability of any other
law, requirement, policy, or standard that provides for greater rights
for employees than are required in this Act.
SEC. 12. EXEMPTION.
This Act shall not apply to any employee covered by a valid
collective bargaining agreement if--
(1) the terms of the collective bargaining agreement
include terms that govern work scheduling practices; and
(2) the provisions of this Act are expressly waived in such
collective bargaining agreement.
SEC. 13. EFFECT ON OTHER LAW.
(a) In General.--Nothing in this Act shall be construed as
superseding, or creating or imposing any requirement in conflict with,
any Federal, State, or local regulation or other law (including the
Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (42 U.S.C. 12101 et seq.), the
Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993 (29 U.S.C. 2601 et seq.), the
National Labor Relations Act (29 U.S.C. 151 et seq.), the Fair Labor
Standards Act of 1938 (29 U.S.C. 201 et seq.), and title VII of the
Civil Rights Act of 1964 (42 U.S.C. 2000e et seq.)).
(b) Relationship to Collective Bargaining Rights.--Nothing in this
Act (including section 12) shall be construed to diminish or impair the
rights of an employee under any valid collective bargaining agreement.
<all> | Schedules That Work Act | To permit employees to request changes to their work schedules without fear of retaliation and to ensure that employers consider these requests, and to require employers to provide more predictable and stable schedules for employees in certain occupations with evidence of unpredictable and unstable scheduling practices that negatively affect employees, and for other purposes. | Schedules That Work Act | Rep. DeLauro, Rosa L. | D | CT |
17 | 271 | S.4420 | Environmental Protection | Carbon Removal and Emissions Storage Technologies Act of 2022 or the CREST Act of 2022
This bill expands the current research and development programs of the Department of Energy (DOE) for capturing and storing carbon dioxide to include methods that harness natural processes, such as the removal of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and its storage in geological, biobased, or ocean reservoirs. In addition, the bill establishes a five-year pilot program under which DOE must purchase from certain facilities carbon dioxide removed from the atmosphere or upper hydrosphere. | To provide for advancements in carbon removal research, quantification,
and commercialization, including by harnessing natural processes, and
for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE; TABLE OF CONTENTS.
(a) Short Title.--This Act may be cited as the ``Carbon Removal and
Emissions Storage Technologies Act of 2022'' or the ``CREST Act of
2022''.
(b) Table of Contents.--The table of contents for this Act is as
follows:
Sec. 1. Short title; table of contents.
Sec. 2. Definitions.
TITLE I--CARBON REMOVAL RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT
Subtitle A--Biomass Carbon Removal
Sec. 101. Biomass carbon removal programs.
Sec. 102. Biological carbon dioxide conversion programs.
Subtitle B--Geological Carbon Removal
Sec. 111. Carbon mineralization pilot projects.
Sec. 112. Carbon mineralization resource assessment.
Sec. 113. Tailings and waste mineralization program.
Subtitle C--Aquatic Carbon Removal
Sec. 121. Ocean carbon removal mission.
Sec. 122. Direct ocean capture assessment.
Sec. 123. Offshore carbon storage program and assessment.
Subtitle D--Atmospheric Carbon Removal
Sec. 131. Direct air capture technology manufacturing research program.
Subtitle E--Carbon Removal Quantification
Sec. 141. Carbon removal quantification.
TITLE II--CARBON REMOVAL PURCHASING PILOT PROGRAM
Sec. 201. Carbon removal purchasing pilot program.
SEC. 2. DEFINITIONS.
In this Act:
(1) Carbon removal.--The term ``carbon removal'' means the
intentional removal, including by harnessing natural processes,
of carbon dioxide directly from the atmosphere or upper
hydrosphere and subsequent storage of the carbon dioxide in
geological, biobased, or ocean reservoirs or in value-added
products that results in a net removal of carbon dioxide from
the atmosphere, as measured on a lifecycle basis.
(2) Carbon removal technology or approach.--The term
``carbon removal technology or approach'' includes--
(A) direct air capture with durable storage;
(B) soil carbon sequestration;
(C) biomass carbon removal and storage;
(D) enhanced mineralization;
(E) ocean-based carbon dioxide removal; and
(F) afforestation or reforestation.
(3) Secretary.--The term ``Secretary'' means the Secretary
of Energy.
TITLE I--CARBON REMOVAL RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT
Subtitle A--Biomass Carbon Removal
SEC. 101. BIOMASS CARBON REMOVAL PROGRAMS.
(a) Office of Science.--Section 306 of the Department of Energy
Research and Innovation Act (42 U.S.C. 18644) is amended by adding at
the end the following:
``(e) Algal Biomass Carbon Removal.--
``(1) In general.--The Director shall carry out a research
and development program to gain understanding of the underlying
biology of algal biomass systems and the possible use of algal
biomass systems as a means of carbon removal (as defined in
section 2 of the Carbon Removal and Emissions Storage
Technologies Act of 2022) from the air and aquatic sources.
``(2) Requirements.--The program carried out under
paragraph (1) shall--
``(A) support efforts to reduce long-term technical
barriers for algal biomass with carbon capture; and
``(B) coordinate closely with the Bioenergy
Technologies Office and the Office of Fossil Energy and
Carbon Management.''.
(b) Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy.--Section 932
of the Energy Policy Act of 2005 (42 U.S.C. 16232) is amended--
(1) in subsection (b)--
(A) in paragraph (5), by striking ``and'' after the
semicolon;
(B) in paragraph (6), by striking the period and
inserting ``; and''; and
(C) by adding at the end the following:
``(7) biological carbon removal (as defined in section 2 of
the Carbon Removal and Emissions Storage Technologies Act of
2022).''; and
(2) by inserting after subsection (e) the following:
``(f) Biological Carbon Removal.--
``(1) Definition of carbon removal.--In this subsection,
the term `carbon removal' has the meaning given the term in
section 2 of the Carbon Removal and Emissions Storage
Technologies Act of 2022.
``(2) Goals.--The goals of the biological carbon removal
program under subsection (b)(7) shall be to develop and deploy,
in partnership with industry and institutions of higher
education--
``(A) improved tools and understanding of
feedstocks, supplies, and logistics with respect to
carbon removal using biomass sources;
``(B) technologies for the optimized conversion of
aquatic and terrestrial biomass for carbon removal;
``(C) cost-competitive carbon capture technologies
applied to bioenergy, including--
``(i) algal, terrestrial, and marine
biomass;
``(ii) biofuels; and
``(iii) bioproducts; and
``(D) applied research on best practices in
macroalgae cultivation and phenotype selection,
including by carrying out aquatic pilot projects.
``(3) Coordination.--Activities conducted under this
subsection shall be coordinated with the relevant programs of
the Office of Science, the Office of Fossil Energy and Carbon
Management, and the Department of Agriculture.''.
(c) Office of Fossil Energy and Carbon Management.--Section 962(b)
of the Energy Policy Act of 2005 (42 U.S.C. 16292(b)) is amended--
(1) in paragraph (1), by striking ``performance of'' and
all that follows through the period at the end and inserting
the following: ``performance of--
``(A) coal and natural gas use;
``(B) biomass with carbon capture for utilization
or permanent storage; and
``(C) manufacturing and industrial facilities.'';
and
(2) in paragraph (3)--
(A) in subparagraph (A)--
(i) in clause (v), by striking ``and''
after the semicolon;
(ii) in clause (vi), by striking the period
at the end and inserting ``; and''; and
(iii) by adding at the end the following:
``(vii) developing advanced boilers to
enable net-negative lifecycle carbon emissions
through co-firing with biomass.''; and
(B) by adding at the end the following:
``(G) Developing carbon capture technologies
applied to bioenergy systems that result in net-
negative lifecycle carbon emissions, including--
``(i) biofuels production;
``(ii) bioproducts;
``(iii) biomass used in power systems and
industrial applications; and
``(iv) fossil fuel power systems and
industrial systems co-fired with biomass.''.
(d) Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy.--
(1) In general.--The Energy Independence and Security Act
of 2007 (42 U.S.C. 17001 et seq.) is amended by striking
section 228 (121 Stat. 1535) and inserting the following:
``SEC. 228. AQUATIC BIOMASS.
``(a) In General.--The Director of the Bioenergy Technologies
Office shall carry out applied research on--
``(1) microalgae and macroalgae cultivation and phenotype
selection; and
``(2) optimization of aquatic biomass conversion pathways.
``(b) Requirements.--The research carried out under subsection (a)
shall support efforts--
``(1) to develop best practices in microalgae and
macroalgae cultivation and phenotype selection, including by
carrying out aquatic pilot projects--
``(A) on microalgae and macroalgae; and
``(B) in freshwater and seawater; and
``(2) to optimize aquatic biomass conversion pathways that
result in carbon removal (as defined in section 2 of the Carbon
Removal and Emissions Storage Technologies Act of 2022) for
biopower, biofuels, and other uses.
``(c) Funding.--There are authorized to be appropriated to the
Secretary to carry out this section--
``(1) $3,000,000 for fiscal year 2023;
``(2) $8,000,000 for fiscal year 2024; and
``(3) $20,000,000 for each of fiscal years 2025 through
2027.''.
(2) Clerical amendment.--The table of contents for the
Energy Independence and Security Act of 2007 (Public Law 110-
140; 121 Stat. 1493) is amended by striking the item relating
to section 228 and inserting the following:
``Sec. 228. Aquatic biomass.''.
SEC. 102. BIOLOGICAL CARBON DIOXIDE CONVERSION PROGRAMS.
(a) In General.--The Energy Policy Act of 2005 is amended by
inserting after section 977 (42 U.S.C. 16317) the following:
``SEC. 977A. BIOLOGICAL CARBON DIOXIDE CONVERSION PROGRAMS.
``(a) Genetic Modeling and Tools; Bioprospecting.--
``(1) In general.--The Director of the Office of Science
shall establish a program to improve genetic modeling and
manipulation for carbon dioxide conversion.
``(2) Methodology.--The program established under paragraph
(1) shall--
``(A) support efforts to improve carbon dioxide
uptake and conversion through genetic manipulation of
crops and trees, including--
``(i) soil enhancements;
``(ii) enhanced photosynthesis, including
microbial soil amendments and perennialization;
and
``(iii) root growth; and
``(B) support efforts to bioprospect using tools
and high-throughput screening methods for organisms
with unique attributes related to carbon dioxide
conversion.
``(3) Coordination.--In carrying out the program
established under paragraph (1), the Director of the Office of
Science shall coordinate with the National Science Foundation
and the Agricultural Research Service.
``(b) New Materials Development and Application.--
``(1) Definition of carbon removal.--In this subsection,
the term `carbon removal' has the meaning given the term in
section 2 of the Carbon Removal and Emissions Storage
Technologies Act of 2022.
``(2) Program.--The Assistant Secretary for Energy
Efficiency and Renewable Energy, in consultation with the
Secretary of Agriculture, shall establish a program to develop
new biologically based carbon dioxide utilization products and
coproducts that result in carbon removal.
``(3) Methodology.--The program established under paragraph
(2) shall--
``(A) support efforts to develop new carbon dioxide
utilization products that result in carbon removal;
``(B) prioritize products that have the potential
to be deployed at a large scale; and
``(C) support efforts to develop valorization of
coproducts for--
``(i) feed;
``(ii) fuel; and
``(iii) other uses.''.
(b) Clerical Amendment.--The table of contents for the Energy
Policy Act of 2005 (Public Law 109-58; 119 Stat. 600) is amended by
inserting after the item relating to section 977 the following:
``Sec. 977A. Biological carbon dioxide conversion programs.''.
Subtitle B--Geological Carbon Removal
SEC. 111. CARBON MINERALIZATION PILOT PROJECTS.
(a) In General.--The Energy Policy Act of 2005 is amended by
inserting after section 963 (42 U.S.C. 16293) the following:
``SEC. 963A. CARBON MINERALIZATION PILOT PROJECTS.
``(a) In General.--The Secretary, in consultation with the
Administrator of the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
and the Director of the United States Geological Survey, shall conduct
field experiments of ex situ and in situ carbon mineralization
approaches for the purposes of advancing carbon removal technologies or
approaches (as defined in section 2 of the Carbon Removal and Emissions
Storage Technologies Act of 2022).
``(b) Activities.--In carrying out subsection (a), the Secretary
shall--
``(1) conduct field experiments of ex situ carbon
mineralization--
``(A) using desalination brine treatment; and
``(B) through the broadcast of reactive minerals
on--
``(i) soils;
``(ii) beaches; and
``(iii) shallow oceans; and
``(2) conduct field experiments of in situ carbon
mineralization, including through drilling and injection in
reactive formations for--
``(A) mantle peridotite;
``(B) basalt; and
``(C) other relevant formations.
``(c) Field Experiment Goals and Objectives.--The Secretary shall
develop goals and objectives for field experiments carried out under
this section to decrease the energy requirements and costs to produce
the resulting mineralized carbon.
``(d) Environmental Impact.--In carrying out field experiments
under this section, the Secretary shall comply with all applicable
environmental laws and regulations.
``(e) Funding.--There are authorized to be appropriated to the
Secretary to carry out this section--
``(1) $4,000,000 for fiscal year 2023;
``(2) $9,000,000 for fiscal year 2024;
``(3) $18,000,000 for fiscal year 2025; and
``(4) $30,000,000 for each of fiscal years 2026 and
2027.''.
(b) Clerical Amendment.--The table of contents for the Energy
Policy Act of 2005 (Public Law 109-58; 119 Stat. 600) is amended by
inserting after the item relating to section 963 the following:
``Sec. 963A. Carbon mineralization pilot projects.''.
SEC. 112. CARBON MINERALIZATION RESOURCE ASSESSMENT.
(a) In General.--The Secretary of the Interior (referred to in this
section as the ``Secretary'') shall complete a national assessment of
the potential for using carbon mineralization for carbon removal, in
accordance with the methodology developed under subsection (b).
(b) Methodology.--Not later than 2 years after the date of
enactment of this Act, the Secretary, acting through the Director of
the United States Geological Survey, shall develop a methodology to
assess geological resources, mine tailings, and other alkaline
industrial wastes to identify sustainable sources of reactive minerals
suitable for carbon mineralization, while taking into consideration
minerals and mineral classes with high reactivity and fast kinetics.
(c) Coordination.--
(1) Federal coordination.--To ensure the maximum usefulness
and success of the assessment under subsection (a), the
Secretary shall--
(A) consult with the Secretary of Energy and the
Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency on
the format and content of the assessment; and
(B) share relevant data with the Department of
Energy and the Environmental Protection Agency.
(2) State coordination.--The Secretary shall consult with
State geological surveys and other relevant entities to ensure,
to the maximum extent practicable, the usefulness and success
of the assessment under subsection (a).
(d) Report.--
(1) In general.--Not later than 180 days after the date on
which the assessment under subsection (a) is completed, the
Secretary shall submit to the Committee on Energy and Natural
Resources of the Senate and the Committee on Natural Resources
of the House of Representatives a report describing the
findings under the assessment, including the locations and
available quantities of suitable reactive minerals.
(2) Public availability.--Not later than 30 days after the
date on which the Secretary submits the report under paragraph
(1), the Secretary shall make the report publicly available.
SEC. 113. TAILINGS AND WASTE MINERALIZATION PROGRAM.
(a) Tailings and Waste Mineralization Program.--
(1) In general.--The Secretary shall conduct field
experiments to examine the use of mine tailings and industrial
wastes for the purpose of carbon mineralization.
(2) Activities.--The field experiments using mine tailings
and industrial wastes conducted under paragraph (1) shall
assess--
(A) the reusing of industrial slags and mine
tailings in manufacturing; and
(B) other industrial wastes that may have carbon
mineralization properties.
(b) Study on Environmental Impacts of Mineralization Products.--
(1) In general.--Not later than 3 years after the date of
enactment of this Act, the Secretary shall conduct, and submit
to Congress a report that describes the results of, a study on
the environmental impacts of--
(A) broadcasting materials and distributing piles
of mine tailings at various scales for the purposes of
enhanced carbon mineralization; and
(B) additional mining for the purposes of carbon
mineralization.
(2) Requirements.--The study under paragraph (1) shall
include an analysis of--
(A) the relative carbon removal potential
associated with various scales of carbon
mineralization;
(B) the cost of environmental mitigation of the
environmental impacts identified under the study; and
(C) opportunities--
(i) for remediation;
(ii) to co-extract reactive minerals with
conventional mining operations; and
(iii) for the use of reactive minerals in
mining remediation.
Subtitle C--Aquatic Carbon Removal
SEC. 121. OCEAN CARBON REMOVAL MISSION.
Section 969D of the Energy Policy Act of 2005 (42 U.S.C. 16298d) is
amended--
(1) in subsection (a) by inserting ``and aquatic sources''
after ``atmosphere''; and
(2) in subsection (c)--
(A) in paragraph (5), by striking ``and'' after the
semicolon;
(B) in paragraph (6), by striking the period at the
end and inserting a semicolon; and
(C) by adding at the end the following:
``(7) ocean carbon removal and strategies, such as--
``(A) blue carbon, which is the management of
vegetated coastal habitats (including mangroves, tidal
marshes, seagrasses, kelp forests, and other tidal,
freshwater, or saltwater wetlands) that sequester
carbon (including autochthonous carbon and
allochthonous carbon) from the atmosphere, accumulate
carbon in biomass, and store the carbon in soils;
``(B) direct ocean capture (as described in section
122(a) of the Carbon Removal and Emissions Storage
Technologies Act of 2022);
``(C) microalgae and macroalgae cultivation for--
``(i) biofuels;
``(ii) bioproducts; and
``(iii) carbon storage; and
``(D) ocean alkalinity enhancement; and
``(8) any combination of activities described in paragraphs
(1) through (7) that have the potential for significant carbon
removal (as defined in section 2 of the Carbon Removal and
Emissions Storage Technologies Act of 2022).''.
SEC. 122. DIRECT OCEAN CAPTURE ASSESSMENT.
(a) In General.--The Secretary shall conduct a comprehensive
assessment of the potential for removing carbon dioxide directly from
the oceans.
(b) Methodology.--In conducting the assessment under subsection
(a), the Secretary shall consider the potential and relative merits
of--
(1) pathways, methods, and technologies that are able to
directly remove carbon dioxide from the oceans through
engineered or inorganic processes; and
(2) technologies such as filters, membranes, phase change
systems, chemical conversion, or other technological pathways.
(c) Inclusion.--In conducting the assessment under subsection (a),
the Secretary shall incorporate any information on the results of
activities conducted under section 223 of the National Defense
Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2020 (10 U.S.C. 4001 note; Public Law
116-92).
(d) Report.--Not later than 1 year after the date of enactment of
this Act, the Secretary, in consultation with the Administrator of the
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, shall submit to the
Committees on Energy and Natural Resources and Commerce, Science, and
Transportation of the Senate and the Committee on Energy and Commerce
of the House of Representatives a report describing the results of the
assessment under subsection (a).
(e) Authorization of Appropriations.--There are authorized to be
appropriated to the Secretary to carry out this section--
(1) $2,000,000 for fiscal year 2023;
(2) $4,000,000 for fiscal year 2024; and
(3) $8,000,000 for each of fiscal years 2025 through 2027.
SEC. 123. OFFSHORE CARBON STORAGE PROGRAM AND ASSESSMENT.
(a) Carbon Dioxide Impacts and Fate in the Ocean.--
(1) In general.--The Department of Energy Carbon Capture
and Sequestration Research, Development, and Demonstration Act
of 2007 (Public Law 110-140; 121 Stat. 1704) is amended by
adding at the end the following:
``SEC. 709. CARBON DIOXIDE IMPACTS AND FATE IN THE OCEAN.
``(a) In General.--The Secretary shall establish a program to
monitor, research, and model the ecological impacts of ocean carbon
dioxide removal and storage techniques.
``(b) Coordination.--In carrying out the program established under
subsection (a), the Secretary shall coordinate with the Administrator
of the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration and the
Administrator of the National Aeronautics and Space Administration.
``(c) Authorization of Appropriations.--There are authorized to be
appropriated to the Secretary to carry out this section--
``(1) $2,000,000 for fiscal year 2023; and
``(2) $5,000,000 for each of fiscal years 2024 through
2027.''.
(2) Clerical amendment.--The table of contents for the
Energy Independence and Security Act of 2007 (Public Law 110-
140; 121 Stat. 1496) is amended by inserting after the item
relating to section 708 the following:
``Sec. 709. Carbon dioxide impacts and fate in the ocean.''.
(b) Outer Continental Shelf Resource Assessment.--
(1) In general.--Not later than 1 year after the date of
enactment of this Act, the Secretary shall--
(A) expand the CarbonSAFE Initiative of the
Department of Energy to complete a national carbon
mineralization assessment that examines the full range
of carbon mineralization storage potential for the
outer Continental Shelf region; and
(B) submit to the Committees on Energy and Natural
Resources and Commerce, Science, and Transportation of
the Senate and the Committee on Energy and Commerce of
the House of Representatives a report describing the
results of the assessment.
(2) Authorization of appropriations.--There is authorized
to be appropriated to the Secretary to carry out this
subsection $5,000,000 for each of fiscal years 2023 through
2027.
(c) Assessment To Determine the Potential for Offshore Carbon
Storage.--
(1) In general.--The Secretary, in consultation with the
Secretary of the Interior, the Administrator of the
Environmental Protection Agency, and the Administrator of the
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, shall conduct
a comprehensive assessment of the potential for offshore carbon
storage, including an assessment of--
(A) the potential for offshore carbon storage--
(i) in deep offshore sub-seabed locations,
such as in geological formations;
(ii) at the seabed, such as through biomass
sinking; and
(iii) within the oceans, such as liquid
carbon dioxide storage; and
(B) other relevant methods of offshore carbon
storage.
(2) Inclusion.--The assessment under paragraph (1) shall
include recommendations of measures that the Department of
Energy may take to improve the ease, safety, and security of
offshore carbon dioxide storage.
(3) Reporting.--Not later than 2 years after the date of
enactment of this Act, the Secretary shall submit to the
Committees on Energy and Natural Resources and Commerce,
Science, and Transportation of the Senate and the Committee on
Energy and Commerce of the House of Representatives a report
describing the results of the assessment under paragraph (1).
Subtitle D--Atmospheric Carbon Removal
SEC. 131. DIRECT AIR CAPTURE TECHNOLOGY MANUFACTURING RESEARCH PROGRAM.
(a) Initiative.--
(1) In general.--The Secretary shall establish a program
for the research, development, and demonstration of
manufacturing techniques for direct air capture technologies
(referred to in this section as the ``program'').
(2) Coordination.--In carrying out the program, the
Secretary shall leverage expertise and resources from--
(A) the Office of Science;
(B) the Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable
Energy; and
(C) the Office of Fossil Energy and Carbon
Management.
(b) Contactor Design.--
(1) In general.--In carrying out the program, the Secretary
shall conduct research on applied technology development of air
contactor design.
(2) Requirements.--The research under paragraph (1) shall
support efforts to improve air contactors with--
(A) low pressure drop;
(B) high surface area; and
(C) high longevity.
(c) Manufacturing Improvement.--
(1) In general.--In carrying out the program, the Secretary
shall conduct research scaling-up manufacturing of direct air
capture components.
(2) Requirements.--The research under paragraph (1) shall--
(A) support efforts to improve techniques for low-
cost manufacturing of direct air capture components and
materials; and
(B) be coordinated with private industry and
universities.
(d) Authorization of Appropriations.--There are authorized to be
appropriated to the Secretary--
(1) to carry out subsection (b)--
(A) $3,000,000 for fiscal year 2023;
(B) $7,000,000 for fiscal year 2024; and
(C) $10,000,000 for each of fiscal years 2025
through 2027; and
(2) to carry out subsection (c)--
(A) $2,000,000 for fiscal year 2023;
(B) $5,000,000 for fiscal year 2024; and
(C) $10,000,000 for each of fiscal years 2025
through 2027.
Subtitle E--Carbon Removal Quantification
SEC. 141. CARBON REMOVAL QUANTIFICATION.
(a) In General.--Title V of the Energy Act of 2020 (42 U.S.C.
16298e et seq.) is amended by adding at the end the following:
``SEC. 5003. QUANTIFYING THE BENEFITS OF CARBON REMOVAL.
``(a) Purposes.--The purposes of this section are--
``(1) to quantify the net carbon removed through
atmospheric and aquatic carbon removal pathways;
``(2) to determine the current and projected carbon removal
capacity of atmospheric and aquatic carbon removal pathways;
``(3) to determine the current and likely future technical
readiness of carbon removal technologies or approaches for
large-scale carbon removal deployment; and
``(4) to aid in the commercialization of carbon removal
technologies or approaches.
``(b) Definitions.--In this section:
``(1) Carbon removal; carbon removal technology or
approach.--The terms `carbon removal' and `carbon removal
technology or approach' have the meanings given the terms in
section 2 of the Carbon Removal and Emissions Storage
Technologies Act of 2022.
``(2) Eligible entity.--The term `eligible entity' means
any of the following entities:
``(A) An institution of higher education.
``(B) A National Laboratory.
``(C) A Federal research agency.
``(D) A State research agency.
``(E) A nonprofit research organization.
``(F) An industrial entity.
``(G) A consortium of 2 or more entities described
in subparagraphs (A) through (F).
``(3) Secretary.--The term `Secretary' means the Secretary
of Energy.
``(c) Carbon Removal Footprint Program.--
``(1) Establishment.--Not later than 1 year after the date
of enactment of this section, the Secretary shall establish a
program to carry out the purposes described in subsection (a),
including by providing financial assistance to eligible
entities to examine the technological, economic, and
environmental impacts of carbon removal pathways and
technologies.
``(2) Eligible activities.--Activities eligible to receive
financial assistance under this section include--
``(A) assessments of technological or economic
barriers to the widescale deployment of carbon removal
pathways and technologies; and
``(B) lifecycle assessments for carbon removal
pathways and technologies, including gathering data in
partnership with a direct air capture test center
authorized under section 969D(f)(1) of the Energy
Policy Act of 2005 (42 U.S.C. 16298d(f)(1)).
``(3) Applications.--An eligible entity seeking financial
assistance under this section shall submit to the Secretary an
application that includes a description of--
``(A) the applicable project;
``(B) the software programs, consultants, and
general methodologies to be used to conduct the
assessment;
``(C) the location of any applicable facility or
project;
``(D) expected feedstocks and other inputs; and
``(E) the expected use of carbon removed.
``(4) Priority.--In selecting eligible entities to receive
financial assistance under this section, the Secretary shall
give priority to eligible entities that--
``(A) make the assessment publicly available, with
confidential business information redacted or removed;
and
``(B) have not previously received financial
assistance under this section.''.
(b) Clerical Amendment.--The table of contents for the Energy Act
of 2020 (Public Law 116-260; 134 Stat. 2419) is amended by inserting
after the item relating to section 5002 the following:
``Sec. 5003. Quantifying the benefits of carbon removal.''.
TITLE II--CARBON REMOVAL PURCHASING PILOT PROGRAM
SEC. 201. CARBON REMOVAL PURCHASING PILOT PROGRAM.
(a) In General.--Subtitle F of title IX of the Energy Policy Act of
2005 (42 U.S.C. 16291 et seq.) is amended by adding at the end the
following:
``SEC. 969E. CARBON REMOVAL PURCHASING PILOT PROGRAM.
``(a) Purposes.--The purposes of this section are--
``(1) to accelerate the deployment and commercialization of
carbon removal pathways and technologies;
``(2) to stimulate the development and commercialization of
low-carbon products made with carbon dioxide removed from the
atmosphere or oceans; and
``(3) to support the development of technologies relating
to carbon removal.
``(b) Definitions.--In this section:
``(1) Additional.--The term `additional', with respect to
carbon dioxide removed from the atmosphere or upper
hydrosphere, means that carbon dioxide was removed pursuant to
an intentional carbon removal activity that delivers a net
removal of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere, measured on a
lifecycle basis, that would not have occurred without the
carbon removal activity.
``(2) All-in cost.--The term `all-in cost' means the total
cost of--
``(A) the capture, transport, and storage of carbon
dioxide; and
``(B) the measurement, reporting, and verification
of carbon dioxide removed on a net ton carbon dioxide
equivalent basis.
``(3) Eligible entity.--The term `eligible entity' means a
carbon removal facility that--
``(A) is located in the United States;
``(B) meets all applicable Federal and State
permitting requirements; and
``(C) meets financial and technical criteria
established by the Secretary.
``(4) Removal.--The term `removal' means--
``(A) the capture of carbon dioxide from the
atmosphere or upper hydrosphere through a chemical,
physical, or other process; and
``(B) the subsequent permanent storage or use of
the carbon dioxide in a manner that ensures that the
carbon dioxide does not reenter the atmosphere or upper
hydrosphere.
``(5) Upper hydrosphere.--The term `upper hydrosphere'
means the total liquid water existing on the surface level of
the earth, including--
``(A) oceans;
``(B) lakes;
``(C) rivers; and
``(D) other surface bodies of water.
``(c) Program.--
``(1) Establishment.--The Secretary shall establish a
competitive purchasing pilot program under which the Secretary
shall purchase from eligible entities carbon dioxide removed
from the atmosphere or upper hydrosphere.
``(2) Purchase.--In carrying out the pilot program under
paragraph (1), the Secretary shall purchase, subject to the
availability of appropriations, removed carbon dioxide from
eligible entities--
``(A) until the date on which the first reverse
auction is held under paragraph (3), by making a
payment per net ton carbon equivalent basis to account
for lifecycle greenhouse gas inputs to carbon removal
in an amount determined by the Secretary; and
``(B) beginning with the first reverse auction held
under paragraph (3), in accordance with the reverse
auction procedures described in that paragraph.
``(3) Reverse auction procedures.--
``(A) In general.--Not later than 2 years after the
date of enactment of this section, and annually
thereafter, the Secretary shall conduct a reverse
auction under which--
``(i) the Secretary shall solicit bids from
eligible entities in each tier described in
subparagraph (B)(ii) (referred to in this
section as a `permanence tier'); and
``(ii) eligible entities shall submit to
the Secretary sealed bids describing--
``(I) a desired price for the
removed carbon dioxide on a per net ton
carbon dioxide equivalent basis;
``(II) the estimated net ton carbon
dioxide equivalent removed by the
eligible entity annually that the
eligible entity desires the Secretary
to purchase at the desired price;
``(III) details of the permanence
of the removed carbon dioxide;
``(IV) details on the purity,
location, and transportation options
for the removed carbon dioxide to be
purchased by the Secretary for purposes
of the all-in costs;
``(V) a lifecycle assessment of the
operation to quantify the net carbon
dioxide removed, while accounting for
greenhouse gas emissions associated
with the production of the inputs
necessary for the carbon dioxide
removal and storage processes; and
``(VI) any other details the
Secretary may require.
``(B) Selection.--
``(i) In general.--The Secretary shall--
``(I) examine the bids submitted
under subparagraph (A)(ii) to determine
which bids are acceptable under the
criteria established by the Secretary
for the applicable permanence tier; and
``(II) of the bids determined to be
acceptable under subclause (I), select
the bids containing the lowest desired
price for carbon dioxide until the
amount of funds available for the
applicable permanence tier of the
reverse auction is obligated.
``(ii) Permanence tiers.--In selecting bids
under clause (i), the Secretary shall group the
permanence of each carbon removal bid into 1 of
the following 2 tiers:
``(I) Medium-term tier for bids
providing for the removal of carbon
dioxide for at least 100 years, but
fewer than 1,000 years.
``(II) Long-term tier for bids
providing for the removal of carbon
dioxide for 1,000 years or more.
``(iii) Priority.--In any case in which the
desired price in 2 or more bids submitted under
subparagraph (A)(ii) for an applicable
permanence tier is equal, the Secretary shall
give priority to eligible entities that
demonstrate outstanding potential for local and
regional economic development in carrying out
projects to remove carbon dioxide from ambient
air or aquatic sources.
``(4) Cost cap.--
``(A) In general.--Subject to subparagraph (B), for
purposes of a reverse auction under paragraph (3), the
Secretary shall--
``(i) determine the current average market
price per net ton carbon dioxide equivalent
basis to account for lifecycle greenhouse gas
inputs of removed carbon within each permanence
tier; and
``(ii) set that price as the maximum price
per ton to be paid under the reverse auction
within each permanence tier.
``(B) Increased cap.--In the case of an eligible
entity that uses a technology that has the potential to
eventually remove carbon dioxide at an all-in cost of
less than $100 per net ton carbon dioxide equivalent,
the Secretary shall double the maximum price per net
ton carbon dioxide equivalent established under
subparagraph (A)(ii) with respect to the eligible
entity.
``(5) Requirement.--In purchasing removed carbon dioxide
under the program under paragraph (1), the Secretary shall
determine that the carbon dioxide--
``(A) is additional;
``(B) shall be delivered not later than 5 years
after the date of the purchase;
``(C) shall have a monitoring, reporting, and
verification plan approved by the Department of Energy;
and
``(D) has not less than a 99 percent likelihood of
being stored for not fewer than 100 years.
``(d) Use of Carbon Dioxide.--Carbon dioxide purchased under the
pilot program under subsection (c), at the discretion of the Secretary,
may be used or stored in any manner that ensures that the carbon
dioxide does not reenter the atmosphere or upper hydrosphere during the
time period associated with the applicable permanence tier.
``(e) Pilot Program Coordination.--Amounts made available under
this section may be made available to carry out pilot and demonstration
projects described in section 969D(f)(2)(B) and section 969D(g).
``(f) Confidentiality.--The Secretary shall establish procedures to
ensure that any confidential, private, proprietary, or privileged
information that is included in a sealed bid submitted under this
section is not publicly disclosed or otherwise improperly used.
``(g) Authorization of Appropriations.--
``(1) In general.--There are authorized to be appropriated
to the Secretary to carry out this section--
``(A) $20,000,000 for fiscal year 2023;
``(B) $30,000,000 for fiscal year 2024; and
``(C) $60,000,000 for each of fiscal years 2025
through 2027.
``(2) Allocation.--Amounts made available under paragraph
(1) for each fiscal year shall be allocated between the
permanence tiers as follows:
``(A) 70 percent shall be allocated for the
permanence tier described in subsection
(c)(3)(B)(ii)(II).
``(B) 30 percent shall be allocated for the
permanence tier described in subsection
(c)(3)(B)(ii)(I).''.
(b) Clerical Amendment.--The table of contents for the Energy
Policy Act of 2005 (Public Law 109-59; 119 Stat. 600; 134 Stat. 2550)
is amended by adding at the end of the items relating to subtitle F of
title IX the following:
``Sec. 969E. Carbon removal purchasing pilot program.''.
<all> | CREST Act of 2022 | A bill to provide for advancements in carbon removal research, quantification, and commercialization, including by harnessing natural processes, and for other purposes. | CREST Act of 2022
Carbon Removal and Emissions Storage Technologies Act of 2022 | Sen. Collins, Susan M. | R | ME |
18 | 2,821 | S.2440 | Public Lands and Natural Resources | This bill directs the Department of Agriculture to convene a blue ribbon panel to review the forest inventory and analysis program (a program that accounts for public and private forests and their resources in the United States).
The panel shall conduct a review of the past progress, current priorities, and future needs of such program with respect to forest carbon, climate change, forest health, and sustainable wood products. | To require the Secretary of Agriculture to convene a blue ribbon panel
to review the forest inventory and analysis program of the Forest
Service, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. FOREST INVENTORY AND ANALYSIS PROGRAM BLUE RIBBON PANEL.
Section 3 of the Forest and Rangeland Renewable Resources Research
Act of 1978 (16 U.S.C. 1642) is amended by adding at the end the
following:
``(f) Forest Inventory and Analysis Program Blue Ribbon Panel.--
``(1) In general.--Not later than 90 days after the date of
enactment of this subsection, the Secretary, in consultation
with the National Association of State Foresters, shall convene
a blue ribbon panel (referred to in this subsection as the
`Panel') to review the forest inventory and analysis program
established under this section.
``(2) Composition.--The Panel shall be composed of not
fewer than 20, and not more than 30, members, including 1 or
more of each of the following:
``(A) State foresters.
``(B) Representatives from the Environmental
Protection Agency.
``(C) Representatives from the Department of the
Interior.
``(D) Academic experts in forest health,
management, and economics.
``(E) Forest industry representatives throughout
the supply chain, including representatives of large
forest landowners and small forest landowners.
``(F) Representatives from environmental groups.
``(G) Representatives from regional greenhouse gas
trading organizations.
``(H) Experts in carbon accounting and carbon
offset markets.
``(3) Duties.--
``(A) Review.--The Panel shall conduct a review of
the past progress, current priorities, and future needs
of the forest inventory and analysis program with
respect to forest carbon, climate change, forest
health, and sustainable wood products.
``(B) Report.--Not later than March 31, 2022, the
Panel shall submit to the Secretary, the Secretary of
the Interior, and Congress a report describing the
review conducted under subparagraph (A).
``(4) Administrative matters.--
``(A) Chairperson and vice chairperson.--The Panel
shall select a Chairperson and Vice Chairperson from
among the nongovernmental members of the Panel.
``(B) Committees.--The Panel may establish 1 or
more committees within the Panel as the Panel
determines to be appropriate.
``(C) Compensation.--A member of the Panel shall
serve without compensation.
``(D) Administrative support.--The Secretary shall
provide such administrative support as is necessary for
the Panel to carry out its duties.
``(E) Federal advisory committee act.--The Panel
shall be exempt from the Federal Advisory Committee Act
(5 U.S.C. App.).''.
<all> | A bill to require the Secretary of Agriculture to convene a blue ribbon panel to review the forest inventory and analysis program of the Forest Service, and for other purposes. | A bill to require the Secretary of Agriculture to convene a blue ribbon panel to review the forest inventory and analysis program of the Forest Service, and for other purposes. | Official Titles - Senate
Official Title as Introduced
A bill to require the Secretary of Agriculture to convene a blue ribbon panel to review the forest inventory and analysis program of the Forest Service, and for other purposes. | Sen. King, Angus S., Jr. | I | ME |
19 | 1,188 | S.4335 | Government Operations and Politics | Register America to Vote Act of 2022
This bill provides for the automatic registration of eligible voters.
Specifically, the bill directs each state that has a voter registration requirement for federal elections to automatically register eligible individuals when they turn 18 years of age.
The bill also provides for the automatic registration of individuals through state motor vehicle authorities. Individuals must be provided with an opportunity to opt out of automatic voter registration.
The Election Assistance Commission must make grants to states to implement these automatic voter registration programs. | To improve voter access to the ballot box through automatic voter
registration, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Register America to Vote Act of
2022''.
SEC. 2. FINDINGS AND PURPOSE.
(a) Findings and Purpose.--
(1) Findings.--Congress finds that--
(A) the right to vote is a fundamental right of
citizens of the United States;
(B) it is the responsibility of Federal and State
governments to ensure that every eligible citizen is
registered to vote;
(C) existing voter registration systems can be
inaccurate, costly, inaccessible, and confusing, with
damaging effects on voter participation in elections
for Federal office and disproportionate impacts on
young people, individuals with disabilities, and racial
and ethnic minorities; and
(D) voter registration systems must be updated with
21st Century technologies and procedures to maintain
their security.
(2) Purpose.--It is the purpose of this Act--
(A) to establish that it is the responsibility of
government to ensure that all eligible citizens are
registered to vote in elections for Federal office;
(B) to enable the State governments to register all
eligible citizens to vote with accurate, cost-
efficient, and up-to-date procedures;
(C) to modernize voter registration and list
maintenance procedures with electronic and internet
capabilities; and
(D) to protect and enhance the integrity, accuracy,
efficiency, and accessibility of the electoral process
for all eligible citizens.
SEC. 3. DEFINITIONS.
In this Act, the following definitions apply:
(1) The term ``chief State election official'' means, with
respect to a State, the individual designated by the State
under section 10 of the National Voter Registration Act of 1993
(52 U.S.C. 20509) to be responsible for coordination of the
responsibilities under that Act.
(2) The term ``State'' means each of the several States,
the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the
United States Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa, and the
Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands.
SEC. 4. AUTOMATIC REGISTRATION OF INDIVIDUALS TURNING 18 YEARS OF AGE.
(a) Requirement.--Except as provided in subsection (b), the chief
State election official of each State shall establish and operate a
system of automatic registration for the registration of any eligible
individual on the date on which the individual turns 18 in order that
the individual may vote in elections for Federal office in the State.
(b) Exception.--The requirement under paragraph (1) shall not apply
to a State in which, under a State law in effect continuously on and
after the date of the enactment of this section, there is no voter
registration requirement for individuals in the State with respect to
elections for Federal office.
SEC. 5. AUTOMATIC REGISTRATION OF ELIGIBLE INDIVIDUALS.
(a) In General.--The National Voter Registration Act of 1993 (52
U.S.C. 20504) is amended by inserting after section 5 the following new
section:
``SEC. 5A. AUTOMATIC REGISTRATION BY STATE MOTOR VEHICLE AUTHORITY.
``(a) Definitions.--In this section--
``(1) Applicable agency.--The term `applicable agency'
means, with respect to a State, the State motor vehicle
authority responsible for motor vehicle driver's licenses under
State law.
``(2) Applicable transaction.--The term `applicable
transaction' means--
``(A) an application to an applicable agency for a
motor vehicle driver's license; and
``(B) any other service or assistance (including
for a change of address) provided by an applicable
agency.
``(3) Automatic registration.--The term `automatic
registration' means a system that registers an individual to
vote and updates existing voter registration in elections for
Federal office in a State, if eligible, by electronically
transferring the information necessary for registration from
the applicable agency to election officials of the State in
order that, unless the individual affirmatively declines to be
registered or to update any voter registration, the individual
will be registered to vote in those elections.
``(4) Eligible individual.--The term `eligible individual'
means, with respect to an election for Federal office, an
individual who is otherwise qualified to vote in that election.
``(5) Register to vote.--The term `register to vote'
includes updating the existing voter registration of an
individual.
``(b) Establishment.--
``(1) In general.--The chief State election official of
each State shall establish and operate a system of automatic
registration for the registration of eligible individuals to
vote for elections for Federal office in the State, in
accordance with the provisions of this section.
``(2) Registration of voters based on new agency records.--
``(A) In general.--The chief State election
official shall--
``(i) subject to subparagraph (B), ensure
that each eligible individual who completes an
applicable transaction and does not decline to
register to vote is registered to vote--
``(I) in the next election for
Federal office (and subsequent
elections for Federal office), if an
applicable agency transmits information
under subsection (c)(1)(E) with respect
to the individual not later than the
applicable date; and
``(II) in subsequent elections for
Federal office, if an applicable agency
transmits information under subsection
(c)(1)(E) with respect to the
individual after the applicable date;
and
``(ii) not later than 60 days after the
receipt of information described in subsection
(c)(1)(E) with respect to an individual, send
written notice to the individual, in addition
to other means of notice established under this
section, of the voter registration status of
the individual.
``(B) Applicable date.--For purposes of this
subsection, the term ``applicable date'' means, with
respect to any election for Federal office, the later
of--
``(i) the date that is 28 days before the
date of the election; or
``(ii) the last day of the period provided
by State law for voter registration with
respect to such election.
``(C) Clarification.--Nothing in this subsection
shall prevent a chief State election official from
registering an eligible individual to vote in the next
election for Federal office in the State, including if
an applicable agency transmits information under
subsection (c)(1)(E) with respect to the individual
after the applicable date.
``(3) Treatment of individuals under 18 years of age.--
``(A) In general.--Except as provided in
subparagraph (B), a State may not refuse to treat an
individual as an eligible individual for purposes of
this section on the grounds that the individual is less
than 18 years of age on the date on which an applicable
agency receives information with respect to the
individual, provided that the individual is not less
than 16 years of age at that time.
``(B) Exception.--Nothing in subparagraph (A) may
be construed to require a State to permit an individual
who is less than 18 years of age on the date of an
election for Federal office to vote in the election.
``(c) Applicable Agency Responsibilities.--
``(1) Instructions on automatic registration for agencies
collecting citizenship information.--
``(A) In general.--Except as otherwise provided in
this section, in the case of any applicable transaction
for which an applicable agency (in the normal course of
the operations) requests (either directly or as part of
the overall application submitted for the applicable
transaction) that an individual affirm that the
individual is a United States citizen, the applicable
agency shall inform each such individual who is a
citizen of the United States of the following:
``(i) Unless the individual declines to
register to vote, or is found ineligible to
vote--
``(I) the individual will be
registered to vote; or
``(II) if applicable, the voter
registration of the individual will be
updated.
``(ii) With respect to the qualification to
register to vote--
``(I) the substantive
qualifications of an elector in the
State as listed in the mail voter
registration application form for
elections for Federal office prescribed
pursuant to section 9;
``(II) the consequences of false
registration; and
``(III) how the individual should
decline to register to vote if the
individual does not meet requirements
for eligibility to vote in a Federal
election.
``(iii) In the case of a State in which
affiliation or enrollment with a political
party is required in order to participate in an
election for Federal office to select the
candidate of the political party, the
requirement that the individual must, in
registering to vote, affiliate or enroll with a
political party in order to participate in such
an election.
``(iv) With respect to voter registration
by an individual--
``(I) voter registration is
voluntary;
``(II) whether the individual
registers or declines to register to
vote shall not affect the availability
of any service or benefit; and
``(III) information relating to
whether the individual registers or
declines to register to vote may not be
used for other purposes.
``(B) Individuals with limited english
proficiency.--
``(i) Covered individual.--For purposes of
this subparagraph, the term `covered
individual' means an individual conducting an
applicable transaction--
``(I) who is a member of a group
that constitutes not less than 3
percent of the overall population of
the State, as determined by the United
States Census Bureau, served by the
applicable agency; and
``(II) who is limited English
proficient.
``(ii) Requirement.--In providing
information pursuant to subparagraph (A), an
applicable agency shall provide the information
to any covered individual served by the
applicable agency in a language understood by
the covered individual.
``(C) Clarification of procedures for ineligible
voters.--An applicable agency may not provide an
individual who did not affirm United States
citizenship, or for whom the applicable agency has
conclusive documentary evidence obtained through the
normal course of operations of the applicable agency
that the individual is not a United State citizen, the
opportunity to register to vote under subparagraph (A).
``(D) Opportunity to decline registration
required.--
``(i) In general.--Except as otherwise
provided in this section, each applicable
agency shall ensure that each applicable
transaction described in subparagraph (A) may
not be completed unless the individual is given
the opportunity to decline to be registered to
vote.
``(ii) Language requirement.--If an
individual is a covered individual, as defined
in subparagraph (B)(i), the covered individual
shall be given the opportunity to decline to be
registered to vote in a language understood by
the covered individual.
``(E) Information transmittal.--Not later than 10
days after an applicable transaction with an eligible
individual, if the eligible individual did not decline
to be registered to vote, the applicable agency shall
electronically transmit to the appropriate State
election official the following information with
respect to the eligible individual:
``(i) The given name and surname of the
eligible individual.
``(ii) The date of birth of the eligible
individual.
``(iii) The residential address of the
individual.
``(iv) Information showing that the
individual is a citizen of the United States.
``(v) The date on which information
pertaining to the eligible individual was
collected or most recently updated.
``(vi) If available, the signature of the
eligible individual in electronic form.
``(vii) In the case of a State in which
affiliation or enrollment with a political
party is required in order to participate in an
election to select the candidate of the
political party in an election for Federal
office, information relating to the affiliation
or enrollment of the eligible individual with a
political party, if the eligible individual
provides that information.
``(viii) Any additional information listed
in the mail voter registration application form
for elections for Federal office prescribed
pursuant to section 9, including, if the
eligible individual provides such information--
``(I) the valid driver's license
number of the eligible individual; and
``(II) the last 4 digits of the
social security number of the eligible
individual.
``(F) Provision of information relating to
participation in primary elections.--In the case of a
State in which affiliation or enrollment with a
political party is required in order to participate in
an election to select the candidate of a political
party in an election for Federal office, if the
information transmitted under subparagraph (E) with
respect to an eligible individual does not include
information regarding the affiliation or enrollment
with a political party of the eligible individual, the
chief State election official shall--
``(i) notify the eligible individual that
such affiliation or enrollment is required to
participate in any primary election for Federal
office; and
``(ii) provide an opportunity for the
eligible individual to update the registration
of the eligible individual to denote the party
affiliation or enrollment of the eligible
individual.
``(G) Clarification.--Nothing in this section shall
be construed to require an applicable agency to
transmit to an election official the information
described in subparagraph (E) with respect to an
individual who is ineligible to vote in an election for
Federal office in the State, except to the extent
required to pre-register a citizen between 16 and 18
years of age.
``(2) Alternate procedure for certain other applicable
agencies.--With each applicable transaction for which an
applicable agency (in the normal course of the operations of
the applicable agency) does not request an individual to affirm
United States citizenship (either directly or as part of the
overall application for service or assistance), the applicable
agency shall--
``(A) complete the requirements under section 5;
``(B) ensure that each transaction by an individual
with the applicable agency may not be completed unless
the individual indicates whether the individual wishes
to register to vote or declines to register to vote in
elections for Federal office held in the State; and
``(C) for each individual who wishes to register to
vote, transmit the information relating to the
individual described in paragraph (1)(E), unless the
applicable agency has conclusive documentary evidence
obtained through the normal course of operations of the
applicable agency that the individual is not a United
States citizen.
``(3) Required availability of automatic registration
opportunity with each application for service or assistance.--
Each applicable agency shall offer each eligible individual, in
conducting each applicable transaction, the opportunity to
register to vote as prescribed by this section without regard
to whether the individual previously declined an opportunity to
register to vote.
``(d) Voter Protection.--
``(1) Protection of information by applicable agencies.--
Nothing in this section may be construed to authorize an
applicable agency to collect, retain, transmit, or publicly
disclose any of the following, except as necessary to comply
with title III of the Civil Rights Act of 1960 (52 U.S.C. 20701
et seq.):
``(A) The decision of an individual to decline to
register to vote.
``(B) The decision of an individual not to affirm
the citizenship of the individual.
``(C) Any information that an applicable agency
transmits pursuant to subsection (c)(1)(E), except in
carrying out the ordinary course of business of the
applicable agency.
``(2) Protection of information by elections officials.--
``(A) Public disclosure prohibited.--
``(i) In general.--Except as provided in
clause (ii), with respect to any individual
with respect to whom any appropriate State
election official receives information from an
applicable agency, the State election official
shall not publicly disclose--
``(I) any information not necessary
to voter registration;
``(II) any information of the
individual otherwise protected from
disclosure pursuant to section 8(a) or
State law;
``(III) any portion of the social
security number of the individual;
``(IV) any portion of the motor
vehicle driver's license number of the
individual;
``(V) the signature of the
individual;
``(VI) the telephone number of the
individual; or
``(VII) the email address of the
individual.
``(ii) Special rule for individuals
registered to vote.--The prohibition on public
disclosure under clause (i) shall not apply
with respect to the telephone number or email
address of any individual--
``(I) for whom any State election
official receives information from the
applicable agency; and
``(II) who, on the basis of such
information, is registered to vote in
the State under this section.
``(e) Miscellaneous Provisions.--
``(1) Accessibility of registration services.--Each
applicable agency shall ensure that the voter registration
services the applicable agency provides under this section are
made available to individuals with disabilities to the same
extent as services are made available to all other individuals.
``(2) Transmission through secure third party permitted.--
Nothing in the Register America to Vote Act of 2022 or this
section shall be construed to prevent an applicable agency from
contracting with a third party to assist the applicable agency
in meeting the information transmittal requirements under this
section, provided that the information transmittal complies
with the applicable requirements of this section, including
provisions relating privacy and security.
``(3) Nonpartisan, nondiscriminatory provision of
services.--The services made available by applicable agencies
under this section shall be made in a manner consistent with
paragraphs (4), (5), and (6)(C) of section 7(a).
``(4) Notices.--
``(A) Electronic notices.--Each State may send
notices under this section via electronic mail if the
individual has provided an electronic mail address and
consented to electronic mail communications for
election-related materials.
``(B) Response.--Any notice sent pursuant to this
section that requires a response shall offer the
individual to whom the notice is sent the opportunity
to respond to the notice at no cost to the individual.
``(5) Registration at other state offices permitted.--
Nothing in this section may be construed to prohibit a State
from offering voter registration services described in this
section at offices of the State other than the State motor
vehicle authority.
``(f) Applicability.--
``(1) In general.--This section shall not apply to an
exempt State.
``(2) Exempt state.--The term `exempt State' means a State
that, under law that is in effect on or after the date of
enactment of this Act, either--
``(A) has no voter registration requirement for any
voter in the State with respect to a Federal election;
or
``(B) operates a system of automatic registration
(as defined in subsection (a))--
``(i) at the motor vehicle authority of the
State; or
``(ii) a Permanent Dividend Fund of the
State under which an individual is provided the
opportunity to decline to register to vote--
``(I) during the transaction; or
``(II) by notice sent by mail or
electronically after the
transaction.''.
(b) Conforming Amendments.--
(1) Section 4(a) of the National Voter Registration Act of
1993 (52 U.S.C. 20503(a)(1)) is amended by--
(A) redesignating paragraphs (2) and (3) as
paragraphs (3) and (4), respectively; and
(B) inserting after paragraph (1) the following:
``(2) by application made simultaneously with an
application for a motor vehicle driver's license pursuant to
section 5A;''.
(2) Section 4(b) of the National Voter Registration Act of
1993 (52 U.S.C. 20503(b)) is amended--
(A) by redesignating paragraphs (1) and (2) as
subparagraphs (A) and (B), respectively, and indenting
appropriately;
(B) by striking ``States.--This Act'' and inserting
``States.--
``(1) In general.--Except as provided in paragraph (2),
this Act''; and
(C) by adding at the end the following new
paragraph:
``(2) Application of automatic registration requirements.--
Section 5A shall apply to a State described in paragraph (1),
unless the State is an exempt State as defined in subsection
(f)(2) of that section.''.
(3) Section 8(a)(1) of the National Voter Registration Act
of 1993 (52 U.S.C. 20507(a)(1)) is amended by redesignating
subparagraphs (B), (C), and (D) as subparagraphs (C), (D), and
(E), respectively, and by inserting after subparagraph (A) the
following:
``(B) in the case of registration under section 5A,
within the period provided in section 5A(b)(2);''.
SEC. 6. VOTER PROTECTION AND SECURITY IN AUTOMATIC REGISTRATION.
(a) Protections for Errors in Registration.--An individual shall
not be prosecuted under any Federal or State law, adversely affected in
any civil adjudication concerning immigration status or naturalization,
or subject to an allegation in any legal proceeding that the individual
is not a citizen of the United States for any of the following reasons:
(1) The individual notifies an election office of the
individual's automatic registration to vote.
(2) The individual is not eligible to vote in elections for
Federal office but was automatically registered to vote due to
individual or applicable agency error.
(3) The individual was automatically registered to vote at
an address that is not the correct residential address of the
individual.
(4) The individual declined the opportunity to register to
vote or did not make an affirmation of citizenship when
registering to vote, including through automatic registration.
(b) Limits on Use of Automatic Registration.--The automatic
registration (as defined in section 5A of the National Voter
Registration Act of 1993) of any individual, or the fact that an
individual declined the opportunity to register to vote or did not make
an affirmation of citizenship (including through automatic
registration), may not be used as evidence against that individual in
any State or Federal law enforcement proceeding or any civil
adjudication concerning immigration status or naturalization, and the
lack of knowledge or willfulness of the individual in such registration
may be demonstrated by the testimony of the individual alone.
(c) Protection of Election Integrity.--Nothing in subsection (a) or
(b) shall be construed to prohibit or restrict any action under color
of law against an individual who--
(1) knowingly and willfully makes a false statement to
effectuate or perpetuate automatic voter registration by any
individual; or
(2) casts a ballot knowingly and willfully in violation of
State law or the laws of the United States.
(d) Protection of Information by Elections Officials.--
(1) Voter record changes.--Each State shall maintain for at
least 2 years, and shall make available for public inspection
(and, where available, photocopying at a reasonable cost),
including in electronic form and through electronic methods,
all records of changes to voter records, including removals,
the reasons for removals, and updates.
(2) Database management standards.--Not later than 1 year
after the date of enactment of this Act, the Director of the
National Institute of Standards and Technology, in consultation
with State and local election officials representing geographic
and socio-economic diversity, and the Election Assistance
Commission, shall, after providing the public with notice and
the opportunity to comment--
(A) establish standards governing the comparison of
data for voter registration list maintenance purposes,
identifying as part of those standards the specific
data elements, the matching rules used, and how a State
may use the data to determine and deem that an
individual is ineligible under State law to vote in an
election, or to deem a record to be a duplicate or
outdated;
(B) ensure that the standards developed under this
paragraph are uniform and nondiscriminatory and are
applied in a uniform and nondiscriminatory manner;
(C) not later than 45 days after the deadline for
public notice and comment;
(i) publish the standards developed under
this paragraph on the website of the National
Institute of Standards and Technology; and
(ii) make the standards developed under
this paragraph available in written form upon
request; and
(D) ensure that the standards developed under this
paragraph are maintained and updated in a manner that
reflects innovations and best practices in the security
of database management.
(3) Security policy.--
(A) In general.--Not later than 1 year after the
date of enactment of this Act, the Director of the
National Institute of Standards and Technology shall,
after providing the public with notice and the
opportunity to comment, publish privacy and security
standards for voter registration information not later
than 45 days after the deadline for public notice and
comment.
(B) Requirement.--The standards developed under
this paragraph shall require the chief State election
official of each State to adopt a policy that shall
specify--
(i) each class of users who have authorized
access to the computerized statewide voter
registration list--
(I) specifying for each class the
permission and levels of access to be
granted; and
(II) setting forth other safeguards
to protect the privacy, security, and
accuracy of the information on voter
registration lists; and
(ii) security safeguards to protect
personal information transmitted through--
(I) the information transmittal
processes of section 5A(b) of the
National Voter Registration Act of
1993;
(II) any telephone interface;
(III) the maintenance of the voter
registration database; and
(IV) any audit procedure to track
access to the system.
(C) Maintenance and updating.--The Director of the
National Institute of Standards and Technology shall
ensure that the standards developed under this
paragraph are maintained and updated in a manner that
reflects innovations and best practices in the privacy
and security of voter registration information.
(4) State compliance with national standards.--
(A) Certification.--Each chief State election
official of the State shall annually file with the
Election Assistance Commission a statement certifying
to the Director of the National Institute of Standards
and Technology that the State is in compliance with the
standards developed under paragraphs (2) and (3), which
requirement may be met if the chief State election
official submits to the Election Assistance Commission
a statement that states, ``_____ hereby certifies that
_____ is in compliance with the standards referred to
in paragraphs (2) and (3) of section 6(d) of the
Register America to Vote Act of 2022.'', with the blank
spaces to be completed with the name of the relevant
State.
(B) Publication of policies and procedures.--The
chief State election official of a State shall--
(i) publish on the website of the chief
State election official the policies and
procedures established under this section; and
(ii) make those policies and procedures
available in written form upon public request.
(C) Funding dependent on certification.--If a State
does not timely file the certification required under
subparagraph (A), it shall not receive any payment
under this Act for the upcoming fiscal year in which
the State fails to make such certification.
(D) Compliance of states that require changes to
state law.--In the case of a State that requires State
legislation to carry out an activity covered by any
certification submitted under this paragraph--
(i) for a period of not more than 2 years,
the State shall be permitted to make the
certification notwithstanding that the
legislation has not been enacted on the date on
which the State submits the certification; and
(ii) the State shall submit an additional
certification once such legislation is enacted.
(e) Restrictions on Use of Information.--No person acting under
color of law may discriminate against any individual based on, or use
for any purpose other than voter registration, election administration,
juror selection, or enforcement relating to an election crime, any of
the following:
(1) Voter registration records.
(2) The declination of an individual to register to vote or
complete an affirmation of citizenship under section 5A of the
National Voter Registration Act of 1993.
(3) The voter registration status of an individual.
(f) Prohibition on the Use of Voter Registration Information for
Commercial Purposes.--
(1) In general.--Information collected under this Act or
the amendments made by this Act shall not be used for
commercial purposes.
(2) Dissemination for political purposes.--Nothing in this
subsection shall be construed to prohibit the transmission,
exchange, or dissemination of information for political
purposes, including the support of campaigns for election for
Federal, State, or local public office or the activities of
political committees (including committees of political
parties) under the Federal Election Campaign Act of 1971 (52
U.S.C. 30101 et seq.).
SEC. 7. PAYMENTS AND GRANTS.
(a) In General.--The Election Assistance Commission shall make
grants to each eligible State under subsection (b) to assist the State
in implementing the requirements of this Act and the amendments made by
this Act (or, in the case of an exempt State, in implementing the
existing automatic voter registration program of the exempt State or
expanding the automatic voter registration program of the State in a
manner consistent with the requirements of this Act) with respect to
the offices of the State motor vehicle authority and any other offices
of the State at which the State offers voter registration services as
described in this Act and the amendments made by this Act.
(b) Eligibility; Application.--A State is eligible to receive a
grant under this section if the State submits to the Election
Assistance Commission, at such time and in such form as the Election
Assistance Commission may require, an application containing--
(1) a description of the activities the State will carry
out with the grant;
(2) an assurance that the State shall carry out such
activities without partisan bias and without promoting any
particular point of view regarding any issue; and
(3) any other information and assurances as the Election
Assistance Commission may require.
(c) Amount of Grant; Priorities.--
(1) Amount.--The Commission shall determine the amount of a
grant made to an eligible State under this section.
(2) Priorities.--In determining the amount of a grant, the
Election Assistance Commission shall give priority to providing
funds for those activities that are most likely to accelerate
compliance with the requirements of this Act (or, in the case
of an exempt State, that are most likely to enhance the ability
of the exempt State to automatically register individuals to
vote through the existing automatic voter registration program
of the exempt State), including--
(A) investments supporting electronic information
transfer, including electronic collection and transfer
of signatures, between applicable agencies (as defined
in section 5A of the National Voter Registration Act of
1993) and the appropriate State election officials;
(B) updates to online or electronic voter
registration systems already operating as of the date
of the enactment of this Act;
(C) introduction of online voter registration
systems in jurisdictions in which those systems did not
previously exist; and
(D) public education on the availability of new
methods of registering to vote, updating registration,
and correcting registration.
(d) Exempt State.--For purposes of this section, the term ``exempt
State''--
(1) has the meaning given that term under section 5A(f)(2)
of the National Voter Registration Act of 1993; and
(2) includes a State in which, under law in effect on or
after the date of the enactment of the National Voter
Registration Act of 1993, there is no voter registration
requirement for any voter in the State with respect to an
election for Federal office.
(e) Authorization of Appropriations.--
(1) Authorization.--There are authorized to be appropriated
to carry out this section--
(A) $3,000,000,000 for fiscal year 2023; and
(B) such sums as may be necessary for each
succeeding fiscal year.
(2) Continuing availability of funds.--Any amounts
appropriated pursuant to this subsection shall remain available
without fiscal year limitation until expended.
SEC. 8. MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS.
(a) Enforcement.--Section 11 of the National Voter Registration Act
of 1993 (52 U.S.C. 20510 et seq.), relating to civil enforcement and
the availability of private rights of action, shall apply with respect
to this Act in the same manner as such section applies to the National
Voter Registration Act of 1993 (52 U.S.C. 20510 et seq.).
(b) Relation to Other Laws.--Except as provided, nothing in this
Act or the amendments made by this Act may be construed to authorize or
require conduct prohibited under, or to supersede, restrict, or limit
the application of any of the following:
(1) The Voting Rights Act of 1965 (52 U.S.C. 10301 et
seq.).
(2) The Uniformed and Overseas Citizens Absentee Voting Act
(52 U.S.C. 20301 et seq.).
(3) Except as provided by the amendment made under section
5 of this Act, the National Voter Registration Act of 1993 (52
U.S.C. 20501 et seq.).
(4) The Help America Vote Act of 2002 (52 U.S.C. 20901 et
seq.).
(5) The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (42 U.S.C.
12101 et seq.).
SEC. 9. EFFECTIVE DATE.
(a) In General.--Except as provided in subsection (b), this Act and
the amendments made by this Act shall apply on and after January 1,
2024.
(b) Waiver.--If a State certifies to the Elections Assistance
Commission not later than January 1, 2024, that the State will not meet
the deadline described in subsection (a) because it would be
impracticable to do so and includes in the certification the reasons
for the failure to meet that deadline, subsection (a) shall apply to
the State as if the reference in such subsection to ``January 1, 2024''
were a reference to ``January 1, 2026''.
<all> | Register America to Vote Act of 2022 | A bill to improve voter access to the ballot box through automatic voter registration, and for other purposes. | Register America to Vote Act of 2022 | Sen. Klobuchar, Amy | D | MN |
20 | 311 | S.3111 | Energy | Hydrogen for Ports Act of 2021
This bill supports infrastructure for hydrogen-derived fuels, including ammonia, at ports and in the shipping industry. For example, the bill directs the Department of Energy to establish a program that awards grants to states, local governments, Indian tribes, and other eligible entities for infrastructure that supports hydrogen-derived fuels, including ammonia, at ports and in the shipping industry. | To require the Secretary of Energy to establish a grant program to
support hydrogen-fueled equipment at ports and to conduct a study with
the Secretary of Transportation and the Secretary of Homeland Security
on the feasibility and safety of using hydrogen-derived fuels,
including ammonia, as a shipping fuel.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Hydrogen for Ports Act of 2021''.
SEC. 2. MARITIME MODERNIZATION GRANT PROGRAM.
(a) Definitions.--In this section:
(1) Eligible entity.--The term ``eligible entity'' means an
entity described in subsection (d).
(2) Indian tribe.--The term ``Indian Tribe'' has the
meaning given the term in section 4 of the Indian Self-
Determination and Education Assistance Act (25 U.S.C. 5304).
(3) Low-income or disadvantaged community.--The term ``low-
income or disadvantaged community'' means a community
(including a city, a town, a county, and any reasonably
isolated and divisible segment of a larger municipality) with
an annual median household income that is less than 100 percent
of the statewide annual median household income for the State
in which the community is located, according to the most recent
decennial census.
(4) Program.--The term ``program'' means the program
established under subsection (b).
(5) Secretary.--The term ``Secretary'' means the Secretary
of Energy.
(b) In General.--Not later than 180 days after the date of
enactment of this Act, the Secretary shall establish a program under
which the Secretary shall provide grants, on a competitive basis, to
eligible entities for--
(1) the purchase, installation, construction, facilitation,
maintenance, or operation of, as appropriate--
(A) hydrogen- or ammonia-fueled cargo-handling
equipment, including, at a minimum, equipment used for
drayage applications;
(B) hydrogen fuel cell or ammonia-fueled trucks for
use at ports;
(C) hydrogen fuel cell or ammonia-fueled ferries,
tugboats, dredging vessels, container ships, bulk
carriers, fuel tankers, and other marine vessels;
(D) hydrogen fuel cell-based shore power for ships
while docked at the port;
(E) hydrogen fuel cell or ammonia onsite power
plants; and
(F) port infrastructure for hydrogen or ammonia
import, export, storage, and fueling; and
(2) the training of ship crew and shore personnel to handle
hydrogen or ammonia.
(c) Goals.--The goals of the program shall be--
(1) to demonstrate fuel cell, hydrogen, or ammonia
technologies in maritime and associated logistics applications;
(2) to assist in the development and validation of
technical targets for hydrogen, ammonia, and fuel cell systems
for maritime and associated logistics applications;
(3) to benchmark the conditions required for broad
commercialization of hydrogen, ammonia, and fuel cell
technologies in maritime and associated logistics applications;
(4) to assess the operational and technical considerations
for installing, constructing, and using hydrogen- or ammonia-
fueled equipment and supporting infrastructure at ports; and
(5) to reduce emissions and improve air quality in areas in
and around ports.
(d) Eligible Entities.--
(1) In general.--An entity eligible to receive a grant
under the program is--
(A) a State;
(B) a political subdivision of a State;
(C) a local government;
(D) a public agency or publicly chartered authority
established by 1 or more States;
(E) a special purpose district with a
transportation function;
(F) an Indian Tribe or a consortium of Indian
Tribes;
(G) a multistate or multijurisdictional group of
entities described in any of subparagraphs (A) through
(F); or
(H) subject to paragraph (2), a private entity or
group of private entities, including the owners or
operators of 1 or more facilities at a port.
(2) Joint eligibility with private entities.--A private
entity or group of private entities is eligible for a grant
under the program if--
(A) the private entity or group of private entities
partners with an entity described in any of
subparagraphs (A) through (G) of paragraph (1) for
purposes of applying for, and carrying out activities
under, the grant; and
(B) the entity described in the applicable
subparagraph of that paragraph is the lead entity with
respect to the application and those activities.
(e) Applications.--
(1) In general.--An eligible entity desiring a grant under
the program shall submit to the Secretary an application at
such time, in such manner, and containing such information as
the Secretary may require.
(2) Requirement.--The application of an eligible entity
described in subparagraph (H) of subsection (d)(1) shall be
submitted jointly with an entity described in subparagraphs (A)
through (G) of that subsection.
(f) Considerations.--In providing grants under the program, the
Secretary, to the maximum extent practicable, shall--
(1) select projects that will generate the greatest benefit
to low-income or disadvantaged communities; and
(2) select projects that will--
(A) maximize the creation or retention of jobs in
the United States; and
(B) provide the highest job quality.
(g) Priority.--In selecting eligible entities to receive a grant
under the program, the Secretary shall give priority to projects that
will provide greater net impact in avoiding or reducing emissions of
greenhouse gases.
(h) Leak Detection.--Each eligible entity that receives a grant
under the program shall conduct--
(1) a hydrogen leakage monitoring, reporting, and
verification (also known as ``MRV'') program; and
(2) a hydrogen leak detection and repair (also known as
``LDAR'') program.
(i) Authorization of Appropriations.--There is authorized to be
appropriated to the Secretary to carry out this section $100,000,000
for each of fiscal years 2022 through 2026.
SEC. 3. STUDY.
(a) In General.--The Secretary of Energy, in consultation with the
Secretary of Transportation and the Secretary of Homeland Security,
shall conduct, and submit to Congress a report describing the results
of, a study--
(1) to fully address the challenges to ensure the safe use
and handling of hydrogen, ammonia, and other hydrogen-based
fuels on vessels and in ports;
(2) to identify, compare, and evaluate the feasibility of,
the safety, environmental, and health impacts of, and best
practices with respect to, the use of hydrogen-derived fuels,
including ammonia, as a shipping fuel;
(3) to identify and evaluate considerations for hydrogen
and ammonia storage, including--
(A) at ports;
(B) on board vessels; and
(C) for subsea hydrogen storage; and
(4) to assess the cost and value of a hydrogen or ammonia
strategic reserve, either as a new facility or as a
modification to the Strategic Petroleum Reserve established
under part B of title I of the Energy Policy and Conservation
Act (42 U.S.C. 6231 et seq.).
(b) Requirements.--In carrying out subsection (a), the Secretary of
Energy, the Secretary of Transportation, and the Secretary of Homeland
Security shall--
(1) take into account lessons learned from demonstration
projects in other industries, including--
(A) projects carried out in the United States;
(B) projects carried out in other countries; and
(C) projects relating to the automotive industry,
buses, petroleum refining, chemical production,
fertilizer production, and stationary power; and
(2) evaluate the applicability of the lessons described in
paragraph (1) to the use of hydrogen in maritime and associated
logistics applications.
<all> | Hydrogen for Ports Act of 2021 | A bill to require the Secretary of Energy to establish a grant program to support hydrogen-fueled equipment at ports and to conduct a study with the Secretary of Transportation and the Secretary of Homeland Security on the feasibility and safety of using hydrogen-derived fuels, including ammonia, as a shipping fuel. | Hydrogen for Ports Act of 2021 | Sen. Cornyn, John | R | TX |
21 | 10,794 | H.R.6086 | Energy | Payment In Lieu of Lost Revenues Act or the PILLR Act
This bill requires the Department of the Interior to compensate, using federal mineral royalties, states for lost revenue derived from oil and gas production that is caused by a moratorium or similar action to prevent oil and gas leasing on federal land. | To direct the Secretary of the Interior to compensate States for lost
revenue for any year during which Federal oil and gas leasing of
Federal land within a State does not occur or otherwise results in lost
revenue to that State as a result of an order, moratorium, pause, or
other action by the President, Secretary of the Interior, Secretary of
Agriculture, or other designated official.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Payment In Lieu of Lost Revenues
Act'' or the ``PILLR Act''.
SEC. 2. AUTHORITY TO MAKE PAYMENTS.
For any year during which Federal oil and gas leasing of Federal
land within a State does not occur or is otherwise affected in a manner
that results in lost revenue to that State as a result of an order,
moratorium, pause, or other action by the President, the Secretary of
the Interior, Secretary of Agriculture, or other designated official,
the Secretary of the Interior shall make a payment to that State from
Federal mineral royalties, subject to further appropriation, in an
amount determined under section 3.
SEC. 3. AMOUNT OF PAYMENTS.
(a) Amount.--A payment to a State shall seek to compensate the
State for lost revenues, including oil and gas lease rentals, bonuses
and royalties, and tax revenues due to an order, moratorium, pause or
other action described in section 2, and shall be in an amount
calculated by the Secretary of the Interior equal to the sum of--
(1) an amount equal to the 10-year average disbursement
amount to the State from the Office of Natural Resources and
Revenue for oil and gas lease bonuses and rentals, and other
similar non-royalty disbursements from Federal oil and gas
leases, less the amount actually received by the State for such
Federal lease bonuses and rentals during the fiscal year in
which the order, moratorium, or pause was in effect;
(2) an amount equal to the product of--
(A) the 10-year average disbursement amount to the
State from the Office of Natural Resources and Revenue
for oil and gas lease production royalties based on
data collected for the previous 10 years; and
(B) the 10-year average of the percentage of oil
and gas production that is derived from new wells
drilled during such year determined from data submitted
by the relevant State oil and gas regulatory agency
based on data collected for the previous 10 years; and
(3) an amount equal to the product of--
(A) the lost royalties as calculated under
paragraph (2); and
(B) the average rate of severance, ad valorem, and
production taxes imposed by the State during the
previous 10 years on oil and gas extracted in such
State, determined from data submitted by the State
based on data collected for the previous 10 years.
(b) Adjustments.--On October 1 of each year after the date of
enactment of this Act, the Secretary shall adjust each payment amount
calculated in accordance with subsection (a) to reflect changes in the
Consumer Price Index published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the
Department of Labor, for the 12 months ending the preceding June 30.
(c) Correction of Under-Payments.--The Secretary of the Interior
shall use amounts made available for payments under this section from
Federal mineral royalties to correct under-payments to a State in the
previous fiscal year. The Secretary of the Interior shall allocate
amounts under this subsection so as to achieve equity in payments among
States eligible for payments under this Act.
<all> | Payment In Lieu of Lost Revenues Act | To direct the Secretary of the Interior to compensate States for lost revenue for any year during which Federal oil and gas leasing of Federal land within a State does not occur or otherwise results in lost revenue to that State as a result of an order, moratorium, pause, or other action by the President, Secretary of the Interior, Secretary of Agriculture, or other designated official. | PILLR Act
Payment In Lieu of Lost Revenues Act | Rep. Cheney, Liz | R | WY |
22 | 5,652 | H.R.9044 | Taxation | This bill creates a safe harbor for certain perpetual trust funds. It excludes from the definition of investment property under arbitrage provisions any fund created and controlled by a state and established pursuant to its constitution or state law if on a specified date, substantially all of the assets of the fund consist of nonfinancial assets and the assets are used only to support specifically designated essential governmental functions. | To amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to create a safe harbor for
certain perpetual trust funds.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SAFE HARBOR FOR CERTAIN PERPETUAL TRUST FUNDS.
(a) In General.--Section 148(b) of the Internal Revenue Code of
1986 is amended by adding at the end the following new paragraph:
``(5) Safe harbor for certain perpetual trust funds.--The
term `investment property' does not include any fund created
and controlled by a State and established pursuant to its
constitution or State law if--
``(A) substantially all of the assets of the fund
consist of nonfinancial assets, revenues derived from
such assets, gifts, appropriations, or bequests,
``(B) the assets of the fund may be used only to
support specifically designated essential governmental
functions (within the meaning of section 115(1)) that
are carried out by political subdivisions with general
taxing powers or public elementary and public secondary
schools,
``(C) the assets of the fund are required to
support designated functions,
``(D) to the extent the fund guarantees
obligations, such obligations are not private activity
bonds (other than qualified 501(c)(3) bonds)
substantially all of the proceeds of which are to be
used for designated functions, and
``(E) the fund satisfied each of the requirements
of subparagraphs (A) through (D) on August 16, 1986.''.
(b) Effective Date.--The amendment made by this section shall take
effect on the date of the enactment of this Act.
<all> | To amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to create a safe harbor for certain perpetual trust funds. | To amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to create a safe harbor for certain perpetual trust funds. | Official Titles - House of Representatives
Official Title as Introduced
To amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to create a safe harbor for certain perpetual trust funds. | Rep. Doggett, Lloyd | D | TX |
23 | 1,769 | S.1937 | Armed Forces and National Security | Delivering Optimally Urgent Labor Access for Veterans Affairs Act of 2021 or the DOULA for VA Act of 2021
This bill requires the Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) to establish a five-year pilot program to furnish doula services to pregnant veterans who are enrolled in the VA health care system. The program must furnish doula services through eligible entities by expanding the VA's Whole Health model to measure the impact that doula support services have on birth and mental health outcomes of pregnant veterans. The Whole Health model is a holistic approach that looks at the many areas of life that may affect health in order to make a health plan suited for each individual based on his or her health goals. | To require the Secretary of Veterans Affairs to establish a pilot
program to furnish doula services to veterans.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Delivering Optimally Urgent Labor
Access for Veterans Affairs Act of 2021'' or the ``DOULA for VA Act of
2021''.
SEC. 2. PILOT PROGRAM ON DOULA SUPPORT FOR VETERANS.
(a) Findings.--Congress finds the following:
(1) There are approximately 2,300,000 women within the
veteran population in the United States.
(2) The number of women veterans using services from the
Veterans Health Administration has increased by 28.8 percent
from 423,642 in 2014 to 545,670 in 2019.
(3) During the period of 2010 through 2015, the use of
maternity services from the Veterans Health Administration
increased by 44 percent.
(4) Although prenatal care and delivery is not provided in
facilities of the Department of Veterans Affairs, pregnant
women seeking care from the Department for other conditions may
also need emergency care and require coordination of services
through the Veterans Community Care Program under section 1703
of title 38, United States Code.
(5) The number of unique women veteran patients with an
obstetric delivery paid for by the Department increased by
1,778 percent from 200 deliveries in 2000 to 3,756 deliveries
in 2015.
(6) The number of women age 35 years or older with an
obstetric delivery paid for by the Department increased 16-fold
from fiscal year 2000 to fiscal year 2015.
(7) A study in 2010 found that veterans returning from
Operation Enduring Freedom and Operation Iraqi Freedom who
experienced pregnancy were twice as likely to have a diagnosis
of depression, anxiety, posttraumatic stress disorder, bipolar
disorder, or schizophrenia as those who had not experienced a
pregnancy.
(8) The number of women veterans of reproductive age
seeking care from the Veterans Health Administration continues
to grow (more than 185,000 as of fiscal year 2015).
(b) Program.--
(1) In general.--Not later than one year after the date of
the enactment of this Act, the Secretary of Veterans Affairs
shall establish a pilot program to furnish doula services to
covered veterans through eligible entities by expanding the
Whole Health model of the Department of Veterans Affairs, or
successor model, to measure the impact that doula support
services have on birth and mental health outcomes of pregnant
veterans (in this section referred to as the ``pilot
program'').
(2) Consideration.--In carrying out the pilot program, the
Secretary shall consider all types of doulas, including
traditional and community-based doulas.
(3) Consultation.--In designing and implementing the pilot
program, the Secretary shall consult with stakeholders,
including--
(A) organizations representing veterans, including
veterans that are disproportionately impacted by poor
maternal health outcomes;
(B) community-based health care professionals,
including doulas, and other stakeholders; and
(C) experts in promoting health equity and
combating racial bias in health care settings.
(4) Goals.--The goals of the pilot program are the
following:
(A) To improve--
(i) maternal, mental health, and infant
care outcomes;
(ii) integration of doula support services
into the Whole Health model of the Department,
or successor model; and
(iii) the experience of women receiving
maternity care from the Department, including
by increasing the ability of a woman to develop
and follow her own birthing plan.
(B) To reengage veterans with the Department after
giving birth.
(c) Locations.--The Secretary shall carry out the pilot program
in--
(1) the three Veterans Integrated Service Networks of the
Department that have the highest percentage of female veterans
enrolled in the patient enrollment system of the Department
established and operated under section 1705(a) of title 38,
United States Code, compared to the total number of enrolled
veterans in such Network; and
(2) the three Veterans Integrated Service Networks that
have the lowest percentage of female veterans enrolled in the
patient enrollment system compared to the total number of
enrolled veterans in such Network.
(d) Open Participation.--The Secretary shall allow any eligible
entity or covered veteran interested in participating in the pilot
program to participate in the pilot program.
(e) Services Provided.--
(1) In general.--Under the pilot program, a covered veteran
shall receive not more than 10 sessions of care from a doula
under the Whole Health model of the Department, or successor
model, under which a doula works as an advocate for the veteran
alongside the medical team for the veteran.
(2) Sessions.--Sessions covered under paragraph (1) shall
be as follows:
(A) Three or four sessions before labor and
delivery.
(B) One session during labor and delivery.
(C) Three or four sessions after post-partum, which
may be conducted via the mobile application for VA
Video Connect.
(f) Administration of Pilot Program.--
(1) In general.--The Office of Women's Health of the
Department of Veterans Affairs, or successor office (in this
section referred to as the ``Office''), shall--
(A) coordinate services and activities under the
pilot program;
(B) oversee the administration of the pilot
program; and
(C) conduct onsite assessments of medical
facilities of the Department that are participating in
the pilot program.
(2) Guidelines for veteran-specific care.--The Office shall
establish guidelines under the pilot program for training
doulas on military sexual trauma and post traumatic stress
disorder.
(3) Amounts for care.--The Office may recommend to the
Secretary appropriate payment amounts for care and services
provided under the pilot program, which shall not exceed $3,500
per doula per veteran.
(g) Doula Service Coordinator.--
(1) In general.--The Secretary, in consultation with the
Office, shall establish a Doula Service Coordinator within the
functions of the Maternity Care Coordinator at each medical
facility of the Department that is participating in the pilot
program.
(2) Duties.--A Doula Service Coordinator established under
paragraph (1) at a medical facility shall be responsible for--
(A) working with eligible entities, doulas, and
covered veterans participating in the pilot program;
and
(B) managing payment between eligible entities and
the Department under the pilot program.
(3) Tracking of information.--A doula providing services
under the pilot program shall report to the applicable Doula
Service Coordinator after each session conducted under the
pilot program.
(4) Coordination with women's program manager.--A Doula
Service Coordinator for a medical facility of the Department
shall coordinate with the women's program manager for that
facility in carrying out the duties of the Doula Service
Coordinator under the pilot program.
(h) Term of Pilot Program.--The Secretary shall conduct the pilot
program for a period of 5 years.
(i) Technical Assistance.--The Secretary shall establish a process
to provide technical assistance to eligible entities and doulas
participating in the pilot program.
(j) Report.--
(1) In general.--Not later than one year after the date of
the enactment of this Act, and annually thereafter for each
year in which the pilot program is carried out, the Secretary
shall submit to the Committee on Veterans' Affairs of the
Senate and the Committee on Veterans' Affairs of the House of
Representatives a report on the pilot program.
(2) Final report.--As part of the final report submitted
under paragraph (1), the Secretary shall include
recommendations on whether the model studied in the pilot
program should be continued or more widely adopted by the
Department.
(k) Authorization of Appropriations.--There are authorized to be
appropriated to the Secretary, for each of fiscal years 2022 through
2027, such sums as may be necessary to carry out this section.
(l) Definitions.--In this section:
(1) Covered veteran.--The term ``covered veteran'' means a
pregnant veteran or a formerly pregnant veteran (with respect
to sessions post-partum) who is enrolled in the patient
enrollment system of the Department of Veterans Affairs
established and operated under section 1705(a) of title 38,
United States Code.
(2) Eligible entity.--The term ``eligible entity'' means an
entity that provides medically accurate, comprehensive
maternity services to covered veterans under the laws
administered by the Secretary, including under the Veterans
Community Care Program under section 1703 of title 38, United
States Code.
(3) VA video connect.--The term ``VA Video Connect'' means
the program of the Department of Veterans Affairs to connect
veterans with their health care team from anywhere, using
encryption to ensure a secure and private session.
<all> | DOULA for VA Act of 2021 | A bill to require the Secretary of Veterans Affairs to establish a pilot program to furnish doula services to veterans. | DOULA for VA Act of 2021
Delivering Optimally Urgent Labor Access for Veterans Affairs Act of 2021 | Sen. Booker, Cory A. | D | NJ |
24 | 8,677 | H.R.2462 | Environmental Protection | Abandoned Mine Land Reclamation Fee Reauthorization Act of 2021
This bill reduces the fee certain coal mining operations must pay to the Abandoned Mine Reclamation Fund, reauthorizes such fee through FY2028, and otherwise revises provisions regarding the fund and mine reclamation.
Under the existing Abandoned Mine Land Reclamation Program, the Office of Surface Mining, Reclamation and Enforcement (OSMRE) collects a fee from coal mining companies for each ton of coal produced. The fees are deposited into the fund, which may be used to address hazards to public health, safety, and the environment from coal mining sites that were abandoned or unreclaimed as of August 3, 1977. For example, the fund may be used to provide grants to states and Indian tribes to reclaim and clean up land and water affected by such sites.
OSMRE's authority to collect the fee expires on September 30, 2021. This bill extends the authority to collect the fee for seven years and reduces the fee for all categories of coal. It also provides additional grants for certain priority sites and revises requirements governing the distribution of grants to states and Indian tribes from the program.
In addition, the bill allows states to (1) enter into a memorandum of understanding with relevant states or federal agencies to clean up lands and waters affected by such sites, and (2) partner with a community reclaimer who volunteers to carry out a reclamation project approved by the Department of the Interior. | To amend the Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977 to make
modifications to the Abandoned Mine Reclamation Fund, and for other
purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Abandoned Mine Land Reclamation Fee
Reauthorization Act of 2021''.
SEC. 2. AMOUNTS DISTRIBUTED FROM ABANDONED MINE RECLAMATION FUND.
Section 401(f)(2) of the Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act
of 1977 (30 U.S.C. 1231(f)(2)) is amended--
(1) in subparagraph (A)--
(A) in the subparagraph heading, by striking
``2022'' and inserting ``2037''; and
(B) in the matter preceding clause (i), by striking
``2022'' and inserting ``2037''; and
(2) in subparagraph (B)--
(A) in the subparagraph heading, by striking
``2023'' and inserting ``2038'';
(B) by striking ``2023'' and inserting ``2038'';
and
(C) by striking ``2022'' and inserting ``2037''.
SEC. 3. RECLAMATION FEE.
(a) Amount.--Section 402(a) of the Surface Mining Control and
Reclamation Act of 1977 (30 U.S.C. 1232(a)) is amended--
(1) by striking ``28 cents'' and inserting ``16.8 cents'';
(2) by striking ``12 cents'' and inserting ``7.2 cents'';
and
(3) by striking ``8 cents'' and inserting ``4.8 cents''.
(b) Duration.--Section 402(b) of the Surface Mining Control and
Reclamation Act of 1977 (30 U.S.C. 1232(b)) is amended by striking
``September 30, 2021'' and inserting ``September 30, 2028''.
SEC. 4. APPLICABILITY OF CERTAIN TRANSFER REQUIREMENT TO PAYMENTS TO
STATES AND INDIAN TRIBES.
Section 402(i)(3) of the Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act
of 1977 (30 U.S.C. 1232(i)(3)) is amended by adding at the end the
following:
``(C) Application.--Subparagraph (B) shall not
apply to transfers to the Secretary of the Interior for
distribution to States and Indian tribes under
paragraph (2).''.
SEC. 5. STATE MEMORANDA OF UNDERSTANDING FOR REMEDIATION OF MINE
DRAINAGE; COMMUNITY RECLAIMER PARTNERSHIPS.
(a) State Memoranda of Understanding for Certain Remediation of
Mine Drainage.--Section 405 of the Surface Mining Control and
Reclamation Act of 1977 (30 U.S.C. 1235) is amended by adding at the
end the following:
``(m) State Memoranda of Understanding for Remediation of Mine
Drainage.--
``(1) Authorization.--
``(A) In general.--Subject to the approval of the
Secretary and the Administrator of the Environmental
Protection Agency (referred to in this subsection as
the `Administrator') under paragraph (4), a State with
an approved State Reclamation Plan may enter into a
memorandum of understanding with a relevant State or
Federal agency to remediate lands and water eligible
for reclamation or drainage abatement expenditures
under this title.
``(B) Updates.--A memorandum of understanding
entered into pursuant to subparagraph (A) may be
updated as necessary and resubmitted for approval under
paragraph (4).
``(2) Memoranda of understanding requirements.--A
memorandum of understanding entered into pursuant to paragraph
(1)(A) shall establish a strategy to address water pollution
resulting from mine drainage lands and waters eligible for
reclamation or drainage abatement expenditures under this
title. Such strategy shall include specific procedures for--
``(A) ensuring that activities carried out to
address mine drainage will result in improved water
quality;
``(B) monitoring, sampling, and reporting of
collected information as necessary to achieve the
condition required under clause (i);
``(C) operating and maintaining treatment systems
as necessary to achieve the condition required under
clause (i); and
``(D) such other matters as the parties to such
memorandum of understanding determine appropriate.
``(3) Public review and comment.--
``(A) In general.--Before submitting a memorandum
of understanding to the Secretary and the Administrator
for approval in accordance with paragraph (4), a State
shall--
``(i) invite interested members of the
public to comment on the proposed memorandum of
understanding; and
``(ii) hold not less than 1 public meeting
concerning the memorandum of understanding in a
location reasonably accessible to persons who
may be affected by implementation of the
memorandum of understanding.
``(B) Notice of meeting.--Not later than 15 days
before the date of a meeting under subparagraph (A)(ii)
the State shall publish notice of the meeting in a
local newspaper of general circulation, on the
internet, and by any other means the Secretary and
Administrator determine appropriate.
``(4) Submission and approval.--
``(A) In general.--Before entering into a
memorandum of understanding pursuant to paragraph
(1)(A), a State shall submit the memorandum of
understanding to the Secretary and the Administrator
for approval.
``(B) Deadline.--Not later than 120 days after the
date on which a State submits the memorandum of
understanding for approval under subparagraph (A), the
Secretary and the Administrator shall approve or
disapprove the memorandum of understanding.
``(C) Requirement.--The Secretary and the
Administrator shall approve a memorandum of
understanding under this paragraph if the Secretary and
Administrator find that the memorandum of understanding
will facilitate carrying out additional activities to
improve water quality under the approved State
Reclamation Plan of the State.
``(5) Treatment as part of state plan.--A memorandum of
understanding that is approved by the Secretary and the
Administrator under this subsection shall be considered to be
part of the approved State Reclamation Plan of the State.''.
(b) Community Reclaimer Partnerships.--Section 405 of the Surface
Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977 (30 U.S.C. 1235) is further
amended by adding at the end the following:
``(n) Community Reclaimer Partnerships.--
``(1) Definition of community reclaimer.--In this
subsection, the term `community reclaimer' means any person
that--
``(A) seeks to voluntarily assist a State with a
reclamation project under this section;
``(B) did not participate in any way in--
``(i) the creation of site conditions at
the project site; or
``(ii) activities that caused any land or
waters at the project site to become eligible
for reclamation or drainage abatement
expenditures under section 404;
``(C) is not a past or current owner or operator of
any site with ongoing reclamation obligations; and
``(D) is not subject to any outstanding violations
listed pursuant to section 510(c).
``(2) Authorization of community reclaimer projects.--The
Secretary may authorize a community reclaimer to carry out a
reclamation project under this section for which a request for
approval submitted by the State under paragraph (3) has been
approved by the Secretary in accordance with paragraph (4).
``(3) Reclamation project submission.--
``(A) In general.--A State may submit to the
Secretary a request to authorize a community reclaimer
to carry out a reclamation project under this section
in the State.
``(B) Requirements.--A request submitted under
subparagraph (A) shall include--
``(i) a description of the reclamation
project, including any engineering plans
approved by a registered qualified professional
engineer;
``(ii) a description of each reclamation
project site, including, if relevant, the
nature and extent of pollution resulting from
mine drainage from such site;
``(iii) identification of the past and
current owners and operators of each
reclamation project site;
``(iv) an agreement between the State and
the community reclaimer to carry out the
reclamation project;
``(v) a determination by the State that the
reclamation project will facilitate the
activities of the State Reclamation Plan;
``(vi) sufficient information to determine
whether the community reclaimer has the
technical capability and expertise to
successfully carry out the reclamation project;
``(vii) a cost estimate for the reclamation
project;
``(viii) evidence that the community
reclaimer has sufficient financial resources to
ensure the completion of the reclamation
project (including any operation or maintenance
costs);
``(ix) a schedule for completion of the
reclamation project;
``(x) an agreement between the community
reclaimer and the owner of the affected site
governing access to such site;
``(xi) sufficient information to
demonstrate that the community reclaimer meets
the requirements of paragraph (1);
``(xii) a contingency plan designed to be
used in response to unplanned adverse events
including emergency actions, response, and
notifications; and
``(xiii) an agreement by the State that,
before the initiation of the reclamation
project, the State shall--
``(I) provide notice to adjacent
and downstream landowners and the
public; and
``(II) hold a public meeting near
the affected site.
``(4) Project approval.--Not later than 120 days after the
date on which the Secretary receives a request submitted under
paragraph (3)(A), the Secretary shall approve such request if
the Secretary determines that--
``(A) the request complies with the submission
requirements of paragraph (3)(B);
``(B) the reclamation project--
``(i) will be carried out by a community
reclaimer or an approved for such purpose by an
appropriate State agency subcontractor of the
community reclaimer;
``(ii) will be carried out on lands or
waters inventoried under section 403(c);
``(iii) in the case of a reclamation
project that remediates mine drainage, is
consistent with an approved State memorandum of
understanding under subsection (m); and
``(iv) does not require a permit under
title V; and
``(C) the State that submitted the request--
``(i) has entered into an agreement with
the community reclaimer that, except with
respect to costs or damages resulting from
gross negligence or intentional misconduct,
such State shall assume responsibility for any
costs or damages resulting from the conduct of
the community reclaimer in carrying out the
reclamation project;
``(ii) has the necessary legal authority to
carry out the reclamation project;
``(iii) will obtain all authorizations,
permits, licenses, and other approvals required
by law to ensure completion of the reclamation
project; and
``(iv) has sufficient financial resources
to ensure completion of the reclamation
project, including any necessary operation and
maintenance costs (including costs associated
with emergency actions covered by a contingency
plan under paragraph (3)(B)(xii)).''.
(c) Clarifying State Liability for Mine Drainage Projects.--Section
413(d) of the Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977 (30
U.S.C. 1242(d)) is amended, in the second sentence, by striking
``Act.'' and inserting ``Act, unless that control or treatment will be
carried out in accordance with a State memorandum of understanding
approved under section 405(m).''.
(d) Conforming Amendments.--Section 405(f) of the Surface Mining
Control and Reclamation Act of 1977 (30 U.S.C. 1235(f)) is amended--
(1) in paragraph (6), by striking ``and'' after the
semicolon;
(2) in paragraph (7), by striking the period at the end and
inserting ``; and''; and
(3) by adding at the end the following:
``(8) a list of reclamation projects with respect to which
such State has submitted a request under subsection (n)(3).''.
SEC. 6. ADDITIONAL GRANTS FROM ABANDONED MINE RECLAMATION FUND.
(a) Additional Grants for Priority 1 and Priority 2 Sites.--
(1) In general.--Title IV of the Surface Mining Control and
Reclamation Act of 1977 is amended by inserting after section
415 (30 U.S.C. 1244) the following:
``SEC. 416. ADDITIONAL GRANTS FOR PRIORITY 1 AND PRIORITY 2 SITES.
``(a) Definition of Eligible State or Indian Tribe.--In this
section, the term `eligible State or Indian tribe' means a State or
Indian tribe--
``(1) with an approved State Reclamation Plan under section
405; and
``(2) that is not certified under section 411(a).
``(b) Additional Grants.--Of amounts in the fund that are not
otherwise appropriated, $140,000,000 shall be made available to the
Secretary, for each of fiscal years 2022 through 2037, to make grants
to eligible States and Indian tribes to carry out reclamation projects
to achieve the priorities described in paragraphs (1) and (2) of
section 403(a).
``(c) Requirement.--In making grants under subsection (b) to
eligible States and Indian tribes, the Secretary shall allocate the
grants to those eligible States and Indian tribes based on the amount
of coal historically produced in the State or from the Indian lands
concerned before August 3, 1977, according to the formula described in
section 402(g)(5).''.
(2) Conforming amendment.--The table of contents of the
Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977 (30 U.S.C.
1201) is amended by adding after the item relating to section
414 the following:
``Sec. 415. Remining incentives.
``Sec. 416. Additional grants for priority 1 and priority 2 sites.''.
(b) Conforming Amendments.--
(1) Section 401 of the Surface Mining Control and
Reclamation Act of 1977 (30 U.S.C. 1231) is further amended--
(A) in subsection (c)--
(i) in paragraph (10), by striking ``and''
at the end;
(ii) by redesignating paragraph (11) as
paragraph (12); and
(iii) by inserting after paragraph (10) the
following:
``(11) to make additional grants under section 416; and'';
and
(B) in subsection (d)(3), by inserting ``and
section 416'' before the period at the end; and
(2) Section 402(g) of the Surface Mining Control and
Reclamation Act of 1977 (30 U.S.C. 1232(g)) is amended--
(A) in paragraph (1), in the matter preceding
subparagraph (A), by inserting ``and section 416''
after ``subsection (h)''; and
(B) in paragraph (3), by adding at the end the
following:
``(F) For the purpose of section 416.''.
SEC. 7. INCREASED REVENUE SHARING WITH COAL-PRODUCING STATES.
Section 35(a) of the Mineral Leasing Act (30 U.S.C. 191(a)) is
amended, in the first sentence, by striking ``50 per centum thereof''
and inserting ``50 percent of the amount received, or in the case of
any amount received from coal leases, 60 percent of the amount
received,''.
SEC. 8. SEQUESTRATION PROVISIONS.
(a) Exemption of Payments to States and Indian Tribes From the
Abandoned Mine Reclamation Fund From Sequestration.--
(1) In general.--Section 255(g)(1)(A) of the Balanced
Budget and Emergency Deficit Control Act of 1985 (2 U.S.C.
905(g)(1)(A)) is amended by inserting after ``Payments to
Social Security Trust Funds (28-0404-0-1-651).'' the following:
``Payments to States and Indian Tribes from the
Abandoned Mine Reclamation Fund and payments to
States and Indian Tribes under section
402(i)(2) of the Surface Mining Control and
Reclamation Act of 1977 (30 U.S.C. 1232(i)(2))
(12-50q5-0-2-999).''.
(2) Applicability.--The amendment made by paragraph (1)
shall apply to any sequestration order issued under the
Balanced Budget and Emergency Deficit Control Act of 1985 (2
U.S.C. 900 et seq.) on or after the date of enactment of this
Act.
(b) Payment From Withheld Amounts.--
(1) In general.--From amounts withheld pursuant to section
251A of the Balanced Budget and Emergency Deficit Control Act
of 1985 (2 U.S.C. 901a) from payments to States and Indian
tribes under section 402(g) of the Surface Mining Control and
Reclamation Act of 1977 (30 U.S.C. 1232(g)) during fiscal years
2013 through 2020, the Secretary of the Interior shall
distribute for fiscal year 2021 to each State and each Indian
tribe from which the amounts were withheld an amount equal to
the total amount so withheld from the State or Indian tribe.
(2) Use.--Amounts distributed under paragraph (1) may be
used by a State or Indian tribe only for the purposes
authorized by section 402(g) of the Surface Mining Control and
Reclamation Act of 1977 (30 U.S.C. 1232(g)).
SEC. 9. DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR STUDY AND REPORT ON TECHNOLOGICAL
INNOVATIONS FOR USE IN THE ABANDONED MINE LAND
RECLAMATION PROGRAM.
(a) In General.--Not later than 180 days after the date of
enactment of this Act, the Secretary of the Interior shall complete a
study of technologies for use in carrying out abandoned mine
reclamation activities under title IV of the Surface Mining Control and
Reclamation Act of 1977 (30 U.S.C. 1231 et seq.) that would improve
reclamation and reduce costs of such reclamation, including the
application of technical innovations in the technology development and
transfer program of the Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and
Enforcement, including--
(1) geomorphic reclamation;
(2) drone technology; and
(3) other technologies that would--
(A) improve overall reclamation;
(B) reduce costs of reclamation; and
(C) improve safety.
(b) Report.--As soon as practicable after completing the study
under subsection (a), the Secretary of the Interior shall submit to the
Committee on Energy and Natural Resources of the Senate and the
Committee on Natural Resources of the House of Representatives a report
describing the results of the study that includes recommendations for
areas of improvement identified under the study.
SEC. 10. DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR STUDY AND REPORT TO STRENGTHEN
OVERSIGHT OF THE ABANDONED MINE LAND RECLAMATION PROGRAM.
(a) Study and Report.--
(1) In general.--Not later than 180 days after the date of
enactment of this Act, the Secretary of the Interior shall
complete a study--
(A) to identify potential cost reductions in
abandoned mine reclamation activities carried out under
title IV of the Surface Mining Control and Reclamation
Act of 1977 (30 U.S.C. 1231 et seq.); and
(B) to determine the ratio of overhead spending in
the administration of such activities to spending on
reclamation activities under such title.
(2) Report.--As soon as practicable after completing the
study under paragraph (1), the Secretary shall submit to the
Committee on Energy and Natural Resources of the Senate and the
Committee on Natural Resources of the House of Representatives
a report describing the results of the study that includes
recommendations for areas of improvement identified under the
study.
(b) Annual Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement
Report.--The Secretary shall require the Director of the Office of
Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement to publish annual reports on
the efficacy of the Abandoned Mine Land Reclamation Economic
Development Pilot Program (also known as the ``AML Pilot''), including
a detailed accounting of all projects funded and completed using
funding made available for such program under the heading ``DEPARTMENT
OF THE INTERIOR -- OFFICE OF SURFACE MINING RECLAMATION -- Abandoned
mine reclamation fund'' in the division relating to appropriations for
the Departments of the Interior, Environment, and related agencies in
each of the following Acts:
(1) The Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2016 (Public Law
114-113; 129 Stat. 2536).
(2) The Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2017 (Public Law
115-31; 131 Stat. 446).
(3) The Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2018 (Public Law
115-141; 132 Stat 646).
(4) The Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2019 (Public Law
116-6; 133 Stat. 217).
(5) The Further Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2020
(Public Law 116-94; 133 Stat. 2698).
(6) The Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2021 (Public Law
116-260).
(7) any future Act providing appropriations for the
Department of the Interior, Environment, and related agencies.
<all> | Abandoned Mine Land Reclamation Fee Reauthorization Act of 2021 | To amend the Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977 to make modifications to the Abandoned Mine Reclamation Fund, and for other purposes. | Abandoned Mine Land Reclamation Fee Reauthorization Act of 2021 | Rep. Cheney, Liz | R | WY |
25 | 12,119 | H.R.8164 | Armed Forces and National Security | Resilient Defense Assistance Act of 2022
This bill authorizes the Department of Defense to utilize various funds and programs to contribute to military climate resilience, including by authorizing funding from the Combatant Commander Initiative Fund to be used for climate resilience of military installations and essential civilian infrastructure. | To amend title 10, United States Code, to improve the climate
resilience of the Armed Forces and certain security forces and
facilities operated by allies and partners of the United States, and
for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Resilient Defense Assistance Act of
2022''.
SEC. 2. CLIMATE RESILIENCE ASSISTANCE AND IMPROVEMENTS OF THE
DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE.
(a) Inclusion of Climate Resilience Services in Certain Programs of
the Armed Forces.--
(1) Combatant commander initiative fund.--Section 166a(b)
of title 10, United States Code, is amended by adding at the
end the following new paragraphs:
``(11) Climate resilience of military installations and
essential civilian infrastructure.
``(12) Military support to civilian and military
authorities to combat illegal wildlife trafficking, illegal
timber trafficking, and illegal, unreported, or unregulated
fishing.''.
(2) Authority to build capacity of foreign security
forces.--Section 333(a) of title 10, United States Code, is
amended by adding at the end the following new paragraphs:
``(10) Activities to maintain and improve the climate
resilience of military installations and facilities available
for use in international coalition operations.
``(11) Activities to combat illegal wildlife trafficking,
illegal timber trafficking, and illegal, unreported, or
unregulated fishing.''.
(b) Contributions To Improve the Climate Resilience of Certain
Security Forces and Facilities of Allies and Partners of the United
States.--
(1) Contributions.--Part IV of subtitle A of title 10,
United States Code, is amended--
(A) in section 2350, by striking ``(and
construction incident to base operations support)'' and
inserting ``(including actions to maintain or improve
the climate resilience of bases and construction
incident to base operations support)'';
(B) in section 2806(a), by striking ``acquisition
and construction'' and inserting ``acquisition,
construction, and climate resilience''; and
(C) by inserting after such section the following
new section:
``Sec. 2806a. Contributions to improve the climate resilience of
certain facilities of allies and partners of the United
States.
``(a) Contributions.--From amounts appropriated to carry out this
section, the Secretary of Defense may make contributions to the Federal
share of the cost of construction, and other projects, to preserve or
improve the climate resilience of--
``(1) military facilities and installations of an ally or
partner of the United States; or
``(2) a civilian airfield or seaport of an ally or partner
of the United States that the Secretary determines is suitable
for military use.
``(b) Limitation on Contributions.--Funds may not be obligated or
expended pursuant to this section unless such funds have been
authorized by law for such purpose.
``(c) Additional Contributions.--
``(1) The Secretary may make an additional contribution for
a construction or other project for which the Secretary has
made a contribution under subsection (a) if--
``(A) such additional contribution is in an amount
that is greater than the amount appropriated to carry
out this section; and
``(B) the amount of the additional contribution is
not greater than 200 percent of the maximum amount
specified in section 2805(a) for a minor military
construction project.
``(2) An additional contribution described in paragraph (1)
may exceed the limitation in such paragraph--
``(A) if the sum of the additional contribution and
the contribution under subsection (a) is not greater
than 125 percent of the amount appropriated to carry
out this section; and
``(B) after the end of a 14-day period beginning on
the date on which the Secretary submits to Congress--
``(i) notice of such additional
contribution;
``(ii) reasons for such additional
contribution; and
``(iii) the source of funds to be used for
such additional contribution.''.
(2) Authorization of appropriations.--There is authorized
to be appropriated to the Secretary $10,000,000 for fiscal year
2023 to carry out section 2806a of title 10, United States
Code, as added by paragraph (1)(C).
(3) Clerical amendment.--The table of sections at the
beginning of subchapter I of chapter 169 of title 10, United
States Code, is amended by inserting after the item relating to
section 2806 the following new item:
``2806a. Contributions to improve the climate resilience of certain
facilities of allies and partners of the
United States.''.
(c) Authorization of Appropriations for the Defense Environmental
International Cooperation Program.--There is authorized to be
appropriated to the Secretary of Defense $10,000,000 for fiscal year
2023 to carry out the Defense Environmental International Cooperation
program.
<all> | Resilient Defense Assistance Act of 2022 | To amend title 10, United States Code, to improve the climate resilience of the Armed Forces and certain security forces and facilities operated by allies and partners of the United States, and for other purposes. | Resilient Defense Assistance Act of 2022 | Rep. Peters, Scott H. | D | CA |
26 | 13,784 | H.R.6080 | Government Operations and Politics | This act designates the facility of the United States Postal Service located at 5420 Kavanaugh Boulevard in Little Rock, Arkansas, as the Ronald A. Robinson Post Office. | [117th Congress Public Law 290]
[From the U.S. Government Publishing Office]
[[Page 136 STAT. 4368]]
Public Law 117-290
117th Congress
An Act
To designate the facility of the United States Postal Service located at
5420 Kavanaugh Boulevard in Little Rock, Arkansas, as the ``Ronald A.
Robinson Post Office''. <<NOTE: Dec. 27, 2022 - [H.R. 6080]>>
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. RONALD A. ROBINSON POST OFFICE.
(a) Designation.--The facility of the United States Postal Service
located at 5420 Kavanaugh Boulevard in Little Rock, Arkansas, shall be
known and designated as the ``Ronald A. Robinson Post Office''.
(b) References.--Any reference in a law, map, regulation, document,
or other record of the United States to the facility referred to in
subsection (a) shall be deemed to be a reference to the ``Ronald A.
Robinson Post Office''.
Approved December 27, 2022.
LEGISLATIVE HISTORY--H.R. 6080:
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
CONGRESSIONAL RECORD, Vol. 168 (2022):
Sept. 28, considered and passed House.
Dec. 19, considered and passed Senate.
<all> | To designate the facility of the United States Postal Service located at 5420 Kavanaugh Boulevard in Little Rock, Arkansas, as the "Ronald A. Robinson Post Office". | To designate the facility of the United States Postal Service located at 5420 Kavanaugh Boulevard in Little Rock, Arkansas, as the "Ronald A. Robinson Post Office". | Official Titles - House of Representatives
Official Title as Introduced
To designate the facility of the United States Postal Service located at 5420 Kavanaugh Boulevard in Little Rock, Arkansas, as the "Ronald A. Robinson Post Office". | Rep. Hill, J. French | R | AR |
27 | 8,130 | H.R.2205 | Transportation and Public Works | Incentivizing Value Capture for Greener Transportation Act
This bill authorizes the Department of Transportation (DOT) to provide technical assistance grants to states and local governments to (1) develop more state and local value capture mechanisms for long-term funding that promote mobility, public transportation, and affordable transit-oriented development; (2) improve public transportation and mobility; and (3) develop strategic partnerships that create greater self-help capacity that leads to greater long term and robust investments in public transportation, mobility, inclusive economic development, and affordable transit-oriented development.
DOT must | To amend title 49, United States Code, to provide grants and develop
value capture policy.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Incentivizing Value Capture for
Greener Transportation Act''.
SEC. 2. FINDINGS.
Congress finds the following:
(1) In 2018, greenhouse gas emissions (GHG) rose sharply by
3.4 percent, the second-largest annual gain in more than 20
years, and GHG emissions have grown by approximately 1.5
percent every year over the last decade.
(2) Greenhouse gas emissions from the transportation
sector, including cars and trucks, are the largest source of
GHG emissions in the United States with the transportation
sector emitting 1,900,000,000 tons of carbon dioxide (CO2)
annually.
(3) Annual vehicle miles traveled (VMT) in the United
States have nearly tripled since 1971, rising to
3,210,000,000,000 in 2018.
(4) Consequently, in 2018, Americans lost an average of 97
hours a year due to congestion, costing them nearly
$87,000,000,000.
(5) Residents in communities located near high-capacity
transit are twice as likely not to own a car as residents who
live elsewhere, and they own half as many cars per household.
(6) Increasing transit ridership and improving our transit
systems in urban, suburban, and exurban areas, using innovative
solutions such as land value capture, will help reduce VMT,
congestion, GHG emissions, and reliance on fossil fuels and
vehicles. By reducing such factors, the United States can help
curb the effects of climate change.
SEC. 3. VALUE CAPTURE POLICY AND PLANNING PROGRAM.
Chapter 53 of title 49, United States Code, is amended by adding at
the end the following:
``SEC. 5341. TECHNICAL ASSISTANCE AND VALUE CAPTURE POLICY.
``(a) Technical Assistance and Policy Development.--
``(1) Technical assistance grants.--The Secretary may make
a grant available to a State or local government if the
Secretary determines that such grant will assist recipients
under this section to--
``(A) develop more State and local value capture
mechanisms for long-term funding that promote mobility,
public transportation, and affordable transit-oriented
development;
``(B) improve public transportation and mobility;
and
``(C) develop strategic partnerships that create
greater self-help capacity that leads to greater long
term and robust investments in public transportation,
mobility, inclusive economic development, and
affordable transit-oriented development.
``(2) Performance benchmarks and maintenance of effort.--
``(A) Performance benchmarks.--To be eligible for a
grant under this section, the grantee shall include in
its application an explanation of how the grant funds
will demonstrably increase transit capacity and
ridership and reduce carbon dioxide emissions, vehicle
miles traveled, and congestion.
``(B) Maintenance of effort.--
``(i) In general and possible reduction.--
In addition to the eligibility requirements of
subparagraph (A), a grantee also needs to
include in its application a certification to
maintain the same funding level as the
aggregate expenditures at or above the average
level of expenditures in the 2 fiscal years
prior to the date of enactment of this section.
If a State or local government that receives a
grant under this section reduces its combined
fiscal effort for value capture initiatives and
programs or the aggregate expenditures within
the State or local government to support value
capture, public transportation, or affordable
transit-oriented development programs for any
fiscal year that a State or local government
receives a grant authorized under this section
relative to the previous fiscal year, the
Secretary, except as provided in clause (ii),
shall reduce support for such State or local
government under this section by the same
amount as the decline in State or local effort
for such fiscal year.
``(ii) Waiver.--The Secretary may waive the
requirements of this subparagraph if--
``(I) the Secretary determines that
a waiver would be appropriate due to a
precipitous decline in the financial
resources of a State or local
government as a result of unforeseen
economic hardship or a natural disaster
that has necessitated across-the-board
reductions in State or local services,
including value capture, public
transportation, and affordable transit-
oriented development programs; or
``(II) due to the circumstances of
a State or local government requiring
reductions in specific programs, if the
State or local government presents to
the Secretary a justification and
demonstration why other programs could
not be reduced and how value capture,
public transportation, and affordable
transit-oriented development programs
in the State will not be
disproportionately harmed by such State
or local action.
``(3) Davis-bacon.--The Secretary shall ensure that
laborers and mechanics employed by contractors and
subcontractors in construction work financed by a grant made
under this section will be paid wages not less than those
prevailing on similar construction in the locality, as
determined by the Secretary of Labor under subchapter IV of
chapter 31 of title 40 (commonly known as the `Davis-Bacon
Act').
``(4) Enforcement.--The Secretary may revoke grant funds
provided under this section if a grantee fails to implement the
maintenance of effort under paragraph (2)(B) and Davis-Bacon
provisions referred to paragraph (3).
``(5) Evaluation.--Not later than 3 years after receiving a
grant under this section, the grantee shall assess the
effectiveness of the use of the funds by evaluating whether the
funds created a demonstrable increase in transit capacity and
ridership and a reduction in carbon dioxide emissions, vehicle
miles traveled, and congestion.
``(6) Technical assistance.--The Secretary, through a
competitive bid process, may enter into contracts, cooperative
agreements, and other agreements with national nonprofit
organizations and universities that have the appropriate
demonstrated capacity to provide value capture-related
technical assistance under this subsection, including guidance
on implementing foreign value capture models within the United
States.
``(7) Supplement not supplant.--Grant funds received under
this section shall be used to supplement and not supplant other
Federal, State, and local public funds expended on public value
capture and affordable transit-oriented development programs in
the State or local government.
``(8) Value capture policy requirements.--
``(A) Value capture policy.--Not later than October
1 of the fiscal year that begins 2 years after the date
of enactment of this section, the Secretary, in
collaboration with State departments of transportation,
metropolitan planning organizations, and regional
council of governments, shall establish voluntary and
consensus-based value capture standards, policies, and
best practices for State and local value capture
mechanisms that promote greater investments in public
transportation and affordable transit-oriented
development.
``(B) Report.--Not later than 15 months after the
date of enactment of this section, the Secretary shall
make available to the public a report cataloging
examples of State and local laws and policies that
provide for value capture and value sharing that
promote greater investment in public transportation and
affordable transit-oriented development.
``(C) Best practices.--Based on the report required
under subparagraph (B), the Secretary shall identify
and disseminate examples of best practices where States
and local governments have adopted value capture and
value sharing mechanisms that have successfully
provided for greater investment in public
transportation and affordable transit-oriented
development.
``(b) Definitions.--For purposes of this section--
``(1) the term `value capture' means capturing a portion of
the incremental economic value created by government
investments, activities, and policies that may generate
alternative revenue streams, assets, or other financial value
for which could assist in funding those investments and
activities;
``(2) the term `transit-oriented development' means a mix
of commercial, residential, office, and entertainment centered
around or located near a public transportation station that
promotes affordable housing and commercial space;
``(3) the term `affordable housing' means housing, the cost
of which does not exceed 30 percent of the income of a family;
and
``(4) the term `affordable commercial space' means
commercial space dedicated to either protect or promote small
and disadvantage businesses provided below market rent
value.''.
<all> | Incentivizing Value Capture for Greener Transportation Act | To amend title 49, United States Code, to provide grants and develop value capture policy. | Incentivizing Value Capture for Greener Transportation Act | Rep. DeSaulnier, Mark | D | CA |
28 | 5,590 | H.R.1032 | Science, Technology, Communications | Telecommunications Skilled Workforce Act
This bill establishes measures to address the workforce needs of the telecommunications industry.
Specifically, the bill requires the Federal Communications Commission (FCC) to establish an interagency working group to develop recommendations for addressing these workforce needs.
The FCC must also establish and issue guidance on how states can meet the workforce needs of the telecommunications industry, including guidance on how a state workforce development board can (1) utilize federal resources available to meet telecommunications industry workforce needs; and (2) promote and improve recruitment in qualified industry-led workforce development programs, including the Telecommunications Industry Registered Apprenticeship Program.
The Government Accountability Office must submit to Congress a report that estimates the number of skilled telecommunications workers that will be required to build and maintain (1) broadband infrastructure in rural areas, and (2) the 5G wireless infrastructure needed to support 5G wireless technology. | To address the workforce needs of the telecommunications industry.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Telecommunications Skilled Workforce
Act''.
SEC. 2. TELECOMMUNICATIONS INTERAGENCY WORKING GROUP.
(a) In General.--Part I of title III of the Communications Act of
1934 (47 U.S.C. 301 et seq.) is amended by adding at the end the
following:
``SEC. 344. TELECOMMUNICATIONS INTERAGENCY WORKING GROUP.
``(a) Definitions.--In this section:
``(1) 5G.--The term `5G', with respect to wireless
infrastructure and wireless technology, means fifth-generation
wireless infrastructure and wireless technology.
``(2) Rural area.--The term `rural area' means any area
other than--
``(A) a city, town, or incorporated area that has a
population of more than 20,000 inhabitants; or
``(B) an urbanized area adjacent to a city or town
that has a population of more than 50,000 inhabitants.
``(3) Telecommunications interagency working group.--The
term `telecommunications interagency working group' means the
interagency working group established under subsection (b).
``(b) Establishment.--Not later than 60 days after the date of
enactment of this section, the Chairman of the Commission, in
consultation with the Secretary of Labor, shall establish within the
Commission an interagency working group to develop recommendations to
address the workforce needs of the telecommunications industry.
``(c) Duties.--In developing recommendations under subsection (b),
the telecommunications interagency working group shall--
``(1) determine whether, and if so how, any Federal laws
(including regulations), guidance, policies, or practices, or
any budgetary constraints, inhibit institutions of higher
education (as defined in section 101 of the Higher Education
Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1001)) or for-profit businesses from
establishing, adopting, or expanding programs intended to
address the workforce needs of the telecommunications industry,
including the workforce needed to build and maintain the 5G
wireless infrastructure necessary to support 5G wireless
technology;
``(2) identify potential policies and programs that could
encourage and improve coordination among Federal agencies,
between Federal agencies and States, and among States, on
telecommunications workforce needs;
``(3) identify ways in which existing Federal programs,
including programs that help facilitate the employment of
veterans and military personnel transitioning into civilian
life, could be leveraged to help address the workforce needs of
the telecommunications industry;
``(4) identify ways to encourage individuals and for-profit
businesses to participate in qualified industry-led workforce
development programs, including the Telecommunications Industry
Registered Apprenticeship Program;
``(5) identify ways to improve recruitment in qualified
industry-led workforce development programs, including the
Telecommunications Industry Registered Apprenticeship Program
and other industry-recognized apprenticeship programs; and
``(6) identify Federal incentives that could be provided to
institutions of higher education, for-profit businesses, State
workforce development boards established under section 101 of
the Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act (29 U.S.C. 3111),
or other relevant stakeholders to establish or adopt programs,
or expand current programs, to address the workforce needs of
the telecommunications industry, including such needs in rural
areas.
``(d) Members.--The telecommunications interagency working group
shall be composed of representatives of such Federal agencies and
relevant non-Federal industry stakeholder organizations as the Chairman
of the Commission, in consultation with the Secretary of Labor,
considers appropriate, including--
``(1) a representative of the Department of Education,
appointed by the Secretary of Education;
``(2) a representative of the National Telecommunications
and Information Administration, appointed by the Assistant
Secretary of Commerce for Communications and Information;
``(3) a representative of the Department of Commerce,
appointed by the Secretary of Commerce;
``(4) a representative of the Commission, appointed by the
Chairman of the Commission;
``(5) a representative of the Telecommunications Industry
Registered Apprenticeship Program, appointed by the Secretary
of Labor;
``(6) a representative of a telecommunications industry
association, appointed by the Chairman of the Commission;
``(7) a representative of an Indian Tribe or Tribal
organization, appointed by the Secretary of Labor;
``(8) a representative of a rural telecommunications
carrier, appointed by the Chairman of the Commission;
``(9) a representative of a telecommunications contractor
firm, appointed by the Chairman of the Commission;
``(10) a representative of a minority institution (as
defined in section 365 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20
U.S.C. 1067k)), appointed by the Secretary of Education; and
``(11) a representative of a labor organization, appointed
by the Secretary of Labor.
``(e) No Compensation.--A member of the telecommunications
interagency working group shall serve without compensation.
``(f) Report to Congress.--Not later than 180 days after the date
on which the telecommunications interagency working group is
established, the working group shall submit a report containing
recommendations to address the workforce needs of the
telecommunications industry to--
``(1) the Committee on Commerce, Science, and
Transportation of the Senate;
``(2) the Committee on Health, Education, Labor, and
Pensions of the Senate;
``(3) the Committee on Energy and Commerce of the House of
Representatives; and
``(4) the Committee on Education and Labor of the House of
Representatives.
``(g) Nonapplicability of FACA.--The Federal Advisory Committee Act
(5 U.S.C. App.) shall not apply to the telecommunications interagency
working group.''.
(b) Sunset.--Section 344 of the Communications Act of 1934, as
added by subsection (a), shall be repealed on the day after the date on
which the interagency working group established under subsection (b) of
that section submits the report to Congress under subsection (f) of
that section.
SEC. 3. TELECOMMUNICATIONS WORKFORCE GUIDANCE.
Not later than 270 days after the date of enactment of this Act,
the Chairman of the Federal Communications Commission, in consultation
with the Secretary of Labor, shall establish and issue guidance on how
States can address the workforce needs of the telecommunications
industry, including guidance on how a State workforce development board
established under section 101 of the Workforce Innovation and
Opportunity Act (29 U.S.C. 3111) can--
(1) utilize Federal resources available to States to meet
the workforce needs of the telecommunications industry; and
(2) promote and improve recruitment in qualified industry-
led workforce development programs, including the
Telecommunications Industry Registered Apprenticeship Program.
SEC. 4. GAO ASSESSMENT OF WORKFORCE NEEDS OF THE TELECOMMUNICATIONS
INDUSTRY.
(a) Definitions.--In this section:
(1) 5G.--The term ``5G'', with respect to wireless
infrastructure and wireless technology, means fifth-generation
wireless infrastructure and wireless technology.
(2) Appropriate congressional committees.--The term
``appropriate congressional committees'' means--
(A) the Committee on Commerce, Science, and
Transportation of the Senate;
(B) the Committee on Health, Education, Labor, and
Pensions of the Senate;
(C) the Committee on Energy and Commerce of the
House of Representatives; and
(D) the Committee on Education and Labor of the
House of Representatives.
(3) Broadband infrastructure.--The term ``broadband
infrastructure'' means any buried, underground, or aerial
facility, and any wireless or wireline connection, that enables
users to send and receive voice, video, data, graphics, or any
combination thereof.
(b) Report.--Not later than 180 days after the date of enactment of
this Act, the Comptroller General of the United States shall submit to
the appropriate congressional committees a report that estimates the
number of skilled telecommunications workers that will be required to
build and maintain--
(1) broadband infrastructure in rural areas; and
(2) the 5G wireless infrastructure needed to support 5G
wireless technology.
<all> | Telecommunications Skilled Workforce Act | To address the workforce needs of the telecommunications industry. | Telecommunications Skilled Workforce Act | Rep. Walberg, Tim | R | MI |
29 | 4,218 | S.1860 | Housing and Community Development | Lead-Safe Housing for Kids Act of 2021
This bill requires the Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD) to issue regulations regarding lead-based paint in certain federally assisted housing that was constructed prior to 1978 and in which a child younger than age six will reside.
Specifically, HUD must require owners of such housing to (1) conduct, within specified time frames, risk assessment for lead-based paint hazards; (2) control the hazards; and (3) provide certain notice to residents.
If a family with a child younger than age six occupies such housing in which lead-based paint hazards are identified but not controlled, HUD must allow the family to relocate on an emergency basis to another dwelling without any wait, penalty, or lapse in assistance. | To amend the Lead-Based Paint Poisoning Prevention Act to provide for
additional procedures for families with children under the age of 6,
and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Lead-Safe Housing for Kids Act of
2021''.
SEC. 2. AMENDMENTS TO THE LEAD-BASED PAINT POISONING PREVENTION ACT.
Section 302(a) of the Lead-Based Paint Poisoning Prevention Act (42
U.S.C. 4822(a)) is amended--
(1) by redesignating paragraph (4) as paragraph (5); and
(2) by inserting after paragraph (3) the following:
``(4) Additional procedures for families with children
under the age of 6.--
``(A) Risk assessment.--
``(i) Definition.--In this subparagraph,
the term `covered housing'--
``(I) means housing receiving
Federal assistance described in
paragraph (1) that was constructed
prior to 1978; and
``(II) does not include--
``(aa) single-family
housing covered by an
application for mortgage
insurance under the National
Housing Act (12 U.S.C. 1701 et
seq.); or
``(bb) multi-family housing
that--
``(AA) is covered
by an application for
mortgage insurance
under the National
Housing Act (12 U.S.C.
1701 et seq.); and
``(BB) does not
receive any other
Federal housing
assistance.
``(ii) Regulations.--Not later than 180
days after the date of enactment of the Lead-
Safe Housing for Kids Act of 2021, the
Secretary shall promulgate regulations that--
``(I) require the owner of covered
housing in which a family with a child
of less than 6 years of age will reside
or is expected to reside to conduct an
initial risk assessment for lead-based
paint hazards--
``(aa) in the case of
covered housing receiving
tenant-based rental assistance
under section 8 of the United
States Housing Act of 1937 (42
U.S.C. 1437f), not later than
15 days after the date on which
the family and the owner submit
a request for approval of a
tenancy or lease renewal,
whichever occurs first;
``(bb) in the case of
covered housing receiving
public housing assistance under
the United States Housing Act
of 1937 (42 U.S.C. 1437 et
seq.) or project-based rental
assistance under section 8 of
the United States Housing Act
of 1937 (42 U.S.C. 1437f), not
later than 15 days after the
date on which a physical
condition inspection occurs;
and
``(cc) in the case of
covered housing not described
in item (aa) or (bb), not later
than a date established by the
Secretary;
``(II) provide that a visual
assessment alone is not sufficient for
purposes of complying with subclause
(I);
``(III) require that, if lead-based
paint hazards are identified by an
initial risk assessment conducted under
subclause (I), the owner of the covered
housing shall--
``(aa) not later than 30
days after the date on which
the initial risk assessment is
conducted, control the lead-
based paint hazards, including
achieving clearance in
accordance with regulations
promulgated under section 402
or 404 of the Toxic Substances
Control Act (15 U.S.C. 2682,
2684), as applicable; and
``(bb) provide notice to
all residents in the covered
housing affected by the initial
risk assessment, and provide
notice in the common areas of
the covered housing, that lead-
based paint hazards were
identified and will be
controlled within the 30-day
period described in item (aa);
and
``(IV) provide that there shall be
no extension of the 30-day period
described in subclause (III)(aa).
``(iii) Exceptions.--The regulations
promulgated under clause (ii) shall provide an
exception to the requirement under subclause
(I) of such clause for covered housing--
``(I) if the owner of the covered
housing submits to the Secretary
documentation--
``(aa) that the owner
conducted a risk assessment of
the covered housing for lead-
based paint hazards during the
12-month period preceding the
date on which the family is
expected to reside in the
covered housing; and
``(bb) of any clearance
examinations of lead-based
paint hazard control work
resulting from the risk
assessment described in item
(aa);
``(II) from which all lead-based
paint has been identified and removed
and clearance has been achieved in
accordance with regulations promulgated
under section 402 or 404 of the Toxic
Substances Control Act (15 U.S.C. 2682,
2684), as applicable;
``(III) if--
``(aa) lead-based paint
hazards are identified in the
dwelling unit in the covered
housing in which the family
will reside or is expected to
reside;
``(bb) the dwelling unit is
unoccupied;
``(cc) the owner of the
covered housing, without any
further delay in occupancy or
increase in rent, provides the
family with another dwelling
unit in the covered housing
that has no lead-based paint
hazards; and
``(dd) the common areas
servicing the new dwelling unit
have no lead-based paint
hazards; and
``(IV) in accordance with any other
standard or exception the Secretary
deems appropriate based on health-based
standards.
``(B) Relocation.--Not later than 180 days after
the date of enactment of the Lead-Safe Housing for Kids
Act of 2021, the Secretary shall promulgate regulations
to provide that a family with a child of less than 6
years of age that occupies a dwelling unit in covered
housing in which lead-based paint hazards were
identified, but not controlled in accordance with
regulations required under subparagraph (A)(ii), may
relocate on an emergency basis and without placement on
any waitlist, penalty (including rent payments to be
made for that dwelling unit), or lapse in assistance
to--
``(i) a dwelling unit that was constructed
in 1978 or later; or
``(ii) another dwelling unit in covered
housing that has no lead-based paint
hazards.''.
SEC. 3. AUTHORIZATION OF APPROPRIATIONS.
There is authorized to be appropriated to carry out the amendments
made by section 2 such sums as may be necessary for each of fiscal
years 2022 through 2026.
<all> | Lead-Safe Housing for Kids Act of 2021 | A bill to amend the Lead-Based Paint Poisoning Prevention Act to provide for additional procedures for families with children under the age of 6, and for other purposes. | Lead-Safe Housing for Kids Act of 2021 | Sen. Durbin, Richard J. | D | IL |
30 | 2,849 | S.465 | Health | COVID-19 Health Disparities Action Act of 2021
This bill requires the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) to raise awareness about COVID-19 (i.e., coronavirus disease 2019) and promote vaccination among racial and ethnic minority groups and other populations that have experienced health disparities related to the disease.
The CDC must conduct, subject to available funding, a public awareness campaign that targets those populations. The CDC must coordinate the campaign with the White House COVID-19 Health Equity Task Force and other federal, state, tribal, and local entities.
The CDC must also award grants to health departments for similar COVID-19 awareness campaigns. Grant-funded campaigns must complement the CDC's campaign, as well as other efforts to inform the public about the disease. In addition, the Department of Health and Human Services must develop prototype materials for grantees to use in their campaigns. | To establish and support public awareness campaigns to address COVID-
19-related health disparities and promote vaccination.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``COVID-19 Health Disparities Action
Act of 2021''.
SEC. 2. FEDERAL PUBLIC AWARENESS CAMPAIGNS TO ADDRESS COVID-19-RELATED
HEALTH DISPARITIES AND PROMOTE VACCINATION.
(a) In General.--The Secretary, acting through the Director of the
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention and in coordination with the
White House COVID-19 Health Equity Task Force, the Office of Minority
Health of the Department of Health and Human Services, the Surgeon
General, the National Vaccine Program Office, and, as appropriate, in
coordination with the relevant Offices of Minority Health in the
Department of Health and Human Services, the National Institute on
Minority Health and Health Disparities, the Indian Health Service, and
other relevant Federal offices and agencies, shall, subject to the
availability of funding, develop and implement public awareness
campaigns about COVID-19 vaccination and other relevant information
about COVID-19 directed at racial and ethnic minority, rural, and other
vulnerable populations that have experienced health disparities during
the COVID-19 public health emergency related to rates of vaccination,
testing, infection, hospitalization, and death.
(b) Requirements.--The public awareness campaigns under this
section shall--
(1) prioritize communities where the greatest health
disparities have been identified with respect to rates of
vaccination, testing, infection, hospitalization, and death
related to COVID-19, with a focus on disparities affecting
racial and ethnic minority, rural, and other vulnerable
populations;
(2) be accessible, culturally competent, and, as
appropriate, multilingual;
(3) use print, radio, or internet media, including
partnerships with social media influencers and thought leaders,
or other forms of public communication, including local,
independent, or community-based written news and electronic
publications; and
(4) provide information based on scientific evidence,
dispel misinformation, and promote transparency regarding--
(A) COVID-19 vaccination, which may include
information regarding--
(i) the effects of COVID-19 vaccination on
disease transmission and severity, and the
associated health impacts for individuals,
communities, or the Nation;
(ii) the effects of COVID-19 vaccination on
the economic health of communities or the
Nation;
(iii) the current or upcoming availability
of COVID-19 vaccination with no cost-sharing
for most United States residents;
(iv) locations where COVID-19 vaccinations
are or will be available;
(v) any relevant information regarding
vaccination allocation or populations that are
prioritized for vaccination in the region; and
(vi) any other information regarding COVID-
19 vaccination, as the Secretary determines
appropriate;
(B) COVID-19 testing, which may include information
regarding--
(i) the effects of COVID-19 testing on
disease transmission;
(ii) the availability of COVID-19 testing
with no cost-sharing for most United States
residents; and
(iii) locations where COVID-19 testing is
available in the region;
(C) the actions that individuals may take to
protect themselves from COVID-19, which may include
masking and social distancing; or
(D) any other topics related to COVID-19, as the
Secretary determines appropriate.
(c) Coordination.--The public awareness campaigns under this
section shall be complementary to, and coordinated with, any other
Federal, State, Tribal, and local efforts, including the grant program
described in section 3, as appropriate.
(d) Report to Congress.--Not later than 45 days after the date on
which amounts are made available to the Secretary under this section,
the Secretary shall submit to Congress a report on how such funds have
been used during such 45-day period and a plan for using any remaining
funds within the next 45 days.
(e) Authorization of Appropriations.--There is authorized to be
appropriated to carry out this section $50,000,000 for fiscal year
2021.
SEC. 3. GRANT PROGRAM FOR PUBLIC AWARENESS CAMPAIGNS TO ADDRESS COVID-
19-RELATED HEALTH DISPARITIES AND PROMOTE VACCINATION.
(a) In General.--The Secretary, acting through the Director of the
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention and in coordination with the
White House COVID-19 Health Equity Task Force, the Office of Minority
Health of the Department of Health and Human Services, the Surgeon
General, the National Vaccine Program Office, and, as appropriate, in
coordination with the relevant Offices of Minority Health in the
Department of Health and Human Services, the National Institute on
Minority Health and Health Disparities, the Indian Health Service, and
other relevant Federal offices and agencies, shall award competitive
grants to State, Tribal, and territorial health departments to support
public awareness campaigns about COVID-19 directed at racial and ethnic
minority, rural, and other vulnerable populations that have experienced
health disparities during the COVID-19 public health emergency related
to rates of vaccination, testing, infection, hospitalization, and
death.
(b) Eligible Local Entities.--Recipients of grants under this
section may disseminate the grant funding to eligible local entities,
which may include local health departments, nonprofit community-based
organizations, Tribal organizations, urban Indian organizations, health
care providers, institutions of higher education, and nonprofit faith-
based organizations, to develop and implement the public awareness
campaigns described in subsection (a).
(c) Prototypes.--The Secretary shall develop prototype campaign
materials and make such materials available on the internet website of
the Department of Health and Human Services for grant recipients and
eligible local entities to adapt as needed to meet the needs of local
communities.
(d) Requirements.--The public awareness campaigns under this
section shall--
(1) prioritize communities where the greatest health
disparities have been identified with respect to rates of
vaccination, testing, infection, hospitalization, and death
related to COVID-19, with a focus on disparities affecting
racial and ethnic minority, rural, and other vulnerable
populations;
(2) be accessible, culturally competent, and, as
appropriate, multilingual;
(3) use print, radio, or internet media, including
partnerships with social media influencers and thought leaders,
or other forms of public communication, including local,
independent, or community-based written news and electronic
publications; and
(4) provide information based on scientific evidence,
dispel misinformation, and promote transparency regarding--
(A) COVID-19 vaccination, which may include
information regarding--
(i) the effects of COVID-19 vaccination on
disease transmission and severity, and the
associated health impacts for individuals,
communities, or the Nation;
(ii) the effects of COVID-19 vaccination on
the economic health of communities or the
Nation;
(iii) the current or upcoming availability
of COVID-19 vaccination with no cost-sharing
for most United States residents;
(iv) locations where COVID-19 vaccinations
are or will be available;
(v) any relevant information regarding
vaccination allocation or populations that are
prioritized for vaccination in the region; and
(vi) any other information regarding COVID-
19 vaccination, as the Secretary determines
appropriate;
(B) COVID-19 testing, which may include information
regarding--
(i) the effects of COVID-19 testing on
disease transmission;
(ii) the availability of COVID-19 testing
with no cost-sharing for most United States
residents; and
(iii) locations where COVID-19 testing is
available in the region;
(C) the actions that individuals may take to
protect themselves from COVID-19, which may include
masking and social distancing; or
(D) any other topics related to COVID-19, as the
Secretary determines appropriate.
(e) Coordination.--The public health campaigns supported by grants
awarded under this section shall be complementary to, and coordinated
with, any other Federal, State, or local efforts, including the public
awareness campaigns described in section 2, as appropriate.
(f) Timing.--The Secretary shall award the grants under this
section not later than 60 days after the date of enactment of this Act.
(g) Authorization of Appropriations.--There is authorized to be
appropriated to carry out this section $50,000,000 for fiscal year 2021
and $25,000,000 for fiscal year 2022.
SEC. 4. DEFINITIONS.
In this Act--
(1) the term ``COVID-19 public health emergency'' means the
public health emergency first declared by the Secretary of
Health and Human Services under section 319 of the Public
Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 247d) on January 31, 2020, with
respect to COVID-19;
(2) the term ``racial and ethnic minority'' has the meaning
given the term ``racial and ethnic minority group'' in section
1707(g) of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 300u-6(g));
(3) the term ``relevant Offices of Minority Health in the
Department of Health and Human Services'' may include--
(A) the Office of Extramural Research, Education,
and Priority Populations of the Agency for Healthcare
Research and Quality;
(B) the Office of Minority Health and Health Equity
of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention;
(C) the Office of Minority Health of the Centers
for Medicare & Medicaid Services;
(D) the Office of Minority Health and Health Equity
of the Food and Drug Administration;
(E) the Office of Health Equity of the Health
Resources and Services Administration; and
(F) the Office of Behavioral Health Equity of the
Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services
Administration;
(4) the term ``Secretary'' means the Secretary of Health
and Human Services;
(5) the term ``Tribal organization'' has the meanings given
the term ``tribal organization'' in section 4 of the Indian
Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act (25 U.S.C.
5304); and
(6) the term ``urban Indian organization'' has the meaning
given the term in section 4 of the Indian Health Care
Improvement Act (25 U.S.C. 1603).
<all> | COVID–19 Health Disparities Action Act of 2021 | A bill to establish and support public awareness campaigns to address COVID-19-related health disparities and promote vaccination. | COVID–19 Health Disparities Action Act of 2021 | Sen. Menendez, Robert | D | NJ |
31 | 656 | S.2452 | Taxation | Encouraging Americans to Save Act
This bill sets forth provisions to provide matching payments for retirement savings and Individual Retirement Account (IRA) contributions for individuals who have attained the age of 18 years, excluding taxpayer dependents. Specifically, it allows an enhanced 50% tax credit, up to $2,000, for deductible retirement savings contributions and for IRA contributions.
The bill also directs the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) to establish the R-Bond Program as a permanent program for the establishment and maintenance of individual retirement plans and directs the IRS to educate taxpayers on the benefits of the savings programs provided by this bill. | To amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to provide matching payments
for retirement savings contributions by certain individuals, and for
other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Encouraging Americans to Save Act''.
SEC. 2. SAVER'S MATCHING CREDIT FOR ELECTIVE DEFERRAL AND IRA
CONTRIBUTIONS BY CERTAIN INDIVIDUALS.
(a) In General.--Subchapter B of chapter 65 of the Internal Revenue
Code of 1986 is amended by adding at the end the following new section:
``SEC. 6433. SAVER'S MATCHING CREDIT FOR ELECTIVE DEFERRAL AND IRA
CONTRIBUTIONS BY CERTAIN INDIVIDUALS.
``(a) In General.--
``(1) Allowance of credit.--Any eligible individual who
makes qualified retirement savings contributions for the
taxable year shall be allowed a credit for such taxable year in
an amount equal to the applicable percentage of so much of the
qualified retirement savings contributions made by such
eligible individual for the taxable year as does not exceed
$2,000.
``(2) Payment of credit.--The credit under this section
shall be paid by the Secretary as a contribution (as soon as
practicable after the eligible individual has filed a tax
return for the taxable year) to the applicable retirement
savings vehicle of an eligible individual.
``(b) Applicable Percentage.--For purposes of this section--
``(1) In general.--Except as provided in paragraph (2), the
applicable percentage is 50 percent.
``(2) Phaseout.--The percentage under paragraph (1) shall
be reduced (but not below zero) by the number of percentage
points which bears the same ratio to 50 percentage points as--
``(A) the excess of--
``(i) the taxpayer's modified adjusted
gross income for such taxable year, over
``(ii) the applicable dollar amount, bears
to
``(B) the phaseout range.
If any reduction determined under this paragraph is not a whole
percentage point, such reduction shall be rounded to the next
lowest whole percentage point.
``(3) Applicable dollar amount; phaseout range.--
``(A) Joint returns.--Except as provided in
subparagraph (B)--
``(i) the applicable dollar amount is
$65,000, and
``(ii) the phaseout range is $20,000.
``(B) Other returns.--In the case of--
``(i) a head of a household (as defined in
section 2(b)), the applicable dollar amount and
the phaseout range shall be \3/4\ of the
amounts applicable under subparagraph (A) (as
adjusted under subsection (g)), and
``(ii) any taxpayer who is not filing a
joint return and who is not a head of a
household (as so defined), the applicable
dollar amount and the phaseout range shall be
\1/2\ of the amounts applicable under
subparagraph (A) (as so adjusted).
``(4) Exception; minimum credit.--In the case of an
eligible individual with respect to whom (without regard to
this paragraph) the credit determined under subsection (a)(1)
is greater than zero but less than $100, the credit allowed
under this section shall be $100.
``(c) Eligible Individual.--For purposes of this section--
``(1) In general.--Except as provided in paragraph (2), the
term `eligible individual' means any individual if such
individual has attained the age of 18 as of the close of the
taxable year.
``(2) Dependents not eligible.--The term `eligible
individual' shall not include any individual with respect to
whom a deduction under section 151 is allowed to another
taxpayer for a taxable year beginning in the calendar year in
which such individual's taxable year begins.
``(d) Qualified Retirement Savings Contributions.--For purposes of
this section--
``(1) In general.--The term `qualified retirement savings
contributions' means, with respect to any taxable year, the sum
of--
``(A) the amount of the qualified retirement
contributions (as defined in section 219(e)) made by
the eligible individual,
``(B) the amount of--
``(i) any elective deferrals (as defined in
section 402(g)(3)) of such individual, and
``(ii) any elective deferral of
compensation by such individual under an
eligible deferred compensation plan (as defined
in section 457(b)) of an eligible employer
described in section 457(e)(1)(A),
``(C) the amount of voluntary employee
contributions by such individual to any qualified
retirement plan (as defined in section 4974(c)), and
``(D) the amount of contributions by such
individual to a qualified ABLE program (as defined in
section 529A(b)) for the benefit of the individual.
Such term shall not include any amount attributable to a
payment under subsection (a).
``(2) Reduction for certain distributions.--
``(A) In general.--The qualified retirement savings
contributions determined under paragraph (1) for a
taxable year shall be reduced (but not below zero) by
the aggregate distributions received by the individual
during the testing period from any entity of a type to
which contributions under paragraph (1) may be made.
``(B) Testing period.--For purposes of subparagraph
(A), the testing period, with respect to a taxable
year, is the period which includes--
``(i) such taxable year,
``(ii) the 2 preceding taxable years, and
``(iii) the period beginning on the day
after the last day of such taxable year and
ending with the due date (including extensions)
for filing the return of tax for such taxable
year.
``(C) Excepted distributions.--There shall not be
taken into account under subparagraph (A)--
``(i) any distribution referred to in
section 72(p), 401(k)(8), 401(m)(6), 402(g)(2),
404(k), or 408(d)(4),
``(ii) any distribution to which section
408(d)(3) or 408A(d)(3) applies,
``(iii) any distribution to which the rules
described in the second sentence of section
529A(b)(2) apply, and
``(iv) any portion of a distribution if
such portion is transferred or paid in a
rollover contribution (as defined in section
402(c), 403(a)(4), 403(b)(8), 408A(e), or
457(e)(16)) to an account or plan to which
qualified retirement savings contributions can
be made.
``(D) Treatment of distributions received by spouse
of individual.--For purposes of determining
distributions received by an individual under
subparagraph (A) for any taxable year, any distribution
received by the spouse of such individual shall be
treated as received by such individual if such
individual and spouse file a joint return for such
taxable year and for the taxable year during which the
spouse receives the distribution.
``(e) Applicable Retirement Savings Vehicle.--
``(1) In general.--The term `applicable retirement savings
vehicle' means--
``(A) an account or plan elected by the eligible
individual under paragraph (2),
``(B) in the case of qualified retirement savings
contributions described in subsection (d)(1)(D), the
qualified ABLE program (as defined in section 529A(b))
to which such contributions were made, or
``(C) if no such election is made or the Secretary
is not able to make a contribution into such account or
plan, an account established for the benefit of the
eligible individual under the R-Bond Program.
For purposes of subparagraph (C), if no account has previously
been established for the benefit of the individual under the R-
Bond Program, the Secretary shall establish such an account for
such individual for purposes of receiving contributions under
this section.
``(2) Other retirement vehicles.--An eligible individual
may elect, in such form and manner as the Secretary may
provide, to have the amount of the credit determined under
subsection (a) contributed to an account or plan which--
``(A) is a Roth IRA or a designated Roth account
(within the meaning of section 402A) of an applicable
retirement plan (as defined in section 402A(e)(1)),
``(B) is for the benefit of the eligible
individual, and
``(C) accepts contributions made under this
section.
In the case of a plan of which a qualified trust under section
401(a) is a part, an annuity contract described in section
403(b), or a plan described in section 457(b) which is
established and maintained by an employer described in section
457(e)(1)(A), the plan shall have discretion whether to accept
contributions made under this section, but if the plan accepts
any such contributions it shall accept them on a uniform basis.
``(f) Other Definitions and Special Rules.--
``(1) Modified adjusted gross income.--For purposes of this
section, the term `modified adjusted gross income' means
adjusted gross income--
``(A) determined without regard to sections 911,
931, and 933, and
``(B) determined without regard to any exclusion or
deduction allowed for any qualified retirement savings
contribution made during the taxable year.
``(2) Treatment of contributions.--In the case of any
contribution under subsection (a)(2)--
``(A) except as otherwise provided in this section
or by the Secretary under regulations, such
contribution shall be treated as--
``(i) an elective deferral made by the
individual which is a designated Roth
contribution, if contributed to an applicable
retirement plan, or
``(ii) a Roth IRA contribution made by such
individual, if contributed to a Roth IRA,
``(B) such contribution shall not be treated as
income to the taxpayer, and
``(C) such contribution shall not be taken into
account with respect to any applicable limitation under
sections 402(g)(1), 403(b), 408(a)(1), 408(b)(2)(B),
408A(c)(2), 414(v)(2), 415(c), or 457(b)(2), and shall
be disregarded for purposes of sections 401(a)(4),
401(k)(3), 401(k)(11)(B)(i)(III), 410(b), and 416.
``(3) Treatment of qualified plans, etc.--A plan or
arrangement to which a contribution is made under this section
shall not be treated as violating any requirement under section
401, 403, 408, or 457 solely by reason of accepting such
contribution.
``(4) Erroneous credits.--If any contribution is
erroneously paid under subsection (a)(2), the amount of such
erroneous payment shall be treated as an underpayment of tax.
``(g) Inflation Adjustments.--
``(1) In general.--In the case of any taxable year
beginning in a calendar year after 2023, each of the dollar
amounts in subsections (a)(1) and (b)(3)(A)(i) shall be
increased by an amount equal to--
``(A) such dollar amount, multiplied by
``(B) the cost-of-living adjustment determined
under section 1(f)(3) for the calendar year in which
the taxable year begins, determined by substituting
`calendar year 2022' for `calendar year 2016' in
subparagraph (A)(ii) thereof.
``(2) Rounding.--Any increase determined under paragraph
(1) shall be rounded to the nearest multiple of--
``(A) $100 in the case of an adjustment of the
amount in subsection (a)(1), and
``(B) $1,000 in the case of an adjustment of the
amount in subsection (b)(3)(A)(i).''.
(b) Payment Authority.--Section 1324(b)(2) of title 31, United
States Code, is amended by striking ``or 6431'' and inserting ``6431,
or 6433''.
(c) Deficiencies.--Section 6211(b)(4) is amended by striking ``and
6431'' and inserting ``6431, and 6433''.
(d) Reporting.--The Secretary of Labor, the Secretary of the
Treasury, and the Director of the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation
shall--
(1) amend Form 5500 to require separate reporting of the
aggregate amount of contributions received by the plan during
the year under section 6433(a)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code
of 1986 (as added by this section), and
(2) amend Form 5498 to require similar reporting with
respect to individual retirement plans (as defined in section
7701(a)(37) of such Code).
(e) Conforming Amendments.--
(1) Section 25B of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 is
amended by striking subsections (a) through (f) and inserting
the following:
``For payment of credit related to qualified retirement savings
contributions, see section 6433.''.
(2) The table of sections for subchapter B of chapter 65 of
such Code is amended by adding at the end the following new
item:
``Sec. 6433. Saver's matching credit for elective deferral and IRA
contributions by certain individuals.''.
(f) Effective Date.--The amendments made by this section shall
apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2022.
(g) Coronavirus Recovery Bonus Credit.--
(1) In general.--In the case of taxable years beginning
after December 31, 2022, and before January 1, 2028, the amount
of the credit determined under section 6433 of the Internal
Revenue Code of 1986, as added by this section, shall be
increased by an amount equal to 50 percent of so much of the
qualified retirement savings contributions made by an eligible
individual for the taxable year as does not exceed--
(A) $10,000, reduced by
(B) the aggregate amount of qualified retirement
savings contributions made by the eligible individual
in all preceding taxable years which begin after
December 31, 2022.
(2) Phaseout.--The $10,000 amount under paragraph (1)(A)
shall be reduced (but not below zero) by a percentage which
bears the same ratio to 50 percent as--
(A) the excess of--
(i) the taxpayer's modified adjusted gross
income for the taxable year, over
(ii) the applicable dollar amount, bears to
(B) the phaseout range.
If any reduction determined under this paragraph is not a whole
percentage point, such reduction shall be rounded to the next
lowest whole percentage point.
(3) Definitions.--For purposes of this subsection, the
terms ``qualified retirement savings contributions'',
``eligible individual'', ``applicable dollar amount'', and
``phaseout range'' have the meanings given such terms by
subsections (d), (c), and (b), respectively, of section 6433 of
such Code, as so added.
SEC. 3. ESTABLISHMENT OF R-BOND PROGRAM.
(a) In General.--The Secretary of the Treasury shall, not later
than January 31, 2023, establish a permanent program, to be known as
the ``R-Bond Program'', which meets the requirements of this section to
establish and maintain individual retirement plans on behalf of
individuals.
(b) Program Specifications.--
(1) In general.--
(A) IRAs.--The R-Bond Program established under
this section shall--
(i) permit the establishment of individual
retirement plans on behalf of an individual,
whether a traditional IRA or a Roth IRA or
both, as appropriate;
(ii) require the assets of each individual
retirement plan established under the program
to be held by the designated IRA trustee;
(iii) permit contributions to be made
periodically to such individual retirement
plans, including contributions paid under
section 6433(a)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code
of 1986, contributions made by direct deposit
or other electronic means, including taxpayer-
directed direct deposit of Federal income tax
refunds by the Department of the Treasury, and
by methods that provide access for the
unbanked;
(iv) permit distributions and rollovers
from such individual retirement plans upon
request of the account owner;
(v) include procedures to consolidate
multiple accounts established for the same
individual in order that each individual, to
the extent practicable, has only one Roth IRA
and only one traditional IRA under the program;
and
(vi) ensure that such individual retirement
plans are invested solely in retirement savings
bonds issued by the Department of the Treasury
for the purpose of the R-Bond Program.
(B) Regulations, etc.--The Secretary of the
Treasury shall have authority to promulgate such
regulations, rules, and other guidance as are necessary
to implement the R-Bond Program, and are consistent
with this section, as well as coordination rules
permitting individual retirement plans to be
established under the R-Bond Program by taxpayer
election on the return of tax, and in connection with
and in support of programs established under State and
local laws that enroll residents in individual
retirement plans.
(2) No fees.--No fees shall be assessed on participants in
the R-Bond Program.
(3) Limitations.--
(A) Contribution minimum.--The Secretary of the
Treasury may establish minimum amounts for initial and
additional contributions to an individual retirement
plan under the R-Bond Program, not to exceed $5.
(B) Limitation of rollover contributions and
transfers.--No rollover contribution or transfer shall
be accepted to an individual retirement plan under the
R-Bond Program except to the extent necessary to
consolidate accounts as provided in paragraph (1)(v).
(4) Designated ira trustee.--For purposes of this section,
the designated IRA trustee is the Department of the Treasury or
such other person as the Secretary of the Treasury may
designate to act as trustee of the individual retirement plans
established under the R-Bond Program.
(5) Disclosures.--The designated IRA trustee shall provide
in writing, in paper form mailed to the last known address of
the individual unless the individual affirmatively elects to
receive electronic statements--
(A) annual account balance statements to
individuals on behalf of whom individual retirement
plans are established under the R-Bond Program, which
shall include--
(i) an explanation that--
(I) program account balances are
solely invested in retirement savings
bonds issued by the Department of the
Treasury for the purpose of the R-Bond
Program;
(II) diversified investment
opportunities which are not guaranteed
by the Federal government are available
for individual retirement plans
established by other providers;
(III) no fees are charged under the
R-Bond Program; and
(IV) the individual has the right
to roll over or transfer an account
balance without penalty;
(ii) an illustration of the potential
impacts that higher yields may have on long-
term accumulation; and
(iii) information on the types of fees that
other providers may charge for the
establishment of individual retirement plans,
and the impact of fees on long-term
accumulation; and
(B) if the account balance of the individual
retirement plan exceeds $15,000 and the individual has
not previously so affirmed, a request that the
individual affirm (including instructions for making
such affirmation) to the designated IRA trustee that
the individual does not want to roll over such account
balance to another plan (according to the rules
relating to rollovers and transfers of individual
retirement plans under the Internal Revenue Code of
1986).
(c) Retirement Savings Bonds.--For purposes of this section--
(1) In general.--The term ``retirement savings bond'' means
an interest-bearing electronic United States savings bond
issued to the designated IRA trustee which is available only to
participants in the R-Bond Program.
(2) Interest rate.--Bonds issued under the R-Bond Program
shall earn interest at a rate equal to the greater of
(determined on the issue date of the bond)--
(A) the rate earned by the Government Securities
Investment Fund established under section 8438(b)(1) of
title 5, United States Code, or
(B) the rate earned by a Series I United States
savings bond.
(3) Reissue in case of change in trustee.--If a successor
designated IRA trustee is designated under subsection (b)(4),
the retirement savings bonds issued to the predecessor
designated IRA trustee shall be reissued to such successor.
(d) Definitions.--For purposes of this section--
(1) Individual retirement plan.--The term ``individual
retirement plan'' has the meaning given such term by section
7701(a)(37) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986.
(2) Traditional ira.--The term ``traditional IRA'' means an
individual retirement plan which is not a Roth IRA.
(3) Roth ira.--The term ``Roth IRA'' has the meaning given
such term by section 408A(b) of such Code.
(4) Secretary.--Any reference to the Secretary of the
Treasury includes a reference to such Secretary's delegate.
SEC. 4. PROMOTION AND GUIDANCE.
(a) Promotion.--The Secretary of the Treasury (or the Secretary's
delegate) shall educate taxpayers on the benefits provided under
section 6433 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 and the R-Bond
Program established under section 3 of this Act.
(b) Notice.--Not later than 1 year after the date of the enactment
of this Act--
(1) Plan administrators.--The Secretary of the Treasury (or
the Secretary's delegate) and the Secretary of Labor, as
appropriate, shall issue guidance to plan administrators
regarding information on the benefits provided under section
6433 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 and the R-Bond
Program established under section 3 of this Act for
participants and beneficiaries which is to be required to be
included in plan disclosures including summary plan
descriptions, open enrollment materials, and annual notices
otherwise provided by plans. Such guidance--
(A) shall include model notice language in both
English and Spanish that is deemed to satisfy the
notice requirement of the preceding sentence, and
(B) in the case of annual enrollment materials for
a plan, shall specify that such notice may be given at
the same time as any elective deferral or matching
contribution safe harbor notice would be required to be
given (even if the plan does not incorporate such a
safe harbor) and may be incorporated into such safe
harbor notice.
(2) Trustees and issuers of iras.--The Secretary of the
Treasury (or the Secretary's delegate) and the Secretary of
Labor, as appropriate, shall issue guidance to trustees and
issuers of individual retirement plans regarding information on
the benefits provided under section 6433 of the Internal
Revenue Code of 1986 and the R-Bond Program established under
section 3 of this Act for potentially eligible individuals
which is to be required to be included in individual retirement
plan disclosures.
(3) Payment of credits.--Not later than 3 years after the
date of the enactment of this Act, the Secretary of the
Treasury (or the Secretary's delegate) shall promulgate
guidance setting forth procedures that permit the direct
payment of credits under section 6433 to an employer-sponsored
plan in which the taxpayer is a participant and that elects to
receive such credits, including rules regarding notice to
taxpayers and a plan of a payment of such credit and notice
from a plan to a taxpayer and the Secretary confirming receipt
of a payment.
SEC. 5. DEADLINE TO FUND IRA WITH TAX REFUND.
(a) In General.--Paragraph (3) of section 219(f) of the Internal
Revenue Code of 1986 is amended--
(1) by striking ``is made not later than'' and inserting
``is made--
``(i) not later than'',
(2) by striking the period at the end and inserting ``,
or'', and
(3) by adding at the end the following new clause:
``(ii) by direct deposit by the Secretary
pursuant to an election on the return for such
taxable year to contribute all or a portion of
any amount owed to the taxpayer to an
individual retirement plan of the taxpayer, but
only if the return is filed not later than the
date described in clause (i).''.
(b) Effective Date.--The amendments made by this section shall
apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2021.
<all> | Encouraging Americans to Save Act | A bill to amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to provide matching payments for retirement savings contributions by certain individuals, and for other purposes. | Encouraging Americans to Save Act | Sen. Wyden, Ron | D | OR |
32 | 15,036 | H.R.8791 | Health | Medicare Enrollment Protection Act of 2022
This bill provides for a special enrollment period for Medicare medical benefits for individuals who are enrolled in COBRA continuation coverage at the time they qualify for Medicare. The special enrollment period applies during each month of COBRA coverage and the three-month period after coverage ends; individuals may enroll during the special enrollment period once during their lifetime. | To amend part B of title XVIII of the Social Security Act to provide
for a special enrollment period under Medicare for individuals enrolled
in COBRA continuation coverage, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Medicare Enrollment Protection Act
of 2022''.
SEC. 2. TREATMENT UNDER MEDICARE OF INDIVIDUALS TRANSITIONING FROM
COBRA CONTINUATION COVERAGE.
(a) Special Enrollment Period for Individuals Enrolled in COBRA
Continuation Coverage.--Section 1837(i) of the Social Security Act (42
U.S.C. 1395p(i)) is amended by adding at the end the following new
paragraph:
``(5)(A) In the case of an individual who--
``(i) at the time the individual first satisfies
paragraph (1) or (2) of section 1836(a), is enrolled in
COBRA continuation coverage (as defined in subparagraph
(D)); or
``(ii) is enrolled in COBRA continuation coverage
and immediately prior to such enrollment was an
individual described in paragraph (1) or (2) of this
subsection,
there shall be a special enrollment period described in
subparagraph (B).
``(B) The special enrollment period referred to in
subparagraph (A) is the period that includes--
``(i) each month during any part of which the
individual is enrolled in COBRA continuation coverage;
and
``(ii) the 3-month period beginning with the first
month following the last month during any part of which
such individual is so enrolled.
``(C) An individual may only enroll during the special
enrollment period provided under subparagraph (A) one time
during the individual's lifetime.
``(D) For purposes of this paragraph, the term `COBRA
continuation coverage' means continuation coverage beginning on
or after January 1, 2023--
``(i) under a COBRA continuation provision (as
defined in section 2791(d)(4) of the Public Health
Service Act);
``(ii) pursuant to section 8905a of title 5, United
States Code; or
``(iii) under a similar State law that provides
comparable continuation of group health plan
coverage.''.
(b) Coverage Period for Certain Eligible Individuals.--Section
1838(e) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395q(e)) is amended--
(1) by striking ``pursuant to section 1837(i)(3) or
1837(i)(4)(B)'' and inserting the following: ``pursuant to--
``(1) section 1837(i)(3) or 1837(i)(4)(B)--'';
(2) by redesignating paragraphs (1) and (2) as
subparagraphs (A) and (B), respectively, and moving the
indentation of each such subparagraph 2 ems to the right;
(3) by striking the period at the end of subparagraph (B),
as so redesignated, and inserting ``; or''; and
(4) by adding at the end the following new paragraph:
``(2) section 1837(i)(5), the coverage period shall begin
on the first day of the month following the month in which the
individual so enrolls.''.
(c) No Increase in Premium.--Section 1839(b) of such Act (42 U.S.C.
1395r(b)) is amended--
(1) in the first sentence, by inserting ``, (i)(5)'' after
``subsection (i)(4)'';
(2) in the second sentence, by inserting before the period
at the end the following: ``or months for which the individual
can demonstrate that the individual was enrolled in COBRA
continuation coverage (as such term is defined in section
1837(i)(5)(D))''.
(d) Coordination of Benefits.--
(1) ERISA.--Section 607 of the Employee Retirement Income
Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1167)) is amended by adding at
the end the following new paragraph:
``(6) Coordination of benefits.--Notwithstanding any other
provision of law, in the case that an individual is enrolled in
COBRA continuation coverage (as defined in section
1837(i)(5)(D) of the Social Security Act) and the individual is
eligible for but not enrolled in coverage under part B of title
XVIII of the Social Security Act, such COBRA continuation
coverage shall not reduce or terminate benefits under such
COBRA continuation coverage with respect to the individual on
the basis that the individual is eligible for coverage under
such part B or otherwise take into account such eligibility.
Such benefits under such COBRA continuation coverage shall be
provided to such an individual as if such individual were not
so eligible for coverage under such part B. Nothing in the
preceding two sentences shall require the provision of such
COBRA continuation coverage to an individual enrolled in
coverage under such part B or prohibit the termination of such
continuation coverage or reduction of benefits under such
continuation coverage in the case of an individual who enrolls
under such part B.''.
(2) PHSA.--Section 2208 of the Public Health Service Act
(42 U.S.C. 300bb-8) is amended--
(A) by striking ``definitions'' and inserting
``definitions and special rules''; and
(B) by adding at the end the following new
paragraph:
``(5) Special rule for coordination of benefits.--
Notwithstanding any other provision of law, in the case that an
individual is enrolled in COBRA continuation coverage (as
defined in section 1837(i)(5)(D) of the Social Security Act)
and the individual is eligible for but not enrolled in coverage
under part B of title XVIII of the Social Security Act, such
COBRA continuation coverage shall not reduce or terminate
benefits under such COBRA continuation coverage with respect to
the individual on the basis that the individual is eligible for
coverage under such part B or otherwise take into account such
eligibility. Such benefits under such COBRA continuation
coverage shall be provided to such an individual as if such
individual were not so eligible for coverage under such part B.
Nothing in the preceding two sentences shall require the
provision of such COBRA continuation coverage to an individual
enrolled in coverage under such part B or prohibit the
termination of such continuation coverage or reduction of
benefits under such continuation coverage in the case of an
individual who enrolls under such part B.''.
(3) IRC.--Section 4980B(g) of the Internal Revenue Code of
1986 is amended--
(A) by striking ``Definitions'' and inserting
``Definitions and Special Rules''; and
(B) by adding at the end the following new
paragraph:
``(5) Special rule for coordination of benefits.--
Notwithstanding any other provision of law, in the case that an
individual is enrolled in COBRA continuation coverage (as
defined in section 1837(i)(5)(D) of the Social Security Act)
and the individual is eligible for but not enrolled in coverage
under part B of title XVIII of the Social Security Act, such
COBRA continuation coverage shall not reduce or terminate
benefits under such COBRA continuation coverage with respect to
the individual on the basis that the individual is eligible for
coverage under such part B or otherwise take into account such
eligibility. Such benefits under such COBRA continuation
coverage shall be provided to such an individual as if such
individual were not so eligible for coverage under such part B.
Nothing in the preceding two sentences shall require the
provision of such COBRA continuation coverage to an individual
enrolled in coverage under such part B or prohibit the
termination of such continuation coverage or reduction of
benefits under such continuation coverage in the case of an
individual who enrolls under such part B.''.
(e) Updating COBRA Continuation Coverage Notifications.--Not later
than January 1, 2023, the Secretary of Labor, in consultation with the
Secretary of Health and Human Services, shall update the written
notices required under section 606 of the Employee Retirement Income
Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1166) to include an explanation of the
full scope of the Medicare secondary payer rules under section 1862(b)
of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395y(b)), including how such
rules apply with respect to COBRA continuation coverage (as defined in
section 1837(i)(5)(D) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C.
1395p(i)(5)(D))).
<all> | Medicare Enrollment Protection Act of 2022 | To amend part B of title XVIII of the Social Security Act to provide for a special enrollment period under Medicare for individuals enrolled in COBRA continuation coverage, and for other purposes. | Medicare Enrollment Protection Act of 2022 | Rep. Schrader, Kurt | D | OR |
33 | 13,004 | H.R.5177 | Agriculture and Food | Schools Preventing Hunger in At-Risk Kids Act or the SPARK Act This bill expands automatic eligibility for free school lunches and breakfasts to include children who have been placed in kinship care with a relative or family friend with the involvement of the state child welfare agency. To enroll in the program, a family must document the child's status to the appropriate local educational agency. | To amend the Richard B. Russell National School Lunch Act to provide
categorical eligibility for free lunch and breakfast for certain
children in kinship care, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Schools Preventing Hunger in At-Risk
Kids Act'' or the ``SPARK Act''.
SEC. 2. SCHOOL MEALS FOR FOSTER CHILDREN IN KINSHIP CARE.
Section 9 of the Richard B. Russell National School Lunch Act (42
U.S.C. 1758)--
(1) in subsection (b)--
(A) paragraph (5)(E)--
(i) in clause (i), by striking ``or'' at
the end;
(ii) in clause (ii), by striking the period
at the end and inserting ``; or''; and
(iii) by adding at the end the following:
``(iii) a child whose placement with a relative or
family friend was carried out with the involvement of
an agency that administers a State plan under part B or
E of title IV of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 621
et seq.), regardless of whether such agency is
responsible for the care and placement of such
child.''; and
(B) in paragraph (12)(A)(vii)--
(i) in subclause (I), by striking ``or'' at
the end;
(ii) in subclause (II), by striking the
period and inserting ``; or''; and
(iii) by adding at the end the following:
``(III) a child whose placement with a
relative or family friend was carried out with
the involvement of an agency that administers a
State plan under part B or E of title IV of the
Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 621 et seq.),
regardless of whether such agency is
responsible for the care and placement of such
child.''; and
(2) in subsection (d)(2)(F)--
(A) in clause (i), by striking ``or'' at the end;
and
(B) by adding at the end the following:
``(iii) documentation has been provided to the
appropriate local educational agency showing the status
of the child as a child whose placement with a relative
or family friend was carried out with the involvement
of an agency that administers a State plan under part B
or E of title IV of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C.
621 et seq.), regardless of whether such agency is
responsible for the care and placement of such child;
or''.
<all> | SPARK Act | To amend the Richard B. Russell National School Lunch Act to provide categorical eligibility for free lunch and breakfast for certain children in kinship care, and for other purposes. | SPARK Act
Schools Preventing Hunger in At-Risk Kids Act | Rep. Wild, Susan | D | PA |
34 | 12,177 | H.R.7229 | Taxation | Renewing Investment in American Workers and Supply Chains Act
This bill classifies nonresidential real property and residential rental property as 20-year property for depreciation purposes. | To amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to modify the depreciation
of nonresidential real property and residential rental property.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Renewing Investment in American
Workers and Supply Chains Act''.
SEC. 2. MODIFICATION OF DEPRECIATION OF NONRESIDENTIAL REAL PROPERTY
AND RESIDENTIAL RENTAL PROPERTY.
(a) 20-Year Recovery Period.--
(1) In general.--Section 168(e)(3)(F) of the Internal
Revenue Code of 1986 is amended to read as follows:
``(F) 20-year property.--The term `20-year
property' means--
``(i) initial clearing and grading land
improvements with respect to any electric
utility transmission and distribution plant,
``(ii) any nonresidential real property,
and
``(iii) any residential rental property.''.
(2) Bonus depreciation not applicable.--Section
168(k)(2)(A)(i)(I) of such Code is amended by inserting
``(other than nonresidential real property and residential
rental property)'' before the comma at the end.
(3) Conforming amendment.--The table contained in section
168(c) of such Code is amended--
(A) by striking the row relating to residential
rental property, and
(B) by striking the row relating to nonresidential
real property.
(b) Adjustment of Deduction To Provide Neutral Cost Recovery.--
Section 168 of such Code is amended by adding at the end the following
new subsection:
``(n) Neutral Cost Recovery for Nonresidential Real Property and
Residential Rental Property.--
``(1) In general.--The deduction otherwise provided under
section 167(a) with respect to nonresidential real property and
residential rental property for any taxable year shall be equal
to the product of such amount (determined without regard to
this subsection) multiplied by the applicable neutral cost
recovery ratio with respect to such property for such taxable
year.
``(2) Neutral cost recovery ratio.--For purposes of
paragraph (1), the term `applicable neutral cost recovery
ratio' means, with respect to any property for any taxable
year, the product (not less than 1 and rounded to the nearest
0.001) of--
``(A) the quotient of--
``(i) the gross domestic product deflator
(as determined by the Bureau of Economic
Analysis) for the calendar quarter ending in
such taxable year which corresponds to the
calendar quarter during which such property was
placed in service by the taxpayer, divided by
``(ii) the gross domestic product deflator
(as determined by the Bureau of Economic
Analysis) for the calendar quarter during which
such property was placed in service by the
taxpayer, multiplied by
``(B) 1.03 to the nth power, where `n' is the
number of full years in the period beginning on the 1st
day of the calendar quarter during which such property
was placed in service by the taxpayer and ending on the
day before the beginning of the corresponding calendar
quarter ending during such taxable year.
``(3) Application to property placed in service before date
of enactment.--In the case of nonresidential real property or
residential rental property which is placed in service before
the date of enactment of this subsection, subparagraphs (A)(i),
(A)(ii), and (B) of paragraph (2) shall each be applied by
substituting `calendar quarter which includes the date of
enactment of this subsection' for `calendar quarter during
which such property was placed in service by the taxpayer'.
``(4) Additional deduction not to affect basis or
recapture.--
``(A) In general.--The additional amount determined
under this section by reason of this subsection shall
not be taken into account in determining the adjusted
basis of any applicable property or of any interest in
a pass-thru entity which holds such property and shall
not be treated as a deduction for depreciation for
purposes of sections 1245 and 1250.
``(B) Pass-thru entity defined.--For purposes of
subparagraph (A), the term `pass-thru entity' means--
``(i) a regulated investment company,
``(ii) a real estate investment trust,
``(iii) an S corporation,
``(iv) a partnership,
``(v) an estate or trust, and
``(vi) a common trust fund.''.
(c) Effective Dates.--
(1) 20-year recovery period.--The amendments made by
subsection (a) shall apply to property placed in service after
the date of the enactment of this Act, in taxable years ending
after such date.
(2) Neutral cost recovery.--The amendments made by
subsection (b) shall apply to taxable years ending after the
date of the enactment of this Act.
<all> | Renewing Investment in American Workers and Supply Chains Act | To amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to modify the depreciation of nonresidential real property and residential rental property. | Renewing Investment in American Workers and Supply Chains Act | Rep. Walorski, Jackie | R | IN |
35 | 131 | S.2599 | Economics and Public Finance | Agriculture, Rural Development, Food and Drug Administration, and Related Agencies Appropriations Act, 2022
This bill provides FY2022 appropriations for the Department of Agriculture (USDA), the Food and Drug Administration, and related agencies.
The bill provides appropriations to USDA for agricultural programs, including
The bill also provides appropriations to USDA for farm production and conservation programs, including
The bill provides appropriations to the Federal Crop Insurance Corporation Fund and the Commodity Credit Corporation Fund.
For USDA rural development programs, the bill includes appropriations for
The bill provides appropriations to the Food and Nutrition Service for
The bill provides appropriations to the Foreign Agricultural Service for (1) Food for Peace Title II Grants, and (2) McGovern-Dole International Food for Education and Child Nutrition Program Grants.
The bill also provides appropriations for (1) the Food and Drug Administration, and (2) the Farm Credit Administration.
Additionally, the bill sets forth requirements and restrictions for using funds provided by this and other appropriations acts. | Making appropriations for Agriculture, Rural Development, Food and Drug
Administration, and Related Agencies for the fiscal year ending
September 30, 2022, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled, That the following sums
are appropriated, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise
appropriated, for Agriculture, Rural Development, Food and Drug
Administration, and Related Agencies for the fiscal year ending
September 30, 2022, and for other purposes, namely:
TITLE I
AGRICULTURAL PROGRAMS
Processing, Research, and Marketing
Office of the Secretary
(including transfers of funds)
For necessary expenses of the Office of the Secretary, $52,916,000,
of which not to exceed $5,703,000 shall be available for the immediate
Office of the Secretary; not to exceed $4,749,000 shall be available
for the Office of Homeland Security; not to exceed $1,025,000 shall be
available for the Office of Tribal Relations; not to exceed $6,044,000
shall be available for the Office of Partnerships and Public
Engagement, of which $1,500,000 shall be for 7 U.S.C. 2279(c)(5); not
to exceed $23,431,000 shall be available for the Office of the
Assistant Secretary for Administration, of which $21,782,000 shall be
available for Departmental Administration to provide for necessary
expenses for management support services to offices of the Department
and for general administration, security, repairs and alterations, and
other miscellaneous supplies and expenses not otherwise provided for
and necessary for the practical and efficient work of the Department:
Provided, That funds made available by this Act to an agency in the
Administration mission area for salaries and expenses are available to
fund up to one administrative support staff for the Office; not to
exceed $4,480,000 shall be available for the Office of Assistant
Secretary for Congressional Relations and Intergovernmental Affairs to
carry out the programs funded by this Act, including programs involving
intergovernmental affairs and liaison within the executive branch; and
not to exceed $7,484,000 shall be available for the Office of
Communications: Provided further, That the Secretary of Agriculture is
authorized to transfer funds appropriated for any office of the Office
of the Secretary to any other office of the Office of the Secretary:
Provided further, That no appropriation for any office shall be
increased or decreased by more than 5 percent: Provided further, That
not to exceed $22,000 of the amount made available under this paragraph
for the immediate Office of the Secretary shall be available for
official reception and representation expenses, not otherwise provided
for, as determined by the Secretary: Provided further, That the amount
made available under this heading for Departmental Administration shall
be reimbursed from applicable appropriations in this Act for travel
expenses incident to the holding of hearings as required by 5 U.S.C.
551-558: Provided further, That funds made available under this
heading for the Office of the Assistant Secretary for Congressional
Relations and Intergovernmental Affairs may be transferred to agencies
of the Department of Agriculture funded by this Act to maintain
personnel at the agency level: Provided further, That no funds made
available under this heading for the Office of Assistant Secretary for
Congressional Relations may be obligated after 30 days from the date of
enactment of this Act, unless the Secretary has notified the Committees
on Appropriations of both Houses of Congress on the allocation of these
funds by USDA agency: Provided further, That during any 30 day
notification period referenced in section 716 of this Act, the
Secretary of Agriculture shall take no action to begin implementation
of the action that is subject to section 716 of this Act or make any
public announcement of such action in any form.
Executive Operations
office of the chief economist
For necessary expenses of the Office of the Chief Economist,
$25,499,000, of which $8,000,000 shall be for grants or cooperative
agreements for policy research under 7 U.S.C. 3155: Provided, That of
the amounts made available under this heading, $500,000 shall be
available to carry out section 224 of subtitle A of the Department of
Agriculture Reorganization Act of 1994 (7 U.S.C. 6924), as amended by
section 12504 of Public Law 115-334.
office of hearings and appeals
For necessary expenses of the Office of Hearings and Appeals,
$16,173,000.
office of budget and program analysis
For necessary expenses of the Office of Budget and Program
Analysis, $12,310,000.
Office of the Chief Information Officer
For necessary expenses of the Office of the Chief Information
Officer, $84,746,000, of which not less than $69,672,000 is for
cybersecurity requirements of the department.
Office of the Chief Financial Officer
For necessary expenses of the Office of the Chief Financial
Officer, $7,118,000.
Office of the Assistant Secretary for Civil Rights
For necessary expenses of the Office of the Assistant Secretary for
Civil Rights, $1,426,000: Provided, That funds made available by this
Act to an agency in the Civil Rights mission area for salaries and
expenses are available to fund up to one administrative support staff
for the Office.
Office of Civil Rights
For necessary expenses of the Office of Civil Rights, $29,328,000.
Agriculture Buildings and Facilities
(including transfers of funds)
For payment of space rental and related costs pursuant to Public
Law 92-313, including authorities pursuant to the 1984 delegation of
authority from the Administrator of General Services to the Department
of Agriculture under 40 U.S.C. 121, for programs and activities of the
Department which are included in this Act, and for alterations and
other actions needed for the Department and its agencies to consolidate
unneeded space into configurations suitable for release to the
Administrator of General Services, and for the operation, maintenance,
improvement, and repair of Agriculture buildings and facilities, and
for related costs, $313,443,000, to remain available until expended.
Hazardous Materials Management
(including transfers of funds)
For necessary expenses of the Department of Agriculture, to comply
with the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and
Liability Act (42 U.S.C. 9601 et seq.) and the Solid Waste Disposal Act
(42 U.S.C. 6901 et seq.), $6,545,000, to remain available until
expended: Provided, That appropriations and funds available herein to
the Department for Hazardous Materials Management may be transferred to
any agency of the Department for its use in meeting all requirements
pursuant to the above Acts on Federal and non-Federal lands.
Office of Safety, Security, and Protection
For necessary expenses of the Office of Safety, Security, and
Protection, $23,306,000.
Office of Inspector General
For necessary expenses of the Office of Inspector General,
including employment pursuant to the Inspector General Act of 1978
(Public Law 95-452; 5 U.S.C. App.), $106,309,000, including such sums
as may be necessary for contracting and other arrangements with public
agencies and private persons pursuant to section 6(a)(9) of the
Inspector General Act of 1978 (Public Law 95-452; 5 U.S.C. App.), and
including not to exceed $125,000 for certain confidential operational
expenses, including the payment of informants, to be expended under the
direction of the Inspector General pursuant to the Inspector General
Act of 1978 (Public Law 95-452; 5 U.S.C. App.) and section 1337 of the
Agriculture and Food Act of 1981 (Public Law 97-98).
Office of the General Counsel
For necessary expenses of the Office of the General Counsel,
$60,723,000.
Office of Ethics
For necessary expenses of the Office of Ethics, $4,277,000.
Office of the Under Secretary for Research, Education, and Economics
For necessary expenses of the Office of the Under Secretary for
Research, Education, and Economics, $1,327,000: Provided, That funds
made available by this Act to an agency in the Research, Education, and
Economics mission area for salaries and expenses are available to fund
up to one administrative support staff for the Office.
Economic Research Service
For necessary expenses of the Economic Research Service,
$90,794,000.
National Agricultural Statistics Service
For necessary expenses of the National Agricultural Statistics
Service, $191,662,000, of which up to $46,850,000 shall be available
until expended for the Census of Agriculture: Provided, That amounts
made available for the Census of Agriculture may be used to conduct
Current Agricultural Industrial Report surveys subject to 7 U.S.C.
2204g(d) and (f).
Agricultural Research Service
salaries and expenses
For necessary expenses of the Agricultural Research Service and for
acquisition of lands by donation, exchange, or purchase at a nominal
cost not to exceed $100, and for land exchanges where the lands
exchanged shall be of equal value or shall be equalized by a payment of
money to the grantor which shall not exceed 25 percent of the total
value of the land or interests transferred out of Federal ownership,
$1,675,040,000: Provided, That appropriations hereunder shall be
available for the operation and maintenance of aircraft and the
purchase of not to exceed one for replacement only: Provided further,
That appropriations hereunder shall be available pursuant to 7 U.S.C.
2250 for the construction, alteration, and repair of buildings and
improvements, but unless otherwise provided, the cost of constructing
any one building shall not exceed $500,000, except for headhouses or
greenhouses which shall each be limited to $1,800,000, except for 10
buildings to be constructed or improved at a cost not to exceed
$1,100,000 each, and except for four buildings to be constructed at a
cost not to exceed $5,000,000 each, and the cost of altering any one
building during the fiscal year shall not exceed 10 percent of the
current replacement value of the building or $500,000, whichever is
greater: Provided further, That appropriations hereunder shall be
available for entering into lease agreements at any Agricultural
Research Service location for the construction of a research facility
by a non-Federal entity for use by the Agricultural Research Service
and a condition of the lease shall be that any facility shall be owned,
operated, and maintained by the non-Federal entity and shall be removed
upon the expiration or termination of the lease agreement: Provided
further, That the limitations on alterations contained in this Act
shall not apply to modernization or replacement of existing facilities
at Beltsville, Maryland: Provided further, That appropriations
hereunder shall be available for granting easements at the Beltsville
Agricultural Research Center: Provided further, That the foregoing
limitations shall not apply to replacement of buildings needed to carry
out the Act of April 24, 1948 (21 U.S.C. 113a): Provided further, That
appropriations hereunder shall be available for granting easements at
any Agricultural Research Service location for the construction of a
research facility by a non-Federal entity for use by, and acceptable
to, the Agricultural Research Service and a condition of the easements
shall be that upon completion the facility shall be accepted by the
Secretary, subject to the availability of funds herein, if the
Secretary finds that acceptance of the facility is in the interest of
the United States: Provided further, That funds may be received from
any State, other political subdivision, organization, or individual for
the purpose of establishing or operating any research facility or
research project of the Agricultural Research Service, as authorized by
law.
buildings and facilities
For the acquisition of land, construction, repair, improvement,
extension, alteration, and purchase of fixed equipment or facilities as
necessary to carry out the agricultural research programs of the
Department of Agriculture, where not otherwise provided, $45,405,000 to
remain available until expended.
National Institute of Food and Agriculture
research and education activities
For payments to agricultural experiment stations, for cooperative
forestry and other research, for facilities, and for other expenses,
$1,057,420,000, which shall be for the purposes, and in the amounts,
specified in the table titled ``National Institute of Food and
Agriculture, Research and Education Activities'' in the report
accompanying this Act: Provided, That funds for research grants for
1994 institutions, education grants for 1890 institutions, Hispanic
serving institutions education grants, capacity building for non-land-
grant colleges of agriculture, the agriculture and food research
initiative, veterinary medicine loan repayment, multicultural scholars,
graduate fellowship and institution challenge grants, and grants
management systems shall remain available until expended: Provided
further, That each institution eligible to receive funds under the
Evans-Allen program receives no less than $1,000,000: Provided
further, That funds for education grants for Alaska Native and Native
Hawaiian-serving institutions be made available to individual eligible
institutions or consortia of eligible institutions with funds awarded
equally to each of the States of Alaska and Hawaii: Provided further,
That funds for education grants for 1890 institutions shall be made
available to institutions eligible to receive funds under 7 U.S.C. 3221
and 3222: Provided further, That not more than 5 percent of the
amounts made available by this or any other Act to carry out the
Agriculture and Food Research Initiative under 7 U.S.C. 3157 may be
retained by the Secretary of Agriculture to pay administrative costs
incurred by the Secretary in carrying out that authority.
native american institutions endowment fund
For the Native American Institutions Endowment Fund authorized by
Public Law 103-382 (7 U.S.C. 301 note), $11,880,000, to remain
available until expended.
extension activities
For payments to States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico,
Guam, the Virgin Islands, Micronesia, the Northern Marianas, and
American Samoa, $559,400,000, which shall be for the purposes, and in
the amounts, specified in the table titled ``National Institute of Food
and Agriculture, Extension Activities'' in the report accompanying this
Act: Provided, That funds for facility improvements at 1890
institutions shall remain available until expended: Provided further,
That institutions eligible to receive funds under 7 U.S.C. 3221 for
cooperative extension receive no less than $1,000,000: Provided
further, That funds for cooperative extension under sections 3(b) and
(c) of the Smith-Lever Act (7 U.S.C. 343(b) and (c)) and section 208(c)
of Public Law 93-471 shall be available for retirement and employees'
compensation costs for extension agents.
integrated activities
For the integrated research, education, and extension grants
programs, including necessary administrative expenses, $40,000,000,
which shall be for the purposes, and in the amounts, specified in the
table titled ``National Institute of Food and Agriculture, Integrated
Activities'' in the report accompanying this Act: Provided, That funds
for the Food and Agriculture Defense Initiative shall remain available
until September 30, 2023: Provided further, That notwithstanding any
other provision of law, indirect costs shall not be charged against any
Extension Implementation Program Area grant awarded under the Crop
Protection/Pest Management Program (7 U.S.C. 7626).
Office of the Under Secretary for Marketing and Regulatory Programs
For necessary expenses of the Office of the Under Secretary for
Marketing and Regulatory Programs, $1,577,000: Provided, That funds
made available by this Act to an agency in the Marketing and Regulatory
Programs mission area for salaries and expenses are available to fund
up to one administrative support staff for the Office.
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service
salaries and expenses
(including transfers of funds)
For necessary expenses of the Animal and Plant Health Inspection
Service, including up to $30,000 for representation allowances and for
expenses pursuant to the Foreign Service Act of 1980 (22 U.S.C. 4085),
$1,122,116,000 of which up to $3,474,000 shall be for the purposes, and
in the amounts, specified for this account in the table titled
``Congressionally Directed Spending'' in the report to accompany this
Act, in accordance with applicable statutory and regulatory
requirements; of which $491,000, to remain available until expended,
shall be available for the control of outbreaks of insects, plant
diseases, animal diseases and for control of pest animals and birds
(``contingency fund'') to the extent necessary to meet emergency
conditions; of which $14,725,000, to remain available until expended,
shall be used for the cotton pests program, including for cost share
purposes or for debt retirement for active eradication zones; of which
$38,486,000, to remain available until expended, shall be for Animal
Health Technical Services; of which $2,340,000 shall be for activities
under the authority of the Horse Protection Act of 1970, as amended (15
U.S.C. 1831); of which $63,833,000, to remain available until expended,
shall be used to support avian health; of which $4,251,000, to remain
available until expended, shall be for information technology
infrastructure; of which $210,342,000, to remain available until
expended, shall be for specialty crop pests, of which $8,500,000, to
remain available until September 30, 2023, shall be for one-time
control and management and associated activities directly related to
the multiple-agency response to citrus greening; of which, $11,137,000,
to remain available until expended, shall be for field crop and
rangeland ecosystem pests; of which $19,782,000, to remain available
until expended, shall be for zoonotic disease management; of which
$38,380,000, to remain available until expended, shall be for emergency
preparedness and response; of which $61,217,000, to remain available
until expended, shall be for tree and wood pests; of which $6,751,000,
to remain available until expended, shall be for the National
Veterinary Stockpile; of which up to $1,500,000, to remain available
until expended, shall be for the scrapie program for indemnities; of
which $2,500,000, to remain available until expended, shall be for the
wildlife damage management program for aviation safety: Provided, That
any of the funds described in the ``Congressionally Directed Spending''
table that the Secretary determines will not be obligated during the
fiscal year shall not be subject to the direction provided in such
table: Provided further, That of amounts available under this heading
for wildlife services methods development, $1,000,000 shall remain
available until expended: Provided further, That of amounts available
under this heading for the screwworm program, $4,990,000 shall remain
available until expended; of which $24,307,000, to remain available
until expended, shall be used to carry out the science program and
transition activities for the National Bio and Agro-defense Facility
located in Manhattan, Kansas: Provided further, That no funds shall be
used to formulate or administer a brucellosis eradication program for
the current fiscal year that does not require minimum matching by the
States of at least 40 percent: Provided further, That this
appropriation shall be available for the purchase, replacement,
operation, and maintenance of aircraft: Provided further, That in
addition, in emergencies which threaten any segment of the agricultural
production industry of the United States, the Secretary may transfer
from other appropriations or funds available to the agencies or
corporations of the Department such sums as may be deemed necessary, to
be available only in such emergencies for the arrest and eradication of
contagious or infectious disease or pests of animals, poultry, or
plants, and for expenses in accordance with sections 10411 and 10417 of
the Animal Health Protection Act (7 U.S.C. 8310 and 8316) and sections
431 and 442 of the Plant Protection Act (7 U.S.C. 7751 and 7772), and
any unexpended balances of funds transferred for such emergency
purposes in the preceding fiscal year shall be merged with such
transferred amounts: Provided further, That appropriations hereunder
shall be available pursuant to law (7 U.S.C. 2250) for the repair and
alteration of leased buildings and improvements, but unless otherwise
provided the cost of altering any one building during the fiscal year
shall not exceed 10 percent of the current replacement value of the
building.
In fiscal year 2022, the agency is authorized to collect fees to
cover the total costs of providing technical assistance, goods, or
services requested by States, other political subdivisions, domestic
and international organizations, foreign governments, or individuals,
provided that such fees are structured such that any entity's liability
for such fees is reasonably based on the technical assistance, goods,
or services provided to the entity by the agency, and such fees shall
be reimbursed to this account, to remain available until expended,
without further appropriation, for providing such assistance, goods, or
services.
buildings and facilities
For plans, construction, repair, preventive maintenance,
environmental support, improvement, extension, alteration, and purchase
of fixed equipment or facilities, as authorized by 7 U.S.C. 2250, and
acquisition of land as authorized by 7 U.S.C. 2268a, $3,175,000, to
remain available until expended.
Agricultural Marketing Service
marketing services
For necessary expenses of the Agricultural Marketing Service,
$231,063,000, of which $7,000,000 shall be available for the purposes
of section 12306 of Public Law 113-79: Provided, That of the amounts
made available under this heading, $25,000,000, to remain available
until expended, shall be to carry out section 12513 of Public Law 115-
334 and shall result in an equal distribution of funds between only the
three regional innovation initiatives that were funded in fiscal year
2020: Provided further, That this appropriation shall be available
pursuant to law (7 U.S.C. 2250) for the alteration and repair of
buildings and improvements, but the cost of altering any one building
during the fiscal year shall not exceed 10 percent of the current
replacement value of the building.
Fees may be collected for the cost of standardization activities,
as established by regulation pursuant to law (31 U.S.C. 9701), except
for the cost of activities relating to the development or maintenance
of grain standards under the United States Grain Standards Act, 7
U.S.C. 71 et seq.
limitation on administrative expenses
Not to exceed $61,786,000 (from fees collected) shall be obligated
during the current fiscal year for administrative expenses: Provided,
That if crop size is understated and/or other uncontrollable events
occur, the agency may exceed this limitation by up to 10 percent with
notification to the Committees on Appropriations of both Houses of
Congress.
funds for strengthening markets, income, and supply (section 32)
(including transfers of funds)
Funds available under section 32 of the Act of August 24, 1935 (7
U.S.C. 612c), shall be used only for commodity program expenses as
authorized therein, and other related operating expenses, except for:
(1) transfers to the Department of Commerce as authorized by the Fish
and Wildlife Act of 1956 (16 U.S.C. 742a et seq.); (2) transfers
otherwise provided in this Act; and (3) not more than $20,705,000 for
formulation and administration of marketing agreements and orders
pursuant to the Agricultural Marketing Agreement Act of 1937 and the
Agricultural Act of 1961 (Public Law 87-128).
payments to states and possessions
For payments to departments of agriculture, bureaus and departments
of markets, and similar agencies for marketing activities under section
204(b) of the Agricultural Marketing Act of 1946 (7 U.S.C. 1623(b)),
$4,000,000.
limitation on inspection and weighing services expenses
Not to exceed $55,000,000 (from fees collected) shall be obligated
during the current fiscal year for inspection and weighing services:
Provided, That if grain export activities require additional
supervision and oversight, or other uncontrollable factors occur, this
limitation may be exceeded by up to 10 percent with notification to the
Committees on Appropriations of both Houses of Congress.
Office of the Under Secretary for Food Safety
For necessary expenses of the Office of the Under Secretary for
Food Safety, $1,327,000: Provided, That funds made available by this
Act to an agency in the Food Safety mission area for salaries and
expenses are available to fund up to one administrative support staff
for the Office.
Food Safety and Inspection Service
For necessary expenses to carry out services authorized by the
Federal Meat Inspection Act, the Poultry Products Inspection Act, and
the Egg Products Inspection Act, including not to exceed $10,000 for
representation allowances and for expenses pursuant to section 8 of the
Act approved August 3, 1956 (7 U.S.C. 1766), $1,153,064,000; and in
addition, $1,000,000 may be credited to this account from fees
collected for the cost of laboratory accreditation as authorized by
section 1327 of the Food, Agriculture, Conservation and Trade Act of
1990 (7 U.S.C. 138f): Provided, That funds provided for the Public
Health Data Communication Infrastructure system shall remain available
until expended: Provided further, That no fewer than 148 full-time
equivalent positions shall be employed during fiscal year 2022 for
purposes dedicated solely to inspections and enforcement related to the
Humane Methods of Slaughter Act (7 U.S.C. 1901 et seq.): Provided
further, That the Food Safety and Inspection Service shall continue
implementation of section 11016 of Public Law 110-246 as further
clarified by the amendments made in section 12106 of Public Law 113-79:
Provided further, That this appropriation shall be available pursuant
to law (7 U.S.C. 2250) for the alteration and repair of buildings and
improvements, but the cost of altering any one building during the
fiscal year shall not exceed 10 percent of the current replacement
value of the building.
TITLE II
FARM PRODUCTION AND CONSERVATION PROGRAMS
Office of the Under Secretary for Farm Production and Conservation
For necessary expenses of the Office of the Under Secretary for
Farm Production and Conservation, $1,687,000: Provided, That funds
made available by this Act to an agency in the Farm Production and
Conservation mission area for salaries and expenses are available to
fund up to one administrative support staff for the Office.
Farm Production and Conservation Business Center
salaries and expenses
(including transfers of funds)
For necessary expenses of the Farm Production and Conservation
Business Center, $238,177,000: Provided, That $60,228,000 of amounts
appropriated for the current fiscal year pursuant to section 1241(a) of
the Farm Security and Rural Investment Act of 1985 (16 U.S.C. 3841(a))
shall be transferred to and merged with this account.
Farm Service Agency
salaries and expenses
(including transfers of funds)
For necessary expenses of the Farm Service Agency, $1,178,324,000,
of which not less than $15,000,000 shall be for the hiring of new
employees to fill vacancies and anticipated vacancies at Farm Service
Agency county offices and farm loan officers and shall be available
until September 30, 2023: Provided, That not more than 50 percent of
the funding made available under this heading for information
technology related to farm program delivery may be obligated until the
Secretary submits to the Committees on Appropriations of both Houses of
Congress, and receives written or electronic notification of receipt
from such Committees of, a plan for expenditure that (1) identifies for
each project/investment over $25,000 (a) the functional and performance
capabilities to be delivered and the mission benefits to be realized,
(b) the estimated lifecycle cost for the entirety of the project/
investment, including estimates for development as well as maintenance
and operations, and (c) key milestones to be met; (2) demonstrates that
each project/investment is, (a) consistent with the Farm Service Agency
Information Technology Roadmap, (b) being managed in accordance with
applicable lifecycle management policies and guidance, and (c) subject
to the applicable Department's capital planning and investment control
requirements; and (3) has been reviewed by the Government
Accountability Office and approved by the Committees on Appropriations
of both Houses of Congress: Provided further, That the agency shall
submit a report by the end of the fourth quarter of fiscal year 2022 to
the Committees on Appropriations and the Government Accountability
Office, that identifies for each project/investment that is operational
(a) current performance against key indicators of customer
satisfaction, (b) current performance of service level agreements or
other technical metrics, (c) current performance against a pre-
established cost baseline, (d) a detailed breakdown of current and
planned spending on operational enhancements or upgrades, and (e) an
assessment of whether the investment continues to meet business needs
as intended as well as alternatives to the investment: Provided
further, That the Secretary is authorized to use the services,
facilities, and authorities (but not the funds) of the Commodity Credit
Corporation to make program payments for all programs administered by
the Agency: Provided further, That other funds made available to the
Agency for authorized activities may be advanced to and merged with
this account: Provided further, That funds made available to county
committees shall remain available until expended: Provided further,
That none of the funds available to the Farm Service Agency shall be
used to close Farm Service Agency county offices: Provided further,
That none of the funds available to the Farm Service Agency shall be
used to permanently relocate county based employees that would result
in an office with two or fewer employees without prior notification and
approval of the Committees on Appropriations of both Houses of
Congress.
state mediation grants
For grants pursuant to section 502(b) of the Agricultural Credit
Act of 1987, as amended (7 U.S.C. 5101-5106), $7,000,000.
grassroots source water protection program
For necessary expenses to carry out wellhead or groundwater
protection activities under section 1240O of the Food Security Act of
1985 (16 U.S.C. 3839bb-2), $6,500,000, to remain available until
expended.
dairy indemnity program
(including transfer of funds)
For necessary expenses involved in making indemnity payments to
dairy farmers and manufacturers of dairy products under a dairy
indemnity program, such sums as may be necessary, to remain available
until expended: Provided, That such program is carried out by the
Secretary in the same manner as the dairy indemnity program described
in the Agriculture, Rural Development, Food and Drug Administration,
and Related Agencies Appropriations Act, 2001 (Public Law 106-387, 114
Stat. 1549A-12).
geographically disadvantaged farmers and ranchers
For necessary expenses to carry out direct reimbursement payments
to geographically disadvantaged farmers and ranchers under section 1621
of the Food Conservation, and Energy Act of 2008 (7 U.S.C. 8792),
$3,000,000, to remain available until expended.
agricultural credit insurance fund program account
(including transfers of funds)
For gross obligations for the principal amount of direct and
guaranteed farm ownership (7 U.S.C. 1922 et seq.) and operating (7
U.S.C. 1941 et seq.) loans, emergency loans (7 U.S.C. 1961 et seq.),
Indian tribe land acquisition loans (25 U.S.C. 5136), boll weevil loans
(7 U.S.C. 1989), guaranteed conservation loans (7 U.S.C. 1924 et seq.),
relending program (7 U.S.C. 1936c), and Indian highly fractionated land
loans (25 U.S.C. 5136) to be available from funds in the Agricultural
Credit Insurance Fund, as follows: $3,500,000,000 for guaranteed farm
ownership loans and $2,800,000,000 for farm ownership direct loans;
$2,118,482,000 for unsubsidized guaranteed operating loans and
$1,633,333,000 for direct operating loans; emergency loans,
$37,668,000; Indian tribe land acquisition loans, $20,000,000;
guaranteed conservation loans, $150,000,000; relending program,
$61,425,000; Indian highly fractionated land loans, $5,000,000; and for
boll weevil eradication program loans, $60,000,000: Provided, That the
Secretary shall deem the pink bollworm to be a boll weevil for the
purpose of boll weevil eradication program loans.
For the cost of direct and guaranteed loans and grants, including
the cost of modifying loans as defined in section 502 of the
Congressional Budget Act of 1974, as follows: $40,017,000 for direct
farm operating loans, $16,524,000 for unsubsidized guaranteed farm
operating loans, $267,000 for emergency loans, $5,000,000 for the
relending program, and $407,000 for Indian highly fractionated land
loans, to remain available until expended.
In addition, for administrative expenses necessary to carry out the
direct and guaranteed loan programs, $314,772,000: Provided, That of
this amount, $294,114,000 shall be transferred to and merged with the
appropriation for ``Farm Service Agency, Salaries and Expenses''.
Funds appropriated by this Act to the Agricultural Credit Insurance
Program Account for farm ownership, operating and conservation direct
loans and guaranteed loans may be transferred among these programs:
Provided, That the Committees on Appropriations of both Houses of
Congress are notified at least 15 days in advance of any transfer.
Risk Management Agency
salaries and expenses
For necessary expenses of the Risk Management Agency, $67,700,000:
Provided, That $1,000,000 of the amount appropriated under this heading
in this Act shall be available for compliance and integrity activities
required under section 516(b)(2)(C) of the Federal Crop Insurance Act
of 1938 (7 U.S.C. 1516(b)(2)(C)), and shall be in addition to amounts
otherwise provided for such purpose: Provided further, That not to
exceed $1,000 shall be available for official reception and
representation expenses, as authorized by 7 U.S.C. 1506(i).
Natural Resources Conservation Service
conservation operations
For necessary expenses for carrying out the provisions of the Act
of April 27, 1935 (16 U.S.C. 590a-f), including preparation of
conservation plans and establishment of measures to conserve soil and
water (including farm irrigation and land drainage and such special
measures for soil and water management as may be necessary to prevent
floods and the siltation of reservoirs and to control agricultural
related pollutants); operation of conservation plant materials centers;
classification and mapping of soil; dissemination of information;
acquisition of lands, water, and interests therein for use in the plant
materials program by donation, exchange, or purchase at a nominal cost
not to exceed $100 pursuant to the Act of August 3, 1956 (7 U.S.C.
2268a); purchase and erection or alteration or improvement of permanent
and temporary buildings; and operation and maintenance of aircraft,
$937,964,000, to remain available until September 30, 2023, of which up
to $19,611,000 shall be for the purposes, and in the amounts, specified
for this account in the table titled ``Congressionally Directed
Spending'' in the report to accompany this Act, in accordance with
applicable statutory and regulatory requirements: Provided, That any
of the funds described in the ``Congressionally Directed Spending''
table that the Secretary determines will not be obligated during the
fiscal year shall not be subject to the direction provided in such
table: Provided further, That appropriations hereunder shall be
available pursuant to 7 U.S.C. 2250 for construction and improvement of
buildings and public improvements at plant materials centers, except
that the cost of alterations and improvements to other buildings and
other public improvements shall not exceed $250,000: Provided further,
That when buildings or other structures are erected on non-Federal
land, that the right to use such land is obtained as provided in 7
U.S.C. 2250a: Provided further, That of the total amount available
under this heading, $8,000,000 shall be for necessary expenses to carry
out the Urban Agriculture and Innovative Production Program under
section 222 of subtitle A of title II of the Department of Agriculture
Reorganization Act of 1994 (7 U.S.C. 6923), as amended by section 12302
of Public Law 115-334: Provided further, That of the amounts made
available under this heading, $15,000,000, to remain available until
expended, may be provided, pursuant to section 3709(b) of title 16,
United States Code, to the National Fish and Wildlife Foundation to
establish a Working Land Resilience Program to collaborate with the
Natural Resources Conservation Service to offer technical and financial
assistance to farmers, ranchers, and non-industrial private forestland
owners who will adopt voluntary practices that will restore and
increase the resiliency of natural ecosystems to protect rural
communities from future adverse weather events: Provided further, That
projects funded pursuant to the preceding proviso will meet Natural
Resources Conservation Service requirements for planning and practice
implementation: Provided further, That funds for such projects shall
be matched on at least a one-for-one basis by the Foundation or its
sub-recipients: Provided further, That the Foundation may transfer
Federal funds to a non-Federal recipient for such projects at the
proportionate rate that the recipient obtains the non-Federal matching
funds.
watershed and flood prevention operations
For necessary expenses to carry out preventive measures, including
but not limited to surveys and investigations, engineering operations,
works of improvement, and changes in use of land, in accordance with
the Watershed Protection and Flood Prevention Act (16 U.S.C. 1001-1005
and 1007-1009) and in accordance with the provisions of laws relating
to the activities of the Department, $198,275,000, to remain available
until expended; of which up to $23,275,000 shall be for the purposes,
and in the amounts, specified for this account in the table titled
``Congressionally Directed Spending'' in the report to accompany this
Act, in accordance with applicable statutory and regulatory
requirements: Provided, That for funds provided by this Act or any
other prior Act, the limitation regarding the size of the watershed or
subwatershed exceeding two hundred and fifty thousand acres in which
such activities can be undertaken shall only apply for activities
undertaken for the primary purpose of flood prevention (including
structural and land treatment measures): Provided further, That of the
amounts made available under this heading, $10,000,000 shall be
allocated to projects and activities that can commence promptly
following enactment; that address regional priorities for flood
prevention, agricultural water management, inefficient irrigation
systems, fish and wildlife habitat, or watershed protection; or that
address authorized ongoing projects under the authorities of section 13
of the Flood Control Act of December 22, 1944 (Public Law 78-534) with
a primary purpose of watershed protection by preventing floodwater
damage and stabilizing stream channels, tributaries, and banks to
reduce erosion and sediment transport: Provided further, That of the
amounts made available under this heading, $10,000,000 shall remain
available until expended for the authorities under 16 U.S.C. 1001-1005
and 1007-1009 for authorized ongoing watershed projects with a primary
purpose of providing water to rural communities.
watershed rehabilitation program
Under the authorities of section 14 of the Watershed Protection and
Flood Prevention Act, $10,000,000 is provided.
CORPORATIONS
The following corporations and agencies are hereby authorized to
make expenditures, within the limits of funds and borrowing authority
available to each such corporation or agency and in accord with law,
and to make contracts and commitments without regard to fiscal year
limitations as provided by section 104 of the Government Corporation
Control Act as may be necessary in carrying out the programs set forth
in the budget for the current fiscal year for such corporation or
agency, except as hereinafter provided.
Federal Crop Insurance Corporation Fund
For payments as authorized by section 516 of the Federal Crop
Insurance Act (7 U.S.C. 1516), such sums as may be necessary, to remain
available until expended.
Commodity Credit Corporation Fund
reimbursement for net realized losses
(including transfers of funds)
For the current fiscal year, such sums as may be necessary to
reimburse the Commodity Credit Corporation for net realized losses
sustained, but not previously reimbursed, pursuant to section 2 of the
Act of August 17, 1961 (15 U.S.C. 713a-11): Provided, That of the
funds available to the Commodity Credit Corporation under section 11 of
the Commodity Credit Corporation Charter Act (15 U.S.C. 714i) for the
conduct of its business with the Foreign Agricultural Service, up to
$5,000,000 may be transferred to and used by the Foreign Agricultural
Service for information resource management activities of the Foreign
Agricultural Service that are not related to Commodity Credit
Corporation business.
hazardous waste management
(limitation on expenses)
For the current fiscal year, the Commodity Credit Corporation shall
not expend more than $15,000,000 for site investigation and cleanup
expenses, and operations and maintenance expenses to comply with the
requirement of section 107(g) of the Comprehensive Environmental
Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (42 U.S.C. 9607(g)), and
section 6001 of the Solid Waste Disposal Act (42 U.S.C. 6961).
TITLE III
RURAL DEVELOPMENT PROGRAMS
Office of the Under Secretary for Rural Development
For necessary expenses of the Office of the Under Secretary for
Rural Development, $1,580,000: Provided, That funds made available by
this Act to an agency in the Rural Development mission area for
salaries and expenses are available to fund up to one administrative
support staff for the Office.
Rural Development
salaries and expenses
(including transfers of funds)
For necessary expenses for carrying out the administration and
implementation of Rural Development programs, including activities with
institutions concerning the development and operation of agricultural
cooperatives; and for cooperative agreements; $363,922,000: Provided,
That of the amount made available under this heading, $32,000,000 shall
be for the StrikeForce activities of the Department of Agriculture, and
may be transferred to agencies of the Department for such purpose,
consistent with the missions and authorities of such agencies:
Provided further, That notwithstanding any other provision of law,
funds appropriated under this heading may be used for advertising and
promotional activities that support Rural Development programs:
Provided further, That in addition to any other funds appropriated for
purposes authorized by section 502(i) of the Housing Act of 1949 (42
U.S.C. 1472(i)), any amounts collected under such section, as amended
by this Act, will immediately be credited to this account and will
remain available until expended for such purposes.
Rural Housing Service
rural housing insurance fund program account
(including transfers of funds)
For gross obligations for the principal amount of direct and
guaranteed loans as authorized by title V of the Housing Act of 1949,
to be available from funds in the rural housing insurance fund, as
follows: $1,250,000,000 shall be for direct loans and $30,000,000,000
shall be for unsubsidized guaranteed loans; $28,000,000 for section 504
housing repair loans; $92,000,000 for section 515 rental housing;
$250,000,000 for section 538 guaranteed multi-family housing loans;
$10,000,000 for credit sales of single family housing acquired
property; $5,000,000 for section 523 self-help housing land development
loans; and $5,000,000 for section 524 site development loans.
For the cost of direct and guaranteed loans, including the cost of
modifying loans, as defined in section 502 of the Congressional Budget
Act of 1974, as follows: section 502 loans, $23,250,000 shall be for
direct loans; section 504 housing repair loans, $484,000; section 523
self-help housing land development loans, $55,000; section 524 site
development loans, $206,000; and repair, rehabilitation, and new
construction of section 515 rental housing, $8,225,000: Provided, That
to support the loan program level for section 538 guaranteed loans made
available under this heading the Secretary may charge or adjust any
fees to cover the projected cost of such loan guarantees pursuant to
the provisions of the Credit Reform Act of 1990 (2 U.S.C. 661 et seq.),
and the interest on such loans may not be subsidized: Provided
further, That applicants in communities that have a current rural area
waiver under section 541 of the Housing Act of 1949 (42 U.S.C. 1490q)
shall be treated as living in a rural area for purposes of section 502
guaranteed loans provided under this heading: Provided further, That
of the amounts available under this paragraph for section 502 direct
loans, no less than $5,000,000 shall be available for direct loans for
individuals whose homes will be built pursuant to a program funded with
a mutual and self-help housing grant authorized by section 523 of the
Housing Act of 1949 until June 1, 2022: Provided further, That the
Secretary shall implement provisions to provide incentives to nonprofit
organizations and public housing authorities to facilitate the
acquisition of Rural Housing Service (RHS) multifamily housing
properties by such nonprofit organizations and public housing
authorities that commit to keep such properties in the RHS multifamily
housing program for a period of time as determined by the Secretary,
with such incentives to include, but not be limited to, the following:
allow such nonprofit entities and public housing authorities to earn a
Return on Investment on their own resources to include proceeds from
low income housing tax credit syndication, own contributions, grants,
and developer loans at favorable rates and terms, invested in a deal;
and allow reimbursement of organizational costs associated with owner's
oversight of asset referred to as ``Asset Management Fee'' of up to
$7,500 per property.
In addition, for the cost of direct loans and grants, including the
cost of modifying loans, as defined in section 502 of the Congressional
Budget Act of 1974, $32,000,000, to remain available until expended,
for a demonstration program for the preservation and revitalization of
the sections 514, 515, and 516 multi-family rental housing properties
to restructure existing USDA multi-family housing loans, as the
Secretary deems appropriate, expressly for the purposes of ensuring the
project has sufficient resources to preserve the project for the
purpose of providing safe and affordable housing for low-income
residents and farm laborers including reducing or eliminating interest;
deferring loan payments, subordinating, reducing or re-amortizing loan
debt; and other financial assistance including advances, payments and
incentives (including the ability of owners to obtain reasonable
returns on investment) required by the Secretary: Provided, That the
Secretary shall, as part of the preservation and revitalization
agreement, obtain a restrictive use agreement consistent with the terms
of the restructuring: Provided further, That any balances, including
obligated balances, available for all demonstration programs for the
preservation and revitalization of sections 514, 515, and 516 multi-
family rental housing properties in the ``Multi-Family Housing
Revitalization Program Account'' shall be transferred to and merged
with this account, and shall also be available for the preservation and
revitalization of sections 514, 515, and 516 multi-family rental
housing properties, including the restructuring of existing USDA multi-
family housing loans: Provided further, That following the transfer of
balances described in the preceding proviso, any adjustments to
obligations for demonstration programs for the preservation and
revitalization of section 514, 515, and 516 multi-family rental housing
properties that would otherwise be incurred in ``Multi-family Housing
Revitalization Program Account'' shall be made in this account from
amounts transferred to this account under the preceding proviso.
In addition, for the cost of direct loans, grants, and contracts,
as authorized by sections 514 and 516 of the Housing Act of 1949 (42
U.S.C. 1484, 1486), $12,831,000, to remain available until expended,
for direct farm labor housing loans and domestic farm labor housing
grants and contracts: Provided, That any balances available for the
Farm Labor Program Account shall be transferred to and merged with this
account.
In addition, for administrative expenses necessary to carry out the
direct and guaranteed loan programs, $412,254,000 shall be transferred
to and merged with the appropriation for ``Rural Development, Salaries
and Expenses''.
rental assistance program
For rental assistance agreements entered into or renewed pursuant
to the authority under section 521(a)(2) of the Housing Act of 1949 or
agreements entered into in lieu of debt forgiveness or payments for
eligible households as authorized by section 502(c)(5)(D) of the
Housing Act of 1949, $1,450,000,000, of which $40,000,000 shall be
available until September 30, 2023; and in addition such sums as may be
necessary, as authorized by section 521(c) of the Act, to liquidate
debt incurred prior to fiscal year 1992 to carry out the rental
assistance program under section 521(a)(2) of the Act: Provided, That
rental assistance agreements entered into or renewed during the current
fiscal year shall be funded for a one-year period: Provided further,
That upon request by an owner of a project financed by an existing loan
under section 514 or 515 of the Act, the Secretary may renew the rental
assistance agreement for a period of 20 years or until the term of such
loan has expired, subject to annual appropriations: Provided further,
That any unexpended balances remaining at the end of such one-year
agreements may be transferred and used for purposes of any debt
reduction, maintenance, repair, or rehabilitation of any existing
projects; preservation; and rental assistance activities authorized
under title V of the Act: Provided further, That rental assistance
provided under agreements entered into prior to fiscal year 2022 for a
farm labor multi-family housing project financed under section 514 or
516 of the Act may not be recaptured for use in another project until
such assistance has remained unused for a period of 12 consecutive
months, if such project has a waiting list of tenants seeking such
assistance or the project has rental assistance eligible tenants who
are not receiving such assistance: Provided further, That such
recaptured rental assistance shall, to the extent practicable, be
applied to another farm labor multi-family housing project financed
under section 514 or 516 of the Act: Provided further, That except as
provided in the fourth proviso under this heading and notwithstanding
any other provision of the Act, the Secretary may recapture rental
assistance provided under agreements entered into prior to fiscal year
2022 for a project that the Secretary determines no longer needs rental
assistance and use such recaptured funds for current needs.
rural housing voucher account
For the rural housing voucher program as authorized under section
542 of the Housing Act of 1949, but notwithstanding subsection (b) of
such section, $45,000,000, to remain available until expended:
Provided, That the funds made available under this heading shall be
available for rural housing vouchers to any low-income household
(including those not receiving rental assistance) residing in a
property financed with a section 515 loan which has been prepaid or
otherwise paid off after September 30, 2005: Provided further, That
the amount of such voucher shall be the difference between comparable
market rent for the section 515 unit and the tenant paid rent for such
unit: Provided further, That funds made available for such vouchers
shall be subject to the availability of annual appropriations:
Provided further, That the Secretary shall, to the maximum extent
practicable, administer such vouchers with current regulations and
administrative guidance applicable to section 8 housing vouchers
administered by the Secretary of the Department of Housing and Urban
Development: Provided further, That in addition to any other available
funds, the Secretary may expend not more than $1,000,000 total, from
the program funds made available under this heading, for administrative
expenses for activities funded under this heading.
mutual and self-help housing grants
For grants and contracts pursuant to section 523(b)(1)(A) of the
Housing Act of 1949 (42 U.S.C. 1490c), $32,000,000, to remain available
until expended.
rural housing assistance grants
For grants for very low-income housing repair and rural housing
preservation made by the Rural Housing Service, as authorized by 42
U.S.C. 1474, and 1490m, $45,000,000, to remain available until
expended.
rural community facilities program account
(including transfers of funds)
For gross obligations for the principal amount of direct and
guaranteed loans as authorized by section 306 and described in section
381E(d)(1) of the Consolidated Farm and Rural Development Act,
$2,800,000,000 for direct loans and $500,000,000 for guaranteed loans.
For the cost of direct loans, loan guarantees and grants, including
the cost of modifying loans, as defined in section 502 of the
Congressional Budget Act of 1974, for rural community facilities
programs as authorized by section 306 and described in section
381E(d)(1) of the Consolidated Farm and Rural Development Act,
$172,690,000, to remain available until expended, of which up to
$83,690,000 shall be for the purposes, and in the amounts, specified
for this account in the table titled ``Congressionally Directed
Spending'' in the report to accompany this Act, in accordance with
applicable statutory and regulatory requirements: Provided, That
$6,000,000 of the amount appropriated under this heading shall be
available for a Rural Community Development Initiative: Provided
further, That such funds shall be used solely to develop the capacity
and ability of private, nonprofit community-based housing and community
development organizations, low-income rural communities, and Federally
Recognized Native American Tribes to undertake projects to improve
housing, community facilities, community and economic development
projects in rural areas: Provided further, That such funds shall be
made available to qualified private, nonprofit and public intermediary
organizations proposing to carry out a program of financial and
technical assistance: Provided further, That such intermediary
organizations shall provide matching funds from other sources,
including Federal funds for related activities, in an amount not less
than funds provided: Provided further, That of the amount appropriated
under this heading, $25,000,000 shall be available to cover the subsidy
costs for loans or loan guarantees under this heading: Provided
further, That if any such funds remain unobligated for the subsidy
costs after June 30, 2022, the unobligated balance may be transferred
to the grant programs funded under this heading: Provided further,
That any unobligated balances from prior year appropriations under this
heading for the cost of direct loans, loan guarantees and grants,
including amounts deobligated or cancelled, may be made available to
cover the subsidy costs for direct loans and or loan guarantees under
this heading in this fiscal year: Provided further, That no amounts
may be made available pursuant to the preceding proviso from amounts
that were designated by the Congress as an emergency requirement
pursuant to a Concurrent Resolution on the Budget or the Balanced
Budget and Emergency Deficit Control Act of 1985: Provided further,
That $10,000,000 of the amount appropriated under this heading shall be
available for community facilities grants to tribal colleges, as
authorized by section 306(a)(19) of such Act: Provided further, That
sections 381E-H and 381N of the Consolidated Farm and Rural Development
Act are not applicable to the funds made available under this heading.
Rural Business--Cooperative Service
rural business program account
(including transfers of funds)
For the cost of loan guarantees and grants, for the rural business
development programs authorized by section 310B and described in
subsections (a), (c), (f) and (g) of section 310B of the Consolidated
Farm and Rural Development Act, $81,150,000, to remain available until
expended: Provided, That of the amount appropriated under this
heading, not to exceed $500,000 shall be made available for one grant
to a qualified national organization to provide technical assistance
for rural transportation in order to promote economic development and
$9,000,000 shall be for grants to the Delta Regional Authority (7
U.S.C. 2009aa et seq.), the Northern Border Regional Commission (40
U.S.C. 15101 et seq.), and the Appalachian Regional Commission (40
U.S.C. 14101 et seq.) for any Rural Community Advancement Program
purpose as described in section 381E(d) of the Consolidated Farm and
Rural Development Act, of which not more than 5 percent may be used for
administrative expenses: Provided further, That $4,000,000 of the
amount appropriated under this heading shall be for business grants to
benefit Federally Recognized Native American Tribes, including $250,000
for a grant to a qualified national organization to provide technical
assistance for rural transportation in order to promote economic
development: Provided further, That of the amount appropriated under
this heading, $5,000,000 shall be for the Rural Innovation Stronger
Economy Grant Program (7 U.S.C. 2008w): Provided further, That
sections 381E-H and 381N of the Consolidated Farm and Rural Development
Act are not applicable to funds made available under this heading.
intermediary relending program fund account
(including transfer of funds)
For the principal amount of direct loans, as authorized by the
Intermediary Relending Program Fund Account (7 U.S.C. 1936b),
$18,889,000.
For the cost of direct loans, $1,524,000, as authorized by the
Intermediary Relending Program Fund Account (7 U.S.C. 1936b), of which
$167,000 shall be available through June 30, 2022, for Federally
Recognized Native American Tribes; and of which $305,000 shall be
available through June 30, 2022, for Mississippi Delta Region counties
(as determined in accordance with Public Law 100-460): Provided, That
such costs, including the cost of modifying such loans, shall be as
defined in section 502 of the Congressional Budget Act of 1974.
In addition, for administrative expenses to carry out the direct
loan programs, $4,468,000 shall be transferred to and merged with the
appropriation for ``Rural Development, Salaries and Expenses''.
rural economic development loans program account
For the principal amount of direct loans, as authorized under
section 313B(a) of the Rural Electrification Act, for the purpose of
promoting rural economic development and job creation projects,
$50,000,000.
The cost of grants authorized under section 313B(a) of the Rural
Electrification Act, for the purpose of promoting rural economic
development and job creation projects shall not exceed $10,000,000.
rural cooperative development grants
For rural cooperative development grants authorized under section
310B(e) of the Consolidated Farm and Rural Development Act (7 U.S.C.
1932), $26,800,000, of which $3,000,000 shall be for cooperative
agreements for the appropriate technology transfer for rural areas
program: Provided, That not to exceed $3,000,000 shall be for grants
for cooperative development centers, individual cooperatives, or groups
of cooperatives that serve socially disadvantaged groups and a majority
of the boards of directors or governing boards of which are comprised
of individuals who are members of socially disadvantaged groups; and of
which $15,000,000, to remain available until expended, shall be for
value-added agricultural product market development grants, as
authorized by section 210A of the Agricultural Marketing Act of 1946,
of which $3,000,000, to remain available until expended, shall be for
Agriculture Innovation Centers authorized pursuant to section 6402 of
Public Law 107-171.
rural microentrepreneur assistance program
For gross obligations for the principal amount of direct loans as
authorized by section 379E of the Consolidated Farm and Rural
Development Act (U.S.C. 2008s), $150,000,000.
For the cost of grants, $6,000,000 under the same terms and
conditions as authorized by section 379E of the Consolidated Farm and
Rural Development Act (7 U.S.C. 2008s).
rural energy for america program
For the cost of a program of loan guarantees and grants, under the
same terms and conditions as authorized by section 9007 of the Farm
Security and Rural Investment Act of 2002 (7 U.S.C. 8107), $22,168,000:
Provided, That the cost of loan guarantees, including the cost of
modifying such loans, shall be as defined in section 502 of the
Congressional Budget Act of 1974.
healthy food financing initiative
For the cost of loans and grants consistent with section 243 of
subtitle D of title II of the Department of Agriculture Reorganization
Act of 1994 (7 U.S.C. 6953), as added by section 4206 of the
Agricultural Act of 2014, for necessary expenses of the Secretary to
support projects that provide access to healthy food in underserved
areas, to create and preserve quality jobs, and to revitalize low-
income communities, $6,000,000, to remain available until expended:
Provided, That the cost of such loans, including the cost of modifying
such loans, shall be as defined in section 502 of the Congressional
Budget Act of 1974.
Rural Utilities Service
rural water and waste disposal program account
(including transfers of funds)
For gross obligations for the principal amount of direct and
guaranteed loans as authorized by section 306 and described in section
381E(d)(2) of the Consolidated Farm and Rural Development Act, as
follows: $1,400,000,000 for direct loans; and $50,000,000 for
guaranteed loans.
For the cost of loan guarantees and grants, including the cost of
modifying loans, as defined in section 502 of the Congressional Budget
Act of 1974, for rural water, waste water, waste disposal, and solid
waste management programs authorized by sections 306, 306A, 306C, 306D,
306E, and 310B and described in sections 306C(a)(2), 306D, 306E, and
381E(d)(2) of the Consolidated Farm and Rural Development Act,
$665,702,000, to remain available until expended, of which not to
exceed $1,000,000 shall be available for the rural utilities program
described in section 306(a)(2)(B) of such Act, and of which not to
exceed $5,000,000 shall be available for the rural utilities program
described in section 306E of such Act: Provided, That not to exceed
$15,000,000 of the amount appropriated under this heading shall be for
grants authorized by section 306A(i)(2) of the Consolidated Farm and
Rural Development Act in addition to funding authorized by section
306A(i)(1) of such Act: Provided further, That $73,000,000 of the
amount appropriated under this heading shall be for loans and grants
including water and waste disposal systems grants authorized by section
306C(a)(2)(B) and section 306D of the Consolidated Farm and Rural
Development Act, Federally Recognized Native American Tribes authorized
by 306C(a)(1) of such Act, and the Department of Hawaiian Homelands (of
the State of Hawaii): Provided further, That funding provided for
section 306D of the Consolidated Farm and Rural Development Act may be
provided to a consortium formed pursuant to section 325 of Public Law
105-83: Provided further, That not more than 2 percent of the funding
provided for section 306D of the Consolidated Farm and Rural
Development Act may be used by the State of Alaska for training and
technical assistance programs and not more than 2 percent of the
funding provided for section 306D of the Consolidated Farm and Rural
Development Act may be used by a consortium formed pursuant to section
325 of Public Law 105-83 for training and technical assistance
programs: Provided further, That not to exceed $37,500,000 of the
amount appropriated under this heading shall be for technical
assistance grants for rural water and waste systems pursuant to section
306(a)(14) of such Act, unless the Secretary makes a determination of
extreme need, of which $9,000,000 shall be made available for a grant
to a qualified nonprofit multi-State regional technical assistance
organization, with experience in working with small communities on
water and waste water problems, the principal purpose of such grant
shall be to assist rural communities with populations of 3,300 or less,
in improving the planning, financing, development, operation, and
management of water and waste water systems, and of which not less than
$800,000 shall be for a qualified national Native American organization
to provide technical assistance for rural water systems for tribal
communities: Provided further, That not to exceed $20,157,000 of the
amount appropriated under this heading shall be for contracting with
qualified national organizations for a circuit rider program to provide
technical assistance for rural water systems: Provided further, That
not to exceed $4,000,000 of the amounts made available under this
heading shall be for solid waste management grants: Provided further,
That $10,000,000 of the amount appropriated under this heading shall be
transferred to, and merged with, the Rural Utilities Service, High
Energy Cost Grants Account to provide grants authorized under section
19 of the Rural Electrification Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 918a): Provided
further, That any prior year balances for high-energy cost grants
authorized by section 19 of the Rural Electrification Act of 1936 (7
U.S.C. 918a) shall be transferred to and merged with the Rural
Utilities Service, High Energy Cost Grants Account: Provided further,
That sections 381E-H and 381N of the Consolidated Farm and Rural
Development Act are not applicable to the funds made available under
this heading.
rural electrification and telecommunications loans program account
(including transfer of funds)
The principal amount of direct and guaranteed loans as authorized
by sections 4, 305, and 317 of the Rural Electrification Act of 1936 (7
U.S.C. 904, 935, and 940g) shall be made as follows: loans made
pursuant to sections 4(c)(2), 305(d)(2), and 317, notwithstanding
317(c), of that Act, rural direct electric loans, $6,500,000,000;
guaranteed underwriting loans pursuant to section 313A of that Act,
$750,000,000; 5 percent rural telecommunications loans and cost of
money rural telecommunications loans, $690,000,000: Provided, That up
to $2,000,000,000 shall be used for the construction, acquisition,
design and engineering or improvement of fossil-fueled electric
generating plants (whether new or existing) that utilize carbon
subsurface utilization and storage systems.
For the cost of direct loans as authorized by section 305(d)(2) of
the Rural Electrification Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 935(d)(2)), including
the cost of modifying loans, as defined in section 502 of the
Congressional Budget Act of 1974, cost of money rural
telecommunications loans, $2,070,000.
In addition, $11,500,000 to remain available until expended, to
carry out section 6407 of the Farm Security and Rural Investment Act of
2002 (7 U.S.C. 8107a): Provided, That the energy efficiency measures
supported by the funding in this paragraph shall contribute in a
demonstrable way to the reduction of greenhouse gases.
In addition, for administrative expenses necessary to carry out the
direct and guaranteed loan programs, $33,270,000, which shall be
transferred to and merged with the appropriation for ``Rural
Development, Salaries and Expenses''.
distance learning, telemedicine, and broadband program
For grants for telemedicine and distance learning services in rural
areas, as authorized by 7 U.S.C. 950aaa et seq., $62,510,000, to remain
available until expended, of which up to $2,510,000 shall be for the
purposes, and in the amounts, specified for this account in the table
titled ``Congressionally Directed Spending'' in the report to accompany
this Act, in accordance with applicable statutory and regulatory
requirements: Provided, That $3,000,000 shall be made available for
grants authorized by section 379G of the Consolidated Farm and Rural
Development Act: Provided further, That funding provided under this
heading for grants under section 379G of the Consolidated Farm and
Rural Development Act may only be provided to entities that meet all of
the eligibility criteria for a consortium as established by this
section.
For the cost of broadband loans, as authorized by sections 601 and
602 of the Rural Electrification Act, $2,272,000, to remain available
until expended: Provided, That the cost of direct loans shall be as
defined in section 502 of the Congressional Budget Act of 1974.
In addition, $37,500,000, to remain available until expended, for
the Community Connect Grant Program authorized by 7 U.S.C. 950bb-3.
TITLE IV
DOMESTIC FOOD PROGRAMS
Office of the Under Secretary for Food, Nutrition, and Consumer
Services
For necessary expenses of the Office of the Under Secretary for
Food, Nutrition, and Consumer Services, $1,327,000: Provided, That
funds made available by this Act to an agency in the Food, Nutrition
and Consumer Services mission area for salaries and expenses are
available to fund up to one administrative support staff for the
Office.
Food and Nutrition Service
child nutrition programs
(including transfers of funds)
For necessary expenses to carry out the Richard B. Russell National
School Lunch Act (42 U.S.C. 1751 et seq.), except section 21, and the
Child Nutrition Act of 1966 (42 U.S.C. 1771 et seq.), except sections
17 and 21; $26,878,922,000 to remain available through September 30,
2023, of which such sums as are made available under section
14222(b)(1) of the Food, Conservation, and Energy Act of 2008 (Public
Law 110-246), as amended by this Act, shall be merged with and
available for the same time period and purposes as provided herein:
Provided, That of the total amount available, $20,004,000 shall be
available to carry out section 19 of the Child Nutrition Act of 1966
(42 U.S.C. 1771 et seq.): Provided further, That of the total amount
available, $15,607,000 shall be available to carry out studies and
evaluations and shall remain available until expended: Provided
further, That of the total amount available, $35,000,000 shall be
available to provide competitive grants to State agencies for subgrants
to local educational agencies and schools to purchase the equipment,
with a value of greater than $1,000, needed to serve healthier meals,
improve food safety, and to help support the establishment,
maintenance, or expansion of the school breakfast program: Provided
further, That of the total amount available, $45,000,000 shall remain
available until expended to carry out section 749(g) of the Agriculture
Appropriations Act of 2010 (Public Law 111-80): Provided further, That
of the total amount available, $2,000,000 shall remain available until
expended to carry out activities authorized under subsections (a)(2)
and (e)(2) of Section 21 of the Richard B. Russell National School
Lunch Act (42 U.S.C. 1769b-1(a)(2) and (e)(2)): Provided further, That
of the total amount available, $6,000,000 shall be available until
September 30, 2023 to carry out section 23 of the Child Nutrition Act
of 1966 (42 U.S.C. 1793), of which $2,000,000 shall be for grants under
such section to the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of
the Northern Mariana Islands, the United States Virgin Islands, Guam,
and American Samoa: Provided further, That section 26(d) of the
Richard B. Russell National School Lunch Act (42 U.S.C. 1769g(d)) is
amended in the first sentence by striking ``2010 through 2022'' and
inserting ``2010 through 2023'': Provided further, That section
9(h)(3) of the Richard B. Russell National School Lunch Act (42 U.S.C.
1758(h)(3)) is amended in the first sentence by striking ``For fiscal
year 2021'' and inserting ``For fiscal year 2022'': Provided further,
That section 9(h)(4) of the Richard B. Russell National School Lunch
Act (42 U.S.C. 1758(h)(4)) is amended in the first sentence by striking
``For fiscal year 2021'' and inserting ``For fiscal year 2022''.
special supplemental nutrition program for women, infants, and children
(wic)
For necessary expenses to carry out the special supplemental
nutrition program as authorized by section 17 of the Child Nutrition
Act of 1966 (42 U.S.C. 1786), $6,278,000,000, to remain available
through September 30, 2023: Provided, That notwithstanding section
17(h)(10) of the Child Nutrition Act of 1966 (42 U.S.C. 1786(h)(10)),
not less than $90,000,000 shall be used for breastfeeding peer
counselors and other related activities, and $14,000,000 shall be used
for infrastructure: Provided further, That none of the funds provided
in this account shall be available for the purchase of infant formula
except in accordance with the cost containment and competitive bidding
requirements specified in section 17 of such Act: Provided further,
That none of the funds provided shall be available for activities that
are not fully reimbursed by other Federal Government departments or
agencies unless authorized by section 17 of such Act: Provided
further, That upon termination of a federally mandated vendor
moratorium and subject to terms and conditions established by the
Secretary, the Secretary may waive the requirement at 7 CFR
246.12(g)(6) at the request of a State agency.
supplemental nutrition assistance program
For necessary expenses to carry out the Food and Nutrition Act of
2008 (7 U.S.C. 2011 et seq.), $105,829,347,000, of which
$3,000,000,000, to remain available through September 30, 2024, shall
be placed in reserve for use only in such amounts and at such times as
may become necessary to carry out program operations: Provided, That
funds provided herein shall be expended in accordance with section 16
of the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008: Provided further, That of the
funds made available under this heading, $998,000 may be used to
provide nutrition education services to State agencies and Federally
Recognized Tribes participating in the Food Distribution Program on
Indian Reservations: Provided further, That this appropriation shall
be subject to any work registration or workfare requirements as may be
required by law: Provided further, That funds made available for
Employment and Training under this heading shall remain available
through September 30, 2023: Provided further, That funds made
available under this heading for section 28(d)(1), section 4(b), and
section 27(a) of the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008 shall remain
available through September 30, 2023: Provided further, That none of
the funds made available under this heading may be obligated or
expended in contravention of section 213A of the Immigration and
Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1183A): Provided further, That funds made
available under this heading may be used to enter into contracts and
employ staff to conduct studies, evaluations, or to conduct activities
related to program integrity provided that such activities are
authorized by the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008.
commodity assistance program
For necessary expenses to carry out disaster assistance and the
Commodity Supplemental Food Program as authorized by section 4(a) of
the Agriculture and Consumer Protection Act of 1973 (7 U.S.C. 612c
note); the Emergency Food Assistance Act of 1983; special assistance
for the nuclear affected islands, as authorized by section 103(f)(2) of
the Compact of Free Association Amendments Act of 2003 (Public Law 108-
188); and the Farmers' Market Nutrition Program, as authorized by
section 17(m) of the Child Nutrition Act of 1966, $447,070,000, to
remain available through September 30, 2023: Provided, That none of
these funds shall be available to reimburse the Commodity Credit
Corporation for commodities donated to the program: Provided further,
That notwithstanding any other provision of law, effective with funds
made available in fiscal year 2021 to support the Seniors Farmers'
Market Nutrition Program, as authorized by section 4402 of the Farm
Security and Rural Investment Act of 2002, such funds shall remain
available through September 30, 2023: Provided further, That of the
funds made available under section 27(a) of the Food and Nutrition Act
of 2008 (7 U.S.C. 2036(a)), the Secretary may use up to 20 percent for
costs associated with the distribution of commodities.
nutrition programs administration
For necessary administrative expenses of the Food and Nutrition
Service for carrying out any domestic nutrition assistance program,
$178,233,000: Provided, That of the funds provided herein, $2,000,000
shall be used for the purposes of section 4404 of Public Law 107-171,
as amended by section 4401 of Public Law 110-246.
TITLE V
FOREIGN ASSISTANCE AND RELATED PROGRAMS
Office of the Under Secretary for Trade and Foreign Agricultural
Affairs
For necessary expenses of the Office of the Under Secretary for
Trade and Foreign Agricultural Affairs, $1,408,000: Provided, That
funds made available by this Act to any agency in the Trade and Foreign
Agricultural Affairs mission area for salaries and expenses are
available to fund up to one administrative support staff for the
Office.
office of codex alimentarius
For necessary expenses of the Office of Codex Alimentarius,
$4,841,000, including not to exceed $40,000 for official reception and
representation expenses.
Foreign Agricultural Service
salaries and expenses
(including transfers of funds)
For necessary expenses of the Foreign Agricultural Service,
including not to exceed $250,000 for representation allowances and for
expenses pursuant to section 8 of the Act approved August 3, 1956 (7
U.S.C. 1766), $229,644,000, of which no more than 6 percent shall
remain available until September 30, 2023, for overseas operations to
include the payment of locally employed staff, and of which $1,000,000
shall be available to carry out section 3307 of Public Law 115-334:
Provided, That the Service may utilize advances of funds, or reimburse
this appropriation for expenditures made on behalf of Federal agencies,
public and private organizations and institutions under agreements
executed pursuant to the agricultural food production assistance
programs (7 U.S.C. 1737) and the foreign assistance programs of the
United States Agency for International Development: Provided further,
That funds made available for middle-income country training programs,
funds made available for the Borlaug International Agricultural Science
and Technology Fellowship program, and up to $2,000,000 of the Foreign
Agricultural Service appropriation solely for the purpose of offsetting
fluctuations in international currency exchange rates, subject to
documentation by the Foreign Agricultural Service, shall remain
available until expended.
food for peace title ii grants
For expenses during the current fiscal year, not otherwise
recoverable, and unrecovered prior years' costs, including interest
thereon, under the Food for Peace Act (Public Law 83-480), for
commodities supplied in connection with dispositions abroad under title
II of said Act, $1,760,000,000, to remain available until expended.
mcgovern-dole international food for education and child nutrition
program grants
For necessary expenses to carry out the provisions of section 3107
of the Farm Security and Rural Investment Act of 2002 (7 U.S.C. 1736o-
1), $245,000,000, to remain available until expended: Provided, That
the Commodity Credit Corporation is authorized to provide the services,
facilities, and authorities for the purpose of implementing such
section, subject to reimbursement from amounts provided herein:
Provided further, That of the amount made available under this heading,
not more than 10 percent, but not less than $24,000,000, shall remain
available until expended to purchase agricultural commodities as
described in subsection 3107(a)(2) of the Farm Security and Rural
Investment Act of 2002 (7 U.S.C. 1736o-1(a)(2)).
commodity credit corporation export (loans) credit guarantee program
account
(including transfers of funds)
For administrative expenses to carry out the Commodity Credit
Corporation's Export Guarantee Program, GSM 102 and GSM 103,
$6,063,000, to cover common overhead expenses as permitted by section
11 of the Commodity Credit Corporation Charter Act and in conformity
with the Federal Credit Reform Act of 1990, of which $6,063,000 shall
be transferred to and merged with the appropriation for ``Foreign
Agricultural Service, Salaries and Expenses''.
TITLE VI
RELATED AGENCY AND FOOD AND DRUG ADMINISTRATION
Department of Health and Human Services
food and drug administration
salaries and expenses
(including transfers of funds)
For necessary expenses of the Food and Drug Administration,
including hire and purchase of passenger motor vehicles; for payment of
space rental and related costs pursuant to Public Law 92-313 for
programs and activities of the Food and Drug Administration which are
included in this Act; for rental of special purpose space in the
District of Columbia or elsewhere; in addition to amounts appropriated
to the FDA Innovation Account, for carrying out the activities
described in section 1002(b)(4) of the 21st Century Cures Act (Public
Law 114-255); for miscellaneous and emergency expenses of enforcement
activities, authorized and approved by the Secretary and to be
accounted for solely on the Secretary's certificate, not to exceed
$25,000; and notwithstanding section 521 of Public Law 107-188;
$6,122,657,000: Provided, That of the amount provided under this
heading, $1,141,861,000 shall be derived from prescription drug user
fees authorized by 21 U.S.C. 379h, and shall be credited to this
account and remain available until expended; $241,431,000 shall be
derived from medical device user fees authorized by 21 U.S.C. 379j, and
shall be credited to this account and remain available until expended;
$527,848,000 shall be derived from human generic drug user fees
authorized by 21 U.S.C. 379j-42, and shall be credited to this account
and remain available until expended; $43,116,000 shall be derived from
biosimilar biological product user fees authorized by 21 U.S.C. 379j-
52, and shall be credited to this account and remain available until
expended; $33,836,000 shall be derived from animal drug user fees
authorized by 21 U.S.C. 379j-12, and shall be credited to this account
and remain available until expended; $23,137,000 shall be derived from
generic new animal drug user fees authorized by 21 U.S.C. 379j-21, and
shall be credited to this account and remain available until expended;
$712,000,000 shall be derived from tobacco product user fees authorized
by 21 U.S.C. 387s, and shall be credited to this account and remain
available until expended: Provided further, That in addition to and
notwithstanding any other provision under this heading, amounts
collected for prescription drug user fees, medical device user fees,
human generic drug user fees, biosimilar biological product user fees,
animal drug user fees, and generic new animal drug user fees that
exceed the respective fiscal year 2022 limitations are appropriated and
shall be credited to this account and remain available until expended:
Provided further, That fees derived from prescription drug, medical
device, human generic drug, biosimilar biological product, animal drug,
and generic new animal drug assessments for fiscal year 2022, including
any such fees collected prior to fiscal year 2022 but credited for
fiscal year 2022, shall be subject to the fiscal year 2022 limitations:
Provided further, That the Secretary may accept payment during fiscal
year 2022 of user fees specified under this heading and authorized for
fiscal year 2023, prior to the due date for such fees, and that amounts
of such fees assessed for fiscal year 2023 for which the Secretary
accepts payment in fiscal year 2022 shall not be included in amounts
under this heading: Provided further, That none of these funds shall
be used to develop, establish, or operate any program of user fees
authorized by 31 U.S.C. 9701: Provided further, That of the total
amount appropriated: (1) $1,153,405,000 shall be for the Center for
Food Safety and Applied Nutrition and related field activities in the
Office of Regulatory Affairs, of which no less than $15,000,000 shall
be used for inspections of foreign seafood manufacturers and field
examinations of imported seafood; (2) $2,086,106,000 shall be for the
Center for Drug Evaluation and Research and related field activities in
the Office of Regulatory Affairs; (3) $459,150,000 shall be for the
Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research and for related field
activities in the Office of Regulatory Affairs; (4) $263,668,000 shall
be for the Center for Veterinary Medicine and for related field
activities in the Office of Regulatory Affairs; (5) $637,327,000 shall
be for the Center for Devices and Radiological Health and for related
field activities in the Office of Regulatory Affairs; (6) $75,180,000
shall be for the National Center for Toxicological Research; (7)
$680,812,000 shall be for the Center for Tobacco Products and for
related field activities in the Office of Regulatory Affairs; (8)
$198,485,000 shall be for Rent and Related activities, of which
$55,892,000 is for White Oak Consolidation, other than the amounts paid
to the General Services Administration for rent; (9) $235,348,000 shall
be for payments to the General Services Administration for rent; and
(10) $333,176,000 shall be for other activities, including the Office
of the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, the Office of Food Policy and
Response, the Office of Operations, the Office of the Chief Scientist,
and central services for these offices: Provided further, That not to
exceed $25,000 of this amount shall be for official reception and
representation expenses, not otherwise provided for, as determined by
the Commissioner: Provided further, That any transfer of funds
pursuant to section 770(n) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
(21 U.S.C. 379dd(n)) shall only be from amounts made available under
this heading for other activities: Provided further, That of the
amounts that are made available under this heading for ``other
activities'', and that are not derived from user fees, $1,500,000 shall
be transferred to and merged with the appropriation for ``Department of
Health and Human Services--Office of Inspector General'' for oversight
of the programs and operations of the Food and Drug Administration and
shall be in addition to funds otherwise made available for oversight of
the Food and Drug Administration: Provided further, That funds may be
transferred from one specified activity to another with the prior
approval of the Committees on Appropriations of both Houses of
Congress.
In addition, mammography user fees authorized by 42 U.S.C. 263b,
export certification user fees authorized by 21 U.S.C. 381, priority
review user fees authorized by 21 U.S.C. 360n and 360ff, food and feed
recall fees, food reinspection fees, and voluntary qualified importer
program fees authorized by 21 U.S.C. 379j-31, outsourcing facility fees
authorized by 21 U.S.C. 379j-62, prescription drug wholesale
distributor licensing and inspection fees authorized by 21 U.S.C.
353(e)(3), third-party logistics provider licensing and inspection fees
authorized by 21 U.S.C. 360eee-3(c)(1), third-party auditor fees
authorized by 21 U.S.C. 384d(c)(8), medical countermeasure priority
review voucher user fees authorized by 21 U.S.C. 360bbb-4a, and fees
relating to over-the-counter monograph drugs authorized by 21 U.S.C.
379j-72 shall be credited to this account, to remain available until
expended.
buildings and facilities
For plans, construction, repair, improvement, extension,
alteration, demolition, and purchase of fixed equipment or facilities
of or used by the Food and Drug Administration, where not otherwise
provided, $ 15,288,000, to remain available until expended.
fda innovation account, cures act
(including transfer of funds)
For necessary expenses to carry out the purposes described under
section 1002(b)(4) of the 21st Century Cures Act, in addition to
amounts available for such purposes under the heading ``Salaries and
Expenses'', $50,000,000, to remain available until expended: Provided,
That amounts appropriated in this paragraph are appropriated pursuant
to section 1002(b)(3) of the 21st Century Cures Act, are to be derived
from amounts transferred under section 1002(b)(2)(A) of such Act, and
may be transferred by the Commissioner of Food and Drugs to the
appropriation for ``Department of Health and Human Services Food and
Drug Administration Salaries and Expenses'' solely for the purposes
provided in such Act: Provided further, That upon a determination by
the Commissioner that funds transferred pursuant to the previous
proviso are not necessary for the purposes provided, such amounts may
be transferred back to the account: Provided further, That such
transfer authority is in addition to any other transfer authority
provided by law.
INDEPENDENT AGENCY
Farm Credit Administration
limitation on administrative expenses
Not to exceed $84,200,000 (from assessments collected from farm
credit institutions, including the Federal Agricultural Mortgage
Corporation) shall be obligated during the current fiscal year for
administrative expenses as authorized under 12 U.S.C. 2249: Provided,
That this limitation shall not apply to expenses associated with
receiverships: Provided further, That the agency may exceed this
limitation by up to 10 percent with notification to the Committees on
Appropriations of both Houses of Congress: Provided further, That the
purposes of section 3.7(b)(2)(A)(i) of the Farm Credit Act of 1971 (12
U.S.C. 2128(b)(2)(A)(i)), the Farm Credit Administration may exempt, an
amount in its sole discretion, from the application of the limitation
provided in that clause of export loans described in the clause
guaranteed or insured in a manner other than described in subclause
(II) of the clause.
TITLE VII
GENERAL PROVISIONS
(including rescissions and transfers of funds)
Sec. 701. The Secretary may use any appropriations made available
to the Department of Agriculture in this Act to purchase new passenger
motor vehicles, in addition to specific appropriations for this
purpose, so long as the total number of vehicles purchased in fiscal
year 2022 does not exceed the number of vehicles owned or leased in
fiscal year 2018: Provided, That, prior to purchasing additional motor
vehicles, the Secretary must determine that such vehicles are necessary
for transportation safety, to reduce operational costs, and for the
protection of life, property, and public safety: Provided further,
That the Secretary may not increase the Department of Agriculture's
fleet above the 2018 level unless the Secretary notifies in writing,
and receives approval from, the Committees on Appropriations of both
Houses of Congress within 30 days of the notification.
Sec. 702. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, the
Secretary of Agriculture may transfer unobligated balances of
discretionary funds appropriated by this Act or any other available
unobligated discretionary balances that are remaining available of the
Department of Agriculture to the Working Capital Fund for the
acquisition of property, plant and equipment and for the improvement,
delivery, and implementation of Department financial, and
administrative, information technology services, and other support
systems necessary for the delivery of financial, administrative, and
information technology services, including cloud adoption and
migration, of primary benefit to the agencies of the Department of
Agriculture, such transferred funds to remain available until expended:
Provided, That none of the funds made available by this Act or any
other Act shall be transferred to the Working Capital Fund without the
prior approval of the agency administrator: Provided further, That
none of the funds transferred to the Working Capital Fund pursuant to
this section shall be available for obligation without written
notification to and the prior approval of the Committees on
Appropriations of both Houses of Congress: Provided further, That none
of the funds appropriated by this Act or made available to the
Department's Working Capital Fund shall be available for obligation or
expenditure to make any changes to the Department's National Finance
Center without written notification to and prior approval of the
Committees on Appropriations of both Houses of Congress as required by
section 716 of this Act: Provided further, That none of the funds
appropriated by this Act or made available to the Department's Working
Capital Fund shall be available for obligation or expenditure to
initiate, plan, develop, implement, or make any changes to remove or
relocate any systems, missions, personnel, or functions of the offices
of the Chief Financial Officer and the Chief Information Officer, co-
located with or from the National Finance Center prior to written
notification to and prior approval of the Committee on Appropriations
of both Houses of Congress and in accordance with the requirements of
section 716 of this Act: Provided further, That the National Finance
Center Information Technology Services Division personnel and data
center management responsibilities, and control of any functions,
missions, and systems for current and future human resources management
and integrated personnel and payroll systems (PPS) and functions
provided by the Chief Financial Officer and the Chief Information
Officer shall remain in the National Finance Center and under the
management responsibility and administrative control of the National
Finance Center: Provided further, That the Secretary of Agriculture
and the offices of the Chief Financial Officer shall actively market to
existing and new Departments and other government agencies National
Finance Center shared services including, but not limited to, payroll,
financial management, and human capital shared services and allow the
National Finance Center to perform technology upgrades: Provided
further, That of annual income amounts in the Working Capital Fund of
the Department of Agriculture attributable to the amounts in excess of
the true costs of the shared services provided by the National Finance
Center and budgeted for the National Finance Center, the Secretary
shall reserve not more than 4 percent for the replacement or
acquisition of capital equipment, including equipment for the
improvement, delivery, and implementation of financial, administrative,
and information technology services, and other systems of the National
Finance Center or to pay any unforeseen, extraordinary cost of the
National Finance Center: Provided further, That none of the amounts
reserved shall be available for obligation unless the Secretary submits
written notification of the obligation to the Committees on
Appropriations of both Houses of Congress: Provided further, That the
limitations on the obligation of funds pending notification to
Congressional Committees shall not apply to any obligation that, as
determined by the Secretary, is necessary to respond to a declared
state of emergency that significantly impacts the operations of the
National Finance Center; or to evacuate employees of the National
Finance Center to a safe haven to continue operations of the National
Finance Center.
Sec. 703. No part of any appropriation contained in this Act shall
remain available for obligation beyond the current fiscal year unless
expressly so provided herein.
Sec. 704. No funds appropriated by this Act may be used to pay
negotiated indirect cost rates on cooperative agreements or similar
arrangements between the United States Department of Agriculture and
nonprofit institutions in excess of 10 percent of the total direct cost
of the agreement when the purpose of such cooperative arrangements is
to carry out programs of mutual interest between the two parties. This
does not preclude appropriate payment of indirect costs on grants and
contracts with such institutions when such indirect costs are computed
on a similar basis for all agencies for which appropriations are
provided in this Act.
Sec. 705. Appropriations to the Department of Agriculture for the
cost of direct and guaranteed loans made available in the current
fiscal year shall remain available until expended to disburse
obligations made in the current fiscal year for the following accounts:
the Rural Development Loan Fund program account, the Rural
Electrification and Telecommunication Loans program account, and the
Rural Housing Insurance Fund program account.
Sec. 706. None of the funds made available to the Department of
Agriculture by this Act may be used to acquire new information
technology systems or significant upgrades, as determined by the Office
of the Chief Information Officer, without the approval of the Chief
Information Officer and the concurrence of the Executive Information
Technology Investment Review Board: Provided, That notwithstanding any
other provision of law, none of the funds appropriated or otherwise
made available by this Act may be transferred to the Office of the
Chief Information Officer without written notification to and the prior
approval of the Committees on Appropriations of both Houses of
Congress: Provided further, That, notwithstanding section 11319 of
title 40, United States Code, none of the funds available to the
Department of Agriculture for information technology shall be obligated
for projects, contracts, or other agreements over $25,000 prior to
receipt of written approval by the Chief Information Officer: Provided
further, That the Chief Information Officer may authorize an agency to
obligate funds without written approval from the Chief Information
Officer for projects, contracts, or other agreements up to $250,000
based upon the performance of an agency measured against the
performance plan requirements described in the explanatory statement
accompanying Public Law 113-235.
Sec. 707. Funds made available under section 524(b) of the Federal
Crop Insurance Act (7 U.S.C. 1524(b)) in the current fiscal year shall
remain available until expended to disburse obligations made in the
current fiscal year.
Sec. 708. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any former
Rural Utilities Service borrower that has repaid or prepaid an insured,
direct or guaranteed loan under the Rural Electrification Act of 1936,
or any not-for-profit utility that is eligible to receive an insured or
direct loan under such Act, shall be eligible for assistance under
section 313B(a) of such Act in the same manner as a borrower under such
Act.
Sec. 709. (a) Except as otherwise specifically provided by law, not
more than $20,000,000 in unobligated balances from appropriations made
available for salaries and expenses in this Act for the Farm Service
Agency shall remain available through September 30, 2023, for
information technology expenses.
(b) Except as otherwise specifically provided by law, not more than
$20,000,000 in unobligated balances from appropriations made available
for salaries and expenses in this Act for the Rural Development mission
area shall remain available through September 30, 2023, for information
technology expenses.
Sec. 710. None of the funds appropriated or otherwise made
available by this Act may be used for first-class travel by the
employees of agencies funded by this Act in contravention of sections
301-10.122 through 301-10.124 of title 41, Code of Federal Regulations.
Sec. 711. In the case of each program established or amended by
the Agricultural Act of 2014 (Public Law 113-79) or by a successor to
that Act, other than by title I or subtitle A of title III of such Act,
or programs for which indefinite amounts were provided in that Act,
that is authorized or required to be carried out using funds of the
Commodity Credit Corporation--
(1) such funds shall be available for salaries and related
administrative expenses, including technical assistance,
associated with the implementation of the program, without
regard to the limitation on the total amount of allotments and
fund transfers contained in section 11 of the Commodity Credit
Corporation Charter Act (15 U.S.C. 714i); and
(2) the use of such funds for such purpose shall not be
considered to be a fund transfer or allotment for purposes of
applying the limitation on the total amount of allotments and
fund transfers contained in such section.
Sec. 712. Of the funds made available by this Act, not more than
$2,900,000 shall be used to cover necessary expenses of activities
related to all advisory committees, panels, commissions, and task
forces of the Department of Agriculture, except for panels used to
comply with negotiated rule makings and panels used to evaluate
competitively awarded grants.
Sec. 713. (a) None of the funds made available in this Act may be
used to maintain or establish a computer network unless such network
blocks the viewing, downloading, and exchanging of pornography.
(b) Nothing in subsection (a) shall limit the use of funds
necessary for any Federal, State, tribal, or local law enforcement
agency or any other entity carrying out criminal investigations,
prosecution, or adjudication activities.
Sec. 714. Notwithstanding subsection (b) of section 14222 of
Public Law 110-246 (7 U.S.C. 612c-6; in this section referred to as
``section 14222''), none of the funds appropriated or otherwise made
available by this or any other Act shall be used to pay the salaries
and expenses of personnel to carry out a program under section 32 of
the Act of August 24, 1935 (7 U.S.C. 612c; in this section referred to
as ``section 32'') in excess of $1,391,211,000 (exclusive of carryover
appropriations from prior fiscal years), as follows: Child Nutrition
Programs Entitlement Commodities--$485,000,000; State Option
Contracts--$5,000,000; Removal of Defective Commodities--$2,500,000;
Administration of Section 32 Commodity Purchases--$38,810,000:
Provided, That of the total funds made available in the matter
preceding this proviso that remain unobligated on October 1, 2022, such
unobligated balances shall carryover into fiscal year 2023 and shall
remain available until expended for any of the purposes of section 32,
except that any such carryover funds used in accordance with clause (3)
of section 32 may not exceed $350,000,000 and may not be obligated
until the Secretary of Agriculture provides written notification of the
expenditures to the Committees on Appropriations of both Houses of
Congress at least two weeks in advance: Provided further, That, with
the exception of any available carryover funds authorized in any prior
appropriations Act to be used for the purposes of clause (3) of section
32, none of the funds appropriated or otherwise made available by this
or any other Act shall be used to pay the salaries or expenses of any
employee of the Department of Agriculture to carry out clause (3) of
section 32.
Sec. 715. None of the funds appropriated by this or any other Act
shall be used to pay the salaries and expenses of personnel who prepare
or submit appropriations language as part of the President's budget
submission to the Congress for programs under the jurisdiction of the
Appropriations Subcommittees on Agriculture, Rural Development, Food
and Drug Administration, and Related Agencies that assumes revenues or
reflects a reduction from the previous year due to user fees proposals
that have not been enacted into law prior to the submission of the
budget unless such budget submission identifies which additional
spending reductions should occur in the event the user fees proposals
are not enacted prior to the date of the convening of a committee of
conference for the fiscal year 2023 appropriations Act.
Sec. 716. (a) None of the funds provided by this Act, or provided
by previous appropriations Acts to the agencies funded by this Act that
remain available for obligation or expenditure in the current fiscal
year, or provided from any accounts in the Treasury derived by the
collection of fees available to the agencies funded by this Act, shall
be available for obligation or expenditure through a reprogramming,
transfer of funds, or reimbursements as authorized by the Economy Act,
or in the case of the Department of Agriculture, through use of the
authority provided by section 702(b) of the Department of Agriculture
Organic Act of 1944 (7 U.S.C. 2257) or section 8 of Public Law 89-106
(7 U.S.C. 2263), that--
(1) creates new programs;
(2) eliminates a program, project, or activity;
(3) increases funds or personnel by any means for any
project or activity for which funds have been denied or
restricted;
(4) relocates an office or employees;
(5) reorganizes offices, programs, or activities; or
(6) contracts out or privatizes any functions or activities
presently performed by Federal employees;
unless the Secretary of Agriculture or the Secretary of Health and
Human Services (as the case may be) notifies in writing and receives
approval from the Committees on Appropriations of both Houses of
Congress at least 30 days in advance of the reprogramming of such funds
or the use of such authority.
(b) None of the funds provided by this Act, or provided by previous
Appropriations Acts to the agencies funded by this Act that remain
available for obligation or expenditure in the current fiscal year, or
provided from any accounts in the Treasury derived by the collection of
fees available to the agencies funded by this Act, shall be available
for obligation or expenditure for activities, programs, or projects
through a reprogramming or use of the authorities referred to in
subsection (a) involving funds in excess of $500,000 or 10 percent,
whichever is less, that--
(1) augments existing programs, projects, or activities;
(2) reduces by 10 percent funding for any existing program,
project, or activity, or numbers of personnel by 10 percent as
approved by Congress; or
(3) results from any general savings from a reduction in
personnel which would result in a change in existing programs,
activities, or projects as approved by Congress;
unless the Secretary of Agriculture or the Secretary of Health and
Human Services (as the case may be) notifies in writing and receives
approval from the Committees on Appropriations of both Houses of
Congress at least 30 days in advance of the reprogramming or transfer
of such funds or the use of such authority.
(c) The Secretary of Agriculture or the Secretary of Health and
Human Services shall notify in writing and receive approval from the
Committees on Appropriations of both Houses of Congress before
implementing any program or activity not carried out during the
previous fiscal year unless the program or activity is funded by this
Act or specifically funded by any other Act.
(d) None of the funds provided by this Act, or provided by previous
Appropriations Acts to the agencies funded by this Act that remain
available for obligation or expenditure in the current fiscal year, or
provided from any accounts in the Treasury derived by the collection of
fees available to the agencies funded by this Act, shall be available
for--
(1) modifying major capital investments funding levels,
including information technology systems, that involves
increasing or decreasing funds in the current fiscal year for
the individual investment in excess of $500,000 or 10 percent
of the total cost, whichever is less;
(2) realigning or reorganizing new, current, or vacant
positions or agency activities or functions to establish a
center, office, branch, or similar entity with five or more
personnel; or
(3) carrying out activities or functions that were not
described in the budget request;
unless the agencies funded by this Act notify, in writing, the
Committees on Appropriations of both Houses of Congress at least 30
days in advance of using the funds for these purposes.
(e) As described in this section, no funds may be used for any
activities unless the Secretary of Agriculture or the Secretary of
Health and Human Services receives from the Committee on Appropriations
of both Houses of Congress written or electronic mail confirmation of
receipt of the notification as required in this section.
Sec. 717. Notwithstanding section 310B(g)(5) of the Consolidated
Farm and Rural Development Act (7 U.S.C. 1932(g)(5)), the Secretary may
assess a one-time fee for any guaranteed business and industry loan in
an amount that does not exceed 3 percent of the guaranteed principal
portion of the loan.
Sec. 718. None of the funds appropriated or otherwise made
available to the Department of Agriculture, the Food and Drug
Administration, or the Farm Credit Administration shall be used to
transmit or otherwise make available reports, questions, or responses
to questions that are a result of information requested for the
appropriations hearing process to any non-Department of Agriculture,
non-Department of Health and Human Services, or non-Farm Credit
Administration employee.
Sec. 719. Unless otherwise authorized by existing law, none of the
funds provided in this Act, may be used by an executive branch agency
to produce any prepackaged news story intended for broadcast or
distribution in the United States unless the story includes a clear
notification within the text or audio of the prepackaged news story
that the prepackaged news story was prepared or funded by that
executive branch agency.
Sec. 720. No employee of the Department of Agriculture may be
detailed or assigned from an agency or office funded by this Act or any
other Act to any other agency or office of the Department for more than
60 days in a fiscal year unless the individual's employing agency or
office is fully reimbursed by the receiving agency or office for the
salary and expenses of the employee for the period of assignment.
Sec. 721. Not later than 30 days after the date of enactment of
this Act, the Secretary of Agriculture, the Commissioner of the Food
and Drug Administration, and the Chairman of the Farm Credit
Administration shall submit to the Committees on Appropriations of both
Houses of Congress a detailed spending plan by program, project, and
activity for all the funds made available under this Act including
appropriated user fees, as defined in the report accompanying this Act.
Sec. 722. Of the unobligated balances from amounts made available
for the supplemental nutrition program as authorized by section 17 of
the Child Nutrition Act of 1966 (42 U.S.C. 1786), $514,660,000 are
hereby rescinded: Provided, That no amounts may be rescinded from
amounts that were designated by the Congress as an emergency
requirement pursuant to a Concurrent Resolution on the Budget or the
Balanced Budget and Emergency Deficit Control Act of 1985.
Sec. 723. For the purposes of determining eligibility or level of
program assistance for Rural Development programs the Secretary shall
not include incarcerated prison populations.
Sec. 724. For loans and loan guarantees that do not require budget
authority and the program level has been established in this Act, the
Secretary of Agriculture may increase the program level for such loans
and loan guarantees by not more than 25 percent: Provided, That prior
to the Secretary implementing such an increase, the Secretary notifies,
in writing, the Committees on Appropriations of both Houses of Congress
at least 15 days in advance.
Sec. 725. None of the credit card refunds or rebates transferred
to the Working Capital Fund pursuant to section 729 of the Agriculture,
Rural Development, Food and Drug Administration, and Related Agencies
Appropriations Act, 2002 (7 U.S.C. 2235a; Public Law 107-76) shall be
available for obligation without written notification to, and the prior
approval of, the Committees on Appropriations of both Houses of
Congress: Provided, That the refunds or rebates so transferred shall
be available for obligation only for the acquisition of property, plant
and equipment, including equipment for the improvement, delivery, and
implementation of Department financial management, information
technology, and other support systems necessary for the delivery of
financial, administrative, and information technology services,
including cloud adoption and migration, of primary benefit to the
agencies of the Department of Agriculture.
Sec. 726. None of the funds made available by this Act may be used
to implement, administer, or enforce the ``variety'' requirements of
the final rule entitled ``Enhancing Retailer Standards in the
Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP)'' published by the
Department of Agriculture in the Federal Register on December 15, 2016
(81 Fed. Reg. 90675) until the Secretary of Agriculture amends the
definition of the term ``variety'' as de fined in section
278.1(b)(1)(ii)(C) of title 7, Code of Federal Regulations, and
``variety'' as applied in the definition of the term ``staple food'' as
defined in section 271.2 of title 7, Code of Federal Regulations, to
increase the number of items that qualify as acceptable varieties in
each staple food category so that the total number of such items in
each staple food category exceeds the number of such items in each
staple food category included in the final rule as published on
December 15, 2016: Provided, That until the Secretary promulgates such
regulatory amendments, the Secretary shall apply the requirements
regarding acceptable varieties and breadth of stock to Supplemental
Nutrition Assistance Program retailers that were in effect on the day
before the date of the enactment of the Agricultural Act of 2014
(Public Law 113-79).
Sec. 727. In carrying out subsection (h) of section 502 of the
Housing Act of 1949 (42 U.S.C. 1472), the Secretary of Agriculture
shall have the same authority with respect to loans guaranteed under
such section and eligible lenders for such loans as the Secretary has
under subsections (h) and (j) of section 538 of such Act (42 U.S.C.
1490p-2) with respect to loans guaranteed under such section 538 and
eligible lenders for such loans.
Sec. 728. None of the funds appropriated or otherwise made
available by this Act shall be available for the United States
Department of Agriculture to propose, finalize or implement any
regulation that would promulgate new user fees pursuant to 31 U.S.C.
9701 after the date of the enactment of this Act.
Sec. 729. None of the funds made available by this or any other
Act may be used to carry out the final rule promulgated by the Food and
Drug Administration and put into effect November 16, 2015, in regards
to the hazard analysis and risk-based preventive control requirements
of the current good manufacturing practice, hazard analysis, and risk-
based preventive controls for food for animals rule with respect to the
regulation of the production, distribution, sale, or receipt of dried
spent grain byproducts of the alcoholic beverage production process.
Sec. 730. None of the funds made available by this Act may be used
to propose, promulgate, or implement any rule, or take any other action
with respect to, allowing or requiring information intended for a
prescribing health care professional, in the case of a drug or
biological product subject to section 503(b)(1) of the Federal Food,
Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 353(b)(1)), to be distributed to such
professional electronically (in lieu of in paper form) unless and until
a Federal law is enacted to allow or require such distribution.
Sec. 731. (a) The Secretary of Agriculture shall--
(1) conduct audits in a manner that evaluates the following
factors in the country or region being audited, as applicable--
(A) veterinary control and oversight;
(B) disease history and vaccination practices;
(C) livestock demographics and traceability;
(D) epidemiological separation from potential
sources of infection;
(E) surveillance practices;
(F) diagnostic laboratory capabilities; and
(G) emergency preparedness and response; and
(2) promptly make publicly available the final reports of
any audits or reviews conducted pursuant to paragraph (1).
(b) This section shall be applied in a manner consistent with
United States obligations under its international trade agreements.
Sec. 732. None of the funds made available by this Act may be used
to implement section 3.7(f) of the Farm Credit Act of 1971 in a manner
inconsistent with section 343(a)(13) of the Consolidated Farm and Rural
Development Act.
Sec. 733. None of the funds made available by this Act may be used
to carry out any activities or incur any expense related to the
issuance of licenses under section 3 of the Animal Welfare Act (7
U.S.C. 2133), or the renewal of such licenses, to class B dealers who
sell dogs and cats for use in research, experiments, teaching, or
testing.
Sec. 734. (a)(1) No Federal funds made available for this fiscal
year for the rural water, waste water, waste disposal, and solid waste
management programs authorized by sections 306, 306A, 306C, 306D, 306E,
and 310B of the Consolidated Farm and Rural Development Act (7 U.S.C.
1926 et seq.) shall be used for a project for the construction,
alteration, maintenance, or repair of a public water or wastewater
system unless all of the iron and steel products used in the project
are produced in the United States.
(2) In this section, the term ``iron and steel products'' means the
following products made primarily of iron or steel: lined or unlined
pipes and fittings, manhole covers and other municipal castings,
hydrants, tanks, flanges, pipe clamps and restraints, valves,
structural steel, reinforced precast concrete, and construction
materials.
(b) Subsection (a) shall not apply in any case or category of cases
in which the Secretary of Agriculture (in this section referred to as
the ``Secretary'') or the designee of the Secretary finds that--
(1) applying subsection (a) would be inconsistent with the
public interest;
(2) iron and steel products are not produced in the United
States in sufficient and reasonably available quantities or of
a satisfactory quality; or
(3) inclusion of iron and steel products produced in the
United States will increase the cost of the overall project by
more than 25 percent.
(c) If the Secretary or the designee receives a request for a
waiver under this section, the Secretary or the designee shall make
available to the public on an informal basis a copy of the request and
information available to the Secretary or the designee concerning the
request, and shall allow for informal public input on the request for
at least 15 days prior to making a finding based on the request. The
Secretary or the designee shall make the request and accompanying
information available by electronic means, including on the official
public Internet Web site of the Department.
(d) This section shall be applied in a manner consistent with
United States obligations under international agreements.
(e) The Secretary may retain up to 0.25 percent of the funds
appropriated in this Act for ``Rural Utilities Service--Rural Water and
Waste Disposal Program Account'' for carrying out the provisions
described in subsection (a)(1) for management and oversight of the
requirements of this section.
(f) Subsection (a) shall not apply with respect to a project for
which the engineering plans and specifications include use of iron and
steel products otherwise prohibited by such subsection if the plans and
specifications have received required approvals from State agencies
prior to the date of enactment of this Act.
(g) For purposes of this section, the terms ``United States'' and
``State'' shall include each of the several States, the District of
Columbia, and each federally recognized Indian tribe.
Sec. 735. None of the funds appropriated by this Act may be used
in any way, directly or indirectly, to influence congressional action
on any legislation or appropriation matters pending before Congress,
other than to communicate to Members of Congress as described in 18
U.S.C. 1913.
Sec. 736. Of the total amounts made available by this Act for
direct loans and grants and in the following headings: ``Rural Housing
Service--Rural Housing Insurance Fund Program Account''; ``Rural
Housing Service--Mutual and Self-Help Housing Grants''; ``Rural Housing
Service--Rural Housing Assistance Grants''; ``Rural Housing Service--
Rural Community Facilities Program Account''; ``Rural Business-
Cooperative Service--Rural Business Program Account''; ``Rural
Business-Cooperative Service--Rural Economic Development Loans Program
Account''; ``Rural Business-Cooperative Service--Rural Cooperative
Development Grants''; ``Rural Utilities Service--Rural Water and Waste
Disposal Program Account''; ``Rural Utilities Service--Rural
Electrification and Telecommunications Loans Program Account''; and
``Rural Utilities Service--Distance Learning, Telemedicine, and
Broadband Program'', to the maximum extent feasible, at least 10
percent of the funds shall be allocated for assistance in persistent
poverty counties under this section, including, notwithstanding any
other provision regarding population limits, any county seat of such a
persistent poverty county that has a population that does not exceed
the authorized population limit by more than 10 percent: Provided,
That for purposes of this section, the term ``persistent poverty
counties'' means any county that has had 20 percent or more of its
population living in poverty over the past 30 years, as measured by the
1990 and 2000 decennial censuses, and 2007-2011 American Community
Survey 5-year average, or any territory or possession of the United
States: Provided further, That with respect to specific activities for
which program levels have been made available by this Act that are not
supported by budget authority, the requirements of this section shall
be applied to such program level.
Sec. 737. In addition to any other funds made available in this
Act or any other Act, there is appropriated $17,000,000 to carry out
section 18(g)(8) of the Richard B. Russell National School Lunch Act
(42 U.S.C. 1769(g)), to remain available until expended, of which
$5,000,000 shall be used to establish a National Farm to School
Institute to provide technical and practical assistance to Farm to
School programs across the country and shall be located at Shelburne
Farms in Shelburne, VT: Provided, That notwithstanding section
18(g)(3)(C) of the Richard B. Russell National School Lunch Act (42
U.S.C. 1769 (g)(3)(c)), the total grant amount provided to a farm to
school grant recipient in fiscal year 2022 shall not exceed $500,000.
Sec. 738. None of the funds made available by this or any other
Act may be used to enforce the final rule promulgated by the Food and
Drug Administration entitled ``Standards for the Growing, Harvesting,
Packing, and Holding of Produce for Human Consumption,'' and published
on November 27, 2015, with respect to the regulation of entities that
grow, harvest, pack, or hold wine grapes, hops, pulse crops, or
almonds.
Sec. 739. There is hereby appropriated $5,000,000, to remain
available until September 30, 2023, for a pilot program for the
National Institute of Food and Agriculture to provide grants to
nonprofit organizations for programs and services to establish and
enhance farming and ranching opportunities for military veterans.
Sec. 740. For school years 2021-2022 and 2022-2023, none of the
funds made available by this Act may be used to implement or enforce
the matter following the first comma in the second sentence of footnote
(c) of section 220.8(c) of title 7, Code of Federal Regulations, with
respect to the substitution of vegetables for fruits under the school
breakfast program established under section 4 of the Child Nutrition
Act of 1966 (42 U.S.C. 1773).
Sec. 741. None of the funds made available by this Act or any
other Act may be used--
(1) in contravention of section 7606 of the Agricultural
Act of 2014 (7 U.S.C. 5940), subtitle G of the Agricultural
Marketing Act of 1946, or section 10114 of the Agriculture
Improvement Act of 2018; or
(2) to prohibit the transportation, processing, sale, or
use of hemp, or seeds of such plant, that is grown or
cultivated in accordance with subsection section 7606 of the
Agricultural Act of 2014 or Subtitle G of the Agricultural
Marketing Act of 1946, within or outside the State in which the
hemp is grown or cultivated.
Sec. 742. None of the funds made available by this Act may be used
to notify a sponsor or otherwise acknowledge receipt of a submission
for an exemption for investigational use of a drug or biological
product under section 505(i) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic
Act (21 U.S.C. 355(i)) or section 351(a)(3) of the Public Health
Service Act (42 U.S.C. 262(a)(3)) in research in which a human embryo
is intentionally created or modified to include a heritable genetic
modification. Any such submission shall be deemed to have not been
received by the Secretary, and the exemption may not go into effect.
Sec. 743. In addition to amounts otherwise made available for
``Agricultural Research Service, Buildings and Facilities'', there is
hereby appropriated $39,700,000 for construction and other costs to
establish a Plant Germplasm Research Facility located at the University
of Wisconsin-Madison, Madison, WI.
Sec. 744. Out of amounts appropriated to the Food and Drug
Administration under title VI, the Secretary of Health and Human
Services, acting through the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, shall, not
later than September 30, 2022, and following the review required under
Executive Order No. 12866 (5 U.S.C. 601 note; relating to regulatory
planning and review), issue advice revising the advice provided in the
notice of availability entitled ``Advice About Eating Fish, From the
Environmental Protection Agency and Food and Drug Administration;
Revised Fish Advice; Availability'' (82 Fed. Reg. 6571 (January 19,
2017)), in a manner that is consistent with nutrition science
recognized by the Food and Drug Administration on the net effects of
seafood consumption.
Sec. 745. The Secretary of Agriculture may waive the matching
funds requirement under Section 412(g) of the Agricultural Research,
Extension, and Education Reform Act of 1998 (7 U.S.C. 7632(g)).
Sec. 746. There is hereby appropriated $2,000,000, to remain
available until expended, for a pilot program for the Secretary to
provide grants to qualified non-profit organizations and public housing
authorities to provide technical assistance, including financial and
legal services, to RHS multi-family housing borrowers to facilitate the
acquisition of RHS multi-family housing properties in areas where the
Secretary determines a risk of loss of affordable housing, by non-
profit housing organizations and public housing authorities as
authorized by law that commit to keep such properties in the RHS multi-
family housing program for a period of time as determined by the
Secretary.
Sec. 747. There is hereby appropriated $3,000,000, to carry out
section 4208 of Public Law 115-334, including for project locations in
additional regions and timely completion of required reporting to
Congress.
Sec. 748. There is hereby appropriated $5,000,000 to carry out
section 12301 of Public Law 115-334.
Sec. 749. There is hereby appropriated $3,000,000, to carry out
section 4003(b) of Public Law 115-334 relating to demonstration
projects for Tribal Organizations.
Sec. 750. In addition to amounts otherwise made available by this
Act and notwithstanding the last sentence of 16 U.S.C. 1310, there is
appropriated $4,000,000, to remain available until expended, to
implement non-renewable agreements on eligible lands, including flooded
agricultural lands, as determined by the Secretary, under the Water
Bank Act (16 U.S.C. 1301-1311).
Sec. 751. The Secretary shall set aside for Rural Economic Area
Partnership (REAP) Zones, until August 15, 2022, an amount of funds
made available in title III under the headings of Rural Housing
Insurance Fund Program Account, Mutual and Self-Help Housing Grants,
Rural Housing Assistance Grants, Rural Community Facilities Program
Account, Rural Business Program Account, Rural Development Loan Fund
Program Account, and Rural Water and Waste Disposal Program Account,
equal to the amount obligated in REAP Zones with respect to funds
provided under such headings in the most recent fiscal year any such
funds were obligated under such headings for REAP Zones.
Sec. 752. Hereafter, in response to an eligible community where
the drinking water supplies are inadequate due to a natural disaster,
as determined by the Secretary, including drought or severe weather,
the Secretary may provide potable water through the Emergency Community
Water Assistance Grant Program for an additional period of time not to
exceed 120 days beyond the established period provided under the
Program in order to protect public health.
Sec. 753. There is hereby appropriated $5,000,000, to remain
available until expended, to carry out section 2103 of Public Law 115-
334: Provided, That the Secretary shall prioritize the wetland
compliance needs of areas with significant numbers of individual
wetlands, wetland acres, and conservation compliance requests.
Sec. 754. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the
acceptable market name of any engineered animal approved prior to the
effective date of the National Bioengineered Food Disclosure Standard
(February 19, 2019) shall include the words ``genetically engineered''
prior to the existing acceptable market name.
Sec. 755. The Secretary, acting through the Chief of the Natural
Resources Conservation Service, may use funds appropriated under this
Act or any other Act for the Watershed and Flood Prevention Operations
Program and the Watershed Rehabilitation Program carried out pursuant
to the Watershed Protection and Flood Prevention Act (16 U.S.C. 1001 et
seq.), and for the Emergency Watershed Protection Program carried out
pursuant to section 403 of the Agricultural Credit Act of 1978 (16
U.S.C. 2203) to provide technical services for such programs pursuant
to section 1252(a)(1) of the Food Security Act of 1985 (16 U.S.C.
3851(a)(1)), notwithstanding subsection (c) of such section.
Sec. 756. None of the funds made available by this Act may be used
to procure raw or processed poultry products imported into the United
States from the People's Republic of China for use in the school lunch
program under the Richard B. Russell National School Lunch Act (42
U.S.C. 1751 et seq.), the Child and Adult Care Food Program under
section 17 of such Act (42 U.S.C. 1766), the Summer Food Service
Program for Children under section 13 of such Act (42 U.S.C. 1761), or
the school breakfast program under the Child Nutrition Act of 1966 (42
U.S.C. 1771 et seq.).
Sec. 757. For school year 2022-2023, only a school food authority
that had a negative balance in the nonprofit school food service
account as of December 31, 2020, shall be required to establish a price
for paid lunches in accordance with section 12(p) of the Richard B.
Russell National School Lunch Act (42 U.S.C. 1760(p)).
Sec. 758. (a) There is hereby appropriated $650,000,000, to remain
available until expended, for an additional amount for section 779 of
Public Law 115-141.
(b) Section 313(b) of the Rural Electrification Act of 1936, as
amended (7 U.S.C. 940c(b)), shall be applied for fiscal year 2022 and
each fiscal year thereafter until the specified funding has been
expended as if the following were inserted after the final period in
subsection (b)(2): ``In addition, the Secretary shall use $425,000,000
of funds available in this subaccount in fiscal year 2019 for an
additional amount for the same purpose and under the same terms and
conditions as funds appropriated by section 779 of Public Law 115-141,
shall use $255,000,000 of funds available in this subaccount in fiscal
year 2020 for an additional amount for the same purpose and under the
same terms and conditions as funds appropriated by section 779 of
Public Law 115-141, shall use $104,000,000 of funds available in this
subaccount in fiscal year 2021 for an additional amount for the same
purpose and under the same terms and conditions as funds appropriated
by section 779 of Public Law 115-141, and shall use $50,000,000 of
funds available in this subaccount in fiscal year 2022 for an
additional amount for the same purpose and under the same terms and
conditions as funds appropriated by section 779 of Public Law 115-
141.'': Provided, That any use of such funds shall be treated as a
reprogramming of funds under section 716 of this Act.
(c) Section 775(b) of division A of Public Law 116-260 shall no
longer apply.
Sec. 759. There is hereby appropriated $400,000 to carry out
section 1672(g)(4)(B) of the Food, Agriculture, Conservation, and Trade
Act of 1990 (7 U.S.C. 5925(g)(4(B)) as amended by section 7209 of
Public Law 115-334.
Sec. 760. Section 7605(b) of the Agriculture Improvement Act of
2018 (7 U.S.C. 5940 note; Public Law 115-334) is amended by striking
``January 1, 2022'' and inserting ``January 1, 2023.''.
Sec. 761. Section 9(i)(2) of the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008 (7
U.S.C. 2018(i)(2)) is amended by striking ``December 31, 2021'' and
inserting ``December 31, 2022''.
Sec. 762. There is hereby appropriated $1,000,000 to carry out the
duties of the working group established under section 770 of the
Agriculture, Rural Development, Food and Drug Administration, and
Related Agencies Appropriations Act, 2019 (Public Law 116-6; 133 Stat.
89).
Sec. 763. (a) For the period beginning on the date of enactment of
this Act through school year 2022-2023, with respect to the school
lunch program established under the Richard B. Russell National School
Lunch Act (42 U.S.C. 1751 et seq.) or the school breakfast program
established under the Child Nutrition Act of 1966 (42 U.S.C. 1771 et
seq.) and final regulations published by the Department of Agriculture
in the Federal Register on January 26, 2012 (77 Fed. Reg. 4088 et
seq.), the Secretary of Agriculture shall allow States to grant an
exemption from the whole grain requirements that took effect on or
after July 1, 2014, and the States shall establish a process for
evaluating and responding, in a reasonable amount of time, to requests
for an exemption: Provided, That school food authorities demonstrate
hardship, including financial hardship, in procuring specific whole
grain products which are acceptable to the students and compliant with
the whole grain-rich requirements: Provided further, That school food
authorities shall comply with the applicable grain component or
standard with respect to the school lunch or school breakfast program
that was in effect prior to July 1, 2014.
(b) For the period beginning on the date of enactment of this Act
through school year 2022-2023, none of the funds appropriated or
otherwise made available by this or any other Act shall be used to pay
the salaries and expenses of personnel to implement any regulations
under the Richard B. Russell National School Lunch Act (42 U.S.C. 1751
et seq.), the Child Nutrition Act of 1966 (42 U.S.C. 1771 et seq.), the
Healthy, Hunger-Free Kids Act of 2010 (Public Law 111-296), or any
other law that would require a reduction in the quantity of sodium
contained in federally reimbursed meals, foods, and snacks sold in
schools below Target 1 (as described in section 220.8(f)(3) of title 7,
Code of Federal Regulations (or successor regulations)).
(c) For the period beginning on the date of enactment of this Act
through school year 2022-2023, notwithstanding any other provision of
law, the Secretary shall allow States to grant special exemptions for
the service of flavored, low-fat fluid milk in the school lunch program
established under the Richard B. Russell National School Lunch Act (42
U.S.C. 1751 et seq.) and the school breakfast program established under
the Child Nutrition Act of 1966 (42 U.S.C. 1771 et seq.), and as a
competitive food available on campus during the school day, to schools
which demonstrate a reduction in student milk consumption or an
increase in school milk waste.
Sec. 764. None of the funds made available by this or any other
act may be used to restrict the offering of low-fat (1 percent fat)
flavored milk in the National School Lunch Program or School Breakfast
Program, as long as such milk is not inconsistent with the most recent
Dietary Guidelines for Americans published under section 301 of the
National Nutrition Monitoring and Related Research Act of 1990.
Sec. 765. In administering the pilot program established by
section 779 of division A of the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2018
(Public Law 115-141), the Secretary of Agriculture may, for purposes of
determining entities eligible to receive assistance, consider those
communities which are ``Areas Rural in Character'': Provided, That not
more than 10 percent of the funds made available by section 758 may be
used for this purpose.
Sec. 766. There is hereby appropriated $24,525,000 for the
Goodfellow Federal facility, to remain available until expended, of
which $12,000,000 shall be transferred to and merged with the
appropriation for ``Office of the Chief Information Officer'' and of
which $12,525,000 shall be transferred to and merged with the
appropriation for ``Food Safety and Inspection Service''.
Sec. 767. (a) There is hereby appropriated $3,000,000, to remain
available until expended, for a pilot program for the Animal and Plant
Health Inspection Service to provide grants to State departments of
agriculture and forestry commissions in states identified in the final
environmental assessment published in the Federal Register on September
23, 2020 (85 Fed. Reg. 59735), to combat and treat cogongrass through
established cogongrass control programs.
(b) Not to exceed 2 percent of the funds provided under this
section shall be available for necessary costs of grant administration.
Sec. 768. Section 764(d)(3)(B) of division N of Public Law 116-260
is amended by inserting ``and fiscal year 2022'' after ``fiscal year
2021'' and before the final period.
Sec. 769. Section 6402(f) of the Farm Security and Rural
Investment Act of 2002 (7 U.S.C. 1632b(f)) is amended in the matter
preceding paragraph (1) by striking ``section 210A(d)(2)'' and
inserting ``section 210A(d)(5)(D)''.
Sec. 770. For an additional amount for the Office of the
Secretary, $30,000,000, to remain available until expended, to
establish an Institute for Rural Partnerships: Provided, That the
Secretary shall establish a grant program and distribute the funds to
three geographically diverse established land-grant universities:
Provided further, That the Institute for Rural Partnerships shall
dedicate resources to researching the causes and conditions of
challenges facing rural areas, and develop community partnerships to
address such challenges: Provided further, That administrative or
other fees shall not exceed one percent: Provided further, That such
partnership shall coordinate and publish an annual report.
Sec. 771. There is hereby appropriated $1,000,000, to remain
available until September 30, 2023, for a Cattle Contracts Library
pilot program that the Agricultural Marketing Service shall develop and
maintain. This program shall be similar, as determined by the
Secretary, to the swine contract library the U.S. Department of
Agriculture currently maintains pursuant to section 222 of the Packers
and Stockyards Act (7 U.S.C. 198a). The promulgation of the regulations
and administration of this section shall be made without regard to: (1)
the notice and comment provisions of section 553 of title 5; and (2)
chapter 35 of title 44 (commonly known as the ``Paperwork Reduction
Act'').
Sec. 772. There is hereby appropriated $10,000,000, to remain
available until expended, for costs associated with the establishment
of an Institute of Rural Partnership, located at the University of
Vermont, Burlington, VT.
Sec. 773. For an additional amount for the ``Office of the
Secretary'', $7,030,000,000, which shall remain available until
December 31, 2023, for necessary expenses related to losses of crops
(including milk, on-farm stored commodities, crops prevented from
planting in 2020 and 2021, and harvested adulterated wine grapes),
trees, bushes, and vines, as a consequence of droughts, wildfires,
hurricanes, floods, derechos, winter storms, smoke exposure, quality
losses of crops, and excessive moisture occurring in calendar years
2020 and 2021 under such terms and conditions as determined by the
Secretary: Provided, That losses due to drought shall only be eligible
under this section if any area within the county in which the loss
occurs was rated by the U.S. Drought Monitor as having a D3 (Extreme
Drought) or higher level of drought intensity during the applicable
calendar years: Provided further, That of the amounts provided in this
section, the Secretary shall use $750,000,000 to provide assistance to
producers of livestock, as determined by the Secretary of Agriculture,
for losses incurred during calendar year 2021 due to drought or
wildfires: Provided further, That at the election of a processor
eligible for a loan under section 156 of the Federal Agriculture
Improvement and Reform Act of 1996 (7 U.S.C. 7272) or a cooperative
processor of dairy, the Secretary shall make payments for losses in
2021 to such processors (to be paid to producer members, as determined
by such processors) in lieu of payments to producers and under the same
terms and conditions as payments made to processors pursuant to Title I
of the Additional Supplemental Appropriations for Disaster Relief Act,
2019 (Public Law 116-20) under the heading ``Department of
Agriculture--Agricultural Programs--Processing, Research and
Marketing--Office of the Secretary'', as last amended by section 791(c)
of title VII of division B of the Further Consolidated Appropriations
Act, 2020 (Public Law 116-94): Provided further, That notwithstanding
section 760.1503(j) of title 7 of the Code of Federal Regulations, in
the event that a processor described in the preceding proviso does not
elect to receive payments under such clause, the Secretary shall make
direct payments to producers under this section: Provided further,
That of the amounts provided in this section, not more than $20,000,000
may be used for administrative costs to carry out this section:
Provided further, That the total amount of payments received under this
section and applicable policies of crop insurance under the Federal
Crop Insurance Act (7 U.S.C. 1501 et seq.) or the Noninsured Crop
Disaster Assistance Program (NAP) under section 196 of the Federal
Agriculture Improvement and Reform Act of 1996 (7 U.S.C. 7333) shall
not exceed 90 percent of the loss as determined by the Secretary:
Provided further, That the total amount of payments received under this
section for producers who did not obtain a policy or plan of insurance
for an insurable commodity for the applicable crop year under the
Federal Crop Insurance Act (7 U.S.C. 1501 et seq.) for the crop
incurring the losses or did not file the required paperwork and pay the
service fee by the applicable State filing deadline for a noninsurable
commodity for the applicable crop year under NAP for the crop incurring
the losses shall not exceed 70 percent of the loss as determined by the
Secretary: Provided further, That producers receiving payments under
this section, as determined by the Secretary, shall be required to
purchase crop insurance where crop insurance is available for the next
two available crop years and producers receiving payments under this
section shall be required to purchase coverage under NAP where crop
insurance is not available in the next two available crop years, as
determined by the Secretary: Provided further, That not later than 120
days after the end of fiscal year 2021, the Secretary shall submit a
report to the Congress specifying the type, amount, and method of such
assistance by state and territory: Provided further, That such amount
is designated by the Congress as being for an emergency requirement
pursuant to section 4112(a) of H. Con. Res. 71 (115th Congress), the
concurrent resolution on the budget for fiscal year 2018, and to
section 251(b) of the Balanced Budget and Emergency Deficit Control Act
of 1985.
Sec. 774. None of the funds made available by this Act may be used
to pay the salaries or expenses of personnel--
(1) to inspect horses under section 3 of the Federal Meat
Inspection Act (21 U.S.C. 603);
(2) to inspect horses under section 903 of the Federal
Agriculture Improvement and Reform Act of 1996 (7 U.S.C. 1901
note; Public Law 104-127); or
(3) to implement or enforce section 352.19 of title 9, Code
of Federal Regulations (or a successor regulation).
Sec. 775. Notwithstanding any provision of law that regulates the
calculation and payment of overtime and holiday pay for FSIS
inspectors, the Secretary may charge establishments subject to the
inspection requirements of the Poultry Products Inspection Act, 21
U.S.C. Sec. 451 et seq., the Federal Meat Inspection Act, 21 U.S.C.
Sec. 601 et seq, and the Egg Products Inspection Act, 21 U.S.C.
Sec. 1031 et seq., for the cost of inspection services provided outside
of an establishment's approved inspection shifts, and for inspection
services provided on Federal holidays: Provided, That any sums charged
pursuant to this paragraph shall be deemed as overtime pay or holiday
pay under section 1001(d) of the American Rescue Plan Act of 2021
(Pubic Law 117-2, 135 Stat. 242): Provided further, That sums received
by the Secretary under this paragraph shall, in addition to other
available funds, remain available until expended to the Secretary
without further appropriation for the purpose of funding all costs
associated with FSIS inspections.
Sec. 776. There is hereby appropriated $1,000,000, to remain
available until expended: Provided, That funds provided under this
section shall be for grants to the Southwest Border Regional Commission
(40 U.S.C. 15301 et seq.) for any Rural Community Advancement Program
purpose as described in section 381E(d) of the Consolidated Farm and
Rural Development Act, of which not more than 5 percent may be used for
administrative expenses.
This Act may be cited as the ``Agriculture, Rural Development, Food
and Drug Administration, and Related Agencies Appropriations Act,
2022''.
Calendar No. 113
117th CONGRESS
1st Session
S. 2599
[Report No. 117-34]
_______________________________________________________________________ | Agriculture, Rural Development, Food and Drug Administration, and Related Agencies Appropriations Act, 2022 | An original bill making appropriations for Agriculture, Rural Development, Food and Drug Administration, and Related Agencies for the fiscal year ending September 30, 2022, and for other purposes. | Agriculture, Rural Development, Food and Drug Administration, and Related Agencies Appropriations Act, 2022
Agriculture, Rural Development, Food and Drug Administration, and Related Agencies Appropriations Act, 2022 | Sen. Baldwin, Tammy | D | WI |
36 | 5,394 | H.J.Res.86 | Crime and Law Enforcement | This joint resolution nullifies a Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives rule published on April 26, 2022, concerning regulatory definitions and identification of firearms. | 117th CONGRESS
2d Session
H. J. RES. 86
Providing for congressional disapproval under chapter 8 of title 5,
United States Code, of a rule submitted by the Department of Justice
relating to ``Definition of `Frame or Receiver' and Identification of
Firearms''.
_______________________________________________________________________
IN THE HOUSE OF REPRESENTATIVES
May 6, 2022
Mrs. McClain (for herself, Mr. Arrington, Mr. Bergman, Mr. Biggs, Mr.
Bilirakis, Mr. Bishop of North Carolina, Mrs. Boebert, Mr. Budd, Mr.
Carter of Georgia, Mr. Cloud, Mr. Clyde, Mr. Crawford, Mr. Duncan, Mr.
Gohmert, Mr. Good of Virginia, Mr. Harris, Mrs. Hartzler, Mr. Hice of
Georgia, Mr. Johnson of South Dakota, Mr. Lamborn, Mr. Long, Mr.
McClintock, Mr. McKinley, Mrs. Miller of Illinois, Mr. Moolenaar, Mr.
Mooney, Mr. Murphy of North Carolina, Mr. Norman, Mr. Perry, Mr.
Pfluger, Mr. Rosendale, Ms. Stefanik, Mr. Steube, Mr. Thompson of
Pennsylvania, Mr. Tiffany, Mr. Timmons, Mr. Keller, Mr. Dunn, Mr.
Fulcher, Mr. Moore of Alabama, Mrs. Fischbach, and Mr. Babin) submitted
the following joint resolution; which was referred to the Committee on
the Judiciary
_______________________________________________________________________
JOINT RESOLUTION
Providing for congressional disapproval under chapter 8 of title 5,
United States Code, of a rule submitted by the Department of Justice
relating to ``Definition of `Frame or Receiver' and Identification of
Firearms''.
Resolved by the Senate and House of Representatives of the United
States of America in Congress assembled, That Congress disapproves the
rule submitted by the Department of Justice relating to ``Definition of
`Frame or Receiver' and Identification of Firearms'' (published at 87
Fed. Reg. 24652 (April 26, 2022)), and such rule shall have no force or
effect.
<all> | Providing for congressional disapproval under chapter 8 of title 5, United States Code, of a rule submitted by the Department of Justice relating to "Definition of 'Frame or Receiver' and Identification of Firearms". | Providing for congressional disapproval under chapter 8 of title 5, United States Code, of a rule submitted by the Department of Justice relating to "Definition of 'Frame or Receiver' and Identification of Firearms". | Official Titles - House of Representatives
Official Title as Introduced
Providing for congressional disapproval under chapter 8 of title 5, United States Code, of a rule submitted by the Department of Justice relating to "Definition of 'Frame or Receiver' and Identification of Firearms". | Rep. McClain, Lisa C. | R | MI |
37 | 4,730 | S.1482 | Government Operations and Politics | Administrative Pay-As-You-Go Act of 2021
This bill provides statutory authority for the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) requirement that federal agencies must submit at least one proposal for reducing direct spending before taking a discretionary administrative action that increases direct spending. Further, an agency must submit to the OMB its legal basis for concluding that a proposed administrative action is nondiscretionary and, therefore, not subject to this requirement. | To increase Government accountability for administrative actions by
reinvigorating administrative Pay-As-You-Go.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Administrative Pay-As-You-Go Act of
2021''.
SEC. 2. DEFINITIONS.
In this Act--
(1) the term ``administrative action'' includes the
issuance of a rule, demonstration, program notice, or guidance
by an agency;
(2) the term ``agency''--
(A) means--
(i) an ``Executive agency'', as defined
under section 105 of title 5, United States
Code; or
(ii) a ``military department'', as defined
under section 102 of title 5, United States
Code; and
(B) does not include the Government Accountability
Office;
(3) the term ``covered discretionary administrative
action'' means a discretionary administrative action that would
effect direct spending;
(4) the term ``direct spending'' has the meaning given that
term in section 250(c) of the Balanced Budget and Emergency
Deficit Control Act of 1985 (2 U.S.C. 900(c));
(5) the term ``Director'' means the Director of the Office
of Management and Budget;
(6) the term ``discretionary administrative action''--
(A) means any administrative action that is not
required by statute; and
(B) includes an administrative action required by
statute for which an agency has discretion in the
manner in which to implement the administrative action;
and
(7) the term ``increase direct spending'' means that the
amount of direct spending would increase relative to--
(A) the most recently submitted projection of the
amount of direct spending under current law under--
(i) the budget of the President submitted
under section 1105 of title 31, United States
Code; or
(ii) the supplemental summary of the budget
submitted under section 1106, of title 31,
United States Code;
(B) with respect to a discretionary administrative
action that is incorporated into the applicable
projection described in subparagraph (A) and for which
a proposal has not been submitted under section
4(a)(2)(A), a projection of the amount of direct
spending if no administrative action were taken; or
(C) with respect to a discretionary administrative
action described in paragraph (6)(B), a projection of
the amount of direct spending under the least costly
implementation option that meets the requirements under
the statute.
SEC. 3. FINDINGS; PURPOSES.
(a) Findings.--Congress finds the following:
(1) In May 2005, the Office of Management and Budget
implemented a budget-neutrality requirement for executive
branch administrative actions affecting direct spending.
(2) This mechanism, commonly referred to as
``Administrative Pay-As-You-Go'', requires each agency to
include 1 or more proposals for reducing direct spending
whenever an agency proposes to undertake a discretionary
administrative action that would increase direct spending.
(3) In practice, however, agencies have applied this
requirement with varying degrees of stringency, sometimes
resulting in higher direct spending.
(b) Purposes.--The purposes of this Act are to--
(1) institutionalize and reinvigorate Administrative Pay-
As-You-Go to keep direct spending under control;
(2) control Federal spending and restore the Nation's
fiscal security; and
(3) ensure that agencies consider the costs of their
administrative actions, take steps to offset those costs, and
curtail costly administrative actions.
SEC. 4. REQUIREMENTS FOR ADMINISTRATIVE ACTIONS THAT EFFECT DIRECT
SPENDING.
(a) Discretionary Administrative Actions.--
(1) In general.--Before an agency may undertake any covered
discretionary administrative action, the head of the agency
shall submit to the Director for review written notice
regarding the proposed covered discretionary administrative
action, which shall include an estimate of the budgetary
effects of the proposed covered discretionary administrative
action.
(2) Increasing direct spending.--
(A) In general.--If an agency proposes to take a
covered discretionary administrative action that would
increase direct spending, the written notice submitted
by the head of the agency under paragraph (1) shall
include a proposal to undertake 1 or more other
administrative actions that would provide a reduction
in direct spending comparable to the increase in direct
spending attributable to the covered discretionary
administrative action.
(B) Review.--
(i) In general.--The Director shall have
the discretion to determine whether the
reduction in direct spending proposed by an
agency under subparagraph (A) is comparable to
the increase in direct spending attributable to
the covered discretionary administrative action
to which the proposal relates, taking into
account the magnitude of the reduction and the
increase and any other factors the Director
determines appropriate.
(ii) No offset.--If the written notice
regarding a proposed covered discretionary
administrative action that would increase
direct spending does not include a proposal to
offset the increased direct spending, the
Director shall return the proposal to the
agency for resubmission in accordance with this
Act.
(b) Nondiscretionary Actions.--If an agency determines that a
proposed administrative action that would increase direct spending is
required by statute and therefore is not a covered discretionary
administrative action, before the agency takes further action with
respect to the proposed administrative action, the head of the agency
shall--
(1) submit to the Director a written opinion by the general
counsel of the agency, or the equivalent employee of the
agency, explaining that legal conclusion; and
(2) consult with the Director regarding implementation of
the proposed administrative action.
(c) Projections.--Any projection for purposes of this Act shall be
conducted in accordance with Office of Management and Budget Circular
A-11, or any successor thereto.
SEC. 5. ISSUANCE OF ADMINISTRATIVE GUIDANCE.
Not later than 90 days after the date of enactment of this Act,
the Director shall issue instructions regarding the implementation of
this Act, including how proposed covered discretionary administrative
actions that increase direct spending and non-tax receipts will be
evaluated.
SEC. 6. WAIVER.
The Director may waive the requirements of section 4 if the
Director concludes that the waiver is necessary--
(1) for the delivery of essential services;
(2) for effective program delivery; or
(3) because a waiver is otherwise warranted by the public
interest.
<all> | Administrative Pay-As-You-Go Act of 2021 | A bill to increase Government accountability for administrative actions by reinvigorating administrative Pay-As-You-Go. | Administrative Pay-As-You-Go Act of 2021 | Sen. Braun, Mike | R | IN |
38 | 13,547 | H.R.4341 | Health | CARA 3.0 Act of 2021
This bill addresses substance use disorders by expanding access to treatment and recovery services, providing for housing protections, and requiring other activities.
Specifically, the bill reauthorizes, establishes, and expands support for treatment and recovery services. This includes increasing access to treatment in the criminal justice system and other settings and for particular populations, such as pregnant and postpartum individuals and youth and young adults.
Additionally, the bill expands Medicare and Medicaid coverage for treatment, including by expanding telehealth access to medication to treat substance use disorders. The bill also temporarily requires that non-opioid pain treatment options be reimbursed separately, instead of on a packaged basis, under Medicare.
As a condition of receiving certain federal funding, states must mandate the use of prescription drug monitoring programs (PDMPs) by prescribers and dispensers and impose additional PDMP requirements. Moreover, prescribers of potentially addictive drugs must complete continuing education requirements. The bill also revises the registration process for providers who prescribe certain medications to treat substance use disorders, including by eliminating the provider's patient limit for such medications.
In addition, the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration must carry out activities to promote access to high-quality recovery housing. The bill also sets out protections for individuals with substance use disorders who live in, or apply to live in, federally assisted housing.
Furthermore, the bill requires other activities to address substance use, such as support for workforce education and training; public awareness campaigns and similar outreach; and research on prevention strategies, insurance coverage, and treatment modalities. | To provide support with respect to the prevention of, treatment for,
and recovery from, substance use disorder.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE; TABLE OF CONTENTS.
(a) Short Title.--This Act may be cited as the ``CARA 3.0 Act of
2021''.
(b) Table of Contents.--The table of contents for this Act is as
follows:
Sec. 1. Short title; table of contents.
Sec. 2. Findings.
TITLE I--EDUCATION, PREVENTION, AND RESEARCH
Sec. 101. National Education Campaign.
Sec. 102. Research into non-opioid pain management.
Sec. 103. Long-term treatment and recovery support services research.
Sec. 104. National Commission for Excellence on Post-Overdose Response.
Sec. 105. Workforce for prevention, treatment, and recovery support
services.
Sec. 106. Reauthorization of community-based coalition enhancement
grants to address local drug crises.
Sec. 107. Access to non-opioid treatments for pain.
TITLE II--TREATMENT
Sec. 201. Evidence-based substance use disorder treatment and
intervention demonstrations.
Sec. 202. Improving treatment for pregnant, postpartum, and parenting
women.
Sec. 203. Require the use of prescription drug monitoring programs.
Sec. 204. Prescriber education.
Sec. 205. Prohibition of utilization control policies or procedures for
medication-assisted treatment under
Medicaid.
Sec. 206. Medication-assisted treatment for recovery from substance use
disorder.
Sec. 207. Telehealth response for e-prescribing addiction therapy
services.
Sec. 208. Pilot program on expanding access to treatment.
Sec. 209. Reauthorization of PRAC Ed grant program.
Sec. 210. GAO study on parity.
Sec. 211. Improving substance use disorder prevention workforce act.
TITLE III--RECOVERY
Subtitle A--General Provisions
Sec. 301. Building communities of recovery.
Sec. 302. Recovery in the workplace.
Sec. 303. National youth and young adult recovery initiative.
Subtitle B--Recovery Housing
Sec. 311. Clarifying the role of SAMHSA in promoting the availability
of high-quality recovery housing.
Sec. 312. Developing guidelines for States to promote the availability
of high-quality recovery housing.
Sec. 313. Coordination of Federal activities to promote the
availability of high-quality recovery
housing.
Sec. 314. NAS study and report.
Sec. 315. Filling research and data gaps.
Sec. 316. Grants for States to promote the availability of high-quality
recovery housing.
Sec. 317. Reputable providers and analysts of recovery housing services
definition.
Sec. 318. Technical correction.
TITLE IV--CRIMINAL JUSTICE
Sec. 401. Medication-Assisted Treatment Corrections and Community
Reentry Program.
Sec. 402. Deflection and pre-arrest diversion.
Sec. 403. Housing.
Sec. 404. Veterans treatment courts.
Sec. 405. Infrastructure for reentry.
SEC. 2. FINDINGS.
Congress finds as follows:
(1) In the 1980s and 1990s, pharmaceutical companies began
developing new drugs for pain treatment, including extended
release oxycodone. These companies aggressively marketed these
drugs to the medical community as a way to address ``under-
treatment'' of physical pain. Drug companies distributed
76,000,000,000 oxycodone and hydrocodone pain pills nationwide
from 2006 to 2012.
(2) The combination of a rising number of prescriptions,
misinformation about the addictive properties of prescription
opioids, and the perception that prescription drugs are less
harmful than illicit drugs has caused an increase in drug
misuse.
(3) As legitimate production and illegal diversion of
opioids skyrocketed, so did the number of opioid overdose
deaths. From 1999 to 2017, almost 218,000 people died in the
United States from overdoses related to prescription opioids.
More recently, fentanyl, a powerful synthetic opioid, surpassed
prescription opioids as the most lethal overdose substance and
now is linked to nearly 3 times as many deaths.
(4) The scale of the opioid crisis is staggering:
(A) In 2018, approximately 10,300,000 people in the
United States age 12 and older misused opioids.
(B) On average, 130 people in the United States die
every day from an opioid overdose.
(C) The opioid crisis has cost the United States
economy at least $631,000,000,000.
(D) From 2013 to 2017, the number of children in
foster care nationwide increased 10 percent to nearly
442,995. Parental drug use was cited as a factor in 36
percent of cases.
(5) The opioid crisis has also led to a cascade of other
negative health impacts. For example, syringe sharing among
people who inject drugs has led to increases in hepatitis C
virus infections and infective endocarditis, as well as
localized HIV outbreaks.
(6) The United States health care system has struggled to
catch up to the crisis:
(A) The majority of people in the United States
with an opioid use disorder do not receive substance
use treatment, and many who do receive such treatment
do not receive evidence-based treatment. Although
medication-assisted treatment has been endorsed by the
National Institutes of Health and the World Health
Organization, only one-third of treatment programs
offer any of the 3 drugs approved by the Food and Drug
Administration for the treatment of opioid use
disorder, and just 6 percent of medication-offering
facilities provide all 3.
(B) Facilities that provide medications for the
treatment of opioid disorder are concentrated in the
Northeast and Southwest, leaving many of the areas hit
hardest by the opioid crisis without access to
evidence-based treatment. The need is particularly
acute in rural areas, which often do not have enough
providers to meet the demand.
(C) Unlike other health care needs, substance use
treatment is largely funded by State and local revenues
and Federal block grants, rather than the Medicare
program, the Medicaid program, and private insurance.
(D) While new substances, particularly synthetic
drugs, continue to make inroads into communities in the
United States, funding streams are often dedicated to
particular substances, limiting providers' ability to
adapt to changing needs.
(E) The stigma associated with substance use
disorder prevents people from seeking treatment. Too
often, people enter substance use treatment only after
committing a criminal offense, whether through a court
mandate, as a condition of parole or probation
supervision, or as a condition of regaining employment
after conviction. In 2003, 36 percent of all substance
use treatment admissions, 40 percent of all alcohol
abuse treatment admissions, and 57 percent of all
marijuana use treatment admissions were referrals from
the criminal justice system.
(F) The stigma of substance use disorder also
limits people's ability to find jobs and housing. These
obstacles are exacerbated by the criminalization of
substance use disorder--even convictions for drug
possession for personal use can create lifelong
collateral consequences. The absence of stable housing
and employment make it even more difficult for people
to live drug free.
(7) Not all people in the United States have equal access
to substance use treatment in the community. Current research
has found that Black and Latinx Americans are less likely to
receive substance use treatment when controlling for other
relevant factors, like socioeconomic status.
(8) Inadequate access to substance use treatment can
exacerbate other health disparities. Individuals with substance
use disorders have higher rates of suicide attempts than
individuals in the general population, high health care
expenses, and significant disability.
(9) A comprehensive public health approach that tackles
both the causes and the consequences of substance use disorder
is necessary to stem the tide.
TITLE I--EDUCATION, PREVENTION, AND RESEARCH
SEC. 101. NATIONAL EDUCATION CAMPAIGN.
Section 102 of the Comprehensive Addiction and Recovery Act of 2016
(42 U.S.C. 290bb-25g) is amended--
(1) in subsection (a), by inserting ``or other controlled
substances (as defined in section 102 of the Controlled
Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 802))'' after ``opioids'' each place
such term appears;
(2) in subsection (b), by striking ``opioid'' each place it
appears and inserting ``substance'';
(3) in subsection (c)--
(A) in paragraph (2), by striking ``and'' at the
end;
(B) in paragraph (3), by striking the period and
inserting a semicolon; and
(C) by adding at the end the following:
``(4) use destigmatizing language promoting humane and
culturally competent (as defined in section 102 of the
Developmental Disabilities Assistance and Bill of Rights Act of
2000 (42 U.S.C. 15002)) treatment of all individuals who
experience substance use disorder, including such individuals
who use medication-assisted treatment for recovery purposes;
``(5) educate stakeholders on the evidence base and
validation of harm reduction and where to obtain harm reduction
services;
``(6) include information about polysubstance use; and
``(7) include information about prevention and treatment
using medication-assisted treatment and recovery support.'';
and
(4) by adding at the end the following:
``(d) Authorization of Appropriations.--There is authorized to be
appropriated to carry out this section such sums as may be necessary
for each of fiscal years 2022 through 2026.''.
SEC. 102. RESEARCH INTO NON-OPIOID PAIN MANAGEMENT.
(a) In General.--The Secretary of Health and Human Services, acting
through the Director of the National Institutes of Health and the
Director of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, shall carry
out research with respect to non-opioid methods of pain management,
including non-pharmaceutical remedies for pain and integrative medicine
solutions.
(b) Authorization of Appropriations.--To carry out this section,
there are authorized to be appropriated such sums as may be necessary
for each of fiscal years 2022 through 2026.
SEC. 103. LONG-TERM TREATMENT AND RECOVERY SUPPORT SERVICES RESEARCH.
(a) In General.--The Secretary of Health and Human Services shall
award grants to eligible entities to carry out evidence-based research,
over 5-year periods, for different modalities of treatment and recovery
support for substance use disorder, including culturally competent (as
defined in section 102 of the Developmental Disabilities Assistance and
Bill of Rights Act of 2001 (42 U.S.C. 15002)) treatment.
(b) Research Requirements.--An eligible entity receiving grant
funds to carry out evidence-based research under subsection (a) shall,
with respect to such research--
(1) measure--
(A) mortality and morbidity;
(B) physical and emotional health;
(C) employment;
(D) stable housing;
(E) criminal justice involvement;
(F) family relationships; and
(G) other quality-of-life measures; and
(2) distinguish long-term outcomes based on--
(A) race;
(B) gender;
(C) socioeconomic status; and
(D) other relevant characteristics.
(c) Authorization of Appropriations.--To carry out this section,
there are authorized to be appropriated such sums as may be necessary.
SEC. 104. NATIONAL COMMISSION FOR EXCELLENCE ON POST-OVERDOSE RESPONSE.
(a) Establishment.--The Assistant Secretary of Health and Human
Services for Mental Health and Substance Use (referred to in this
section as the ``Assistant Secretary''), in consultation with the
Director of the Office of National Drug Control Policy, and the
President of the National Academy of Medicine, shall establish an
advisory commission to be known as the National Commission for
Excellence on Post-Overdose Response (in this section referred to as
the ``Commission'').
(b) Duties.--The Commission shall--
(1) improve the quality and safety of care for individuals
who experience substance use disorder and have experienced drug
overdose by providing evidence, practical tools, and other
resources for healthcare experts, including--
(A) researchers and evaluators;
(B) clinicians and clinical teams;
(C) quality improvement experts; and
(D) healthcare decision makers;
(2) advise the healthcare experts described in paragraph
(1) on--
(A) achieving equitable outcomes with respect to
race and socioeconomic status; and
(B) effectively and appropriately reducing the rate
of--
(i) inpatient hospital admissions where
equivalent services are available to treat
patients in a similar condition through
outpatient hospital visits or non-hospital
treatment facilities;
(ii) emergency department admissions; and
(iii) other adverse events related to care
for individuals described in such paragraph;
and
(3) develop best practices and clinical practice guidelines
for improving the quality and safety of care for individuals
who experience substance use disorder and have experienced drug
overdose, that are culturally competent (as defined in section
102 of the Developmental Disabilities Assistance and Bill of
Rights Act of 2000 (42 U.S.C. 15002)).
(c) Membership.--The members of the Commission shall include--
(1) a representative of the Substance Abuse and Mental
Health Services Administration;
(2) a representative of the Office of National Drug Control
Policy;
(3) a representative of the National Academy of Medicine;
(4) a representative of the National Institute on Drug
Abuse;
(5) a substance use disorder specialist appointed by the
Assistant Secretary;
(6) a peer recovery specialist appointed by the Assistant
Secretary;
(7) an individual with experience in harm reduction; and
(8) any other individual that the Assistant Secretary
determines appropriate.
(d) Sunset.--The Commission shall terminate on the date that is 10
years after the date of the enactment of this Act.
SEC. 105. WORKFORCE FOR PREVENTION, TREATMENT, AND RECOVERY SUPPORT
SERVICES.
(a) Employment and Training Services.--Subpart 2 of part B of title
V of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 290bb-21 et seq.) is
amended by adding at the end the following:
``SEC. 519E. EMPLOYMENT AND TRAINING SERVICES.
``(a) In General.--The Director of the Prevention Center shall--
``(1) beginning not later than 30 days after the date of
enactment of this Act, award grants or enter into contracts
with eligible entities to support employment and training
services for substance use treatment professionals, including
peer recovery specialists; and
``(2) subject to the availability of funds appropriated
pursuant to subsection (d), not later than 45 days after the
date on which an entity submits an application that meets the
requirements of the Secretary under this section, award funds
under this section to such entity.
``(b) Application.--An eligible entity desiring a grant under this
section shall submit to the Director of the Prevention Center an
application at such time, in such manner, and containing such
information as the Director may require.
``(c) Minimum.--A recipient shall use not less than 15 percent of
funds awarded under subsection (a) for activities related to retention
of substance use treatment professionals.
``(d) Authorization of Appropriations.--There are authorized to be
appropriated to carry out this section such sums as may be necessary
for each of fiscal years 2022 through 2026.''.
(b) Funding for Mental and Behavioral Health Education and Training
Grants.--Section 756(f) of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C.
294e-1(f)) is amended--
(1) in the matter preceding paragraph (1), by striking
``$50,000,000'' and inserting ``$55,000,000''; and
(2) by adding at the end the following:
``(5) For continuing education and other activities to
increase retention and to strengthen the substance use disorder
workforce, $5,000,000.''.
SEC. 106. REAUTHORIZATION OF COMMUNITY-BASED COALITION ENHANCEMENT
GRANTS TO ADDRESS LOCAL DRUG CRISES.
Section 103(i) of the Comprehensive Addiction and Recovery Act of
2016 (21 U.S.C. 1536(i)) is amended by striking the period at the end
and inserting ``, and $10,000,000 for each of fiscal years 2022 through
2026.''.
SEC. 107. ACCESS TO NON-OPIOID TREATMENTS FOR PAIN.
(a) In General.--Section 1833(t) of the Social Security Act (42
U.S.C. 1395l(t)) is amended--
(1) in paragraph (2)(E), by inserting ``, separate payments
for non-opioid treatments under paragraph (16)(G), and'' after
``payments under paragraph (6) and''; and
(2) in paragraph (16), by adding at the end the following
new subparagraph:
``(G) Access to non-opioid treatments for pain.--
``(i) In general.--Notwithstanding any
other provision of this subsection, with
respect to a covered OPD service (or group of
services) furnished on or after January 1,
2022, and before January 1, 2027, the Secretary
shall not package, and shall make a separate
payment as specified in clause (ii) for, a non-
opioid treatment (as defined in clause (iii))
furnished as part of such service (or group of
services).
``(ii) Amount of payment.--The amount of
the payment specified in this clause is, with
respect to a non-opioid treatment that is--
``(I) a drug or biological product,
the amount of payment for such drug or
biological determined under section
1847A; or
``(II) a medical device, the amount
of the hospital's charges for the
device, adjusted to cost.
``(iii) Definition of non-opioid
treatment.--A `non-opioid treatment' means--
``(I) a drug or biological product
that is indicated to produce analgesia
without acting upon the body's opioid
receptors; or
``(II) an implantable, reusable, or
disposable medical device cleared or
approved by the Administrator for Food
and Drugs for the intended use of
managing or treating pain;
that has demonstrated the ability to replace,
reduce, or avoid opioid use or the quantity of
opioids prescribed in a clinical trial or
through data published in a peer-reviewed
journal.''.
(b) Ambulatory Surgical Center Payment System.--Section
1833(i)(2)(D) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395l(i)(2)(D)) is
amended--
(1) by aligning the margins of clause (v) with the margins
of clause (iv);
(2) by redesignating clause (vi) as clause (vii); and
(3) by inserting after clause (v) the following new clause:
``(vi) In the case of surgical services
furnished on or after January 1, 2022, and
before January 1, 2027, the payment system
described in clause (i) shall provide, in a
budget-neutral manner, for a separate payment
for a non-opioid treatment (as defined in
clause (iii) of subsection (t)(16)(G))
furnished as part of such services in the
amount specified in clause (ii) of such
subsection.''.
(c) Evaluation of Therapeutic Services for Pain Management.--
(1) Report to congress.--Not later than 1 year after the
date of the enactment of this Act, the Secretary of Health and
Human Services, acting through the Administrator of the Centers
for Medicare & Medicaid Services, shall submit to Congress a
report on--
(A) limitations, gaps, barriers to access, or
deficits in coverage under the Medicare program under
title XVIII of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395
et seq.) or reimbursement for restorative therapies,
behavioral approaches, and complementary and
integrative health services that--
(i) are identified by the Pain Management
Best Practices Inter-Agency Task Force under
section 101 of the Comprehensive Addiction and
Recovery Act of 2016 (42 U.S.C. 201 note); and
(ii) have demonstrated the ability to
replace or reduce opioid consumption; and
(B) recommendations to address the limitations,
gaps, barriers to access, or deficits identified under
subparagraph (A) to improve such coverage and
reimbursement for such therapies, approaches, and
services.
(2) Public consultation.--In developing the report
described in paragraph (1), the Secretary of Health and Human
Services shall consult with appropriate entities as determined
by the Secretary.
(3) Exclusive treatment.--Any drug, biological product, or
medical device that is a non-opioid treatment (as defined in
section 1833(t)(16)(G)(iii) of the Social Security Act, as
added by subsection (a)) shall not be considered a therapeutic
service for the purpose of the report described in paragraph
(1).
TITLE II--TREATMENT
SEC. 201. EVIDENCE-BASED SUBSTANCE USE DISORDER TREATMENT AND
INTERVENTION DEMONSTRATIONS.
Section 514B of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 290bb-10)
is amended--
(1) in subsection (a), by adding at the end the following:
``(3) Use of funds for training.--Funds awarded under
paragraph (1) may be used by a recipient for training emergency
room technicians, physicians, nurses, or other health care
professionals on identifying the presence of substance use
disorders; how effectively to engage with, intervene with
respect to, and refer patients for assessment and specialized
substance use disorder care, including medication-assisted
treatment and care for co-occurring disorders; and offering
peer-based interventions in the emergency room and other health
care environments to connect people to clinical and community-
based supports for substance use disorder.'';
(2) in subsection (d), by inserting ``, and Indian tribes
and tribal organizations (as defined in section 4 of the Indian
Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act)'' before the
period of the first sentence; and
(3) in subsection (f), by striking ``$25,000,000 for each
of fiscal years 2017 through 2021'' and inserting
``$300,000,000 for each of fiscal years 2022 through 2026''.
SEC. 202. IMPROVING TREATMENT FOR PREGNANT, POSTPARTUM, AND PARENTING
WOMEN.
Section 508 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 290bb-1) is
amended--
(1) in subsection (m)--
(A) by striking ``that agrees to use'' and
inserting ``that agrees--
``(1) to use'';
(B) by striking the period at the end and inserting
``; or''; and
(C) by adding at the end the following:
``(2) to--
``(A) allow participation in the program supported
by the award by individuals taking a drug or
combination of drugs approved by the Food and Drug
Administration as a medication for addiction treatment,
including such individuals taking an opioid agonist;
``(B) provide culturally competent services (as
defined in section 102 of the Developmental
Disabilities Assistance and Bill of Rights Act of
2000);
``(C) ensure flexible lengths of stay in the
treatment program; and
``(D) use peer recovery advocates in the program
supported by the award.'';
(2) in subsection (p), by inserting ``, and demographic
data on the individuals served by programs funded under this
section and case outcomes, as reported to the Director by award
recipients'' before the period at the end of the third
sentence; and
(3) in subsection (s), by striking ``$29,931,000 for each
of fiscal years 2019 through 2023'' and inserting ``100,000,000
for each of fiscal years 2022 through 2026''.
SEC. 203. REQUIRE THE USE OF PRESCRIPTION DRUG MONITORING PROGRAMS.
(a) Definitions.--In this section:
(1) Controlled substance.--The term ``controlled
substance'' has the meaning given the term in section 102 of
the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 802).
(2) Covered state.--The term ``covered State'' means a
State that receives funding under the Harold Rogers
Prescription Drug Monitoring Program established under the
Departments of Commerce, Justice, and State, the Judiciary, and
Related Agencies Appropriations Act, 2002 (Public Law 107-77;
115 Stat. 748), under this Act (or an amendment made by this
Act), or under the controlled substance monitoring program
under section 399O of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C.
280g-3).
(3) Dispenser.--The term ``dispenser''--
(A) means a person licensed or otherwise authorized
by a State to deliver a prescription drug product to a
patient or an agent of the patient; and
(B) does not include a person involved in oversight
or payment for prescription drugs.
(4) PDMP.--The term ``PDMP'' means a prescription drug
monitoring program.
(5) Practitioner.--The term ``practitioner'' means a
practitioner registered under section 303(f) of the Controlled
Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 823(f)) to prescribe, administer, or
dispense controlled substances.
(6) State.--The term ``State'' means each of the several
States and the District of Columbia.
(b) In General.--Beginning 1 year after the date of enactment of
this Act, each covered State shall require--
(1) each prescribing practitioner within the covered State
or their designee, who shall be licensed or registered
healthcare professionals or other employees who report directly
to the practitioner, to consult the PDMP of the covered State
before initiating treatment with a prescription for a
controlled substance listed in schedule II, III, or IV of
section 202(c) of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C.
812(c)), and every 3 months thereafter as long as the treatment
continues;
(2) the PDMP of the covered State to provide proactive
notification to a practitioner when patterns indicative of
controlled substance misuse, including opioid misuse, are
detected;
(3) each dispenser within the covered State to report each
prescription for a controlled substance dispensed by the
dispenser to the PDMP not later than 24 hours after the
controlled substance is dispensed to the patient;
(4) that the PDMP make available a quarterly de-identified
data set and an annual report for public and private use,
including use by healthcare providers, health plans and health
benefits administrators, State agencies, and researchers, which
shall, at a minimum, meet requirements established by the
Attorney General, in coordination with the Secretary of Health
and Human Services;
(5) each State agency that administers the PDMP to--
(A) proactively analyze data available through the
PDMP; and
(B) provide reports to prescriber licensing boards
describing any prescribing practitioner that repeatedly
fall outside of expected norms or standard practices
for the prescribing practitioner's field; and
(6) that the data contained in the PDMP of the covered
State be made available to other States.
(c) Noncompliance.--If a covered State fails to comply with
subsection (a), the Attorney General or the Secretary of Health and
Human Services may withhold grant funds from being awarded to the
covered State under the Harold Rogers Prescription Drug Monitoring
Program established under the Departments of Commerce, Justice, and
State, the Judiciary, and Related Agencies Appropriations Act, 2002
(Public Law 107-77; 115 Stat. 748), under this Act (or an amendment
made by this Act), or under the controlled substance monitoring program
under section 399O of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 280g-3).
SEC. 204. PRESCRIBER EDUCATION.
(a) In General.--Section 303 of the Controlled Substances Act (21
U.S.C. 823) is amended--
(1) in subsection (f), in the matter preceding paragraph
(1), by striking ``The Attorney General shall register'' and
inserting ``Subject to subsection (m), the Attorney General
shall register''; and
(2) by adding at the end the following:
``(l) Prescriber Education.--
``(1) Definitions.--In this subsection--
``(A) the term `covered agent or employee' means an
agent or employee of a covered facility who--
``(i) prescribes controlled substances for
humans under the registration of the facility
under this part; and
``(ii) is a medical resident;
``(B) the term `covered facility' means a
practitioner--
``(i) that is a hospital or other
institution;
``(ii) that is licensed under State law to
prescribe controlled substances; and
``(iii) under whose registration under this
part agents or employees of the practitioner
prescribe controlled substances;
``(C) the term `covered individual practitioner'
means a practitioner who--
``(i) is an individual;
``(ii) is not a veterinarian; and
``(iii) is licensed under State law to
prescribe controlled substances; and
``(D) the term `specified continuing education
topics' means--
``(i) alternatives to opioids for pain
management;
``(ii) palliative care;
``(iii) substance use disorder;
``(iv) adverse events;
``(v) potential for dependence;
``(vi) tolerance;
``(vii) prescribing contraindicated
substances;
``(viii) medication-assisted treatment;
``(ix) overdose prevention and response,
including the administration of naloxone;
``(x) culturally competent (as defined in
section 102 of the Developmental Disabilities
Assistance and Bill of Rights Act of 2000 (42
U.S.C. 15002)) services;
``(xi) bias and stigma in prescribing
trends; and
``(xii) any other topic that the Attorney
General determines appropriate.
``(2) Certification of continuing education.--
``(A) Individual practitioners.--As a condition of
granting or renewing the registration of a covered
individual practitioner under this part to dispense
controlled substances in schedule II, III, IV, or V,
the Attorney General shall require the practitioner to
certify that, during the 3-year period preceding the
date of the grant or renewal of registration, the
practitioner completed course work or training from an
organization accredited by the Accreditation Council
for Continuing Medical Education (commonly known as the
`ACCME'), or by a State medical society accreditor
recognized by the ACCME, that included not fewer than 3
hours of content on the specified continuing education
topics.
``(B) Facilities.--As a condition of granting or
renewing the registration of a covered facility under
this part to dispense controlled substances in schedule
II, III, IV, or V, the Attorney General shall require
the covered facility to certify that the facility does
not allow a covered agent or employee to prescribe
controlled substances for humans under the registration
of the facility unless, during the preceding 3-year
period, the covered agent or employee completed course
work or training from an organization accredited by the
Accreditation Council for Continuing Medical Education
(commonly known as the `ACCME'), or a State medical
society accreditor recognized by the ACCME, that
included not fewer than 3 hours of content on the
specified continuing education topics.''.
(b) Effective Date.--Subsection (l) of section 303 of the
Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 823), as added by subsection (a),
shall apply to any grant or renewal of registration described in such
subsection (l) that occurs on or after the date that is 2 years after
the date of enactment of this Act.
SEC. 205. PROHIBITION OF UTILIZATION CONTROL POLICIES OR PROCEDURES FOR
MEDICATION-ASSISTED TREATMENT UNDER MEDICAID.
Section 1905 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1396d) is
amended--
(1) in subsection (a)--
(A) in the matter preceding paragraph (1), by
moving the margin of clause (xvi) 4 ems to the left;
and
(B) in paragraph (29), by inserting ``and to the
extent allowed in paragraph (4) of such subsection''
after ``paragraph (1) of such subsection''; and
(2) in subsection (ee), by adding at the end the following
new paragraph:
``(4) Prohibition of utilization control policies or
procedures for medication-assisted treatment.--As a condition
for a State receiving payments under section 1903(a) for
medical assistance for medication-assisted treatment, a State
may not impose any utilization control policies or procedures
(as defined by the Secretary), including prior authorization
requirements, with respect to such treatment.''.
SEC. 206. MEDICATION-ASSISTED TREATMENT FOR RECOVERY FROM SUBSTANCE USE
DISORDER.
(a) In General.--Section 303(g) of the Controlled Substances Act
(21 U.S.C. 823(g)) is amended--
(1) by striking paragraph (2);
(2) by striking ``(g)(1) Except as provided in paragraph
(2), practitioners who dispense narcotic drugs to individuals
for maintenance treatment or detoxification treatment'' and
inserting ``(g) Practitioners who dispense narcotic drugs
(other than narcotic drugs in schedule III, IV, or V) to
individuals for maintenance treatment or detoxification
treatment'';
(3) by redesignating subparagraphs (A), (B), and (C) as
paragraphs (1), (2), and (3), respectively; and
(4) in paragraph (2), as redesignated, by redesignating
clauses (i) and (ii) as subparagraphs (A) and (B),
respectively.
(b) Technical and Conforming Edits.--
(1) In general.--
(A) Section 304 of the Controlled Substances Act
(21 U.S.C. 824) is amended--
(i) in subsection (a), by striking
``303(g)(1)'' each place it appears and
inserting ``303(g)''; and
(ii) in subsection (d)(1), by striking
``303(g)(1)'' and inserting ``303(g)''.
(B) Section 309A(a) of the Controlled Substances
Act (21 U.S.C. 829a(a)) is amended by striking
paragraph (2) and inserting the following:
``(2) the controlled substance--
``(A) is a narcotic drug in schedule III, IV, or V
to be administered for the purpose of maintenance or
detoxification treatment; and
``(B) is to be administered by injection or
implantation;''.
(C) Section 520E-4(c) of the Public Health Service
Act (42 U.S.C. 290bb-36d(c)) is amended, in the matter
preceding paragraph (1), by striking ``information on
any qualified practitioner that is certified to
prescribe medication for opioid dependency under
section 303(g)(2)(B) of the Controlled Substances Act''
and inserting ``information on any practitioner who
prescribes narcotic drugs in schedule III, IV, or V of
section 202 of the Controlled Substances Act for the
purpose of maintenance or detoxification treatment''.
(D) Section 544(a)(3) of the Public Health Service
Act (42 U.S.C. 290dd-3) is amended by striking ``any
practitioner dispensing narcotic drugs pursuant to
section 303(g) of the Controlled Substances Act'' and
inserting ``any practitioner dispensing narcotic drugs
for the purpose of maintenance or detoxification
treatment''.
(E) Section 1833 of the Social Security Act (42
U.S.C. 1395l) is amended by striking subsection (bb).
(F) Section 1834(o) of the Social Security Act (42
U.S.C. 1395m(o)) is amended by striking paragraph (3).
(G) Section 1866F(c)(3) of the Social Security Act
(42 U.S.C. 1395cc-6(c)(3)) is amended--
(i) in subparagraph (A), by inserting
``and'' at the end;
(ii) in subparagraph (B), by striking ``;
and'' and inserting a period; and
(iii) by striking subparagraph (C).
(H) Section 1903(aa)(2)(C) of the Social Security
Act (42 U.S.C. 1396b(aa)(2)(C)) is amended--
(i) in clause (i), by inserting ``and'' at
the end;
(ii) by striking clause (ii); and
(iii) by redesignating clause (iii) as
clause (ii).
(2) Effective date of medicare amendments.--The amendments
made by subparagraphs (E) and (F) of paragraph (1) shall take
effect one year after the date of enactment of this Act.
SEC. 207. TELEHEALTH RESPONSE FOR E-PRESCRIBING ADDICTION THERAPY
SERVICES.
(a) Funding for the Testing of Incentive Payments for Behavioral
Health Providers for Adoption and Use of Certified Electronic Health
Record Technology.--In addition to amounts appropriated under
subsection (f) of section 1115A of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C.
1315a), there are authorized to be appropriated to the Center for
Medicare and Medicaid Innovation such sums as may be necessary for
fiscal year 2022 to design, implement, and evaluate the model under
subsection (b)(2)(B)(xxv) of such section. Amounts appropriated under
the preceding sentence shall remain available until expended.
(b) Telehealth for Substance Use Disorder Treatment.--
(1) Substance use disorder services furnished through
telehealth under medicare.--Section 1834(m)(7) of the Social
Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395m(m)(7)) is amended by adding at
the end the following: ``With respect to telehealth services
described in the preceding sentence that are furnished on or
after January 1, 2020, nothing shall preclude the furnishing of
such services through audio or telephone only technologies in
the case where a physician or practitioner has already
conducted an in-person medical evaluation or a telehealth
evaluation that utilizes both audio and visual capabilities
with the eligible telehealth individual.''.
(2) Controlled substances dispensed by means of the
internet.--Section 309(e)(2) of the Controlled Substances Act
(21 U.S.C. 829(e)(2)) is amended--
(A) in subparagraph (A)(i)--
(i) by striking ``at least 1 in-person
medical evaluation'' and inserting the
following: ``at least--
``(I) 1 in-person medical
evaluation''; and
(ii) by adding at the end the following:
``(II) for purposes of prescribing
a controlled substance in schedule III
or IV, 1 telehealth evaluation; or'';
and
(B) by adding at the end the following:
``(D)(i) In this subsection, the term `telehealth
evaluation' means a medical evaluation that is
conducted in accordance with applicable Federal and
State laws by a practitioner (other than a pharmacist)
who is at a location remote from the patient and is
communicating with the patient using a
telecommunications system referred to in section
1834(m) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395m(m))
that includes, at a minimum, audio and video equipment
permitting two-way, real-time interactive communication
between the patient and distant site practitioner.
``(ii) Nothing in clause (i) shall be construed to
imply that 1 telehealth evaluation demonstrates that a
prescription has been issued for a legitimate medical
purpose within the usual course of professional
practice.
``(iii) A practitioner who prescribes the drugs or
combination of drugs that are covered under section
303(g)(2)(C) using the authority under subparagraph
(A)(i)(II) of this paragraph shall adhere to nationally
recognized evidence-based guidelines for the treatment
of patients with opioid use disorders and a diversion
control plan, as those terms are defined in section 8.2
of title 42, Code of Federal Regulations, as in effect
on the date of enactment of this subparagraph.''.
SEC. 208. PILOT PROGRAM ON EXPANDING ACCESS TO TREATMENT.
The Secretary of Health and Human Services (referred to in this
section as the ``Secretary'') shall establish a 5-year pilot program in
not less than 5 diverse regions to study the use of mobile methadone
clinics in rural and underserved environments. At the end of the pilot
program, the Secretary shall report to Congress on the program
outcomes, including the number of people served and the demographics of
people served, including race and income.
SEC. 209. REAUTHORIZATION OF PRAC ED GRANT PROGRAM.
To carry out the Practitioner Education grant program established
by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration, there
are authorized to be appropriated such sums as may be necessary for
each of fiscal years 2022 through 2026.
SEC. 210. GAO STUDY ON PARITY.
The Comptroller General of the United States shall conduct a study
examining the reimbursement parity between substance use disorder
services and other health care services, and the effect of any inequity
in reimbursement with respect to substance use disorder services on the
substance use disorder workforce, and not later than December 31, 2023,
submit a report to Congress on the findings of such study.
SEC. 211. IMPROVING SUBSTANCE USE DISORDER PREVENTION WORKFORCE ACT.
Subpart 2 of part B of title V of the Public Health Service Act (42
U.S.C. 290bb-21 et seq), as amended by section 105, is further amended
by adding at the end the following:
``SEC. 519F. PILOT PROGRAM TO HELP ENHANCE SUBSTANCE USE DISORDER
PREVENTION WORKFORCE.
``(a) In General.--The Director of the Prevention Center (referred
to in this section as the `Director') shall develop a pilot program to
assist State alcohol and drug agencies in addressing the substance use
disorder prevention workforce needs in the States.
``(b) Definitions.--In this section, the term `State alcohol and
drug agency' means the State agency responsible for administering the
substance abuse prevention and treatment block grant under subpart II
of part B of title XIX.
``(c) Application.--A State alcohol and drug agency may apply to
the Director for approval of a grant authorized in this section. Such
application shall include a description of the proposed workforce
activities that will be carried out using grant funds, which may
include, with respect to substance use disorder prevention--
``(1) enhancing or developing training curricula;
``(2) supporting or coordinating with institutes of higher
education regarding curricula development;
``(3) partnering with elementary schools, middle schools,
high schools or institutions of higher education to generate
early student interest in avoiding misuse of substances;
``(4) enhancing or establishing initiatives related to
credentialing or other certification processes recognized by
the State alcohol and drug agency, including scholarships or
support for certification costs and testing;
``(5) establishing or enhancing initiatives that promote
recruitment, professional development, and access to education
and training that increase the State's ability to address
diversity, equity, and inclusion in the workforce, including
communication initiatives or campaigns designed to draw
interest in a career in substance use disorder prevention;
``(6) supporting loan repayment programs for individuals in
the substance use disorder prevention workforce;
``(7) establishing or enhancing internships, fellowships
and other career opportunities; and
``(8) retention initiatives that may include training,
leadership development or other educational opportunities.
``(d) Authorization of Appropriations.--To carry out this section,
there are authorized to be appropriated such sums as may be necessary.
``SEC. 519G. NATIONAL STUDY ON SUBSTANCE USE DISORDER WORKFORCE.
``(a) In General.--The Director shall conduct a comprehensive
national study regarding the substance use disorder prevention
workforce. Such study shall include--
``(1) an environmental assessment regarding the existing
workforce, including demographics, salaries, settings, current
or anticipated workforce shortages and other relevant
information;
``(2) challenges in maintaining support for an adequate
substance use disorder prevention workforce and a plan to
address such challenges; and
``(3) potential programming to help implement the plan.
``(b) Consultation.--The Director shall ensure the study under this
section is developed in consultation with key substance use disorder
prevention workforce stakeholders, including organizations representing
State alcohol and drug agencies, community anti-drug coalitions,
workforce credentialing bodies, researchers, and others.
``(c) Authorization of Appropriation.--To carry out this section,
there are authorized to be appropriated such sums as may be
necessary.''.
TITLE III--RECOVERY
Subtitle A--General Provisions
SEC. 301. BUILDING COMMUNITIES OF RECOVERY.
(a) In General.--Section 547 of the Public Health Service Act (42
U.S.C. 290ee-2) is amended--
(1) by striking subsection (c);
(2) by redesignating subsection (d) as subsection (c);
(3) in subsection (c) (as so redesignated)--
(A) in paragraph (1), by striking ``and'' at the
end;
(B) in paragraph (2)(C)(iv), by striking the period
and inserting ``; and''; and
(C) by adding at the and the following:
``(3) may be used as provided for in subsection (d).'';
(4) by inserting after subsection (c) (as so redesignated),
the following:
``(d) Establishment of Regional Technical Assistance Centers.--
``(1) In general.--Grants awarded under subsection (b) may
be used to provide for the establishment of regional technical
assistance centers to provide regional technical assistance for
the following:
``(A) Implementation of regionally driven peer
delivered substance use disorder recovery support
services before, during, after, or in lieu of substance
use disorder treatment.
``(B) Establishment of recovery community
organizations.
``(C) Establishment of recovery community centers.
``(D) Naloxone training and dissemination.
``(E) Development of connections between recovery
support services, community organizations, and
community centers and the broader medical community.
``(F) Establishment of online recovery support
services, with parity to physical health services.
``(G) Development of recovery wellness plans to
address perceived barriers to recovery, including
social determinants of health.
``(H) Collect and maintain accurate and reliable
data to inform service delivery and monitor and
evaluate the impact of culturally competent (as defined
in section 102 of the Developmental Disabilities
Assistance and Bill of Rights Act of 2000) services on
health equity outcomes.
``(I) Building capacity for recovery community
organizations to meet national accreditation standards
for the delivery of peer recovery support services.
``(J) Expanding or enhancing recovery support
service programs.
``(2) Eligible entities.--To be eligible to receive a grant
under paragraph (1), an entity shall be--
``(A) a national nonprofit entity with a network of
local affiliates and partners that are geographically
and organizationally diverse; or
``(B) a national nonprofit organization led by
individuals in personal and family recovery with
established networks of recovery community
organizations providing peer recovery support services.
``(3) Preference.--In awarding grants under subsection (b),
the Secretary shall give preference to organizations that--
``(A) provide culturally competent (as defined in
section 102 of the Developmental Disabilities
Assistance and Bill of Rights Act of 2000) services,
promote racial equity, and are responsive to diverse
cultural health beliefs and practices, preferred
languages, health literacy, and other communication
needs;
``(B) allow participation by individuals receiving
medication-assisted treatment that involves
prescription drugs approved by the Food and Drug
Administration (at least one of which is an opioid
agonist);
``(C) use peer recovery advocates; and
``(D) meet national best practice and accreditation
standards.''; and
(5) in subsection (f), by striking ``2023'' and inserting
``2021, and $200,000,000 for each of fiscal years 2022 through
2027''.
(b) Continuing Care and Community Support to Maintain Recovery.--
(1) In general.--The Secretary shall award grants to peer
recovery support service organizations, for the purposes of
providing continuing care and ongoing community support for
individuals to maintain recovery from substance use disorders.
(2) Definition.--For purposes of this subsection, the term
``peer recovery support service organization'' means an
independent nonprofit organization that provides peer recovery
support services (as defined by the Secretary), through
credentialed peer support professionals.
(3) Authorization of appropriations.--To carry out this
subsection, there is authorized to be appropriated, for each of
fiscal years 2022 through 2027, $50,000,000.
SEC. 302. RECOVERY IN THE WORKPLACE.
It is the sense of Congress that an employee who is taking opioid
antagonist, opioid agonist, or partial agonist drugs as part of a
medication-assisted treatment program shall not be in violation of a
drug-free workplace requirement.
SEC. 303. NATIONAL YOUTH AND YOUNG ADULT RECOVERY INITIATIVE.
(a) Definitions.--In this section:
(1) Eligible entity.--The term ``eligible entity'' means--
(A) a high school that has been accredited as a
substance use recovery high school or that is seeking
to establish or expand substance use recovery support
services;
(B) an institution of higher education;
(C) a recovery program at an institution of higher
education;
(D) a nonprofit organization; or
(E) a technical assistance center that can help
grantees install recovery support service programs
aimed at youth and young adults which include recovery
coaching, job training, transportation, linkages to
community-based services and supports, regularly
scheduled alternative peer group activities, life-
skills education, mentoring, and leadership
development.
(2) High school.--The term ``high school'' has the meaning
given the term in section 8101 of the Elementary and Secondary
Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 7801).
(3) Institution of higher education.--The term
``institution of higher education'' has the meaning given the
term in section 101 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20
U.S.C. 1001).
(4) Recovery program.--The term ``recovery program'' means
a program--
(A) to help youth or young adults who are
recovering from substance use disorders to initiate,
stabilize, and maintain healthy and productive lives in
the community; and
(B) that includes peer-to-peer support delivered by
individuals with lived experience in recovery, and
communal activities to build recovery skills and
supportive social networks.
(b) Grants Authorized.--The Assistant Secretary for Mental Health
and Substance Use, in consultation with the Secretary of Education,
shall award grants, on a competitive basis, to eligible entities to
enable the eligible entities to--
(1) provide culturally competent (as defined in section 102
of the Developmental Disabilities Assistance and Bill of Rights
Act of 2000 (42 U.S.C. 15002)) substance use recovery support
services to youth and young adults enrolled in high school or
an institution of higher education;
(2) help build communities of support for youth and young
adults in substance use recovery through a spectrum of
activities such as counseling, job training, recovery coaching,
alternative peer groups, life-skills workshops, family support
groups, and health and wellness-oriented social activities; and
(3) encourage initiatives designed to help youth and young
adults achieve and sustain recovery from substance use
disorders.
(c) Application.--An eligible entity desiring a grant under this
section shall submit to the Assistant Secretary for Mental Health and
Substance Use an application at such time, in such manner, and
containing such information as the Assistant Secretary may require.
(d) Preference.--In awarding grants under subsection (b), the
Assistant Secretary for Mental Health and Substance Use shall give
preference to eligible entities that propose to serve students from
areas with schools serving a high percentage of children who are
counted under section 1124(c) of the Elementary and Secondary Education
Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 6333(c)).
(e) Use of Funds.--Grants awarded under subsection (b) may be used
for activities to develop, support, or maintain substance use recovery
support services for youth or young adults, including--
(1) the development and maintenance of a dedicated physical
space for recovery programs;
(2) hiring dedicated staff for the provision of recovery
programs;
(3) providing health and wellness-oriented social
activities and community engagement;
(4) the establishment of a substance use recovery high
school;
(5) the coordination of a peer delivered substance use
recovery program with--
(A) substance use disorder treatment programs and
systems that utilize culturally competent (as defined
in section 102 of the Developmental Disabilities
Assistance and Bill of Rights Act of 2000 (42 U.S.C.
15002)) services that reflect the communities they
serve;
(B) providers of mental health services;
(C) primary care providers;
(D) the criminal justice system, including the
juvenile justice system;
(E) employers;
(F) recovery housing services;
(G) child welfare services;
(H) high schools; and
(I) institutions of higher education;
(6) the development of peer-to-peer support programs or
services delivered by individuals with lived experience in
substance use disorder recovery; and
(7) any additional activity that helps youth or young
adults achieve recovery from substance use disorders.
(f) Resource Center.--The Assistant Secretary for Mental Health and
Substance Use shall establish a resource center to provide technical
support to recipients of grants under this section.
(g) Authorization of Appropriations.--There are authorized to be
appropriated to carry out this section $10,000,000 for each of fiscal
years 2022 through 2027.
Subtitle B--Recovery Housing
SEC. 311. CLARIFYING THE ROLE OF SAMHSA IN PROMOTING THE AVAILABILITY
OF HIGH-QUALITY RECOVERY HOUSING.
Section 501(d) of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 290aa)
is amended--
(1) in paragraph (24)(E), by striking ``and'' at the end;
(2) in paragraph (25), by striking the period at the end
and inserting ``; and''; and
(3) by adding at the end the following:
``(26) collaborate with national accrediting entities and
reputable providers and analysts of recovery housing services
and all relevant Federal agencies, including the Centers for
Medicare & Medicaid Services, the Health Resources and Services
Administration, other offices and agencies within the
Department of Health and Human Services, the Office of National
Drug Control Policy, the Department of Justice, the Department
of Housing and Urban Development, and the Department of
Agriculture, to promote the availability of high-quality
recovery housing for individuals with a substance use
disorder.''.
SEC. 312. DEVELOPING GUIDELINES FOR STATES TO PROMOTE THE AVAILABILITY
OF HIGH-QUALITY RECOVERY HOUSING.
Title V of the Public Health Service Act is amended by inserting
after section 550 of such Act (42 U.S.C. 290ee-5) (relating to national
recovery housing best practices) the following:
``SEC. 550A. DEVELOPING GUIDELINES FOR STATES TO PROMOTE THE
AVAILABILITY OF HIGH-QUALITY RECOVERY HOUSING.
``(a) In General.--Not later than one year after the date of the
enactment of this section, the Secretary, acting through the Assistant
Secretary, shall develop, and publish on the internet website of the
Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration, consensus-
based guidelines and nationally recognized standards for States to
promote the availability of high-quality recovery housing for
individuals with a substance use disorder. Such guidelines shall--
``(1) be developed in consultation with national
accrediting entities, reputable providers and analysts of
recovery housing services, and States and be consistent with
the best practices developed under section 550; and
``(2) to the extent practicable, build on existing best
practices and suggested guidelines developed previously by the
Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration.
``(b) Public Comment Period.--Before finalizing guidelines under
subsection (a), the Secretary of Health and Human Services shall
provide for a public comment period.
``(c) Exclusion of Guideline on Treatment Services.--In developing
the guidelines under subsection (a), the Secretary may not include any
guideline or standard with respect to substance use disorder treatment
services.
``(d) Substance Use Disorder Treatment Services.--In this section,
the term `substance use disorder treatment services' means items or
services furnished for the treatment of a substance use disorder,
including--
``(1) medications approved by the Food and Drug
Administration for use in such treatment, excluding each such
medication used to prevent or treat a drug overdose;
``(2) the administering of such medications;
``(3) recommendations for such treatment;
``(4) clinical assessments and referrals;
``(5) counseling with a physician, psychologist, or mental
health professional (including individual and group therapy);
and
``(6) toxicology testing.''.
SEC. 313. COORDINATION OF FEDERAL ACTIVITIES TO PROMOTE THE
AVAILABILITY OF HIGH-QUALITY RECOVERY HOUSING.
Section 550 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 290ee-5)
(relating to national recovery housing best practices) is amended--
(1) by redesignating subsections (e), (f), and (g) as
subsections (g), (h), and (i), respectively; and
(2) by inserting after subsection (d) the following:
``(e) Coordination of Federal Activities To Promote the
Availability of High-Quality Recovery Housing for Individuals With a
Substance Use Disorder.--
``(1) In general.--The Secretary, acting through the
Assistant Secretary, and the Secretary of the Department of
Housing and Urban Development shall convene and serve as the
co-chairs of an interagency working group composed of
representatives of each of the Federal agencies described in
paragraph (2) (referred to in this section as the `working
group') for the following purposes:
``(A) To increase collaboration, cooperation, and
consultation among such Federal agencies, with respect
to promoting the availability of high-quality recovery
housing.
``(B) To align the efforts of such agencies and
avoid duplication of such efforts by such agencies.
``(C) To develop objectives, priorities, and a
long-term plan for supporting State, Tribal, and local
efforts with respect to the operation of high-quality
recovery housing that is consistent with the best
practices developed under this section.
``(D) To coordinate inspection and enforcement
among Federal and State agencies.
``(E) To coordinate data collection on the quality
of recovery housing.
``(2) Federal agencies described.--The Federal agencies
described in this paragraph are the following:
``(A) The Department of Health and Human Services.
``(B) The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services.
``(C) The Substance Abuse and Mental Health
Services Administration.
``(D) The Health Resources and Services
Administration.
``(E) The Indian Health Service.
``(F) The Department of Housing and Urban
Development.
``(G) The Department of Agriculture.
``(H) The Department of Justice.
``(I) The Office of National Drug Control Policy.
``(J) The Bureau of Indian Affairs.
``(K) The Department of Labor.
``(L) Any other Federal agency as the co-chairs
determine appropriate.
``(3) Meetings.--The working group shall meet on a
quarterly basis.
``(4) Reports to congress.--Beginning not later than one
year after the date of the enactment of this section and
annually thereafter, the working group shall submit to the
Committee on Energy and Commerce, the Committee on Ways and
Means, the Committee on Agriculture, and the Committee on
Financial Services of the House of Representatives and the
Committee on Health, Education, Labor, and Pensions, the
Committee on Agriculture, Nutrition, and Forestry, and the
Committee on Finance of the Senate a report describing the work
of the working group and any recommendations of the working
group to improve Federal, State, and local policy with respect
to recovery housing operations.
``(5) Authorization of appropriations.--To carry out this
subsection, there are authorized to be appropriated such sums
as may be necessary for fiscal years 2022 through 2027.''.
SEC. 314. NAS STUDY AND REPORT.
(a) In General.--Not later than 60 days after the date of enactment
of this Act, the Secretary of Health and Human Services, acting through
the Assistant Secretary for Mental Health and Substance Use, shall
enter into an arrangement with the National Academies of Sciences,
Engineering, and Medicine to conduct a study, which may include a
literature review and case studies as appropriate, on--
(1) the quality and effectiveness of recovery housing in
the United States, including the availability in the United
States of high-quality recovery housing and whether that
availability meets the demand for such housing in the United
States; and
(2) State, Tribal, and local regulation and oversight of
recovery housing.
(b) Topics.--The study under subsection (a) shall include a
literature review of studies that--
(1) examine the quality of, and effectiveness outcomes for,
the types and characteristics of covered recovery housing
programs listed in subsection (c); and
(2) identify the research and data gaps that must be filled
to better report on the quality of, and effectiveness outcomes
related to, covered recovery housing.
(c) Type and Characteristics.--The types and characteristics of
covered recovery housing programs referred to in subsection (b) consist
of the following:
(1) Nonprofit and for-profit covered recovery housing.
(2) Private and public covered recovery housing.
(3) Covered recovery housing programs that provide services
to--
(A) residents on a voluntary basis; and
(B) residents pursuant to a judicial order.
(4) Number of clients served, disaggregated to the extent
possible by covered recovery housing serving--
(A) 6 or fewer recovering residents;
(B) 10 to 13 recovering residents; and
(C) 18 or more recovering residents.
(5) Bedroom occupancy in a house, disaggregated to the
extent possible by--
(A) single room occupancy;
(B) 2 residents occupying 1 room; and
(C) more than 2 residents occupying 1 room.
(6) Duration of services received by clients, disaggregated
to the extent possible according to whether the services were--
(A) 30 days or fewer;
(B) 31 to 90 days;
(C) more than 90 days and fewer than 6 months; or
(D) 6 months or more.
(7) Certification levels of staff.
(8) Fraudulent and abusive practices by operators of
covered recovery housing and inpatient and outpatient treatment
facilities, both individually and in concert, including--
(A) deceptive or misleading marketing practices,
including--
(i) inaccurate outcomes-based marketing;
and
(ii) marketing based on non-evidence-based
practices;
(B) illegal patient brokering;
(C) third-party recruiters;
(D) deceptive or misleading marketing practices of
treatment facility and recovery housing online
aggregators; and
(E) the impact of such practices on health care
costs and recovery rates.
(d) Report.--The arrangement under subsection (a) shall require, by
not later than 18 months after the date of entering into the
agreement--
(1) completing the study under such subsection; and
(2) making publicly available (including through
publication on the internet) a report that contains--
(A) the results of the study;
(B) the National Academy's recommendations for
Federal, State, and local policies to promote the
availability of high-quality recovery housing in the
United States;
(C) research and data gaps;
(D) recommendations for recovery housing quality
and effectiveness metrics;
(E) recommended mechanisms to collect data on those
metrics, including with respect to research and data
gaps;
(F) recommendations to eliminate restrictions by
recovery housing that exclude individuals who take
prescribed medications for opioid use disorder; and
(G) a summary of allegations, assertions, or formal
legal actions on the State and local levels by
governments and nongovernmental organizations with
respect to the opening and operation of recovery
housing.
(e) Definitions.--In this subsection:
(1) The term ``covered recovery housing'' means recovery
housing that utilizes compensated or volunteer onsite staff who
are not health care professionals to support residents.
(2) The term ``effectiveness outcomes'' may include
decreased substance use, reduced probability of relapse or
reoccurrence, lower rates of incarceration, higher income,
increased employment, and improved family functioning.
(3) The term ``health care professional'' means an
individual who is licensed or otherwise authorized by the State
to provide health care services.
(4) The term ``recovery housing'' means a shared living
environment that is or purports to be--
(A) free from alcohol and use of nonprescribed
drugs; and
(B) centered on connection to services that promote
sustained recovery from substance use disorders.
(f) Authorization of Appropriations.--To carry out this section,
there is authorized to be appropriated $1,500,000 for fiscal year 2022.
SEC. 315. FILLING RESEARCH AND DATA GAPS.
Not later than 60 days after the completion of the study under
section 314, the Secretary of Health and Human Services shall enter
into an agreement with an appropriate entity to conduct such research
as may be necessary to fill the research and data gaps identified in
reporting pursuant to such section.
SEC. 316. GRANTS FOR STATES TO PROMOTE THE AVAILABILITY OF HIGH-QUALITY
RECOVERY HOUSING.
Section 550 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 290ee-5)
(relating to national recovery housing best practices), as amended by
section 313, is further amended by inserting after subsection (e) (as
inserted by such section 313) the following:
``(f) Grants for Implementing National Recovery Housing Best
Practices.--
``(1) In general.--The Secretary shall award grants to
States (and political subdivisions thereof), Tribes, and
territories--
``(A) for the provision of technical assistance by
national accrediting entities and reputable providers
and analysts of recovery housing services to implement
the guidelines, nationally recognized standards, and
recommendations developed under section 313 of the CARA
3.0 Act of 2021 and this section; and
``(B) to promote the availability of high-quality
recovery housing for individuals with a substance use
disorder and practices to maintain housing quality long
term.
``(2) State enforcement plans.--Beginning not later than 90
days after the date of the enactment of this paragraph and
every 2 years thereafter, as a condition on the receipt of a
grant under paragraph (1), each State (or political
subdivisions thereof), Tribe, or territory receiving such a
grant shall submit to the Secretary, and make publicly
available on a publicly accessible Internet website of the
State (or political subdivisions thereof), Tribe, or
territory--
``(A) the plan of the State (or political
subdivisions thereof), Tribe, or territory, with
respect to the promotion of high-quality recovery
housing for individuals with a substance use disorder
located within the jurisdiction of such State (or
political subdivisions thereof), Tribe, or territory;
and
``(B) a description of how such plan is consistent
with the best practices developed under this section
and guidelines developed under section 550A.
``(3) Review of accrediting entities.--The Secretary shall
periodically review, by developing a rubric to evaluate
accreditation, the accrediting entities providing technical
assistance pursuant to paragraph (1)(A).
``(4) Authorization of appropriations.--To carry out this
subsection, there is authorized to be appropriated $10,000,000
for each of fiscal years 2023 through 2027.''.
SEC. 317. REPUTABLE PROVIDERS AND ANALYSTS OF RECOVERY HOUSING SERVICES
DEFINITION.
Subsection (h) of section 550 of the Public Health Service Act (42
U.S.C. 290ee-5) (relating to national recovery housing best practices),
as redesignated by section 313, is amended by adding at the end the
following:
``(4) The term `reputable providers and analysts of
recovery housing services' means recovery housing service
providers and analysts that--
``(A) use evidence-based approaches;
``(B) act in accordance with guidelines issued by
the Assistant Secretary;
``(C) have not been found guilty of health care
fraud, patient brokering, or false advertising by the
Department of Justice, the Department of Health and
Human Services, or a Medicaid Fraud Control Unit;
``(D) have not been found to have violated Federal,
State, or local codes of conduct with respect to
recovery housing for individuals with a substance use
disorder; and
``(E) do not employ individuals with a past
conviction of criminal, domestic, or sexual violence,
or significant drug distribution, in the care or
supervision of individuals.''.
SEC. 318. TECHNICAL CORRECTION.
Title V of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 290aa et seq.)
is amended--
(1) by redesignating section 550 (relating to Sobriety
Treatment and Recovery Teams) (42 U.S.C. 290ee-10), as added by
section 8214 of Public Law 115-271, as section 550B; and
(2) moving such section so it appears after section 550A,
as added by section 312.
TITLE IV--CRIMINAL JUSTICE
SEC. 401. MEDICATION-ASSISTED TREATMENT CORRECTIONS AND COMMUNITY
REENTRY PROGRAM.
(a) Definitions.--In this section--
(1) the term ``Attorney General'' means the Attorney
General, acting through the Director of the National Institute
of Corrections;
(2) the term ``certified recovery coach'' means an
individual--
(A) with knowledge of, or experience with, recovery
from a substance use disorder; and
(B) who--
(i) has completed training through, and is
determined to be in good standing by--
(I) a single State agency; or
(II) a recovery community
organization that is capable of
conducting that training and making
that determination; and
(ii) meets the criteria specified by the
Attorney General, in consultation with the
Secretary of Health and Human Services, for
qualifying as a certified recovery coach for
the purposes of this Act;
(3) the term ``correctional facility'' has the meaning
given the term in section 901 of title I of the Omnibus Crime
Control and Safe Streets Act of 1968 (34 U.S.C. 10251);
(4) the term ``covered grant or cooperative agreement''
means a grant received, or cooperative agreement entered into,
under the Program;
(5) the term ``covered program'' means a program--
(A) to provide medication-assisted treatment to
individuals who have opioid use disorder and are
incarcerated within the jurisdiction of the State or
unit of local government carrying out the program; and
(B) that is developed, implemented, or expanded
through a covered grant or cooperative agreement;
(6) the term ``medication-assisted treatment'' means the
use of any drug or combination of drugs that have been approved
under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 301
et seq.) or section 351 of the Public Health Service Act (42
U.S.C. 262) for the treatment of an opioid use disorder, in
combination with evidence-based counseling and behavioral
therapies, such as psychosocial counseling, overseen by 1 or
more social work professionals and 1 or more qualified
clinicians, to provide a comprehensive approach to the
treatment of substance use disorders;
(7) the term ``nonprofit organization'' means an
organization that is described in section 501(c)(3) of the
Internal Revenue Code of 1986 and is exempt from taxation under
section 501(a) of such Code;
(8) the term ``Panel'' means the medication-assisted
treatment Corrections and Community Reentry Application Review
Panel established under subsection (f)(2);
(9) the term ``participant'' means an individual who
participates in a covered program;
(10) the term ``political appointee'' has the meaning given
the term in section 714(h) of title 38, United States Code;
(11) the term ``Program'' means the medication-assisted
treatment Corrections and Community Reentry Program established
under subsection (b);
(12) the term ``psychosocial'' means the interrelation of
social factors and individual thought and behavior;
(13) the term ``recovery community organization'' has the
meaning given the term in section 547 of the Public Health
Service Act (42 U.S.C. 290ee-2);
(14) the term ``single State agency'' means, with respect
to a State or unit of local government, the single State agency
identified by the State, or the State in which the unit of
local government is located, in the plan submitted by that
State under section 1932(b)(1)(A)(i) of the Public Health
Service Act (42 U.S.C. 300x-32(b)(1)(A)(i));
(15) the term ``State'' means--
(A) each State of the United States;
(B) the District of Columbia; and
(C) each commonwealth, territory, or possession of
the United States; and
(16) the term ``unit of local government'' has the meaning
given the term in section 901 of title I of the Omnibus Crime
Control and Safe Streets Act of 1968 (34 U.S.C. 10251), except
that such term also includes a Tribal organization, as defined
in section 4 of the Indian Self-Determination and Education
Assistance Act (25 U.S.C. 5304).
(b) Authorization.--Not later than 90 days after the date of
enactment of this Act, the Attorney General, in consultation with the
Secretary of Health and Human Services, shall establish a program--
(1) that shall be known as the ``medication-assisted
treatment Corrections and Community Reentry Program''; and
(2) under which the Attorney General--
(A) may make grants to, and enter into cooperative
agreements with, States or units of local government to
develop, implement, or expand 1 or more programs to
provide medication-assisted treatment that meets the
standard of care generally accepted for the treatment
of opioid use disorder to individuals who have opioid
use disorder and are incarcerated within the
jurisdictions of the States or units of local
government; and
(B) shall establish a working relationship with 1
or more knowledgeable corrections organizations with
expertise in security, medical health, mental health,
and substance use disorder care to oversee and support
implementation of the program, including through the
use of evidence-based clinical practices.
(c) Use of Funds for Infrastructure.--In developing, implementing,
or expanding a medication-assisted treatment program under subsection
(b)(2)(A), a State or unit of local government may use funds from a
grant or cooperative agreement under that subsection to develop the
infrastructure necessary to provide the medication-assisted treatment,
such as--
(1) establishing safe storage facilities for the drugs used
in the treatment; and
(2) obtaining appropriate licenses for the individuals who
will administer the treatment.
(d) Purposes.--The purposes of the Program are to--
(1) develop culturally competent (as defined in section 102
of the Developmental Disabilities Assistance and Bill of Rights
Act of 2000 (42 U.S.C. 15002)) medication-assisted treatment
programs in consultation with nonprofit organizations and
community organizations that are qualified to provide technical
support for the programs;
(2) reduce the risk of overdose to participants after the
participants are released from incarceration; and
(3) reduce the rate of reincarceration.
(e) Program Requirements.--In carrying out a covered program, a
State or unit of local government--
(1) shall ensure that each individual who is newly
incarcerated at a correctional facility at which the covered
program is carried out, and who was receiving medication-
assisted treatment before being incarcerated, continues to
receive medication-assisted treatment while incarcerated;
(2) in providing medication-assisted treatment under the
covered program, shall offer to participants each type of drug
that has been approved under the Federal Food, Drug, and
Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 301 et seq.) or section 351 of the
Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 262) for the treatment of
an opioid use disorder; and
(3) shall use--
(A) screening tools with psychometric reliability
and validity that provide useful clinical data to guide
the long-term treatment of participants who have--
(i) opioid use disorder; or
(ii) co-occurring opioid use disorder and
mental disorders;
(B) at each correctional facility at which the
covered program is carried out, a sufficient number of
personnel, as determined by the Attorney General in
light of the number of individuals incarcerated at the
correctional facility and the number of those
individuals whom the correctional facility has screened
and identified as having opioid use disorder, to--
(i) monitor participants with active opioid
use disorder who begin participation in the
covered program while demonstrating, or
develop, signs and symptoms of opioid
withdrawal;
(ii) provide evidence-based medically
managed withdrawal care or assistance to the
participants described in clause (i);
(iii) prescribe or otherwise dispense--
(I) the drugs that are offered
under the covered program, as required
under paragraph (1); and
(II) naloxone or any other
emergency opioid antagonist approved by
the Commissioner of Food and Drugs to
treat opioid overdose;
(iv) discuss with participants the risks
and benefits of, and differences among, the
opioid antagonist, opioid agonist, and partial
agonist drugs used to treat opioid use
disorder; and
(v) prepare a plan for release, including
connecting participants with mental health and
substance use treatment programs, medical care,
public benefits, and housing; and
(C) a certified recovery coach, social work
professional, or other qualified clinician who, in
order to support the sustained recovery of
participants, shall work with participants who are
recovering from opioid use disorder.
(f) Application.--
(1) In general.--A State or unit of local government
desiring a covered grant or cooperative agreement shall submit
to the Attorney General an application that--
(A) shall include--
(i) a description of--
(I) the objectives of the
medication-assisted treatment program
that the applicant will develop,
implement, or expand under the covered
grant or cooperative agreement;
(II) the activities that the
applicant will carry out under the
covered program;
(III) how the activities described
under subclause (II) will achieve the
objectives described in subclause (I);
(IV) the outreach and education
component of the covered program that
the applicant will carry out in order
to encourage maximum participation in
the covered program; and
(V) how the applicant will develop
connections to culturally competent (as
defined in section 102 of the
Developmental Disabilities Assistance
and Bill of Rights Act of 2000 (42
U.S.C. 15002)) substance use and mental
health treatment providers, medical
professionals, nonprofit organizations,
and other State agencies in order to
plan for participants to receive a
continuum of care and appropriate wrap-
around services after release from
incarceration;
(ii) if, under the covered program that the
applicant will carry out, the applicant will
not, in providing medication-assisted
treatment, offer to participants not less than
1 drug that uses an opioid antagonist, not less
than 1 drug that uses an opioid agonist, and
not less than 1 drug that uses an opioid
partial agonist, an explanation of why the
applicant is unable to or chooses not to offer
a drug that uses an opioid antagonist, a drug
that uses an opioid agonist, or a drug that
uses an opioid partial agonist, as applicable;
(iii) a plan for--
(I) measuring progress in achieving
the objectives described in clause
(i)(I), including a strategy to collect
data that can be used to measure that
progress;
(II) collaborating with the single
State agency for the applicant or 1 or
more nonprofit organizations in the
community of the applicant to help
ensure that--
(aa) if participants so
desire, participants have
continuity of care after
release from incarceration with
respect to the form of
medication-assisted treatment
the participants received
during incarceration,
including--
(AA) by working
with community service
providers to assist
eligible participants,
before release from
incarceration in
registering for the
Medicaid program under
title XIX of the Social
Security Act (42 U.S.C.
1396 et seq.) or other
minimum essential
coverage, as defined in
section 5000A(f) of the
Internal Revenue Code
of 1986; and
(BB) if a
participant cannot
afford, or does not
qualify for, health
insurance that provides
coverage with respect
to enrollment in a
medication-assisted
treatment program, and
if the participant
cannot pay the cost of
enrolling in a
medication-assisted
treatment program, by
working with units of
local government,
nonprofit
organizations, opioid
use disorder treatment
providers, and entities
carrying out programs
under substance use
disorder grants to,
before the participant
is released from
incarceration, identify
a resource, other than
the applicant or the
covered program to be
carried out by the
applicant, that may be
used to pay the cost of
enrolling the
participant in a
medication-assisted
treatment program;
(bb) medications are
securely stored; and
(cc) protocols relating to
diversion are maintained; and
(III) with respect to each
community in which a correctional
facility at which a covered program
will be carried out is located,
collaborating with State agencies
responsible for overseeing programs
relating to substance use disorder and
local public health officials and
nonprofit organizations in the
community to help ensure that
medication-assisted treatment provided
at each correctional facility at which
the covered program will be carried out
is also available at locations that are
not correctional facilities in those
communities, to the greatest extent
practicable; and
(iv) a certification that--
(I) each correctional facility at
which the covered program will be
carried out has access to a sufficient
number of clinicians who are licensed
to prescribe or otherwise dispense to
participants the drugs for the
treatment of opioid use disorder
required to be offered under subsection
(e)(1), which may include clinicians
who use telemedicine, in accordance
with regulations issued by the
Administrator of the Drug Enforcement
Administration, to provide services
under the covered program; and
(II) the covered program will
provide culturally competent (as
defined in section 102 of the
Developmental Disabilities Assistance
and Bill of Rights Act of 2000 (42
U.S.C. 15002)) evidence-based
counseling and behavioral therapies,
which may include counseling and
therapy administered through the use of
telemedicine, as appropriate, to
participants as part of the medication-
assisted treatment provided under the
covered program; and
(B) may include a statement indicating the number
of participants that the applicant expects to serve
through the covered program.
(2) Medication-assisted treatment corrections and community
reentry application review panel.--
(A) In general.--Not later than 60 days after the
date of enactment of this Act, the Attorney General
shall establish a Medication-Assisted Treatment
Corrections and Community Reentry Application Review
Panel that shall--
(i) be composed of not fewer than 10
individuals and not more than 15 individuals;
and
(ii) include--
(I) 1 or more employees, who are
not political appointees, of--
(aa) the Department of
Justice;
(bb) the Substance Abuse
and Mental Health Service
Administration;
(cc) the National Center
for Injury Prevention and
Control at the Centers for
Disease Control and Prevention;
and
(dd) the Office of National
Drug Control Policy; and
(II) other stakeholders who--
(aa) have expert knowledge
relating to the opioid
epidemic, drug treatment,
health equity, culturally
competent (as defined in
section 102 of the
Developmental Disabilities
Assistance and Bill of Rights
Act of 2000 (42 U.S.C. 15002))
care, or community substance
use disorder services; and
(bb) represent law
enforcement organizations and
public health entities.
(B) Duties.--
(i) In general.--The Panel shall--
(I) review and evaluate
applications for covered grants and
cooperative agreements; and
(II) make recommendations to the
Attorney General relating to the
awarding of covered grants and
cooperative agreements.
(ii) Rural communities.--In reviewing and
evaluating applications under clause (i), the
Panel shall take into consideration the unique
circumstances, including the lack of resources
relating to the treatment of opioid use
disorder, faced by rural States and units of
local government.
(C) Termination.--The Panel shall terminate on the
last day of fiscal year 2023.
(3) Publication of criteria in federal register.--Not later
than 90 days after the date of enactment of this Act, the
Attorney General, in consultation with the Panel, shall publish
in the Federal Register--
(A) the process through which applications
submitted under paragraph (1) shall be submitted and
evaluated; and
(B) the criteria used in awarding covered grants
and cooperative agreements.
(g) Duration.--A covered grant or cooperative agreement shall be
for a period of not more than 4 years, except that the Attorney General
may extend the term of a covered grant or cooperative agreement based
on outcome data or extenuating circumstances relating to the covered
program carried out under the covered grant or cooperative agreement.
(h) Report.--
(1) In general.--Not later than 2 years after the date on
which a State or unit of local government is awarded a covered
grant or cooperative agreement, and each year thereafter until
the date that is 1 year after the date on which the period of
the covered grant or cooperative agreement ends, the State or
unit of local government shall submit a report to the Attorney
General that includes information relating to the covered
program carried out by the State or unit of local government,
including information relating to--
(A) the goals of the covered program;
(B) any evidence-based interventions carried out
under the covered program;
(C) outcomes of the covered program, which shall--
(i) be reported in a manner that
distinguishes the outcomes based on the
categories of, with respect to the participants
in the covered program--
(I) the race of the participants;
and
(II) the gender of the
participants; and
(ii) include information relating to the
rate of reincarceration among participants in
the covered program, if available; and
(D) expenditures under the covered program.
(2) Publication.--
(A) Awardee.--A State or unit of local government
that submits a report under paragraph (1) shall make
the report publicly available on--
(i) the website of each correctional
facility at which the State or unit of local
government carried out the covered grant
program; and
(ii) if a correctional facility at which
the State or unit of local government carried
out the covered grant program does not operate
a website, the website of the State or unit of
local government.
(B) Attorney general.--The Attorney General shall
make each report received under paragraph (1) publicly
available on the website of the National Institute of
Corrections.
(3) Submission to congress.--Not later than 2 years after
the date on which the Attorney General awards the first covered
grant or cooperative agreement, and each year thereafter, the
Attorney General shall submit to the Committee on the Judiciary
of the Senate and the Committee on the Judiciary of the House
of Representatives a summary and compilation of the reports
that the Attorney General has received under paragraph (1)
during the year preceding the date on which the Attorney
General submits the summary and compilation.
(i) Authorization of Appropriations.--There are authorized to be
appropriated $50,000,000 to carry out this section for each of fiscal
years 2022 through 2026.
SEC. 402. DEFLECTION AND PRE-ARREST DIVERSION.
(a) Findings.--Congress finds the following:
(1) Law enforcement officers and other first responders are
at the front line of the opioid epidemic. However, a
traditional law enforcement response to substance use often
fails to disrupt the cycle of addiction and arrest, or reduce
the risk of overdose.
(2) Law enforcement-assisted deflection and diversion
programs have the potential to improve public health, decrease
the number of people entering the criminal justice system for
low-level offenses, and address racial disparities.
(3) According to the Bureau of Justice Assistance of the
Department of Justice, ``Five pathways have been most commonly
associated with opioid overdose prevention and diversion to
treatment.'' The 5 pathways are--
(A) ``self-referral'', in which--
(i) an individual voluntarily initiates
contact with a first responder, such as a law
enforcement officer, firefighter, or emergency
medical services professional, for a treatment
referral (without fear of arrest); and
(ii) the first responder personally
introduces the individual to a treatment
provider (commonly known as a ``warm
handoff'');
(B) ``active outreach'', in which a law enforcement
officer or other first responder--
(i) identifies or seeks out individuals in
need of substance use disorder treatment; and
(ii) makes a warm handoff of such an
individual to a treatment provider, who engages
the individual in treatment;
(C) ``naloxone plus'', in which a law enforcement
officer or other first responder engages an individual
in treatment as a follow-up to an overdose response;
(D) ``officer prevention referral'', in which a law
enforcement officer or other first responder initiates
treatment engagement with an individual, but no
criminal charges are filed against the individual; and
(E) ``officer intervention referral'', in which--
(i) a law enforcement officer or other
first responder initiates treatment engagement
with an individual; and
(ii)(I) criminal charges are filed against
the individual and held in abeyance; or
(II) a citation is issued to the
individual.
(4) As of the date of enactment of this Act, there are no
national best practices or guidelines for law enforcement-
assisted deflection and diversion programs.
(b) Use of Byrne JAG Funds for Deflection and Diversion Programs.--
Section 501 of title I of the Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Streets
Act of 1968 (34 U.S.C. 10152) is amended--
(1) in subsection (a)(1)(E), by inserting before the period
at the end the following: ``, including law enforcement-
assisted deflection programs and law enforcement-assisted pre-
arrest and pre-booking diversion programs (as those terms are
defined in subsection (h))''; and
(2) by adding at the end the following:
``(h) Law Enforcement-Assisted Deflection Programs and Law
Enforcement-Assisted Pre-Arrest and Pre-Booking Diversion Programs.--
``(1) Definitions.--In this subsection:
``(A) Covered grant.--The term `covered grant'
means a grant for a deflection or diversion program
awarded under subsection (a)(1)(E).
``(B) Deflection or diversion program.--The term
`deflection or diversion program' means a law
enforcement-assisted deflection program or a law
enforcement-assisted pre-arrest or pre-booking
diversion, including a program under which--
``(i) an individual voluntarily initiates
contact with a first responder for a substance
use disorder or mental health treatment
referral without fear of arrest and receives a
warm handoff to such treatment;
``(ii) a law enforcement officer or other
first responder identifies or seeks out
individuals in need of substance use disorder
or mental health treatment and a warm handoff
is made to a treatment provider, who engages
the individuals in treatment;
``(iii) a law enforcement officer or other
first responder engages an individual in
substance use disorder treatment as part of an
overdose response;
``(iv) a law enforcement officer or other
first responder initiates substance use
disorder or mental health treatment engagement,
but no criminal charges are filed;
``(v) a law enforcement officer or other
first responder initiates substance use
disorder or mental health treatment engagement
with an individual; or
``(vi) charges are filed against an
individual who has committed an offense that is
not a crime against a person, and the primary
cause of which appears to be based on a
substance use disorder or mental health
disorder and held in abeyance or a citation is
issued to such an individual.
``(C) Law enforcement-assisted deflection
program.--The term `law enforcement-assisted deflection
program' means a program under which a law enforcement
officer, when encountering an individual who is not
engaged in criminal activity but appears to have a
substance use disorder or mental health disorder,
instead of taking no action at the time of contact or
taking action at a later time, attempts to connect the
individual to substance use disorder treatment
providers or mental health treatment providers--
``(i) without the use of coercion or fear
of arrest; and
``(ii) using established pathways for
connections to local, community-based
treatment.
``(D) Law enforcement-assisted pre-arrest or pre-
booking diversion program.--The term `law enforcement-
assisted pre-arrest or pre-booking diversion program'
means a program--
``(i) under which a law enforcement
officer, when encountering an individual who
has committed an offense that is not a crime
against a person, and the primary cause of
which appears to be based on a substance use
disorder or the mental health disorder of the
individual, instead of arresting the
individual, or instead of booking the
individual after having arrested the
individual, attempts to connect the individual
to substance use disorder treatment providers
or mental health treatment providers--
``(I) without the use of coercion;
and
``(II) using established pathways
for connections to local, community-
based treatment;
``(ii) under which, in the case of pre-
arrest diversion, a law enforcement officer
described in clause (i) may decide to--
``(I) issue a civil citation; or
``(II) take no action with respect
to the offense for which the officer
would otherwise have arrested the
individual described in clause (i); and
``(iii) that may authorize a law
enforcement officer to refer an individual to
substance use disorder treatment providers or
mental health treatment providers if the
individual appears to have a substance use
disorder or mental health disorder and the
officer suspects the individual of chronic
violations of law but lacks probable cause to
arrest the individual (commonly known as a
`social contact referral').
``(2) Sense of congress regarding deflection or diversion
programs.--It is the sense of Congress that a deflection or
diversion program funded under this subpart should not exclude
individuals who are chronically exposed to the criminal justice
system.
``(3) Reports to attorney general.--Not later than 2 years
after the date on which a State or unit of local government is
awarded a covered grant, and each year thereafter until the
date that is 1 year after the date on which the period of the
covered grant ends, the State or unit of local government shall
submit a report to the Attorney General that includes
information relating to the deflection or diversion program
carried out by the State or unit of local government, including
information relating to--
``(A) the goals of the deflection or diversion
program;
``(B) any evidence-based interventions carried out
under the deflection or diversion program;
``(C) outcomes of the deflection or diversion
program, which shall--
``(i) be reported in a manner that
distinguishes the outcomes based on the
categories of, with respect to the participants
in the deflection or diversion program--
``(I) the race of the participants;
and
``(II) the gender of the
participants; and
``(ii) include information relating to the
rate of reincarceration among participants in
the deflection or diversion program, if
available; and
``(D) expenditures under the deflection or
diversion program.''.
(c) Technical Assistance Grant Program.--
(1) Definitions.--In this subsection--
(A) the term ``deflection or diversion program''
has the meaning given the term in subsection (h) of
section 501 of title I of the Omnibus Crime Control and
Safe Streets Act of 1968 (34 U.S.C. 10152), as added by
subsection (b); and
(B) the terms ``State'' and ``unit of local
government'' have the meanings given those terms in
section 901 of title I of the Omnibus Crime Control and
Safe Streets Act of 1968 (34 U.S.C. 10251).
(2) Grant authorized.--The Attorney General shall award a
single grant to an entity with significant experience in
working with law enforcement agencies, community-based
treatment providers, and other community-based human service
providers to develop or administer both deflection and
diversion programs that use each of the 5 pathways described in
subsection (a)(3), to promote and maximize the effectiveness
and racial equity of deflection or diversion programs, in order
to--
(A) help State and units of local government launch
and expand deflection or diversion programs;
(B) develop best practices for deflection or
diversion teams, which shall include--
(i) recommendations on community input and
engagement in order to implement deflection or
diversion programs as rapidly as possible and
with regard to the particular needs of a
community, including regular community meetings
and other mechanisms for engagement with--
(I) law enforcement agencies;
(II) community-based treatment
providers and other community-based
human service providers;
(III) the recovery community; and
(IV) the community at-large; and
(ii) the implementation of metrics to
measure community satisfaction concerning the
meaningful participation and interaction of the
community with the deflection or diversion
program and program stakeholders;
(C) develop and publish a training and technical
assistance tool kit for deflection or diversion for
public education purposes;
(D) disseminate uniform criteria and standards for
the delivery of deflection or diversion program
services; and
(E) develop outcome measures that can be used to
continuously inform and improve social, clinical,
financial and racial equity outcomes.
(3) Term.--The term of the grant awarded under paragraph
(2) shall be 5 years.
(4) Authorization of appropriations.--There are authorized
to be appropriated to the Attorney General $30,000,000 for the
grant under paragraph (2).
SEC. 403. HOUSING.
(a) In General.--Section 576 of the Quality Housing and Work
Responsibility Act of 1998 (42 U.S.C. 13661) is amended by striking
subsections (a), (b), and (c) and inserting the following:
``(a) Ineligibility of Illegal Drug Users and Alcohol Abusers.--
Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a public housing agency or
an owner of federally assisted housing, as determined by the Secretary,
may only prohibit admission to the program or admission to federally
assisted housing for an individual whom the public housing agency or
owner determines is illegally using a controlled substance or abusing
alcohol if--
``(1) the agency or owner determines that the individual is
using the controlled substance or abusing alcohol in a manner
that interferes with the health or safety of other residents;
and
``(2) the individual is not participating in a substance
use disorder assessment and treatment.
``(b) Authority To Deny Admission to Criminal Offenders.--
``(1) In general.--Except as provided in subsection (a), in
addition to any other authority to screen applicants, and
subject to paragraphs (2) and (3) of this subsection, a public
housing agency or an owner of federally assisted housing may
only prohibit admission to the program or to federally assisted
housing for an individual based on criminal activity of the
individual if the public housing agency or owner determines
that the individual, during a reasonable time preceding the
date on which the individual would otherwise be selected for
admission, was convicted of a crime involving conduct that
threatens the health or safety of other residents.
``(2) Exceptions and limitations.--A conviction that has
been vacated, a conviction the record of which has been sealed
or expunged, or a conviction for a crime committed by an
individual when the individual was less than 18 years of age,
shall not be grounds for denial of admission under paragraph
(1).
``(3) Admission policy.--
``(A) Factors to consider.--In evaluating the
criminal history of an individual under paragraph (1),
a public housing agency or an owner of federally
assisted housing shall consider--
``(i) whether an offense of which the
individual was convicted bears a relationship
to the safety and security of other residents;
``(ii) the level of violence, if any, of an
offense of which the individual was convicted;
``(iii) the length of time since a
conviction;
``(iv) the number of convictions;
``(v) if the individual is in recovery for
a substance use disorder, whether the
individual was under the influence of alcohol
or illegal drugs at the time of an offense; and
``(vi) any rehabilitation efforts that the
individual has undertaken since the time of a
conviction, including completion of a substance
use treatment program.
``(B) Written policy.--A public housing agency or
an owner of federally assisted housing shall establish
and make available to applicants a written admission
policy that enumerates the specific factors, including
the factors described in subparagraph (A), that will be
considered when the public housing agency or owner
evaluates the criminal history of an individual under
paragraph (1).''.
(b) Updating Regulations.--The Secretary of Housing and Urban
Development shall amend subpart I of part 5 of title 24, Code of
Federal Regulations, as necessary to implement the amendment made by
subsection (a) of this section.
SEC. 404. VETERANS TREATMENT COURTS.
Section 2991 of title I of the Omnibus Crime Control and Safe
Streets Act of 1968 (34 U.S.C. 10651) is amended--
(1) in subsection (a)--
(A) in paragraph (2)--
(i) in the matter preceding subparagraph
(A)--
(I) by inserting ``, substance use
disorder,'' after ``mental health'';
and
(II) by inserting ``or adults or
juveniles with substance use
disorders'' after ``mentally ill adults
or juveniles'';
(ii) in subparagraph (A), by inserting ``or
substance use'' after ``mental health''; and
(iii) in subparagraph (B), by inserting
``or substance use'' after ``mental health'';
(B) in paragraph (4)--
(i) in subparagraph (A), by inserting ``or
substance use disorder'' after ``mental
health''; and
(ii) in subparagraph (C), by inserting ``or
offenders with substance use disorders'' after
``mentally ill offenders'';
(C) in paragraph (5)--
(i) in the heading, by inserting ``or
substance use disorder'' after ``Mental
health'';
(ii) by striking ``mental health agency''
and inserting ``mental health or substance use
agency''; and
(iii) by inserting ``, substance use
services,'' after ``mental health services'';
(D) in paragraph (9)--
(i) in subparagraph (A)--
(I) in clause (i)--
(aa) in subclause (I), by
inserting ``, a substance use
disorder,'' after ``a mental
illness''; and
(bb) in subclause (II), by
inserting ``, substance use
disorder,'' after ``mental
illness''; and
(II) in clause (ii)(II), by
inserting ``or substance use'' after
``mental health'';
(E) by redesignating paragraph (11) as paragraph
(12); and
(F) by inserting after paragraph (10) the
following:
``(11) Substance use court.--The term `substance use court'
means a judicial program that meets the requirements of part EE
of this title.'';
(2) in subsection (b)--
(A) in paragraph (2)--
(i) in subparagraph (A), by inserting ``,
substance use courts,'' after ``mental health
courts'';
(ii) in subparagraph (B)--
(I) by inserting ``mental health
disorders, substance use disorders,
or'' before ``co-occurring mental
illness and substance use problems'';
and
(II) by striking ``illnesses'' and
inserting ``disorders, illnesses, or
problems'';
(iii) in subparagraph (C)--
(I) in the matter preceding clause
(i)--
(aa) by striking ``mental
health agencies'' and inserting
``mental health or substance
use agencies''; and
(bb) by striking ``and,
where appropriate,'' and
inserting ``or''; and
(II) in clause (i), by inserting
``, substance use disorders,'' after
``mental illness''; and
(iv) in subparagraph (D), by inserting ``or
offender with a substance use disorder'' after
``mentally ill offender''; and
(B) in paragraph (5)--
(i) in subparagraph (B)--
(I) in clause (i)--
(aa) by inserting ``or
substance use court'' after
``mental health court''; and
(bb) by striking ``mental
health agency'' and inserting
``mental health or substance
use agency''; and
(II) in clause (ii), by striking
``and substance use services for
individuals with co-occurring mental
health and substance use disorders''
and inserting ``or substance use
services'';
(ii) in subparagraph (C)--
(I) in clause (i)(I), by inserting
``, substance use disorders,'' after
``mental illness'';
(II) in clause (ii)--
(aa) in subclause (II), by
inserting ``, substance use,''
after ``mental health,'';
(bb) in subclause (V), by
striking ``mental health
services'' and inserting
``mental health or substance
use services''; and
(cc) in subclause (VI), by
inserting ``or individuals with
substance use disorders'' after
``mentally ill individuals'';
(iii) in subparagraph (D), by inserting
``or offenders with substance use disorders''
after ``mentally ill offenders'';
(iv) in subparagraph (E), by inserting ``or
substance use disorders'' after ``mental
illness'';
(v) in subparagraph (H), by striking ``and
mental health'' and inserting ``, mental
health, and substance use''; and
(vi) in subparagraph (I)--
(I) in clause (i)--
(aa) in the heading, by
inserting ``, substance use
courts,'' after ``Mental health
courts'';
(bb) by inserting ``or
substance use courts'' after
``mental health courts''; and
(cc) by inserting ``or part
EE, as applicable,'' after
``part V''; and
(II) in clause (iv), by inserting
``or substance use'' after ``mental
health'';
(3) in subsection (c)--
(A) in paragraph (1), by inserting ``, offenders
with substance use disorders,'' after ``mentally ill
offenders'';
(B) in paragraph (2), by inserting `` and offenders
with substance use disorders'' after ``mentally ill
offenders''; and
(C) in paragraph (3), by inserting ``or substance
use courts'' after ``mental health courts'';
(4) in subsection (e)--
(A) in paragraph (1), by inserting ``or substance
use disorders'' after ``mental illness''; and
(B) in paragraph (4), by inserting ``or substance
use disorders'' after ``mental illness'';
(5) in subsection (h)--
(A) in the heading, by inserting ``and Offenders
With Substance Use Disorders'' after ``Mentally Ill
Offenders'';
(B) in paragraph (1)--
(i) in subparagraph (A), by inserting ``or
substance use disorders'' after ``mental
illnesses'';
(ii) in subparagraph (C), by inserting ``or
offenders with substance use disorders'' after
``mentally ill offenders'';
(iii) in subparagraph (D)--
(I) by inserting ``or substance
use'' after ``mental health''; and
(II) by inserting ``or offenders
with substance use disorders'' after
``mentally ill offenders'';
(iv) in subparagraph (E), by inserting ``or
substance use disorders'' after ``mental
illnesses''; and
(v) in subparagraph (F), by inserting ``,
substance use disorders,'' after ``mental
health disorders''; and
(C) in paragraph (2), by inserting ``or substance
use disorders'' after ``mental illnesses'';
(6) in subsection (i)(2)--
(A) in subparagraph (B)--
(i) by redesignating clauses (i), (ii), and
(iii) as subclauses (I), (II), and (III), and
adjusting the margins accordingly;
(ii) in the matter preceding subclause (I),
as so redesignated, by striking ``shall give
priority to applications that--'' and inserting
the following: ``shall give priority to--
``(i) applications that--''; and
(iii) by striking the period at the end and
inserting the following: ``; and
``(ii) applications to establish or expand
veterans treatment court programs that--
``(I) allow participation by a
veteran receiving any type of
medication-assisted treatment that
involves the use of any drug or
combination of drugs that have been
approved under the Federal Food, Drug,
and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 301 et
seq.) or section 351 of the Public
Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 262) for
the treatment of an opioid use
disorder;
``(II) follow the Adult Drug Court
Best Practice Standards published by
the National Association of Drug Court
Professionals; and
``(III) provide culturally
competent (as defined in section 102 of
the Developmental Disabilities
Assistance and Bill of Rights Act of
2000 (42 U.S.C. 15002)) services.'';
and
(B) by adding at the end the following:
``(C) Disclosure and reporting requirements.--
``(i) Requirements for veterans treatment
court program grantees.--An applicant that
receives a grant under this subsection to
establish or expand a veterans treatment court
program shall--
``(I) disclose to the Attorney
General any contract or relationship
between the applicant and a local
treatment provider;
``(II) track and report to the
Attorney General the number of
referrals to local treatment providers
provided by the program; and
``(III) track and report to the
Attorney General, with respect to each
participant in the program--
``(aa) each charge brought
against the participant;
``(bb) the demographics of
the participant; and
``(cc) the outcome of the
participant's case.
``(ii) Attorney general report.--The
Attorney General shall periodically submit to
Congress a report containing the information
reported to the Attorney General under clause
(i).
``(D) Sense of congress regarding veterans
treatment court programs.--It is the sense of Congress
that a veterans treatment court program that receives
funding from a grant under this subsection should not
exclude individuals who are chronically exposed to the
criminal justice system.'';
(7) in subsection (j)--
(A) in paragraph (1), by inserting ``or substance
use disorders'' after ``mental illness''; and
(B) in paragraph (2)(A), by inserting ``or
substance use disorders'' after ``mental illnesses'';
(8) in subsection (k)(3)(A)(i)(I)(aa), by inserting `` or
substance use disorders'' after ``mental illnesses'';
(9) in subsection (l)--
(A) in paragraph (1)(B)(ii), by inserting ``or
substance use disorder'' after ``mental illness'' each
place that term appears; and
(B) in paragraph (2)--
(i) in subparagraph (C)(iii), by inserting
``or substance use'' after ``mental health'';
and
(ii) in subparagraph (D), by striking
``mental health or'' and inserting ``mental
health disorders, substance use disorders,
or''; and
(10) in subsection (o)(3)--
(A) by striking ``Limitation'' and inserting
``Veterans'';
(B) by striking ``Not more than'' and inserting the
following:
``(A) Limitation.--Not more than'';
(C) in subparagraph (A), as so designated, by
striking ``this section'' and inserting ``paragraph
(1)''; and
(D) by adding at the end the following:
``(B) Additional funding.--In addition to the
amounts authorized under paragraph (1), there are
authorized to be appropriated to the Department of
Justice to carry out subsection (i) $20,000,000 for
each of fiscal years 2022 through 2026.''.
SEC. 405. INFRASTRUCTURE FOR REENTRY.
(a) Community Economic Development Grants.--Section 680(a)(2) of
the Community Services Block Grant Act (42 U.S.C. 9921(a)(2)) is
amended--
(1) in subparagraph (A)--
(A) by striking ``to private, nonprofit
organizations that are community development
corporations'' and inserting the following: ``to--
``(i) private, nonprofit community
development corporations'';
(B) by striking the period at the end and inserting
``; or''; and
(C) by adding at the end the following:
``(ii) community development corporations
described in clause (i), or partnerships
between such a corporation and another private,
nonprofit entity, to fund and oversee the
construction of facilities for treatment of
mental and substance use disorders, supportive
housing, or of re-entry centers, that are not
jails, prisons, or other correctional
facilities.'';
(2) in subparagraph (C)--
(A) by inserting ``or partnership'' after
``corporation'' each place it appears;
(B) by striking ``principal purpose planning'' and
inserting ``principal purpose--
``(i) planning'';
(C) by striking the period at the end and inserting
``; or''; and
``(ii) planning or constructing facilities
for crisis intervention, treatment of mental
and substance use disorders, supportive
housing, or of re-entry centers.''; and
(3) by adding at the end the following:
``(F) Definition.--In this paragraph, the term
`crisis intervention' means the provision of immediate,
short-term assistance to individuals who are
experiencing acute emotional, mental, physical, and
behavioral distress or problems using a `one-stop'
model.''.
(b) CDBG Assistance for Construction of Substance Abuse and Mental
Health Treatment Facilities, Supportive Housing, and Reentry Centers.--
Section 105(a) of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1974 (42
U.S.C. 5305(a)) is amended--
(1) in paragraph (25), by striking ``and'' at the end;
(2) in paragraph (26), by striking the period at the end
and inserting ``; and''; and
(3) by adding at the end the following:
``(27) the construction of crisis intervention centers,
substance abuse and mental health treatment facilities,
supportive housing, and reentry centers.''.
(c) Communities Facilities Loan and Grant Programs.--Section 306(a)
of the Consolidated Farm and Rural Development Act (7 U.S.C. 1926(a))
is amended--
(1) by inserting after paragraph (6) the following:
``(7) Prohibition on use of loans for certain purposes.--No
loan made or insured under this subsection shall be used to
support the construction, renovation, equipment purchasing,
operation, staffing, or any other function of a jail, prison,
detention center, or other correctional facility.''; and
(2) in paragraph (19), by adding at the end the following:
``(C) Prohibition on use of grants for certain
purposes.--No grant made under this paragraph shall be
used to support the construction, renovation, equipment
purchasing, operation, staffing, or any other function
of a jail, prison, detention center, or other
correctional facility.
``(D) Inclusion of certain infrastructure for
reentry.--In this paragraph, the terms `essential
community facility' and `facility' include a crisis
intervention center, substance abuse or mental health
treatment facility, a supportive housing facility, and
a reentry center.''.
<all> | CARA 3.0 Act of 2021 | To provide support with respect to the prevention of, treatment for, and recovery from, substance use disorder. | CARA 3.0 Act of 2021 | Rep. Trone, David J. | D | MD |
39 | 6,139 | H.R.6578 | International Affairs | Taiwan Representative Office Act
This bill requires the Department of State to seek to enter into negotiations with the Taipei Economic and Cultural Representative Office (TECRO) to rename its office in Washington, DC, the Taiwan Representative Office. (The U.S.-Taiwan relationship is unofficial, and TECRO is Taiwan's principal representative office in the United States.) | To direct the Secretary of State to seek to enter into negotiations
with the Taipei Economic and Cultural Representative Office to rename
its office the ``Taiwan Representative Office'', and for other
purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Taiwan Representative Office Act''.
SEC. 2. DESIGNATION OF AND REFERENCES TO TAIWAN REPRESENTATIVE OFFICE.
(a) Statement of Policy.--It shall be the policy of the United
States, consistent with the Taiwan Relations Act (22 U.S.C. 3301 et
seq.) and the Six Assurances, to provide the people of Taiwan with de
facto diplomatic treatment equivalent to foreign countries, nations,
states, governments, or similar entities, and, consistent with this
policy, to rename the ``Taipei Economic and Cultural Representative
Office'' in the United States as the ``Taiwan Representative Office''.
(b) Renaming.--The Secretary of State shall seek to enter into
negotiations with the Taipei Economic and Cultural Representative
Office to rename its office in Washington, DC, the ``Taiwan
Representative Office''.
(c) References.--If the Taipei Economic and Cultural Representative
Office is designated as the Taiwan Representative Office, any reference
in a law, map, regulation, document, paper, or other record of the
United States Government to the Taipei Economic and Cultural
Representative Office shall be deemed to be a reference to the Taiwan
Representative Office, including for all official purposes of the
Government of the United States, all courts of the United States, and
any proceedings therein.
(d) Rule of Construction.--Nothing in this section shall be
construed as entailing restoration of diplomatic relations with the
Republic of China (Taiwan) or altering the position of the United
States with respect to the international status of Taiwan.
<all> | Taiwan Representative Office Act | To direct the Secretary of State to seek to enter into negotiations with the Taipei Economic and Cultural Representative Office to rename its office the "Taiwan Representative Office", and for other purposes. | Taiwan Representative Office Act | Rep. Curtis, John R. | R | UT |
40 | 3,051 | S.3924 | International Affairs | Global Magnitsky Human Rights Accountability Extension Act
This bill extends through December 31, 2034, the authority of the President to impose sanctions on foreign persons involved in certain gross violations of internationally recognized human rights and significant acts of corruption. | To amend the Global Magnitsky Human Rights Accountability Act to extend
the sunset for sanctions with respect to human rights violations.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Global Magnitsky Human Rights
Accountability Extension Act''.
SEC. 2. REAUTHORIZATION OF SANCTIONS WITH RESPECT TO HUMAN RIGHTS
VIOLATIONS.
Section 1265 of the Global Magnitsky Human Rights Accountability
Act (Subtitle F of title XII of Public Law 114-328; 22 U.S.C. 2656
note) is amended by striking ``the date that is 6 years after the date
of the enactment of this Act'' and inserting ``December 31, 2034''.
<all> | Global Magnitsky Human Rights Accountability Extension Act | A bill to amend the Global Magnitsky Human Rights Accountability Act to extend the sunset for sanctions with respect to human rights violations. | Global Magnitsky Human Rights Accountability Extension Act | Sen. Rubio, Marco | R | FL |
41 | 7,463 | H.R.2367 | Health | Studying Outcomes and Benchmarks for Effective Recovery Homes Act or the SOBER Homes Act
This bill requires the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration to contract with the National Academies of Sciences, Engineering, and Medicine (NASEM) to study and make recommendations on recovery housing. Recovery housing refers to shared living environments free from alcohol and illicit drug use and centered on peer support and connection to services that promote sustained recovery from substance use disorders.
As part of the study, NASEM must identify relevant research and data gaps that hinder reporting on the quality and effectiveness of recovery housing. After publication of the study, the Department of Health and Human Services must contract with an appropriate entity to conduct research to fill those gaps. | To direct the Secretary of Health and Human Services to enter an
agreement with the National Academies of Sciences, Engineering, and
Medicine to conduct a study on the quality and effectiveness of covered
recovery housing in the United States, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Studying Outcomes and Benchmarks for
Effective Recovery Homes Act'' or the ``SOBER Homes Act''.
SEC. 2. NAS STUDY AND REPORT.
(a) In General.--Not later than 60 days after the date of enactment
of this Act, the Secretary of Health and Human Services, acting through
the Assistant Secretary for Mental Health and Substance Use, shall
enter into an arrangement with the National Academies of Sciences,
Engineering, and Medicine to conduct a study, which may include a
literature review and case studies as appropriate, on--
(1) the quality and effectiveness of recovery housing in
the United States, including the availability in the United
States of high-quality recovery housing and whether that
availability meets the demand for such housing in the United
States; and
(2) State, Tribal, and local regulation and oversight of
recovery housing.
(b) Topics.--The study under subsection (a) shall include a
literature review of studies that--
(1) examine the quality of, and effectiveness outcomes for,
the types and characteristics of covered recovery housing
programs listed in subsection (c); and
(2) identify the research and data gaps that must be filled
to better report on the quality of, and effectiveness outcomes
related to, covered recovery housing.
(c) Type and Characteristics.--The types and characteristics of
covered recovery housing programs referred to in subsection (b) consist
of the following:
(1) Nonprofit and for-profit covered recovery housing.
(2) Private and public covered recovery housing.
(3) Covered recovery housing programs that provide services
to--
(A) residents on a voluntary basis; and
(B) residents pursuant to a judicial order.
(4) Number of clients served, disaggregated to the extent
possible by covered recovery housing serving--
(A) 6 or fewer recovering residents;
(B) 10 to 13 recovering residents; and
(C) 18 or more recovering residents.
(5) Bedroom occupancy in a house, disaggregated to the
extent possible by--
(A) single room occupancy;
(B) 2 residents occupying 1 room; and
(C) more than 2 residents occupying 1 room.
(6) Duration of services received by clients, disaggregated
to the extent possible according to whether the services were--
(A) 30 days or fewer;
(B) 31 to 90 days;
(C) more than 90 days and fewer than 6 months; or
(D) 6 months or more.
(7) Certification levels of staff.
(8) Fraudulent and abusive practices by operators of
covered recovery housing and inpatient and outpatient treatment
facilities, both individually and in concert, including--
(A) deceptive or misleading marketing practices,
including--
(i) inaccurate outcomes-based marketing;
and
(ii) marketing based on non-evidence based
practices;
(B) illegal patient brokering;
(C) third-party recruiters;
(D) deceptive or misleading marketing practices of
treatment facility and recovery housing online
aggregators; and
(E) the impact of such practices on health care
costs and recovery rates.
(d) Report.--The arrangement under subsection (a) shall require, by
not later than 12 months after the date of entering into the
agreement--
(1) completing the study under such subsection; and
(2) making publicly available (including through
publication on the internet) a report that contains--
(A) the results of the study;
(B) the National Academy's recommendations for
Federal, State, and local policies to promote the
availability of high-quality recovery housing in the
United States;
(C) research and data gaps;
(D) recommendations for recovery housing quality
and effectiveness metrics;
(E) recommended mechanisms to collect data on those
metrics, including with respect to research and data
gaps; and
(F) a summary of allegations, assertions, or formal
legal actions on the State and local levels by
governments and nongovernmental organizations with
respect to the opening and operation of recovery
housing.
(e) Definitions.--In this subsection:
(1) The term ``covered recovery housing'' means recovery
housing that utilizes compensated or volunteer onsite staff who
are not health care professionals to support residents.
(2) The term ``effectiveness outcomes'' may include
decreased substance use, reduced probability of relapse or
reoccurrence, lower rates of incarceration, higher income,
increased employment, and improved family functioning.
(3) The term ``health care professional'' means an
individual who is licensed or otherwise authorized by the State
to provide health care services.
(4) The term ``recovery housing'' means a shared living
environment that is or purports to be--
(A) free from alcohol and use of nonprescribed
drugs; and
(B) centered on connection to services that promote
sustained recovery from substance use disorders.
(f) Authorization of Appropriations.--To carry out this section,
there is authorized to be appropriated $1,500,000 for fiscal year 2022.
SEC. 3. FILLING RESEARCH AND DATA GAPS.
Not later than 60 days after the completion of the study under
section 5, the Secretary of Health and Human Services shall enter into
an agreement with an appropriate entity to conduct such research as may
be necessary to fill the research and data gaps identified in reporting
pursuant to such section.
<all> | SOBER Homes Act | To direct the Secretary of Health and Human Services to enter an agreement with the National Academies of Sciences, Engineering, and Medicine to conduct a study on the quality and effectiveness of covered recovery housing in the United States, and for other purposes. | SOBER Homes Act
Studying Outcomes and Benchmarks for Effective Recovery Homes Act | Rep. Levin, Mike | D | CA |
42 | 12,640 | H.R.8373 | Health | Right to Contraception Act
This bill sets out statutory protections for an individual's right to access and a health care provider's right to provide contraception and related information. Contraception refers to an action taken to prevent pregnancy, including the use of contraceptives (i.e., a device or medication used to prevent pregnancy), fertility-awareness based methods, and sterilization procedures.
Generally, the bill prohibits measures that single out and impede access to contraception and related information. However, a party may defend against a claim that a measure violates the bill's prohibitions by demonstrating, through clear and convincing evidence, that the measure significantly advances access to contraception and cannot be achieved through less restrictive means.
The Department of Justice, individuals, or health care providers may bring a lawsuit to enforce this bill, and states are not immune from suits for violations. | To protect a person's ability to access contraceptives and to engage in
contraception, and to protect a health care provider's ability to
provide contraceptives, contraception, and information related to
contraception.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Right to Contraception Act''.
SEC. 2. DEFINITIONS.
In this Act:
(1) Contraception.--The term ``contraception'' means an
action taken to prevent pregnancy, including the use of
contraceptives or fertility-awareness based methods, and
sterilization procedures.
(2) Contraceptive.--The term ``contraceptive'' means any
drug, device, or biological product intended for use in the
prevention of pregnancy, whether specifically intended to
prevent pregnancy or for other health needs, that is legally
marketed under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, such
as oral contraceptives, long-acting reversible contraceptives,
emergency contraceptives, internal and external condoms,
injectables, vaginal barrier methods, transdermal patches, and
vaginal rings, or other contraceptives.
(3) Government.--The term ``government'' includes each
branch, department, agency, instrumentality, and official of
the United States or a State.
(4) Health care provider.--The term ``health care
provider'' means, with respect to a State, any entity or
individual (including any physician, certified nurse-midwife,
nurse, nurse practitioner, physician assistant, and pharmacist)
that is licensed or otherwise authorized by the State to
provide health care services.
(5) State.--The term ``State'' includes each of the 50
States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto
Rico, and each territory and possession of the United States,
and any subdivision of any of the foregoing, including any unit
of local government, such as a county, city, town, village, or
other general purpose political subdivision of a State.
SEC. 3. FINDINGS.
Congress finds the following:
(1) The right to contraception is a fundamental right,
central to a person's privacy, health, wellbeing, dignity,
liberty, equality, and ability to participate in the social and
economic life of the Nation.
(2) The Supreme Court has repeatedly recognized the
constitutional right to contraception.
(3) In Griswold v. Connecticut (381 U.S. 479 (1965)), the
Supreme Court first recognized the constitutional right for
married people to use contraceptives.
(4) In Eisenstadt v. Baird (405 U.S. 438 (1972)), the
Supreme Court confirmed the constitutional right of all people
to legally access contraceptives regardless of marital status.
(5) In Carey v. Population Services International (431 U.S.
678 (1977)), the Supreme Court affirmed the constitutional
right to contraceptives for minors.
(6) The right to contraception has been repeatedly
recognized internationally as a human right. The United Nations
Population Fund has published several reports outlining family
planning as a basic human right that advances women's health,
economic empowerment, and equality.
(7) Access to contraceptives is internationally recognized
by the World Health Organization as advancing other human
rights such as the right to life, liberty, expression, health,
work, and education.
(8) Contraception is safe, essential health care, and
access to contraceptive products and services is central to
people's ability to participate equally in economic and social
life in the United States and globally. Contraception allows
people to make decisions about their families and their lives.
(9) Contraception is key to sexual and reproductive health.
Contraception is critical to preventing unintended pregnancy
and many contraceptives are highly effective in preventing and
treating a wide array of often severe medical conditions and
decrease the risk of certain cancers.
(10) Family planning improves health outcomes for women,
their families, and their communities and reduces rates of
maternal and infant mortality and morbidity.
(11) The United States has a long history of reproductive
coercion, including the childbearing forced upon enslaved
women, as well as the forced sterilization of Black women,
Puerto Rican women, indigenous women, immigrant women, and
disabled women, and reproductive coercion continues to occur.
(12) The right to make personal decisions about
contraceptive use is important for all Americans, and is
especially critical for historically marginalized groups,
including Black, indigenous, and other people of color;
immigrants; LGBTQ people; people with disabilities; people with
low incomes; and people living in rural and underserved areas.
Many people who are part of these marginalized groups already
face barriers--exacerbated by social, political, economic, and
environmental inequities--to comprehensive health care,
including reproductive health care, that reduce their ability
to make decisions about their health, families, and lives.
(13) State and Federal policies governing pharmaceutical
and insurance policies affect the accessibility of
contraceptives, and the settings in which contraception
services are delivered.
(14) People engage in interstate commerce to access
contraception services.
(15) To provide contraception services, health care
providers employ and obtain commercial services from doctors,
nurses, and other personnel who engage in interstate commerce
and travel across State lines.
(16) Congress has the authority to enact this Act to
protect access to contraception pursuant to--
(A) its powers under the Commerce Clause of section
8 of article I of the Constitution of the United
States;
(B) its powers under section 5 of the Fourteenth
Amendment to the Constitution of the United States to
enforce the provisions of section 1 of the Fourteenth
Amendment; and
(C) its powers under the necessary and proper
clause of section 8 of article I of the Constitution of
the United States.
(17) Congress has used its authority in the past to protect
and expand access to contraception information, products, and
services.
(18) In 1970, Congress established the family planning
program under title X of the Public Health Service Act (42
U.S.C. 300 et seq.), the only Federal grant program dedicated
to family planning and related services, providing access to
information, products, and services for contraception.
(19) In 1972, Congress required the Medicaid program to
cover family planning services and supplies, and the Medicaid
program currently accounts for 75 percent of Federal funds
spent on family planning.
(20) In 2010, Congress enacted the Patient Protection and
Affordable Care Act (Public Law 111-148) (referred to in this
section as the ``ACA''). Among other provisions, the ACA
included provisions to expand the affordability and
accessibility of contraception by requiring health insurance
plans to provide coverage for preventive services with no
patient cost-sharing.
(21) Despite the clearly established constitutional right
to contraception, access to contraceptives, including emergency
contraceptives and long-acting reversible contraceptives, has
been obstructed across the United States in various ways by
Federal and State governments.
(22) As of 2022, at least 4 States tried to ban access to
some or all contraceptives by restricting access to public
funding for these products and services. Furthermore, Arkansas,
Mississippi, Missouri, and Texas have infringed on people's
ability to access their contraceptive care by violating the
free choice of provider requirement under the Medicaid program.
(23) Providers' refusals to offer contraceptives and
information related to contraception based on their own
personal beliefs impede patients from obtaining their preferred
method, with laws in 12 States as of the date of introduction
of this Act specifically allowing health care providers to
refuse to provide services related to contraception.
(24) States have attempted to define abortion expansively
so as to include contraceptives in State bans on abortion and
have also restricted access to emergency contraception.
(25) In June 2022, Justice Thomas, in his concurring
opinion in Dobbs v. Jackson Women's Health Organization (597
U.S. __ (2022)), stated that the Supreme Court ``should
reconsider all of this Court's substantive due process
precedents, including Griswold, Lawrence, and Obergefell'' and
that the Court has ``a duty to correct the error established in
those precedents'' by overruling them.
(26) In order to further public health and to combat
efforts to restrict access to reproductive health care,
congressional action is necessary to protect access to
contraceptives, contraception, and information related to
contraception for everyone, regardless of actual or perceived
race, ethnicity, sex (including gender identity and sexual
orientation), income, disability, national origin, immigration
status, or geography.
SEC. 4. PERMITTED SERVICES.
(a) General Rule.--A person has a statutory right under this Act to
obtain contraceptives and to engage in contraception, and a health care
provider has a corresponding right to provide contraceptives,
contraception, and information related to contraception.
(b) Limitations or Requirements.--The statutory rights specified in
subsection (a) shall not be limited or otherwise infringed through any
limitation or requirement that--
(1) expressly, effectively, implicitly, or as implemented
singles out the provision of contraceptives, contraception, or
contraception-related information; health care providers who
provide contraceptives, contraception, or contraception-related
information; or facilities in which contraceptives,
contraception, or contraception-related information is
provided; and
(2) impedes access to contraceptives, contraception, or
contraception-related information.
(c) Exception.--To defend against a claim that a limitation or
requirement violates a health care provider's or patient's statutory
rights under subsection (b), a party must establish, by clear and
convincing evidence, that--
(1) the limitation or requirement significantly advances
access to contraceptives, contraception, and information
related to contraception; and
(2) access to contraceptives, contraception, and
information related to contraception or the health of patients
cannot be advanced by a less restrictive alternative measure or
action.
SEC. 5. APPLICABILITY AND PREEMPTION.
(a) In General.--
(1) General application.--Except as stated under subsection
(b), this Act supersedes and applies to the law of the Federal
Government and each State government, and the implementation of
such law, whether statutory, common law, or otherwise, and
whether adopted before or after the date of enactment of this
Act, and neither the Federal Government nor any State
government shall administer, implement, or enforce any law,
rule, regulation, standard, or other provision having the force
and effect of law that conflicts with any provision of this
Act, notwithstanding any other provision of Federal law,
including the Religious Freedom Restoration Act of 1993 (42
U.S.C. 2000bb et seq.).
(2) Subsequently enacted federal legislation.--Federal
statutory law adopted after the date of the enactment of this
Act is subject to this Act unless such law explicitly excludes
such application by reference to this Act.
(b) Limitations.--The provisions of this Act shall not supersede or
otherwise affect any provision of Federal law relating to coverage
under (and shall not be construed as requiring the provision of
specific benefits under) group health plans or group or individual
health insurance coverage or coverage under a Federal health care
program (as defined in section 1128B(f) of the Social Security Act (42
U.S.C. 1320a-7b(f))), including coverage provided under section
1905(a)(4)(C) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1396d(a)(4)(C)) and
section 2713 of Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 300gg-13).
(c) Defense.--In any cause of action against an individual or
entity who is subject to a limitation or requirement that violates this
Act, in addition to the remedies specified in section 7, this Act shall
also apply to, and may be raised as a defense by, such an individual or
entity.
(d) Effective Date.--This Act shall take effect immediately upon
the date of enactment of this Act.
SEC. 6. RULES OF CONSTRUCTION.
(a) In General.--In interpreting the provisions of this Act, a
court shall liberally construe such provisions to effectuate the
purposes of the Act.
(b) Rules of Construction.--Nothing in this Act shall be
construed--
(1) to authorize any government to interfere with a health
care provider's ability to provide contraceptives or
information related to contraception or a patient's ability to
obtain contraceptives or to engage in contraception; or
(2) to permit or sanction the conduct of any sterilization
procedure without the patient's voluntary and informed consent.
(c) Other Individuals Considered as Government Officials.--Any
person who, by operation of a provision of Federal or State law, is
permitted to implement or enforce a limitation or requirement that
violates section 4 shall be considered a government official for
purposes of this Act.
SEC. 7. ENFORCEMENT.
(a) Attorney General.--The Attorney General may commence a civil
action on behalf of the United States against any State that violates,
or against any government official (including a person described in
section 6(c)) that implements or enforces a limitation or requirement
that violates, section 4. The court shall hold unlawful and set aside
the limitation or requirement if it is in violation of this Act.
(b) Private Right of Action.--
(1) In general.--Any individual or entity, including any
health care provider or patient, adversely affected by an
alleged violation of this Act, may commence a civil action
against any State that violates, or against any government
official (including a person described in section 6(c)) that
implements or enforces a limitation or requirement that
violates, section 4. The court shall hold unlawful and set
aside the limitation or requirement if it is in violation of
this Act.
(2) Health care provider.--A health care provider may
commence an action for relief on its own behalf, on behalf of
the provider's staff, and on behalf of the provider's patients
who are or may be adversely affected by an alleged violation of
this Act.
(c) Equitable Relief.--In any action under this section, the court
may award appropriate equitable relief, including temporary,
preliminary, or permanent injunctive relief.
(d) Costs.--In any action under this section, the court shall award
costs of litigation, as well as reasonable attorney's fees, to any
prevailing plaintiff. A plaintiff shall not be liable to a defendant
for costs or attorney's fees in any non-frivolous action under this
section.
(e) Jurisdiction.--The district courts of the United States shall
have jurisdiction over proceedings under this Act and shall exercise
the same without regard to whether the party aggrieved shall have
exhausted any administrative or other remedies that may be provided for
by law.
(f) Abrogation of State Immunity.--Neither a State that enforces or
maintains, nor a government official (including a person described in
section 6(c)) who is permitted to implement or enforce any limitation
or requirement that violates section 4 shall be immune under the Tenth
Amendment to the Constitution of the United States, the Eleventh
Amendment to the Constitution of the United States, or any other source
of law, from an action in a Federal or State court of competent
jurisdiction challenging that limitation or requirement.
SEC. 8. SEVERABILITY.
If any provision of this Act, or the application of such provision
to any person, entity, government, or circumstance, is held to be
unconstitutional, the remainder of this Act, or the application of such
provision to all other persons, entities, governments, or
circumstances, shall not be affected thereby.
Passed the House of Representatives July 21, 2022.
Attest:
Clerk.
117th CONGRESS
2d Session
H. R. 8373
_______________________________________________________________________ | Right to Contraception Act | To protect a person's ability to access contraceptives and to engage in contraception, and to protect a health care provider's ability to provide contraceptives, contraception, and information related to contraception.
To protect a person’s ability to access contraceptives and to engage in contraception, and to protect a health care provider’s ability to provide contraceptives, contraception, and information related to contraception. | Right to Contraception Act
Right to Contraception Act | Rep. Manning, Kathy E. | D | NC |
43 | 7,499 | H.R.342 | Armed Forces and National Security | PFC Garfield M. Langhorn Memorial Semipostal Stamp to Benefit our Veterans Act of 2021
This bill directs the U.S. Postal Service to issue a PFC Garfield M. Langhorn Memorial Semipostal Stamp to Benefit our Veterans, with all proceeds benefitting the Supportive Services for Veteran Families program. | To provide for the issuance of a PFC Garfield M. Langhorn Memorial
Semipostal Stamp to Benefit our Veterans, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE; FINDINGS.
(a) Short Title.--This Act may be cited as the ``PFC Garfield M.
Langhorn Memorial Semipostal Stamp to Benefit our Veterans Act of
2021''.
(b) Findings.--The Congress finds the following:
(1) PFC Garfield M. Langhorn was deployed to Vietnam as a
private first class and radio operator with Troop C, 7th
Squadron (Airmobile), 17th Cavalry Regiment, 1st Aviation
Brigade.
(2) On January 15, 1969, PFC Langhorn and his unit
responded to a downed American helicopter near Plei Djereng in
Pleiku Province, South Vietnam. After PFC Langhorn and his unit
responded to the downed helicopter, they were attacked by
entrenched North Vietnamese forces.
(3) During the battle, PFC Langhorn threw himself on an
active enemy hand grenade that had been thrown near several
wounded soldiers. PFC Langhorn was killed during the explosion
but saved the lives of the rest of his platoon.
(4) On April 7, 1970, the President of the United States of
America, in the name of Congress, awarded PFC Garfield Langhorn
the Congressional Medal of Honor posthumously to commemorate
his conspicuous gallantry and intrepidity in action at the risk
of his life above and beyond the call of duty.
SEC. 2. PFC GARFIELD M. LANGHORN MEMORIAL SEMIPOSTAL STAMP TO BENEFIT
OUR VETERANS.
(a) In General.--In order to afford a convenient way for members of
the public to contribute to funding for the Supportive Services for
Veteran Families program of the Department of Veterans Affairs under
section 2044 of title 38, United States Code, the United States Postal
Service shall issue a semipostal stamp (referred to in this Act as the
``PFC Garfield M. Langhorn Memorial Semipostal Stamp to Benefit our
Veterans'') in accordance with the provisions of this section.
(b) Cost.--The PFC Garfield M. Langhorn Memorial Semipostal Stamp
to Benefit our Veterans shall be offered at a cost equal to the cost of
mailing a letter weighing 1 ounce or less at the nonautomation single-
piece first-ounce letter rate, in effect at the time of purchase, plus
a differential of not less than 25 percent.
(c) Other Terms and Conditions.--The issuance and sale of the PFC
Garfield M. Langhorn Memorial Semipostal Stamp to Benefit our Veterans
shall be governed by the provisions of section 416 of title 39, United
States Code, and regulations issued under such section, subject to
subsection (b) and the following:
(1) Disposition of proceeds.--
(A) In general.--All amounts becoming available
from the sale of the PFC Garfield M. Langhorn Memorial
Semipostal Stamp to Benefit our Veterans shall be
transferred to the Department of Veterans Affairs for
the purpose of funding the operations of the program
described in subsection (a), through payments which
shall be made at least twice a year.
(B) Proceeds not to be offset.--In accordance with
section 416(d)(4) of such title 39, amounts becoming
available from the sale of the PFC Garfield M. Langhorn
Memorial Semipostal Stamp to Benefit our Veterans (as
so determined) shall not be taken into account in any
decision relating to the level of appropriations or
other Federal funding to be furnished in any year to
the program described in subsection (a) or to the
Department of Veterans Affairs.
(2) Duration.--The PFC Garfield M. Langhorn Semipostal
Stamp to Benefit our Veterans shall be made available to the
public for a period of at least 5 years, beginning no later
than 12 months after the date of the enactment of this Act.
(3) Stamp depictions.--Stamps issued under this Act shall
depict PFC Garfield M. Langhorn.
(4) Limitation.--The PFC Garfield M. Langhorn Semipostal
Stamp to Benefit our Veterans shall not be subject to, or taken
into account for purposes of applying, any limitation under
section 416(e)(1)(C) of such title 39.
(d) Definition.--For purposes of this Act, the term ``semipostal
stamp'' refers to a stamp described in section 416(a)(1) of title 39,
United States Code.
<all> | PFC Garfield M. Langhorn Memorial Semipostal Stamp to Benefit our Veterans Act of 2021 | To provide for the issuance of a PFC Garfield M. Langhorn Memorial Semipostal Stamp to Benefit our Veterans, and for other purposes. | PFC Garfield M. Langhorn Memorial Semipostal Stamp to Benefit our Veterans Act of 2021 | Rep. Zeldin, Lee M. | R | NY |
44 | 12,391 | H.R.6681 | Finance and Financial Sector | 100th anniversary of the Lincoln Memorial Commemorative Coin Act
This bill directs the Department of the Treasury to mint and issue not more than 500,000 $1 coins in commemoration of the 100th anniversary of the Lincoln Memorial. All sales of coins issued under this bill shall include a surcharge which shall be paid to the Trust of the National Mall for the purpose of restoring and preserving the Lincoln Memorial. | To require the Secretary of the Treasury to mint commemorative coins in
recognition of the 100th anniversary of the Lincoln Memorial.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``100th anniversary of the Lincoln
Memorial Commemorative Coin Act''.
SEC. 2. FINDINGS.
The Congress finds the following:
(1) The year 2022 marks the 100th anniversary of the
Lincoln Memorial on the National Mall, dedicated on May 30,
1922.
(2) The iconic Lincoln Memorial is a U.S. national memorial
built in the style of a neoclassical temple in honor of the
16th President of the United States. Designed by Henry Bacon
and sited on the western end of the National Mall across from
the Washington Monument, the memorial contains a grand seated
sculpture of Abraham Lincoln and includes inscriptions of
passages from the Gettysburg Address and Lincoln's second
inaugural address.
(3) The most visited monument on the National Mall, the
Lincoln Memorial provides visitors with a grand view of the
Mall and meaningful and inspiring way to experience President
Lincoln and his legacy. It has been the site of many important
historical events, including Martin Luther King Jr.'s ``I Have
a Dream'' speech, delivered on August 28, 1963, during the
March on Washington for Jobs and Freedom.
(4) Congress has invested significant funding to repair and
restore the Lincoln Memorial over the years. The purpose of
this Act is to build a long-term maintenance fund for future
repairs and maintenance to augment the National Park Service
budget and further protect and build upon Congress's initial
investment in the memorial.
(5) Since 2007, the Trust for the National Mall has been
the leading nonprofit nonpartisan philanthropic partner of the
National Mall and Memorial Parks division of the National Park
Service dedicated to bringing private and public resources and
public awareness to support the preservation, restoration, and
enrichment of the National Mall. The Trust will provide
management of the maintenance fund in collaboration with the
National Park Service.
(6) The Trust for the National Mall wants to honor the
contributions of Abraham Lincoln to our great Nation. The Trust
will promote and encourage support for this commemorative coin
as a way to increase public awareness and appreciation for
Lincoln's legacy and to inspire Americans to share in this
important effort to preserve the memorial for generations to
come.
SEC. 3. COIN SPECIFICATIONS.
(a) $1 Silver Coins.--The Secretary of the Treasury (hereafter in
this Act referred to as the ``Secretary'') shall mint and issue not
more than 500,000 $1 coins in commemoration of the 100th anniversary of
the Lincoln Memorial, each of which shall--
(1) weigh 26.73 grams;
(2) have a diameter of 1.500 inches; and
(3) contain at least 90 percent silver.
(b) Legal Tender.--The coins minted under this Act shall be legal
tender, as provided in section 5103 of title 31, United States Code.
(c) Numismatic Items.--For purposes of sections 5134 and 5136 of
title 31, United States Code, all coins minted under this Act shall be
considered to be numismatic items.
SEC. 4. DESIGN OF COINS.
(a) Design Requirements.--
(1) In general.--The design of the coins minted under this
Act shall be emblematic of the 100th anniversary of the Lincoln
Memorial.
(2) Designation and inscriptions.--On each coin minted
under this Act, there shall be--
(A) a designation of the value of the coin;
(B) an inscription of the year ``2023''; and
(C) inscriptions of the words ``Liberty'', ``In God
We Trust'', ``United States of America'', and ``E
Pluribus Unum''.
(b) Selection.--The design for the coins minted under this Act
shall be--
(1) selected by the Secretary, after consultation with the
Trust of the National Mall; and
(2) reviewed by the Citizens Coinage Advisory Committee.
SEC. 5. ISSUANCE OF COINS.
(a) Quality of Coins.--Coins minted under this Act shall be issued
in uncirculated and proof qualities.
(b) Period for Issuance.--The Secretary may issue coins under this
Act only during the calendar year beginning on January 1, 2023.
SEC. 6. SALE OF COINS.
(a) Sale Price.--The coins under this Act shall be sold by the
Secretary at a price equal to the sum of--
(1) the face value of the coins;
(2) the surcharge provided in section 7(a) with respect to
such coins; and
(3) the cost of designing and issuing the coins (including
labor, materials, dies, use of machinery, overhead expenses,
marketing, and shipping).
(b) Prepaid Orders.--
(1) In general.--The Secretary shall accept prepaid orders
for the coins minted under this Act before the issuance of such
coins.
(2) Discount.--Sale prices with respect to prepaid orders
under paragraph (1) shall be at a reasonable discount.
SEC. 7. SURCHARGES.
(a) In General.--All sales of coins issued under this Act shall
include a surcharge of $10 per coin.
(b) Distribution.--Subject to section 5134(f) of title 31, United
States Code, all surcharges received by the Secretary from the sale of
coins issued under this Act shall be paid to the Trust of the National
Mall and for the purpose of restoring and preserving the Lincoln
Memorial.
(c) Audits.--The Lincoln Memorial shall be subject to the audit
requirements of section 5134(f)(2) of title 31, United States Code,
with regard to the amounts received under subsection (b).
(d) Limitation.--Notwithstanding subsection (a), no surcharge may
be included with respect to the issuance under this Act of any coin
during a calendar year if, as of the time of such issuance, the
issuance of such coin would result in the number of commemorative coin
programs issued during such year to exceed the annual 2 commemorative
coin program issuance limitation under section 5112(m)(1) of title 31,
United States Code. The Secretary of the Treasury may issue guidance to
carry out this subsection.
<all> | 100th anniversary of the Lincoln Memorial Commemorative Coin Act | To require the Secretary of the Treasury to mint commemorative coins in recognition of the 100th anniversary of the Lincoln Memorial. | 100th anniversary of the Lincoln Memorial Commemorative Coin Act | Rep. LaHood, Darin | R | IL |
45 | 2,653 | S.46 | Public Lands and Natural Resources | Restoring Resilient Reefs Act of 2021
This bill addresses the conservation and sustainability of coral reef ecosystems.
Among other things, the bill | To reauthorize the Coral Reef Conservation Act of 2000 and to establish
the United States Coral Reef Task Force, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
<DELETED>SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE; TABLE OF CONTENTS.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (a) Short Title.--This Act may be cited as the ``Restoring
Resilient Reefs Act of 2021''.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (b) Table of Contents.--The table of contents for this Act
is as follows:</DELETED>
<DELETED>Sec. 1. Short title; table of contents.
<DELETED>TITLE I--REAUTHORIZATION OF CORAL REEF CONSERVATION ACT OF
2000
<DELETED>Sec. 101. Reauthorization of Coral Reef Conservation Act of
2000.
<DELETED>Sec. 102. Modification to section 204 of the Coral Reef
Conservation Act of 2000 (16 U.S.C. 6403).
<DELETED>TITLE II--UNITED STATES CORAL REEF TASK FORCE
<DELETED>Sec. 201. Establishment.
<DELETED>Sec. 202. Duties.
<DELETED>Sec. 203. Membership.
<DELETED>Sec. 204. Responsibilities of Federal agency members.
<DELETED>Sec. 205. Working groups.
<DELETED>Sec. 206. Definitions.
<DELETED>TITLE III--DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR CORAL REEF AUTHORITIES
<DELETED>Sec. 301. Coral reef conservation and restoration assistance.
<DELETED>TITLE IV--SUSAN L. WILLIAMS NATIONAL CORAL REEF MANAGEMENT
FELLOWSHIP
<DELETED>Sec. 401. Short title.
<DELETED>Sec. 402. Definitions.
<DELETED>Sec. 403. Establishment of fellowship program.
<DELETED>Sec. 404. Fellowship awards.
<DELETED>Sec. 405. Matching requirement.
<DELETED>TITLE I--REAUTHORIZATION OF CORAL REEF CONSERVATION ACT OF
2000</DELETED>
<DELETED>SEC. 101. REAUTHORIZATION OF CORAL REEF CONSERVATION ACT OF
2000.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (a) Purposes; Federal Coral Reef Management and
Restoration Activities.--The Coral Reef Conservation Act of 2000 (16
U.S.C. 6401 et seq.) is amended by striking sections 202 and 203 and
inserting the following:</DELETED>
<DELETED>``SEC. 202. PURPOSES.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``The purposes of this title are--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) to preserve, sustain, and restore the
condition of United States coral reef ecosystems challenged by
natural and human-accelerated changes, including increasing
ocean temperatures, ocean acidification, coral bleaching, coral
diseases, water quality degradation, invasive species, and
illegal, unreported, and unregulated fishing;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) to promote the science-based management and
sustainable use of coral reef ecosystems to benefit local
communities and the Nation, including through improved
integration and cooperation among Federal, State, and locally
managed jurisdictions with coral reef equities;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(3) to develop sound scientific information on
the condition of coral reef ecosystems, continuing and emerging
threats to such ecosystems, and the efficacy of innovative
tools, technologies, and strategies to mitigate stressors and
restore such ecosystems, including evaluation criteria to
determine the effectiveness of management interventions, and
accurate mapping for coral reef restoration;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(4) to assist in the preservation of coral reefs
by supporting science-based, consensus-driven State, Tribal,
and community-based coral reef management, including
conservation and restoration projects that empower local
communities, small businesses, and nongovernmental
organizations;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(5) to provide financial resources, technical
assistance, and scientific expertise to supplement and
strengthen State and community-based management programs and
conservation and restoration projects;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(6) to establish a formal mechanism for
collecting and allocating monetary donations from the private
sector to be used for coral reef conservation and restoration
projects;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(7) to support the rapid and effective, science-
based assessment and response to emergencies that imminently
threaten coral reefs, such as coral disease outbreaks, invasive
species, hurricanes, marine heat waves, coral bleaching, and
other natural disasters, vessel groundings or chemical spills,
and other exigent circumstances; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(8) to serve as a model for advancing similar
international efforts to preserve, sustain, and restore coral
reef ecosystems in the jurisdictions of United States allies
and trading partners.</DELETED>
<DELETED>``SEC. 203. FEDERAL CORAL REEF MANAGEMENT AND RESTORATION
ACTIVITIES.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(a) In General.--The Administrator or the Secretary of
the Interior may conduct activities described in subsection (b) to
conserve and restore coral reefs and coral reef ecosystems that are
consistent with--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) all applicable laws governing resource
management in Federal and State waters, including this
Act;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) the national coral reef resilience strategy
in effect under section 204A;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(3) coral reef action plans in effect under
section 205, as applicable; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(4) coral reef emergency plans in effect under
section 209, as applicable.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(b) Activities Described.--Activities described in this
subsection are activities to conserve, research, monitor, assess, and
restore coral reefs and coral reef ecosystems in waters managed under
the jurisdiction of a Federal agency specified in subsection (c) or in
coordination with a State in waters managed under the jurisdiction of
such State, including--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) developing, including through the collection
of requisite data, high-quality and digitized maps reflecting--
</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(A) current and historical live coral
cover data;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(B) coral reef habitat quality
data;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(C) priority areas for coral reef
conservation to maintain biodiversity and ecosystem
structure and function that benefit coastal communities
and living marine resources;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(D) priority areas for coral reef
restoration to enhance biodiversity and ecosystem
structure and function to benefit coastal communities
and living marine resources; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(E) areas of concern that may require
enhanced monitoring of coral health and
cover;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) enhancing compliance with Federal laws that
prohibit or regulate--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(A) the taking of coral products or
species associated with coral reefs; or</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(B) the use and management of coral reef
ecosystems;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(3) long-term ecological monitoring of coral
reef ecosystems;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(4) implementing species-specific recovery plans
for listed coral species consistent with the Endangered Species
Act of 1973 (16 U.S.C. 1531 et seq.);</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(5) restoring degraded coral reef
ecosystems;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(6) promoting ecologically sound navigation and
anchorages, including mooring buoy systems to promote enhanced
recreational access, near coral reefs;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(7) monitoring and responding to severe
bleaching or mortality events, disease outbreaks, invasive
species outbreaks, and significant maritime accidents,
including chemical spill cleanup and the removal of grounded
vessels;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(8) conducting scientific research that
contributes to the understanding, sustainable use, and long-
term conservation of coral reefs;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(9) enhancing public awareness, understanding,
and appreciation of coral reefs and coral reef
ecosystems;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(10) preventing or minimizing the likelihood of
vessel impacts or other physical damage to coral reefs through
navigational aids and expansion of reef-safe anchorages;
and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(11) centrally archiving, managing, and
distributing data sets and coral reef ecosystem assessments and
publishing such information on publicly available internet
websites of--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(A) the Coral Reef Conservation Program
of the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration;
and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(B) the Task Force.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(c) Federal Agencies Specified.--A Federal agency
specified in this subsection is one of the following:</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) The National Oceanic and Atmospheric
Administration.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) The National Park Service.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(3) The United States Fish and Wildlife
Service.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(4) The Office of Insular Affairs.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(d) Cooperative Agreements.--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) In general.--Subject to the availability of
appropriations and at the discretion of the Secretary of
Commerce, the Administrator may enter into cooperative
agreements with States to fund coral reef conservation and
restoration activities in waters managed under the jurisdiction
of such States that are consistent with the national coral reef
resilience strategy in effect under section 204A.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) Limitation.--The Administrator may not
provide more than $500,000 in total funding under paragraph (1)
to any one State in any fiscal year.''.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (b) Additional Provisions.--The Coral Reef Conservation
Act of 2000 (16 U.S.C. 6401 et seq.) is amended by striking sections
205 through 210 and inserting the following:</DELETED>
<DELETED>``SEC. 204A. NATIONAL CORAL REEF RESILIENCE
STRATEGY.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(a) In General.--The Administrator shall--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) develop a national coral reef resilience
strategy; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) periodically, but not less frequently than
every 15 years, review and revise the strategy.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(b) Elements.--The strategy required by subsection (a)
shall include the following:</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) A discussion addressing--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(A) continuing and emerging threats to
the resilience of United States coral reef
ecosystems;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(B) remaining gaps in coral reef
ecosystem research, monitoring, and
assessment;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(C) the status of management cooperation
and integration among Federal, State, Tribal, and
locally managed jurisdictions with coral reef
equities;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(D) the status of efforts to manage and
disseminate critical information, and enhance
interjurisdictional data sharing, related to research,
reports, datasets, and maps;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(E) areas of special focus, which may
include--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(i) improving natural coral
recruitment;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(ii) preventing avoidable losses
of corals and their habitat;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(iii) enhancing the resilience
of coral populations;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(iv) supporting a resilience-
based management approach;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(v) developing, coordinating,
and implementing watershed management
plans;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(vi) building and sustaining
watershed management capacity at the local
level;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(vii) providing data essential
for coral reef fisheries management;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(viii) building capacity for
coral reef fisheries management;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(ix) increasing understanding of
coral reef ecosystem services;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(x) educating the public on the
importance of coral reefs, threats and
solutions; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(xi) evaluating intervention
efficacy;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(F) the status of conservation efforts,
including the use of marine protected areas to serve as
replenishment zones developed consistent with local
practices and traditions and in cooperation with, and
with respect for the scientific, technical, and
management expertise and responsibilities of, State
fish and wildlife management agencies; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(G) science-based adaptive management
and restoration efforts.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) A statement of national goals and objectives
designed to guide--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(A) future Federal coral reef management
and restoration activities authorized under section
203;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(B) conservation and restoration
priorities for grants awarded under section 213;
and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(C) research priorities for the
cooperative institutes established under section
215(c).</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(3) General templates for use by covered reef
managers to guide the development of--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(A) coral reef action plans under
section 205; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(B) coral reef emergency plans under
section 209.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(c) Consultations.--In developing all elements of the
strategy required by subsection (a), the Administrator shall--
</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) consult with the Secretary of the Interior,
the Task Force, covered States, and Tribal
organizations;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) engage stakeholders, including coral reef
stewardship partnerships, coral reef institutes and research
centers described in section 215(c), and coral reef
conservation grant awardees; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(3) solicit public review and comment regarding
scoping and the draft strategy.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(d) Submission to Congress; Publication.--The
Administrator shall--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) submit the strategy required by subsection
(a) and any revisions to the strategy to the appropriate
congressional committees; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) publish the strategy and any such revisions
on publicly available internet websites of--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(A) the Coral Reef Conservation Program
of the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration;
and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(B) the Task Force.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(e) Transition Rule.--On and after the date of the
enactment of the Restoring Resilient Reefs Act of 2021, the 2018 Coral
Reef Conservation Program Strategic Plan of the National Oceanic and
Atmospheric Administration shall be considered to be the national coral
reef resilience strategy in effect under this section until the earlier
of--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) September 30, 2033; or</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) the date on which the Administrator develops
a national coral reef resilience strategy under this
section.</DELETED>
<DELETED>``SEC. 205. CORAL REEF ACTION PLANS.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(a) Coral Reef Action Plans.--Except as provided in
subsection (h), not later than 3 years after the date of the enactment
of the Restoring Resilient Reefs Act of 2021, and not later than 2
years after the publication of a revised national coral reef resilience
strategy under section 204A, each covered reef manager shall prepare
and submit to the Task Force a coral reef action plan to guide
management and restoration activities to be undertaken within the
responsibilities and jurisdiction of the manager.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(b) Requirements.--A covered reef manager preparing a
coral reef action plan under subsection (a) shall--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) ensure that the plan is consistent with all
elements of the national coral reef resilience strategy in
effect; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) revise the plan not less frequently than
once every 5 years.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(c) Plan Elements.--A coral reef action plan under
subsection (a) shall include a discussion of the following
elements:</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) Short- and mid-term coral reef conservation
and restoration objectives within the applicable
jurisdiction.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) An updated adaptive management framework to
inform research, monitoring, and assessment needs.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(3) The status of any coral reef emergency plans
in effect under section 209 covering coral reef ecosystems
within the applicable jurisdiction.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(4) Tools, strategies, and partnerships
necessary to identify, monitor, and redress pollution and water
quality impacts to coral reef ecosystems within the applicable
jurisdiction.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(5) The status of efforts to improve coral reef
ecosystem management cooperation and integration among
neighboring Federal, State, Tribal, or locally managed
jurisdictions, including the identification of existing
research and monitoring activities that can be leveraged for
coral reef status and trends assessments within the applicable
jurisdiction.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(6) An accounting of annual expenditures on
coral reef management and restoration activities within the
applicable jurisdiction while the preceding action plan, if
any, was in effect.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(7) Estimated budgetary and resource
considerations necessary to carry out the proposed action
plan.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(d) Technical Assistance.--The Administrator and the
Task Force shall make all reasonable efforts to provide technical
assistance upon request by a covered reef manager developing a coral
reef action plan under subsection (a).</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(e) Adoption of Coral Reef Action Plans.--A covered reef
manager may adopt a coral reef action plan developed by another covered
reef manager, in full or in part, as relevant to the adopting manager's
applicable jurisdiction.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(f) Public Review.--The development of a coral reef
action plan by a covered reef manager under subsection (a), and the
adoption of a plan under subsection (e), shall be subject to public
review and comment.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(g) Publication.--The Administrator shall publish each
coral reef action plan prepared and submitted to the Task Force under
this section on publicly available internet websites of--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) the Coral Reef Conservation Program of the
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) the Task Force.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(h) Applicability to Covered States and Coral Reef
Stewardship Partnerships.--A covered State or non-Federal coral reef
stewardship partnership is not required to develop a coral reef action
plan under subsection (a), but may do so in its own discretion. In
developing a coral reef action plan, a covered State or non-Federal
coral reef stewardship partnership is encouraged, but not mandated, to
comply with the requirements of this section.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(i) Plan in Effect.--A coral reef action plan shall be
deemed to be in effect if the plan was submitted to the Task Force
under this section during the preceding 6 years.</DELETED>
<DELETED>``SEC. 206. CORAL REEF STEWARDSHIP PARTNERSHIPS.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(a) Coral Reef Stewardship Partnerships.--The
Administrator shall establish standards for the formation of
partnerships among government and community members for the stewardship
of coral reefs (in this title referred to as `coral reef stewardship
partnerships') in accordance with this section, including guidance for
preparation and submission of coral reef action plans under section
205.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(b) Identification of Reefs.--Each coral reef
stewardship partnership shall identify with particularity the coral
reef or ecologically significant component of a coral reef that will be
the subject of its stewardship activities.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(c) Membership for Federal Reefs.--A coral reef
stewardship partnership that has identified, as the subject of its
stewardship activities, a coral reef or ecologically significant
component of a coral reef that is fully or partially under the
management jurisdiction of any Federal agency specified in section
203(c) shall, at a minimum, include the following:</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) That Federal agency, a representative of
which shall serve as chair of the coral reef stewardship
partnership.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) A State, county, or Tribal organization's
resource management agency.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(3) A coral reef research center described in
section 215(c)(4) or another institution of higher
education.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(4) A nongovernmental organization.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(5) Such other members as the partnership
considers appropriate, such as interested stakeholder
groups.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(d) Membership for Non-Federal Reefs.--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) In general.--A coral reef stewardship
partnership that has identified, as the subject of its
stewardship activities, a coral reef or ecologically
significant component of a coral reef that is not under the
management jurisdiction of any Federal agency specified in
section 203(c) shall, at a minimum, include the
following:</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(A) A State, county, or Tribal
organization's resource management agency, a
representative of which shall serve as the chair of the
coral reef stewardship partnership.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(B) A coral reef research center
described in section 215(c)(4) or another institution
of higher education.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(C) A nongovernmental
organization.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(D) Such other members as the
partnership considers appropriate, such as interested
stakeholder groups.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) Additional members.--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(A) In general.--Subject to subparagraph
(B), a coral reef stewardship partnership described in
paragraph (1) may also include representatives of one
or more Federal agencies that have management
responsibility in the reef that is the subject of the
partnership's stewardship activities.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(B) Requests; approval.--A
representative of a Federal agency described in
subparagraph (A) may become a member of a coral reef
stewardship partnership described in paragraph (1) if--
</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(i) the representative submits a
request to become a member to the chair of the
partnership referred to in paragraph (1)(A);
and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(ii) the chair consents to the
request.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(e) Nonapplicability of Federal Advisory Committee
Act.--The Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. App.) shall not
apply to coral reef stewardship partnerships.</DELETED>
<DELETED>``SEC. 207. STATE BLOCK GRANTS.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(a) In General.--The Administrator shall provide block
grants of financial assistance to covered States to support management
and restoration activities and further the implementation of coral reef
action plans in effect under section 205 by covered States and non-
Federal coral reef stewardship partnerships.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(b) Eligibility for Additional Amounts.--A covered State
shall qualify for and receive additional grant amounts beyond the base
award specified in subsection (c)(1) if there is at least one coral
reef action plan in effect within the jurisdiction of the covered State
developed by that covered State or a non-Federal coral reef stewardship
partnership.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(c) Funding Formula.--Subject to the availability of
appropriations, the amount of each block grant awarded to a covered
State under this section shall be the sum of--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) a base award of $100,000; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) if the State is eligible under subsection
(b)--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(A) an amount that is equal to non-
Federal expenditures of up to $3,000,000 on coral reef
management and restoration activities within the
jurisdiction of the State, as reported within the
previous fiscal year; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(B) an additional amount, from any funds
appropriated for block grants under this section that
remain after distribution under subparagraph (A) and
paragraph (1), based on the proportion of the State's
share of total non-Federal expenditures on coral reef
management and restoration activities, as reported
within the previous fiscal year, in excess of
$3,000,000, relative to other covered States.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(d) Exclusions.--For the purposes of calculating block
grant amounts under subsection (c), Federal funds provided to a covered
State or non-Federal coral reef stewardship partnership shall not be
considered as qualifying non-Federal expenditures, but non-Federal
matching funds used to leverage Federal awards may be considered as
qualifying non-Federal expenditures.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(e) Responsibilities of the Administrator.--The
Administrator is responsible for--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) providing guidance on qualifying non-Federal
expenditures and the proper documentation of such
expenditures;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) issuing annual solicitations to covered
States for additional awards under this section; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(3) determining the appropriate allocation of
additional amounts among covered States in accordance with this
section.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(f) Responsibilities of Covered States.--Each covered
State is responsible for documenting non-Federal expenditures within
the jurisdiction of the State and formally reporting those expenditures
for review in response to annual solicitations by the Administrator
under subsection (e).</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(g) Unexpended Amounts.--Any amounts available for block
grants under this section that are not expended shall be transferred to
the Coral Reef Stewardship Fund under section 208(b).</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(h) Waivers of Certain Requirements.--The Administrator
may waive the eligibility requirements under subsection (b) through
fiscal year 2023.</DELETED>
<DELETED>``SEC. 208. CORAL REEF STEWARDSHIP FUND.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(a) Authority To Enter Into Agreements.--The
Administrator may enter into an agreement with the National Fish and
Wildlife Foundation (in this section referred to as the `Foundation'),
authorizing the Foundation to receive, hold, and administer funds
received under this section.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(b) Fund.--The Foundation shall invest, reinvest, and
otherwise administer the funds received under this section and maintain
such funds and any interest or revenues earned in a separate interest-
bearing account, to be known as the `Coral Reef Stewardship Fund' (in
this section referred to as the `Fund', and known before the date of
the enactment of the Restoring Resilient Reefs Act of 2021 as the Coral
Reef Conservation Fund administered through a public-private
partnership with the Foundation), established by the Foundation solely
to support coral reef stewardship partnership activities that--
</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) further the purposes of this title;
and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) are consistent with--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(A) the national coral reef resilience
strategy in effect under section 204A; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(B) coral reef action plans in effect,
if any, under section 205 covering a coral reef or
ecologically significant component of a coral reef to
be impacted by such activities, if
applicable.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(c) Authorization To Solicit Donations.--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) In general.--Pursuant to an agreement
entered into under subsection (a), the Foundation may accept,
receive, solicit, hold, administer, and use any gift
(including, notwithstanding section 1342 of title 31, United
States Code, donations of services) to further the purposes of
this title.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) Deposits in fund.--Notwithstanding section
3302 of title 31, United States Code, any funds received as a
gift shall be deposited and maintained in the Fund.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(3) Notification required.--Not later than 30
days after funds are deposited in the Fund under paragraph (2),
the Foundation shall notify the Committee on Appropriations of
the Senate and the Committee on Appropriations of the House of
Representatives of the source and amount of such
funds.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(d) Review of Performance.--The Administrator shall
conduct a continuing review of all deposits into, and disbursements
from, the Fund. Each review shall include a written assessment
concerning the extent to which the Foundation has implemented the goals
and requirements of--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) this section; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) the national coral reef resilience strategy
in effect under section 204A.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(e) Administration.--Under an agreement entered into
pursuant to subsection (a), and subject to the availability of
appropriations, the Administrator may transfer funds appropriated to
carry out this title to the Foundation. Amounts received by the
Foundation under this subsection may be used for matching, in whole or
in part, contributions (whether in money, services, or property) made
to the Foundation by private persons, State or local government
agencies, or Tribal organizations.</DELETED>
<DELETED>``SEC. 209. CORAL REEF EMERGENCY PLANS.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(a) In General.--A covered reef manager may develop and
periodically update a plan (in this title referred to as a `coral reef
emergency plan') consistent with the template described in section
204A(b)(3) to guide the rapid and effective response to circumstances
that pose an urgent and immediate threat to the coral reef ecosystems
within the manager's responsibilities and jurisdictions, and consistent
with any applicable coral reef action plan.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(b) Coral Reef Emergencies.--The Administrator shall
develop a list of, and criteria for, circumstances that pose an urgent
and immediate threat to coral reefs (in this title referred to as
`coral reef emergencies'), including--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) new and ongoing outbreaks of
disease;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) new and ongoing outbreaks of invasive or
nuisance species;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(3) new and ongoing coral bleaching
events;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(4) natural disasters;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(5) man-made disasters, including vessel
groundings, hazardous spills, or coastal construction
accidents; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(6) other exigent circumstances.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(c) Best Response Practices.--The Administrator shall
develop guidance on best practices to respond to coral reef emergencies
that can be adopted within coral reef emergency plans. Such best
practices shall be--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) based on the best available science and
integrated with evolving innovative technologies; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) revised not less frequently than once every
5 years.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(d) Plan Elements.--A coral reef emergency plan shall
include the following elements:</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) A description of particular threats, and the
proposed responses, consistent with the best practices
developed under subsection (d).</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) A delineation of roles and responsibilities
for executing the plan.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(3) Evidence of engagement with interested
stakeholder groups, as applicable, in the development of the
plan.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(4) Any other information the Administrator
considers to be necessary for the plan.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(e) Technical Assistance.--The Administrator and the
Task Force shall make all reasonable efforts to provide technical
assistance upon request by a covered reef manager developing a coral
reef emergency plan under subsection (a).</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(f) Adoption of Coral Reef Emergency Plans.--A covered
reef manager may adopt a coral reef emergency plan developed by another
covered reef manager, in full or in part, as relevant to the adopting
manager's applicable jurisdiction.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(g) Public Review.--The development of a coral reef
action plan by a covered reef manager under subsection (a), and the
adoption of a plan under subsection (f), shall be subject to public
review and comment.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(h) Publication.--The Administrator shall publish each
coral reef emergency plan prepared and submitted to the Task Force
under this section on publicly available internet websites of--
</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) the Coral Reef Conservation Program of the
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) the Task Force.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(i) Plan in Effect.--A coral reef emergency plan shall
be deemed to be in effect if the plan was submitted to the Task Force
under this section during the preceding 6 years.</DELETED>
<DELETED>``SEC. 210. CORAL REEF EMERGENCY FUND.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(a) Establishment of Fund.--There is established in the
Treasury an interest-bearing fund to be known as the `Coral Reef
Emergency Fund', which shall consist of amounts deposited into the Fund
under subsection (c).</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(b) Uses.--Amounts in the Fund--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) shall be available only for use by the
Secretary to compensate covered coral reef mangers to implement
a coral reef emergency plan in effect under sections 210 and
212; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) shall remain available until
expended.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(c) Deposits Into the Fund.--Subject to the availability
of appropriations, there shall be deposited into the Fund--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) amounts appropriated for the Fund;
and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) other amounts appropriated to the Secretary
for use with respect to coral reef emergencies.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(d) Acceptance of Donations.--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) In general.--For purposes of carrying out
this title, the Secretary may accept, receive, solicit, hold,
administer, and use any gift (including, notwithstanding
section 1342 of title 31, United States Code, donations of
services).</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) Deposits in fund.--Notwithstanding section
3302 of title 31, United States Code, any funds received as a
gift shall be deposited and maintained in the Fund.</DELETED>
<DELETED>``SEC. 211. EMERGENCY ASSISTANCE.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(a) Coral Reef Emergency Declarations.--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) Sua sponte declaration.--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(A) In general.--The Secretary may
determine and declare a coral reef emergency, including
at the recommendation of the Secretary of the
Interior.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(B) Requirements.--In declaring a coral
reef emergency under subparagraph (A), the Secretary
shall--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(i) certify that an emergency
has occurred that is ecologically significant
and harmful to coral reefs; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(ii) submit to the appropriate
congressional committees findings and analysis
to justify the declaration.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) Petitions.--If a covered State or non-
Federal coral reef stewardship partnership believes that a
coral reef emergency has occurred, and is impacting coral reefs
or ecologically significant components of coral reefs subject
to the responsibilities or jurisdiction of the State or
partnership, the State or partnership may petition the
Secretary for a declaration of a coral reef
emergency.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(3) Evaluation and action.--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(A) In general.--Not later than 30 days
after receiving a petition under paragraph (2) (except
as provided in subparagraph (B)), the Secretary shall--
</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(i) evaluate the petition to
determine whether a coral reef emergency has
occurred; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(ii) declare a coral reef
emergency or deny the petition.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(B) Extension.--The Secretary may extend
the deadline provided for under subparagraph (A) by not
more than 15 days.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(4) Appeal.--If the Secretary denies a petition
for an emergency declaration submitted under paragraph (2), the
State or partnership that submitted the petition may, not later
than 15 days after receiving notice of the denial, appeal the
denial to the Secretary. Not later than 15 days after receiving
an appeal under this paragraph, the Secretary shall grant or
deny the appeal.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(5) Revocation.--The Secretary may revoke any
declaration of a coral reef emergency in whole or in part after
determining that circumstances no longer require an emergency
response.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(6) Recovery of emergency funding.--The
Administrator may seek compensation from negligent parties to
recover emergency funds expended in excess of $500,000 under
this section as a result of an emergency declaration arising
from direct impacts to coral reefs from man-made disasters or
accidents.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(b) Grant Authority.--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) In general.--Subject to the availability of
appropriations, upon the declaration of a coral reef emergency
under subsection (a), the Secretary shall provide grants to
carry out proposals that meet the requirements of paragraph (2)
to implement coral reef emergency plans in effect under section
209.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) Requirements.--A proposal for a grant under
this subsection to implement a coral reef emergency plan in
effect under section 209 shall include--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(A) the name of the entity submitting
the proposal;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(B) a copy of the coral reef emergency
plan;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(C) a description of the qualifications
of the individuals and entities who will implement the
plan;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(D) an estimate of the funds and time
required to complete the implementation of the plan;
and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(E) any other information the Secretary
considers to be necessary for evaluating the
eligibility of the proposal for a grant under this
subsection.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(3) Review.--Not later than 30 days after
receiving a proposal for a grant under this subsection, the
Secretary shall review the proposal and determine if the
proposal meets the requirements of paragraph (2).</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(4) Concurrent review.--An entity seeking a
grant under this subsection may submit a proposal under
paragraph (2) to the Secretary at any time following the
submission of a petition for an emergency declaration under
subsection (a)(2) that is applicable to coral reefs or
ecologically significant components of coral reefs subject to
the responsibilities or jurisdiction of the entity.</DELETED>
<DELETED>``SEC. 212. VESSEL GROUNDING INVENTORY.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``The Administrator, in coordination with the heads of
other Federal agencies, shall establish and maintain an inventory of
all vessel grounding incidents involving United States coral reefs,
including a description of--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) the impacts of each such incident to coral
reefs and related natural resources;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) vessel and ownership information relating to
each such incident, if available;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(3) the estimated cost of removal of the vessel,
mitigation, or restoration relating to each such
incident;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(4) the response actions taken by the owner of
the vessel, the Administrator, the Commandant of the Coast
Guard, or representatives of other Federal or State
agencies;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(5) the status of the response actions,
including the dates of--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(A) vessel removal;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(B) mitigation or restoration
activities, including whether a coral reef emergency
plan was implemented; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(C) any actions taken to prevent future
grounding incidents; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(6) recommendations for additional navigational
aids or other mechanisms for preventing future grounding
incidents.</DELETED>
<DELETED>``SEC. 213. RUTH D. GATES CORAL REEF CONSERVATION GRANT
PROGRAM.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(a) Grants.--Subject to the availability of
appropriations, the Administrator shall establish a program (to be
known as the `Ruth D. Gates Coral Reef Conservation Grant Program') to
provide grants for projects for the conservation and restoration of
coral reef ecosystems (in this section referred to as `coral reef
projects') pursuant to proposals approved by the Administrator in
accordance with this section.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(b) Eligibility.--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) In general.--An entity described in
paragraph (2) may submit to the Administrator a proposal for a
coral reef project.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) Entities described.--An entity described in
this paragraph is--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(A) a natural resource management
authority of a State or local government or Tribal
organization--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(i) with responsibility for
coral reef management; or</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(ii) the activities of which
directly or indirectly affect coral reefs or
coral reef ecosystems;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(B) a regional fishery management
council established under the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery
Conservation and Management Act (16 U.S.C. 1801 et
seq.);</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(C) a coral reef stewardship partnership
seeking to implement a coral reef action plan in effect
under section 205;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(D) a coral reef research center
designated under section 215(c)(4); or</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(E) another nongovernmental organization
or research institution with demonstrated expertise in
the conservation or restoration of coral reefs in
practice or through significant contributions to the
body of existing scientific research on coral
reefs.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(c) Project Proposals.--Each proposal for a grant under
this section for a coral reef project shall include the
following:</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) The name of the individual or entity
responsible for conducting the project.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) A description of the qualifications of the
individual or entity.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(3) A succinct statement of the purposes of the
project.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(4) An estimate of the funds and time required
to complete the project.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(5) Evidence of support for the project by
appropriate representatives of States or other government
jurisdictions in which the project will be conducted.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(6) Information regarding the source and amount
of matching funding available to the applicant.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(7) A description of how the project meets one
or more of the criteria under subsection (e)(2).</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(8) In the case of a proposal submitted by a
coral reef stewardship partnership, a description of how the
project aligns with the applicable coral reef action plan in
effect under section 205.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(9) Any other information the Administrator
considers to be necessary for evaluating the eligibility of the
project for a grant under this subsection.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(d) Project Review and Approval.--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) In general.--The Administrator shall review
each coral reef project proposal submitted under this section
to determine if the project meets the criteria set forth in
subsection (e).</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) Prioritization of conservation projects.--
The Administrator shall prioritize the awarding of grants for
projects that meet the criteria for approval under
subparagraphs (A) through (G) of subsection (e)(2) that are
proposed to be conducted within priority areas identified for
coral reef conservation by the Administrator and consistent
with the national coral reef resilience strategy in effect
under section 204A.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(3) Prioritization of restoration projects.--The
Administrator shall prioritize the awarding of grants for
projects that meet the criteria for approval under
subparagraphs (E) through (L) of subsection (e)(2) that are
proposed to be conducted within priority areas identified for
coral reef restoration by the Administrator and consistent with
the national coral reef resilience strategy in effect under
section 204A.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(4) Review; approval or disapproval.--Not later
than 180 days after receiving a proposal for a coral reef
project under this section, the Administrator shall--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(A) request and consider written
comments on the proposal from each Federal agency,
State government, Tribal organization, or other
government jurisdiction, including the relevant
regional fishery management councils established under
the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and
Management Act (16 U.S.C. 1801 et seq.), or any
National Marine Sanctuary or Marine National Monument,
with jurisdiction or management authority over coral
reef ecosystems in the area where the project is to be
conducted, including the extent to which the project is
consistent with locally established priorities, unless
such entities were directly involved in the development
of the project proposal;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(B) provide for the merit-based peer
review of the proposal and require standardized
documentation of that peer review;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(C) after considering any written
comments and recommendations based on the reviews under
subparagraphs (A) and (B), approve or disapprove the
proposal; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(D) provide written notification of that
approval or disapproval, with summaries of all written
comments, recommendations, and peer-reviews, to the
entity that submitted the proposal, and each of those
States, Tribal organizations, and other government
jurisdictions that provided comments under subparagraph
(A).</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(e) Criteria for Approval.--The Administrator may not
approve a proposal for a coral reef project under this section unless
the project--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) is consistent with--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(A) the national coral reef resilience
strategy in effect under section 204A; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(B) any Federal or non-Federal coral
reef action plans in effect under section 205 covering
a coral reef or ecologically significant component of a
coral reef to be affected by the project; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) will enhance the conservation and
restoration of coral reefs by--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(A) addressing conflicts arising from
the use of environments near coral reefs or from the
use of corals, species associated with coral reefs, and
coral products, including supporting consensus-driven,
community-based planning and management initiatives for
the protection of coral reef ecosystems;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(B) improving compliance with laws that
prohibit or regulate the taking of coral products or
species associated with coral reefs or regulate the use
and management of coral reef ecosystems;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(C) designing and implementing networks
of real-time water quality monitoring along coral
reefs, including data collection related to turbidity,
nutrient availability, harmful algal blooms, and
plankton assemblages, with an emphasis on coral reefs
impacted by agriculture and urban
development;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(D) promoting ecologically sound
navigation and anchorages, including mooring buoy
systems to promote enhanced recreational access, near
coral reefs;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(E) furthering the goals and objectives
of coral reef action plans in effect under section 205
and coral reef emergency plans in effect under section
209;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(F) mapping the location and
distribution of coral reefs and potential coral reef
habitat;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(G) stimulating innovation to advance
the ability of the United States to understand,
research, or monitor coral reef ecosystems, or to
develop management or adaptation options to preserve,
sustain, and restore coral reef ecosystems;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(H) implementing research to ensure the
population viability of listed coral species in United
States waters as detailed in the population-based
recovery criteria included in species-specific recovery
plans consistent with the Endangered Species Act of
1973 (16 U.S.C. 1531 et seq.);</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(I) developing and implementing cost-
effective methods to restore degraded coral reef
ecosystems or to create geographically appropriate
coral reef ecosystems in suitable waters, including by
improving habitat or promoting success of keystone
species, with an emphasis on novel restoration
strategies and techniques to advance coral reef
recovery and growth near population centers threatened
by rising sea levels and storm surge;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(J) translating and applying coral
genetics research to coral reef ecosystem restoration,
including research related to traits that promote
resilience to increasing ocean temperatures, ocean
acidification, coral bleaching, coral diseases, and
invasive species;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(K) developing and maintaining in situ
native coral propagation sites; or</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(L) developing and maintaining ex situ
coral propagation nurseries and land-based coral gene
banks to--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(i) conserve or augment genetic
diversity of native coral
populations;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(ii) support captive breeding of
rare coral species; or</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(iii) enhance resilience of
native coral populations to increasing ocean
temperatures, ocean acidification, coral
bleaching, and coral diseases through selective
breeding, conditioning, or other approaches
that target genes, gene expression, phenotypic
traits, or phenotypic plasticity.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(f) Funding Requirements.--To the extent practicable
based upon proposals for coral reef projects submitted to the
Administrator, the Administrator shall ensure that funding for grants
awarded under this section during a fiscal year is distributed as
follows:</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) Not less than 40 percent of funds available
shall be awarded for projects in the Pacific Ocean within the
maritime areas and zones subject to the jurisdiction or control
of the United States.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) Not less than 40 percent of the funds
available shall be awarded for projects in the Atlantic Ocean,
the Gulf of Mexico, or the Caribbean Sea within the maritime
areas and zones subject to the jurisdiction or control of the
United States.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(3) Not more than 67 percent of funds
distributed in each region in accordance with paragraphs (1)
and (2) shall be made exclusively available to projects that
are--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(A) submitted by a coral reef
stewardship partnership; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(B) consistent with the coral reef
action plan in effect under section 205 by such a
partnership.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(4) Of the funds distributed to support projects
in accordance with paragraph (3), not less than 20 percent and
not more than 33 percent shall be awarded for projects
submitted by a Federal coral reef stewardship
partnership.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(g) Project Reporting.--Each entity receiving a grant
under this section shall submit to the Administrator such reports at
such times and containing such information for evaluating project
performance as the Administrator may require.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(h) Task Force.--The Administrator may consult with the
Secretary of the Interior and the Task Force to obtain guidance in
establishing priorities and evaluating proposals for coral reef
projects under this section.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(i) Unexpended Amounts.--Any amounts available for
grants under this section that are not expended shall be transferred to
the Coral Reef Stewardship Fund under section 208(b).</DELETED>
<DELETED>``SEC. 214. REPORTS ON ADMINISTRATION.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(a) In General.--Not later than 2 years after the date
of the enactment of the Restoring Resilient Reefs Act of 2021, and
every 2 years thereafter, the Administrator shall submit to the
committees specified in subsection (b) a report on the administration
of this title during the 2-year period preceding submission of the
report, including--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) a description of all activities undertaken
to implement the most recent national coral reef resilience
strategy under section 204A;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) a statement of all funds obligated under the
authorities of this title; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(3) a summary, disaggregated by State, of
Federal and non-Federal contributions toward the costs of each
project or activity funded, in full or in part, under the
authorities of this title.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(b) Committees Specified.--The committees specified in
this subsection are--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) the Committee on Commerce, Science, and
Transportation and the Committee on Appropriations of the
Senate; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) the Committee on Natural Resources and the
Committee on Appropriations of the House of
Representatives.</DELETED>
<DELETED>``SEC. 215. AUTHORITY TO ENTER INTO AGREEMENTS.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(a) In General.--The Administrator may enter into and
perform such contracts, leases, grants, or cooperative agreements as
may be necessary to carry out the purposes of this title.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(b) Funding.--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) In general.--Under an agreement entered into
under subsection (a), the Administrator may reimburse or
provide funds authorized to be appropriated by section 216 to,
and may receive funds or reimbursements from, individuals and
entities described in paragraph (2) to carry out activities
authorized by this title.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) Individuals and entities described.--
Individuals and entities described in this paragraph are the
following:</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(A) Federal agencies, instrumentalities,
and laboratories.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(B) State and local
governments.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(C) Indian Tribes and Tribal
organizations.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(D) International
organizations.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(E) Foreign governments not subject to
economic sanctions imposed by the United
States.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(F) Institutions of higher education,
research centers, and other educational
institutions.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(G) Nonprofit organizations.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(H) Commercial organizations.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(I) Other public or private individuals
or entities.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(c) Cooperative Institutes.--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) Establishment.--The Secretary shall
establish 2 cooperative institutes for the purpose of advancing
and sustaining essential capabilities in coral reef research,
to be known as the `Atlantic Coral Reef Institute' and the
`Pacific Coral Reef Institute'.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) Membership.--Each institute established
under paragraph (1) shall be housed within a single coral reef
research center designated by the Administrator under paragraph
(4) in the Atlantic and Pacific basins, respectively, and may
contract with other coral reef research centers within the same
basin to support each institute's capacity and reach.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(3) Functions.--The institutes established under
paragraph (1) shall--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(A) conduct federally directed research
to fill national and regional coral reef ecosystem
research gaps and improve understanding of, and
responses to, continuing and emerging threats to the
resilience of United States coral reef ecosystems
consistent with the national coral reef resilience
strategy in effect under section 204A;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(B) support ecological research and
monitoring to study the effects of conservation and
restoration activities funded by this title on
promoting more effective coral reef management and
restoration; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(C) through agreements--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(i) collaborate directly with
governmental resource management agencies,
coral reef stewardship partnerships, nonprofit
organizations, and other coral reef research
centers designated under paragraph
(4);</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(ii) assist in the development
and implementation of--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(I) the national coral
reef resilience strategy under section
204A;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(II) coral reef action
plans under section 205; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(III) coral reef
emergency plans under section
209;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(iii) build capacity within
governmental resource management agencies to
establish research priorities and translate and
apply research findings to management and
restoration practices; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(iv) conduct public education
and awareness programs for policymakers,
resource managers, and the general public on--
</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(I) coral reefs and
coral reef ecosystems;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(II) best practices for
coral reef ecosystem management and
restoration;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(III) the value of coral
reefs; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(IV) the threats to the
sustainability of coral reef
ecosystems.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(4) Coral reef research centers.--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(A) In general.--The Administrator shall
periodically solicit applications and designate all
qualifying institutions in a covered State as coral
reef research centers.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(B) Criteria.--An institution qualifies
for designation as a coral reef research center under
subparagraph (A) if the Administrator determines that
the institution--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(i) is operated by an
institution of higher education or nonprofit
marine research organization;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(ii) has established management-
driven national or regional coral reef research
or restoration programs;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(iii) has demonstrated abilities
to coordinate closely with appropriate Federal
and State agencies, as well as other academic
and nonprofit organizations; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(iv) maintains significant local
community engagement and outreach programs
related to coral reef ecosystems.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(d) Multiyear Cooperative Agreements.--The Administrator
may enter into multiyear cooperative agreements with the heads of other
Federal agencies, States, Indian Tribes or Tribal organizations, local
governments, the coral reef cooperative institutes established under
subsection (c), and other institutions of higher education, nonprofit
research organizations, and nongovernmental organizations to carry out
activities authorized under this title.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(e) Use of Resources of Other Agencies.--The
Administrator may use, with consent and with or without reimbursement,
the land, services, equipment, personnel, and facilities of any agency
or instrumentality of--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) the United States;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) any State or local government;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(3) any Indian Tribe; or</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(4) any foreign government not subject to
economic sanctions imposed by the United States.</DELETED>
<DELETED>``SEC. 216. CORAL REEF PRIZE COMPETITIONS.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(a) In General.--The head of any Federal agency with a
representative serving on the U.S. Coral Reef Task Force established by
Executive Order 13089 (16 U.S.C. 6401 note; relating to coral reef
protection), may, individually or in cooperation with one or more
agencies, carry out a program to award prizes competitively under
section 24 of the Stevenson-Wydler Technology Innovation Act of 1980
(15 U.S.C. 3719).</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(b) Purposes.--Any program carried out under this
section shall be for the purpose of stimulating innovation to advance
the ability of the United States to understand, research, or monitor
coral reef ecosystems, or to develop management or adaptation options
to preserve, sustain, and restore coral reef ecosystems.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(c) Priority Programs.--Priority shall be given to
establishing programs under this section that address communities,
environments, or industries that are in distress as a result of the
decline or degradation of coral reef ecosystems, including--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) scientific research and monitoring that
furthers the understanding of causes behind coral reef decline
and degradation and the generally slow recovery following
disturbances, including ocean acidification and its impacts on
coral reproduction;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) the development of monitoring or management
options for communities or industries that are experiencing
significant financial hardship;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(3) the development of adaptation options to
alleviate economic harm and job loss caused by damage to coral
reef ecosystems;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(4) the development of measures to help
vulnerable communities or industries, with an emphasis on rural
communities and businesses; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(5) the development of adaptation and management
options for impacted tourism industries.</DELETED>
<DELETED>``SEC. 217. AUTHORIZATION OF APPROPRIATIONS.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(a) In General.--There are authorized to be appropriated
to the Secretary to carry out this title the following amounts, which
shall remain available until expended:</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) $31,000,000 for fiscal year 2021.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) $32,500,000 for fiscal year 2022.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(3) $34,000,000 for fiscal year 2023.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(4) $35,500,000 for fiscal year 2024.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(5) $37,000,000 for fiscal year 2025.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(b) Administration.--Of the amounts appropriated
pursuant to the authorization of appropriations under subsection (a),
not more than the lesser of $1,500,000 or 10 percent may be used for
program administration or for overhead costs incurred by the National
Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration or the Department of Commerce
and assessed as an administrative charge.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(c) Coral Reef Management and Restoration Activities.--
From the amounts authorized to be appropriated under subsection (a),
there shall be made available to the Secretary not less than the
following amounts for authorized activities under sections 203 and
207:</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) $23,000,000 for fiscal year 2021, of which
not less than $8,000,000 shall be made available to the
Secretary for the provision State block grants under section
207.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) $24,500,000 for fiscal year 2022, of which
not less than $8,500,000 shall be made available to the
Secretary for the provision State block grants under section
207.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(3) $26,000,000 for fiscal year 2023, of which
not less than $9,000,000 shall be made available to the
Secretary for the provision State block grants under section
207.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(4) $27,500,000 for fiscal year 2024, of which
not less than $10,000,000 shall be made available to the
Secretary for the provision State block grants under section
207.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(5) $29,000,000 for fiscal year 2025, of which
not less than $11,000,000 shall be made available to the
Secretary for the provision State block grants under section
207.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(d) Federally Directed Research and Coral Reef
Conservation Program Grants.--From the amounts authorized to be
appropriated under subsection (a), there shall be made available to the
Secretary not less than $8,000,000 for each of fiscal years 2021
through 2025 to support purposes consistent with this title, of which--
</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) not less than $3,500,000 shall be made
available for each such fiscal year for authorized activities
under section 213; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) not less than $4,500,000 shall be made
available for each such fiscal year through cooperative
agreements with the cooperative institutes established under
section 215(c).</DELETED>
<DELETED>``SEC. 218. DEFINITIONS.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``In this title:</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(1) Administrator.--The term `Administrator'
means the Administrator of the National Oceanic and Atmospheric
Administration.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(2) Appropriate congressional committees.--The
term `appropriate congressional committees' means the Committee
on Commerce, Science, and Transportation of the Senate and the
Committee on Natural Resources of the House of
Representatives.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(3) Conservation.--The term `conservation' means
the use of methods and procedures necessary to preserve or
sustain native corals and associated species as diverse,
viable, and self-perpetuating coral reef ecosystems with
minimal impacts from invasive species, including--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(A) all activities associated with
resource management, such as monitoring, assessment,
protection, restoration, sustainable use, management of
habitat, and maintenance or augmentation of genetic
diversity;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(B) mapping;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(C) scientific expertise and technical
assistance in the development and implementation of
management strategies for marine protected areas and
marine resources consistent with the National Marine
Sanctuaries Act (16 U.S.C. 1431 et seq.) and the
Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management
Act (16 U.S.C. 1801 et seq.);</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(D) law enforcement;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(E) conflict resolution
initiatives;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(F) community outreach and education;
and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(G) promotion of safe and ecologically
sound navigation and anchoring.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(4) Coral.--The term `coral' means species of
the phylum Cnidaria, including--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(A) all species of the orders
Antipatharia (black corals), Scleractinia (stony
corals), Alcyonacea (soft corals, organ pipe corals,
gorgonians), and Helioporacea (blue coral), of the
class Anthozoa; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(B) all species of the order
Anthoathecata (fire corals and other hydrocorals) of
the class Hydrozoa.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(5) Coral reef.--The term `coral reef' means
limestone structures in the form of a reef or shoal, composed
in whole or in part by living coral, skeletal remains of coral,
crustose coralline algae, and other associated sessile marine
plants and animals.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(6) Coral reef ecosystem.--The term `coral reef
ecosystem' means--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(A) corals and other geographically and
ecologically associated marine communities of other
reef organisms (including reef plants and animals)
associated with coral reef habitat; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(B) the biotic and abiotic factors and
processes that control coral calcification rates,
tissue growth, reproduction, recruitment, abundance,
coral-algal symbiosis, and biodiversity in such
habitat.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(7) Coral products.--The term `coral products'
means any living or dead specimens, parts, or derivatives, or
any product containing specimens, parts, or derivatives, of any
species referred to in paragraph (4).</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(8) Covered reef manager.--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(A) In general.--The term `covered reef
manager' means a management unit of a Federal agency
specified in subparagraph (B) with jurisdiction over a
coral reef ecosystem, covered State, or coral reef
stewardship partnership.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(B) Federal agencies specified.--A
Federal agency specified in this subparagraph is one of
the following:</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(i) The National Oceanic and
Atmospheric Administration.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(ii) The National Park
Service.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(iii) The United States Fish and
Wildlife Service.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(iv) The Office of Insular
Affairs.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(9) Covered state.--The term `covered State'
means Florida, Hawaii, and the territories of American Samoa,
the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Guam, Puerto
Rico, and the United States Virgin Islands.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(10) Indian tribe.--The term `Indian Tribe' has
the meaning given that term in section 4 of the Indian Self-
Determination and Education Assistance Act (25 U.S.C.
5304).</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(11) Institution of higher education.--The term
`institution of higher education' has the meaning given that
term in section 101 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20
U.S.C. 1001).</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(12) Interested stakeholder groups.--The term
`interested stakeholder groups' includes community members such
as businesses, commercial and recreational fishermen, other
recreationalists, Federal, State, Tribal, and local government
units with related jurisdiction, institutions of higher
education, and nongovernmental organizations.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(13) Nonprofit organization.--The term
`nonprofit organization' means an organization that is
described in section 501(c) of the Internal Revenue Code of
1986 and exempt from tax under section 501(a) of such
Code.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(14) Restoration.--The term `restoration' means
the use of methods and procedures necessary to enhance,
rehabilitate, recreate, or create a functioning coral reef or
coral reef ecosystem, in whole or in part, within suitable
waters of the historical geographic range of such ecosystems,
to provide ecological, economic, cultural, or coastal
resiliency services associated with healthy coral reefs and
benefit native populations of coral reef organisms.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(15) Resilience.--The term `resilience' means
the capacity for corals within their native range, coral reefs,
or coral reef ecosystems to recover from natural and human
disturbances as determined by clearly identifiable, measurable,
and science-based standards.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(16) Secretary.--The term `Secretary' means the
Secretary of Commerce.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(17) State.--The term `State' means--</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(A) any State of the United States that
contains a coral reef ecosystem within its seaward
boundaries;</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(B) American Samoa, the Commonwealth of
the Northern Mariana Islands, Guam, Puerto Rico, or the
United States Virgin Islands; or</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(C) any other territory or possession of
the United States or separate sovereign in free
association with the United States that contains a
coral reef ecosystem within its seaward
boundaries.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(18) Stewardship.--The term `stewardship', with
respect to a coral reef, includes conservation, restoration,
and public outreach and education.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(19) Task force.--The term `Task Force' means
the United States Coral Reef Task Force established under
section 201 of the Restoring Resilient Reefs Act of
2021.</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(20) Tribal organization.--The term `Tribal
organization' has the meaning given the term `tribal
organization' in section 3765 of title 38, United States
Code.''.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (c) Conforming Amendment to National Oceans and Coastal
Security Act.--Section 905(a) of the National Oceans and Coastal
Security Act (16 U.S.C. 7504(a)) is amended by striking ``and coastal
infrastructure'' and inserting ``, coastal infrastructure, and
ecosystem services provided by natural systems such as coral
reefs''.</DELETED>
<DELETED>SEC. 102. MODIFICATION TO SECTION 204 OF THE CORAL REEF
CONSERVATION ACT OF 2000 (16 U.S.C. 6403).</DELETED>
<DELETED> Section 204 of the Coral Reef Conservation Act of 2000 (16
U.S.C. 6403) is amended--</DELETED>
<DELETED> (1) in subsection (a), by striking ``this
section'' and inserting ``section 213'';</DELETED>
<DELETED> (2) in subsection (b), by adding at the end the
following:</DELETED>
<DELETED> ``(3) Special rule.--For purposes of paragraph
(1), block grant funds awarded to the territories of American
Samoa, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Guam,
Puerto Rico, or the United States Virgin Islands under section
207 shall qualify as the non-Federal share of project costs.'';
and</DELETED>
<DELETED> (3) by striking subsections (c) through
(j).</DELETED>
<DELETED>TITLE II--UNITED STATES CORAL REEF TASK FORCE</DELETED>
<DELETED>SEC. 201. ESTABLISHMENT.</DELETED>
<DELETED> There is established a task force to lead, coordinate, and
strengthen Federal Government actions to better preserve, conserve, and
restore coral reef ecosystems, to be known as the ``United States Coral
Reef Task Force'' (in this title referred to as the ``Task
Force'').</DELETED>
<DELETED>SEC. 202. DUTIES.</DELETED>
<DELETED> The duties of the Task Force shall be--</DELETED>
<DELETED> (1) to coordinate, in cooperation with State,
Tribal, and local government partners, coral reef research
centers designated under section 215(c) of the Coral Reef
Conservation Act of 2000 (as amended by section 101), and other
nongovernmental and academic partners as appropriate,
activities regarding the mapping, monitoring, research,
conservation, mitigation, and restoration of coral reefs and
coral reef ecosystems;</DELETED>
<DELETED> (2) to monitor and advise regarding implementation
of the policy and Federal agency responsibilities set forth
in--</DELETED>
<DELETED> (A) Executive Order 13089 (63 Fed. Reg.
32701; relating to coral reef protection);
and</DELETED>
<DELETED> (B) the national coral reef resilience
strategy developed under section 204A of the Coral Reef
Conservation Act of 2000, as amended by section
101;</DELETED>
<DELETED> (3) to work with the Secretary of State and the
Administrator of the United States Agency for International
Development, and in coordination with the other members of the
Task Force--</DELETED>
<DELETED> (A) to assess the United States role in
international trade and protection of coral
species;</DELETED>
<DELETED> (B) to encourage implementation of
appropriate strategies and actions to promote
conservation and sustainable use of coral reef
resources worldwide; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> (C) to collaborate with international
communities successful in managing coral
reefs;</DELETED>
<DELETED> (4) to provide technical assistance for the
development and implementation, as appropriate, of--</DELETED>
<DELETED> (A) the national coral reef resilience
strategy under section 204A of the Coral Reef
Conservation Act of 2000, as amended by section
101;</DELETED>
<DELETED> (B) coral reef action plans under section
205 of that Act; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> (C) coral reef emergency plans under
section 209 of that Act; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> (5) to produce a report each year, for submission
to the appropriate congressional committees and publication on
a publicly available internet website of the Task Force,
highlighting the status of the coral reef equities of a covered
State on a rotating basis, including--</DELETED>
<DELETED> (A) a summary of recent coral reef
management and restoration activities undertaken in
that State; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> (B) updated estimates of the direct and
indirect economic activity supported by, and other
benefits associated with, those coral reef
equities.</DELETED>
<DELETED>SEC. 203. MEMBERSHIP.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (a) Voting Membership.--The Task Force shall have the
following voting members:</DELETED>
<DELETED> (1) The Secretary of Commerce, acting through the
Administrator of the National Oceanic and Atmospheric
Administration, and the Secretary of the Interior, who shall be
co-chairs of the Task Force.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (2) The Administrator of the United States Agency
for International Development.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (3) The Secretary of Agriculture.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (4) The Secretary of Defense.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (5) The Secretary of the Army, acting through the
Assistant Secretary of the Army for Civil Works.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (6) The Secretary of Homeland Security, acting
through the Administrator of the Federal Emergency Management
Agency.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (7) The Commandant of the Coast Guard.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (8) The Attorney General.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (9) The Secretary of State.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (10) The Secretary of Transportation.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (11) The Administrator of the Environmental
Protection Agency.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (12) The Administrator of the National Aeronautics
and Space Administration.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (13) The Director of the National Science
Foundation.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (14) The Governor, or a representative of the
Governor, of each covered State.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (b) Nonvoting Members.--The Task Force shall have the
following nonvoting members:</DELETED>
<DELETED> (1) A member of the South Atlantic Fishery
Management Council who is designated by the Governor of Florida
under section 302(b)(1) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery
Conservation and Management Act (16 U.S.C.
1852(b)(1)).</DELETED>
<DELETED> (2) A member of the Gulf of Mexico Fishery
Management Council who is designated by the Governor of Florida
under such section.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (3) A member of the Western Pacific Fishery
Management Council who is designated under such section and
selected as follows:</DELETED>
<DELETED> (A) For the period beginning on the date
of the enactment of this Act and ending on December 31
of the calendar year during which such date of
enactment occurs, the member shall be selected jointly
by the governors of Hawaii, American Samoa, Guam, and
the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana
Islands.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (B) For each calendar year thereafter, the
governors of Hawaii, American Samoa, Guam, and the
Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands shall, on
a rotating basis, take turns selecting the
member.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (4) A member of the Caribbean Fishery Management
Council who is designated under such section and selected as
follows:</DELETED>
<DELETED> (A) For the period beginning on the date
of the enactment of this Act and ending on December 31
of the calendar year during which such date of
enactment occurs, the member shall be selected jointly
by the governors of Puerto Rico and the United States
Virgin Islands.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (B) For each calendar year thereafter, the
governors of Puerto Rico and the United States Virgin
Islands shall, on an alternating basis, take turns
selecting the member.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (5) A member appointed by the President of the
Federated States of Micronesia.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (6) A member appointed by the President of the
Republic of the Marshall Islands.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (7) A member appointed by the President of the
Republic of Palau.</DELETED>
<DELETED>SEC. 204. RESPONSIBILITIES OF FEDERAL AGENCY
MEMBERS.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (a) In General.--A member of the Task Force specified in
paragraphs (1) through (14) of section 203(a) shall--</DELETED>
<DELETED> (1) identify the actions of the agency that member
represents that may affect coral reef ecosystems;</DELETED>
<DELETED> (2) utilize the programs and authorities of that
agency to protect and enhance the conditions of such
ecosystems, including through the promotion of basic and
applied scientific research;</DELETED>
<DELETED> (3) collaborate with the Task Force to
appropriately reflect budgetary needs for coral reef
conservation and restoration activities in all agency budget
planning and justification documents and processes;
and</DELETED>
<DELETED> (4) engage in any other coordinated efforts
approved by the Task Force.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (b) Co-Chairs.--In addition to their responsibilities
under subsection (a), the co-chairs of the Task Force shall administer
performance of the functions of the Task Force and facilitate the
coordination of the members of the Task Force specified in paragraphs
(1) through (14) of section 203(a).</DELETED>
<DELETED>SEC. 205. WORKING GROUPS.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (a) In General.--The co-chairs of the Task Force may
establish working groups as necessary to meet the goals and carry out
the duties of the Task Force.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (b) Requests From Members.--The members of the Task Force
may request that the co-chairs establish a working group under
subsection (a).</DELETED>
<DELETED> (c) Participation by Nongovernmental Organizations.--The
co-chairs may allow nongovernmental organizations as appropriate,
including academic institutions, conservation groups, and commercial
and recreational fishing associations, to participate in a working
group established under subsection (a).</DELETED>
<DELETED> (d) Nonapplicability of Federal Advisory Committee Act.--
The Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. App.) shall not apply to
working groups established under this section.</DELETED>
<DELETED>SEC. 206. DEFINITIONS.</DELETED>
<DELETED> In this title:</DELETED>
<DELETED> (1) Appropriate congressional committees.--The
term ``appropriate congressional committees'' means the
Committee on Commerce, Science, and Transportation of the
Senate and the Committee on Natural Resources of the House of
Representatives.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (2) Conservation, coral, coral reef, etc.--The
terms ``conservation'', ``coral'', ``coral reef'', ``coral reef
ecosystem'', ``covered State'', ``restoration'',
``resilience'', and ``State'' have the meaning given those
terms in section 218 of the Coral Reef Conservation Act of
2000, as amended by section 101.</DELETED>
<DELETED>TITLE III--DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR CORAL REEF
AUTHORITIES</DELETED>
<DELETED>SEC. 301. CORAL REEF CONSERVATION AND RESTORATION
ASSISTANCE.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (a) In General.--The Secretary of the Interior may provide
scientific expertise and technical assistance, and subject to the
availability of appropriations, financial assistance for the
conservation and restoration of coral reefs consistent with all
applicable laws governing resource management in Federal, State, and
Tribal waters, including--</DELETED>
<DELETED> (1) the national coral reef resilience strategy in
effect under section 204A of the Coral Reef Conservation Act of
2000, as amended by section 101;</DELETED>
<DELETED> (2) coral reef action plans in effect under
section 205 of that Act, as applicable; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> (3) coral reef emergency plans in effect under
section 209 of that Act, as applicable.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (b) Office of Insular Affairs Coral Reef Initiative.--The
Secretary may establish within the Office of Insular Affairs a Coral
Reef Initiative Program--</DELETED>
<DELETED> (1) to provide grant funding to support local
management, conservation, and protection of coral reef
ecosystems in--</DELETED>
<DELETED> (A) insular areas of covered States;
and</DELETED>
<DELETED> (B) Freely Associated States;</DELETED>
<DELETED> (2) to complement the other conservation and
assistance activities conducted under this Act; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> (3) to provide other technical, scientific, and
financial assistance and conduct conservation activities that
advance the purpose of this Act.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (c) Consultation With the Department of Commerce.--The
Secretary of the Interior may consult with the Secretary of Commerce
regarding the conduct of any activities to conserve and restore coral
reefs and coral reef ecosystems in waters managed under the
jurisdiction of the Federal agencies specified in paragraphs (2) and
(3) of section 203(c) of the Coral Reef Conservation Act of 2000, as
amended by section 101.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (d) Cooperative Agreements.--Subject to the availability
of appropriations, the Secretary of the Interior may enter into
cooperative agreements with covered reef managers to fund coral reef
conservation and restoration activities in waters managed under the
jurisdiction of such managers that--</DELETED>
<DELETED> (1) are consistent with the national coral reef
resilience strategy in effect under section 204A of the Coral
Reef Conservation Act of 2000, as amended by section 101;
and</DELETED>
<DELETED> (2) support and enhance the success of--</DELETED>
<DELETED> (A) coral reef action plans in effect
under section 205 of that Act; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> (B) coral reef emergency plans in effect
under section 209 of that Act.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (e) Definitions.--In this section, the terms
``conservation'', ``coral reef'', ``covered reef manager'', ``covered
State'', ``restoration'', and ``State'' have the meaning given those
terms in section 218 of the Coral Reef Conservation Act of 2000, as
amended by section 101.</DELETED>
<DELETED>TITLE IV--SUSAN L. WILLIAMS NATIONAL CORAL REEF MANAGEMENT
FELLOWSHIP</DELETED>
<DELETED>SEC. 401. SHORT TITLE.</DELETED>
<DELETED> This title may be cited as the ``Susan L. Williams
National Coral Reef Management Fellowship Act of 2021''.</DELETED>
<DELETED>SEC. 402. DEFINITIONS.</DELETED>
<DELETED> In this title:</DELETED>
<DELETED> (1) Fellow.--The term ``fellow'' means a National
Coral Reef Management Fellow.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (2) Fellowship.--The term ``fellowship'' means the
National Coral Reef Management Fellowship established in
section 403.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (3) Indian tribe; tribal organization.--The terms
``Indian Tribe'' and ``Tribal organization'' have the meanings
given those terms in section 4 of the Indian Self-Determination
and Education Assistance Act (25 U.S.C. 5304).</DELETED>
<DELETED> (4) Secretary.--The term ``Secretary'' means the
Secretary of Commerce.</DELETED>
<DELETED>SEC. 403. ESTABLISHMENT OF FELLOWSHIP PROGRAM.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (a) In General.--There is established a National Coral
Reef Management Fellowship Program.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (b) Purposes.--The purposes of the fellowship are--
</DELETED>
<DELETED> (1) to encourage future leaders of the United
States to develop additional coral reef management capacity in
States and local communities with coral reefs;</DELETED>
<DELETED> (2) to provide management agencies of States,
Tribal organizations, and Freely Associated States with highly
qualified candidates whose education and work experience meet
the specific needs of each State, Indian Tribe, and Freely
Associated State; and</DELETED>
<DELETED> (3) to provide fellows with professional
experience in management of coastal and coral reef
resources.</DELETED>
<DELETED>SEC. 404. FELLOWSHIP AWARDS.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (a) In General.--The Secretary shall award the fellowship
in accordance with this section.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (b) Term of Fellowship.--A fellowship awarded under this
section shall be for a term of not more than 24 months.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (c) Qualifications.--The Secretary shall award the
fellowship to individuals who have demonstrated--</DELETED>
<DELETED> (1) an intent to pursue a career in marine
services and outstanding potential for such a career;</DELETED>
<DELETED> (2) leadership potential, actual leadership
experience, or both;</DELETED>
<DELETED> (3) a college or graduate degree in biological
science, experience that correlates with aptitude and interest
for marine management, or both;</DELETED>
<DELETED> (4) proficient writing and speaking skills;
and</DELETED>
<DELETED> (5) such other attributes as the Secretary
considers appropriate.</DELETED>
<DELETED>SEC. 405. MATCHING REQUIREMENT.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (a) In General.--Except as provided in subsection (b), the
non-Federal share of the costs of a fellowship under this section shall
be 25 percent of such costs.</DELETED>
<DELETED> (b) Waiver of Requirements.--The Secretary may waive the
application of subsection (a) if the Secretary finds that such waiver
is necessary to support a project that the Secretary has identified as
a high priority.</DELETED>
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE; TABLE OF CONTENTS.
(a) Short Title.--This Act may be cited as the ``Restoring
Resilient Reefs Act of 2021''.
(b) Table of Contents.--The table of contents for this Act is as
follows:
Sec. 1. Short title; table of contents.
TITLE I--REAUTHORIZATION OF CORAL REEF CONSERVATION ACT OF 2000
Sec. 101. Reauthorization of Coral Reef Conservation Act of 2000.
TITLE II--UNITED STATES CORAL REEF TASK FORCE
Sec. 201. Establishment.
Sec. 202. Duties.
Sec. 203. Membership.
Sec. 204. Responsibilities of Federal agency members.
Sec. 205. Working groups.
Sec. 206. Definitions.
TITLE III--DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR CORAL REEF AUTHORITIES
Sec. 301. Coral reef conservation and restoration assistance.
TITLE IV--SUSAN L. WILLIAMS NATIONAL CORAL REEF MANAGEMENT FELLOWSHIP
Sec. 401. Short title.
Sec. 402. Definitions.
Sec. 403. Establishment of fellowship program.
Sec. 404. Fellowship awards.
Sec. 405. Matching requirement.
TITLE I--REAUTHORIZATION OF CORAL REEF CONSERVATION ACT OF 2000
SEC. 101. REAUTHORIZATION OF CORAL REEF CONSERVATION ACT OF 2000.
(a) In General.--The Coral Reef Conservation Act of 2000 (16 U.S.C.
6401 et seq.) is amended--
(1) by redesignating sections 209 and 210 as sections 217
and 218, respectively;
(2) by striking sections 202 through 208 and inserting the
following:
``SEC. 202. PURPOSES.
``The purposes of this title are--
``(1) to conserve and restore the condition of United
States coral reef ecosystems challenged by natural and human-
accelerated changes, including increasing ocean temperatures,
ocean acidification, coral bleaching, coral diseases, water
quality degradation, invasive species, and illegal, unreported,
and unregulated fishing;
``(2) to promote the science-based management and
sustainable use of coral reef ecosystems to benefit local
communities and the Nation, including through improved
integration and cooperation among Federal and non-Federal
stakeholders with coral reef equities;
``(3) to develop sound scientific information on the
condition of coral reef ecosystems, continuing and emerging
threats to such ecosystems, and the efficacy of innovative
tools, technologies, and strategies to mitigate stressors and
restore such ecosystems, including evaluation criteria to
determine the effectiveness of management interventions, and
accurate mapping for coral reef restoration;
``(4) to assist in the preservation of coral reefs by
supporting science-based, consensus-driven, and community-based
coral reef management by covered States and covered Native
entities, including monitoring, conservation, and restoration
projects that empower local communities, small businesses, and
nongovernmental organizations;
``(5) to provide financial resources, technical assistance,
and scientific expertise to supplement, complement, and
strengthen community-based management programs and conservation
and restoration projects of non-Federal reefs;
``(6) to establish a formal mechanism for collecting and
allocating monetary donations from the private sector to be
used for coral reef conservation and restoration projects;
``(7) to support the rapid and effective, science-based
assessment and response to exigent circumstances that pose
immediate and long-term threats to coral reefs, such as coral
disease, invasive or nuisance species, coral bleaching, natural
disasters, and industrial or mechanical disasters, such as
vessel groundings, hazardous spills, or coastal construction
accidents; and
``(8) to serve as a model for advancing similar
international efforts to monitor, conserve, and restore coral
reef ecosystems.
``SEC. 203. FEDERAL CORAL REEF MANAGEMENT AND RESTORATION ACTIVITIES.
``(a) In General.--The Administrator or the Secretary of the
Interior may conduct activities described in subsection (b) to conserve
and restore coral reefs and coral reef ecosystems that are consistent
with--
``(1) all applicable laws governing resource management in
Federal and State waters, including this Act;
``(2) the national coral reef resilience strategy in effect
under section 204; and
``(3) coral reef action plans in effect under section 205,
as applicable.
``(b) Activities Described.--Activities described in this
subsection are activities to conserve, research, monitor, assess, and
restore coral reefs and coral reef ecosystems in waters managed under
the jurisdiction of a Federal agency specified in subsection (c) or in
coordination with a State in waters managed under the jurisdiction of
such State, including--
``(1) developing, including through the collection of
requisite in situ and remotely sensed data, high-quality and
digitized maps reflecting--
``(A) current and historical live coral cover data;
``(B) coral reef habitat quality data;
``(C) priority areas for coral reef conservation to
maintain biodiversity and ecosystem structure and
function, including the reef matrix, that benefit
coastal communities and living marine resources;
``(D) priority areas for coral reef restoration to
enhance biodiversity and ecosystem structure and
function, including the reef matrix, to benefit coastal
communities and living marine resources; and
``(E) areas of concern that may require enhanced
monitoring of coral health and cover;
``(2) enhancing compliance with Federal laws that prohibit
or regulate--
``(A) the taking of coral products or species
associated with coral reefs; or
``(B) the use and management of coral reef
ecosystems;
``(3) long-term ecological monitoring of coral reef
ecosystems;
``(4) implementing species-specific recovery plans for
listed coral species consistent with the Endangered Species Act
of 1973 (16 U.S.C. 1531 et seq.);
``(5) restoring degraded coral reef ecosystems;
``(6) promoting ecologically sound navigation and
anchorages, including through navigational aids and expansion
of reef-safe anchorages and mooring buoy systems, to enhance
recreational access while preventing or minimizing the
likelihood of vessel impacts or other physical damage to coral
reefs;
``(7) monitoring and responding to severe bleaching or
mortality events, disease outbreaks, invasive species
outbreaks, and significant maritime accidents, including
chemical spill cleanup and the removal of grounded vessels;
``(8) conducting scientific research that contributes to
the understanding, sustainable use, and long-term conservation
of coral reefs;
``(9) enhancing public awareness, understanding, and
appreciation of coral reefs and coral reef ecosystems; and
``(10) centrally archiving, managing, and distributing data
sets and coral reef ecosystem assessments and publishing such
information on publicly available internet websites, by means
such as leveraging and partnering with existing data
repositories, of--
``(A) the Coral Reef Conservation Program of the
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration; and
``(B) the Task Force.
``(c) Federal Agencies Specified.--A Federal agency specified in
this subsection is one of the following:
``(1) The National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration.
``(2) The National Park Service.
``(3) The United States Fish and Wildlife Service.
``(4) The Office of Insular Affairs.
``SEC. 204. NATIONAL CORAL REEF RESILIENCE STRATEGY.
``(a) In General.--The Administrator shall--
``(1) not later than 2 years after the date of the
enactment of the Restoring Resilient Reefs Act of 2021, develop
a national coral reef resilience strategy; and
``(2) periodically thereafter, but not less frequently than
once every 15 years (and not less frequently than once every 5
years, in the case of guidance on best practices under
subsection (b)(4)), review and revise the strategy as
appropriate.
``(b) Elements.--The strategy required by subsection (a) shall
include the following:
``(1) A discussion addressing--
``(A) continuing and emerging threats to the
resilience of United States coral reef ecosystems;
``(B) remaining gaps in coral reef ecosystem
research, monitoring, and assessment;
``(C) the status of management cooperation and
integration among Federal reef managers and covered
reef managers;
``(D) the status of efforts to manage and
disseminate critical information, and enhance
interjurisdictional data sharing, related to research,
reports, datasets, and maps;
``(E) areas of special focus, which may include--
``(i) improving natural coral recruitment;
``(ii) preventing avoidable losses of
corals and their habitat;
``(iii) enhancing the resilience of coral
populations;
``(iv) supporting a resilience-based
management approach;
``(v) developing, coordinating, and
implementing watershed management plans;
``(vi) building and sustaining watershed
management capacity at the local level;
``(vii) providing data essential for coral
reef fisheries management;
``(viii) building capacity for coral reef
fisheries management;
``(ix) increasing understanding of coral
reef ecosystem services;
``(x) educating the public on the
importance of coral reefs, threats and
solutions; and
``(xi) evaluating intervention efficacy;
``(F) the status of conservation efforts, including
the use of marine protected areas to serve as
replenishment zones developed consistent with local
practices and traditions and in cooperation with, and
with respect for the scientific, technical, and
management expertise and responsibilities of, covered
reef managers;
``(G) science-based adaptive management and
restoration efforts; and
``(H) management of coral reef emergencies and
disasters.
``(2) A statement of national goals and objectives designed
to guide--
``(A) future Federal coral reef management and
restoration activities authorized under section 203;
``(B) conservation and restoration priorities for
grants awarded under section 213 and cooperative
agreements under section 208; and
``(C) research priorities for the reef research
coordination institutes designated under section 214.
``(3) A designation of priority areas for conservation, and
priority areas for restoration, to support the review and
approval of grants under section 213(e).
``(4) General templates for use by covered reef managers
and Federal reef managers to guide the development of coral
reef action plans under section 205, including guidance on the
best science-based practices to respond to coral reef
emergencies that can be included in coral reef action plans.
``(c) Consultations.--In developing all elements of the strategy
required by subsection (a), the Administrator shall--
``(1) consult with the Secretary of the Interior, the Task
Force, covered States, and covered Native entities;
``(2) engage stakeholders, including covered States, coral
reef stewardship partnerships, reef research coordination
institutes and research centers designated under section 214,
and recipients of grants under section 213; and
``(3) solicit public review and comment regarding scoping
and the draft strategy.
``(d) Submission to Congress; Publication.--The Administrator
shall--
``(1) submit the strategy required by subsection (a) and
any revisions to the strategy to the appropriate congressional
committees; and
``(2) publish the strategy and any such revisions on
publicly available internet websites of--
``(A) the Coral Reef Conservation Program of the
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration; and
``(B) the Task Force.
``SEC. 205. CORAL REEF ACTION PLANS.
``(a) Plans Prepared by Federal Reef Managers.--
``(1) In general.--Not later than 3 years after the date of
the enactment of the Restoring Resilient Reefs Act of 2021,
each Federal reef manager shall--
``(A) prepare a coral reef action plan to guide
management and restoration activities to be undertaken
within the responsibilities and jurisdiction of the
manager; or
``(B) in the case of a reef under the jurisdiction
of a Federal reef manager for which there is a
management plan in effect as of such date of enactment,
update that plan to comply with the requirements of
this subsection.
``(2) Elements.--A plan prepared under paragraph (1) by a
Federal reef manager shall include a discussion of the
following:
``(A) Short- and mid-term coral reef conservation
and restoration objectives within the jurisdiction of
the manager.
``(B) A current adaptive management framework to
inform research, monitoring, and assessment needs.
``(C) Tools, strategies, and partnerships necessary
to identify, monitor, and address pollution and water
quality impacts to coral reef ecosystems within the
jurisdiction of the manager.
``(D) The status of efforts to improve coral reef
ecosystem management cooperation and integration
between Federal reef managers and covered reef
managers, including the identification of existing
research and monitoring activities that can be
leveraged for coral reef status and trends assessments
within the jurisdiction of the manager.
``(E) Estimated budgetary and resource
considerations necessary to carry out the plan.
``(F) Contingencies for response to and recovery
from emergencies and disasters.
``(G) In the case of an updated plan, annual
records of significant management and restoration
actions taken under the previous plan, cash and non-
cash resources used to undertake the actions, and the
source of such resources.
``(H) Documentation by the Federal reef manager
that the plan is consistent with the national coral
reef resilience strategy in effect under section 204.
``(I) A data management plan to ensure data,
assessments, and accompanying information are
appropriately preserved, curated, publicly accessible,
and broadly reusable.
``(3) Submission to task force.--Each Federal reef manager
shall submit a plan prepared under paragraph (1) to the Task
Force.
``(4) Application of administrative procedure act.--Each
plan prepared under paragraph (1) shall be subject to the
requirements of subchapter II of chapter 5, and chapter 7, of
title 5, United States Code (commonly known as the
`Administrative Procedure Act').
``(b) Plans Prepared by Covered Reef Managers.--
``(1) In general.--A covered reef manager may elect to
prepare, submit to the Task Force, and maintain a coral reef
action plan to guide management and restoration activities to
be undertaken within the responsibilities and jurisdiction of
the manager.
``(2) Effective period.--A plan prepared under this
subsection shall remain in effect for 5 years, or until an
updated plan is submitted to the Task Force, whichever occurs
first.
``(3) Elements.--A plan prepared under paragraph (1) by a
covered reef manager--
``(A) shall contain a discussion of--
``(i) short- and mid-term coral reef
conservation and restoration objectives within
the jurisdiction of the manager;
``(ii) estimated budgetary and resource
considerations necessary to carry out the plan;
``(iii) in the case of an updated plan,
annual records of significant management and
restoration actions taken under the previous
plan, cash and non-cash resources used to
undertake the actions, and the source of such
resources; and
``(iv) contingencies for response to and
recovery from emergencies and disasters; and
``(B) may contain a discussion of--
``(i) the status of efforts to improve
coral reef ecosystem management cooperation and
integration between Federal reef managers and
covered reef managers, including the
identification of existing research and
monitoring activities that can be leveraged for
coral reef status and trends assessments within
the jurisdiction of the manager;
``(ii) a current adaptive management
framework to inform research, monitoring, and
assessment needs;
``(iii) tools, strategies, and partnerships
necessary to identify, monitor, and address
pollution and water quality impacts to coral
reef ecosystems within the jurisdiction of the
manager; and
``(iv) a data management plan to ensure
data, assessments, and accompanying information
are appropriately preserved, curated, publicly
accessible, and broadly reusable..
``(c) Technical Assistance.--The Administrator and the Task Force
shall make all reasonable efforts to provide technical assistance upon
request by a Federal reef manager or covered reef manager developing a
coral reef action plan under this section.
``(d) Publication.--The Administrator shall publish each coral reef
action plan prepared and submitted to the Task Force under this section
on publicly available internet websites of--
``(1) the Coral Reef Conservation Program of the National
Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration; and
``(2) the Task Force.
``SEC. 206. CORAL REEF STEWARDSHIP PARTNERSHIPS.
``(a) In General.--To further the community-based stewardship of
coral reefs, coral reef stewardship partnerships for Federal and non-
Federal coral reefs may be established in accordance with this section.
``(b) Standards and Procedures.--The Administrator shall develop
and adopt--
``(1) standards for identifying individual coral reefs and
ecologically significant units of coral reefs; and
``(2) processes for adjudicating multiple applicants for
stewardship of the same coral reef or ecologically significant
unit of a reef to ensure no geographic overlap in
representation among stewardship partnerships authorized by
this section.
``(c) Membership for Federal Coral Reefs.--A coral reef stewardship
partnership that has identified, as the subject of its stewardship
activities, a coral reef or ecologically significant unit of a coral
reef that is fully or partially under the management jurisdiction of
any Federal agency specified in section 203(c) shall, at a minimum,
include the following:
``(1) That Federal agency, a representative of which shall
serve as chairperson of the coral reef stewardship partnership.
``(2) A State or county's resource management agency.
``(3) A coral reef research center designated under section
214(b).
``(4) A nongovernmental organization.
``(5) Such other members as the partnership considers
appropriate, such as interested stakeholder groups and covered
Native entities.
``(d) Membership for Non-Federal Coral Reefs.--
``(1) In general.--A coral reef stewardship partnership
that has identified, as the subject of its stewardship
activities, a coral reef or ecologically significant component
of a coral reef that is not under the management jurisdiction
of any Federal agency specified in section 203(c) shall, at a
minimum, include the following:
``(A) A State or county's resource management
agency or a covered Native entity, a representative of
which shall serve as the chairperson of the coral reef
stewardship partnership.
``(B) A coral reef research center designated under
section 214(b).
``(C) A nongovernmental organization.
``(D) Such other members as the partnership
considers appropriate, such as interested stakeholder
groups.
``(2) Additional members.--
``(A) In general.--Subject to subparagraph (B), a
coral reef stewardship partnership described in
paragraph (1) may also include representatives of one
or more Federal agencies.
``(B) Requests; approval.--A representative of a
Federal agency described in subparagraph (A) may become
a member of a coral reef stewardship partnership
described in paragraph (1) if--
``(i) the representative submits a request
to become a member to the chairperson of the
partnership referred to in paragraph (1)(A);
and
``(ii) the chairperson consents to the
request.
``(e) Nonapplicability of Federal Advisory Committee Act.--The
Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. App.) shall not apply to coral
reef stewardship partnerships under this section.
``SEC. 207. BLOCK GRANTS.
``(a) In General.--The Administrator shall provide block grants of
financial assistance to covered States to support management and
restoration activities and further the implementation of coral reef
action plans in effect under section 205 by covered States and non-
Federal coral reef stewardship partnerships in accordance with this
section. The Administrator shall review each covered State's
application for block grant funding to ensure that applications are
consistent with applicable action plans and the national coral reef
resilience strategy in effect under section 204.
``(b) Eligibility for Additional Amounts.--
``(1) In general.--A covered State shall qualify for and
receive additional grant amounts beyond the base award
specified in subsection (c)(1) if there is at least one coral
reef action plan in effect within the jurisdiction of the
covered State developed by that covered State or a non-Federal
coral reef stewardship partnership.
``(2) Waiver for certain fiscal years.--The Administrator
may waive the requirement under paragraph (1) during fiscal
years 2022 and 2023.
``(c) Funding Formula.--Subject to the availability of
appropriations, the amount of each block grant awarded to a covered
State under this section shall be the sum of--
``(1) a base award of $100,000; and
``(2) if the State is eligible under subsection (b)--
``(A) an amount that is equal to non-Federal
expenditures of up to $3,000,000 on coral reef
management and restoration activities within the
jurisdiction of the State, as reported within the
previous fiscal year; and
``(B) an additional amount, from any funds
appropriated for block grants under this section that
remain after distribution under subparagraph (A) and
paragraph (1), based on the proportion of the State's
share of total non-Federal expenditures on coral reef
management and restoration activities, as reported
within the previous fiscal year, in excess of
$3,000,000, relative to other covered States.
``(d) Exclusions.--For the purposes of calculating block grant
amounts under subsection (c), Federal funds provided to a covered State
or non-Federal coral reef stewardship partnership shall not be
considered as qualifying non-Federal expenditures, but non-Federal
matching funds used to leverage Federal awards may be considered as
qualifying non-Federal expenditures.
``(e) Responsibilities of the Administrator.--The Administrator is
responsible for--
``(1) providing guidance on qualifying non-Federal
expenditures and the proper documentation of such expenditures;
``(2) issuing annual solicitations to covered States for
awards under this section; and
``(3) determining the appropriate allocation of additional
amounts among covered States in accordance with this section.
``(f) Responsibilities of Covered States.--Each covered State is
responsible for documenting non-Federal expenditures within the
jurisdiction of the State and formally reporting those expenditures for
review in response to annual solicitations by the Administrator under
subsection (e).
``(g) Unobligated Amounts.--Any amounts available for block grants
under this section that are not obligated by the National Oceanic and
Atmospheric Administration shall be transferred to the Coral Reef
Stewardship Fund established under section 209.
``SEC. 208. COOPERATIVE AGREEMENTS.
``(a) In General.--The Administrator shall seek to enter into
cooperative agreements with covered States to fund coral reef
conservation and restoration activities in waters managed under the
jurisdiction of those covered States that are consistent with the
national coral reef resilience strategy in effect under section 204 and
any applicable action plans under section 205.
``(b) All Islands Committee.--The Administrator may enter into a
cooperative agreement with the All Islands Committee of the Task Force
to provide support for its activities.
``(c) Funding.--Cooperative agreements under subsection (a) shall
provide not less than $500,000 to each covered State and are not
subject to any matching requirement.
``(d) Unobligated Amounts.--Any amounts available for cooperative
agreements under this section that are not obligated by the National
Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration shall be transferred to the
Coral Reef Stewardship Fund established under section 209.
``SEC. 209. CORAL REEF STEWARDSHIP FUND.
``(a) Agreement.--The Administrator shall seek to enter into an
agreement with the National Fish and Wildlife Foundation (in this
section referred to as the `Foundation'), authorizing the Foundation to
receive, hold, and administer funds received under this section.
``(b) Fund.--
``(1) In general.--The Foundation shall establish an
account, which shall--
``(A) be known as the `Coral Reef Stewardship Fund'
(in this section referred to as the `Fund'); and
``(B) serve as the successor to the account known
before the date of the enactment of the Restoring
Resilient Reefs Act of 2021 as the Coral Reef
Conservation Fund and administered through a public-
private partnership with the Foundation.
``(2) Deposits.--The Foundation shall deposit funds
received under this section into the Fund.
``(3) Purposes.--The Fund shall be available solely to
support coral reef stewardship activities that--
``(A) further the purposes of this title; and
``(B) are consistent with--
``(i) the national coral reef resilience
strategy in effect under section 204; and
``(ii) coral reef action plans in effect,
if any, under section 205 covering a coral reef
or ecologically significant component of a
coral reef to be impacted by such activities,
if applicable.
``(4) Investment of amounts.--
``(A) Investment of amounts.--The Foundation shall
invest such portion of the Fund as is not required to
meet current withdrawals in interest-bearing
obligations of the United States or in obligations
guaranteed as to both principal and interest by the
United States.
``(B) Interest and proceeds.--The interest on, and
the proceeds from the sale or redemption of, any
obligations held in the Fund shall be credited to and
form a part of the Fund.
``(5) Review of performance.--The Administrator shall
conduct a continuing review of all deposits into, and
disbursements from, the Fund. Each review shall include a
written assessment concerning the extent to which the
Foundation has implemented the goals and requirements of--
``(A) this section; and
``(B) the national coral reef resilience strategy
in effect under section 204.
``(c) Authorization to Solicit Donations.--
``(1) In general.--Pursuant to an agreement entered into
under subsection (a), the Foundation may accept, receive,
solicit, hold, administer, and use any gift (including,
notwithstanding section 1342 of title 31, United States Code,
donations of services) to further the purposes of this title.
``(2) Deposits in fund.--Notwithstanding section 3302 of
title 31, United States Code, any funds received as a gift
shall be deposited and maintained in the Fund.
``(d) Administration.--Under an agreement entered into pursuant to
subsection (a), and subject to the availability of appropriations, the
Administrator shall transfer funds described in sections 207(g),
208(d), 213(i), and 214(c) that are not obligated by the National
Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, and may transfer funds
appropriated to carry out this title, to the Foundation. Amounts
received by the Foundation under this subsection may be used for
matching, in whole or in part, contributions (whether in money,
services, or property) made to the Foundation by private persons, State
or local government agencies, or covered Native entities.
``SEC. 210. EMERGENCY ASSISTANCE.
``(a) In General.--Notwithstanding any other provision of law, from
funds appropriated pursuant to the authorization of appropriations
under section 217, the Administrator may provide emergency assistance
to any covered State or coral reef stewardship partnership to respond
to immediate harm to coral reefs or coral reef ecosystems arising from
any of the exigent circumstances described in subsection (b).
``(b) Coral Reef Exigent Circumstances.--The Administrator shall
develop a list of, and criteria for, circumstances that pose an exigent
threat to coral reefs, including--
``(1) new and ongoing outbreaks of disease;
``(2) new and ongoing outbreaks of invasive or nuisance
species;
``(3) new and ongoing coral bleaching events;
``(4) natural disasters;
``(5) industrial or mechanical incidents, such as vessel
groundings, hazardous spills, or coastal construction
accidents; and
``(6) other circumstances that pose an urgent threat to
coral reefs.
``(c) Annual Report on Exigent Circumstances.--On February 1 of
each year, the Administrator shall submit to the appropriate
congressional committees, the Committee on Appropriations of the
Senate, and the Committee on Appropriations of the House of
Representatives a report that--
``(1) describes locations with exigent circumstances
described in subsection (b) that were considered but declined
for emergency assistance, and the rationale for the decision;
and
``(2) with respect to each instance in which emergency
assistance under this section was provided--
``(A) the location and a description of the exigent
circumstances that prompted the emergency assistance,
the entity that received the assistance, and the
current and expected outcomes from the assistance;
``(B) a description of activities of the National
Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration that were
curtailed as a result of providing the emergency
assistance;
``(C) in the case of an incident described in
subsection (b)(5), a statement of whether legal action
was commenced under subsection (c), and the rationale
for the decision; and
``(D) an assessment of whether further action is
needed to restore the affected coral reef,
recommendations for such restoration, and a cost
estimate to implement such recommendations.
``SEC. 211. CORAL REEF DISASTER FUND.
``(a) Agreements.--The Administrator shall seek to enter into an
agreement with the National Fish and Wildlife Foundation (in this
section referred to as the `Foundation'), authorizing the Foundation to
receive, hold, and administer funds received under this section.
``(b) Fund.--
``(1) In general.--The Foundation shall establish an
account, to be known as the `Coral Reef Disaster Fund' (in this
section referred to as the `Fund').
``(2) Deposits.--The Foundation shall deposit funds
received under this section into the Fund.
``(3) Purposes.--The Fund shall be available solely to
support the long-term recovery of coral reefs from exigent
circumstances described in section 210--
``(A) in partnership with non-Federal stakeholders;
and
``(B) in a manner that is consistent with--
``(i) the national coral reef resilience
strategy in effect under section 204; and
``(ii) coral reef action plans in effect,
if any, under section 205.
``(4) Investment of amounts.--
``(A) Investment of amounts.--The Foundation shall
invest such portion of the Fund as is not required to
meet current withdrawals in interest-bearing
obligations of the United States or in obligations
guaranteed as to both principal and interest by the
United States.
``(B) Interest and proceeds.--The interest on, and
the proceeds from the sale or redemption of, any
obligations held in the Fund shall be credited to and
form a part of the Fund.
``(5) Review of performance.--The Administrator shall
conduct continuing reviews of all deposits into, and
disbursements from, the Fund. Each such review shall include a
written assessment concerning the extent to which the
Foundation has implemented the goals and requirements of this
section.
``(c) Authorization to Solicit Donations.--
``(1) In general.--Pursuant to an agreement entered into
under subsection (a), the Foundation may accept, receive,
solicit, hold, administer, and use any gift (including,
notwithstanding section 1342 of title 31, United States Code,
donations of services) to further the purposes of this title.
``(2) Deposits in fund.--Notwithstanding section 3302 of
title 31, United States Code, any funds received as a gift
shall be deposited and maintained in the Fund.
``(d) Administration.--Under an agreement entered into under
subsection (a), and subject to the availability of appropriations, the
Administrator may transfer funds appropriated to carry out this title
to the Foundation. Amounts received by the Foundation under this
subsection may be used for matching, in whole or in part, contributions
(whether in money, services, or property) made to the Foundation by
private persons, State or local government agencies, or covered Native
entities.
``SEC. 212. VESSEL GROUNDING INVENTORY.
``The Administrator, in coordination with the Commandant of the
Coast Guard, the Administrator of the Maritime Administration, and the
heads of other Federal and State agencies as appropriate, shall
establish and maintain an inventory of all vessel grounding incidents
involving United States coral reefs, including a description of--
``(1) the location of each such incident;
``(2) vessel and ownership information relating to each
such incident, if available;
``(3) the impacts of each such incident to coral reefs,
coral reef ecosystems, and related natural resources;
``(4) the estimated cost of removal of the vessel,
remediation, or restoration arising from each such incident;
``(5) any response actions taken by the owner of the
vessel, the Administrator, the Commandant, or representatives
of other Federal or State agencies;
``(6) the status of such response actions, including--
``(A) when the grounded vessel was removed, the
costs of removal, and the how the removal was
resourced;
``(B) a narrative and timeline of remediation or
restoration activities undertaken by a Federal agency
or agencies;
``(C) any emergency or disaster assistance provided
under section 210 or 211;
``(D) any actions taken to prevent future grounding
incidents; and
``(7) recommendations for additional navigational aids or
other mechanisms for preventing future grounding incidents.
``SEC. 213. RUTH D. GATES CORAL REEF CONSERVATION GRANT PROGRAM.
``(a) In General.--Subject to the availability of appropriations,
the Administrator shall establish a program (to be known as the `Ruth
D. Gates Coral Reef Conservation Grant Program') to provide grants for
projects for the conservation and restoration of coral reef ecosystems
(in this section referred to as `coral reef projects') pursuant to
proposals approved by the Administrator in accordance with this
section.
``(b) Matching Requirements for Grants.--
``(1) In general.--Except as provided in paragraph (3),
Federal funds for any coral reef project for which a grant is
provided under subsection (a) may not exceed 50 percent of the
total cost of the project.
``(2) Non-federal share.--The non-Federal share of the cost
of a coral reef project may be provided by in-kind
contributions and other noncash support.
``(3) Waiver.--The Administrator may waive all or part of
the matching requirement under paragraph (1) if the
Administrator determines that no reasonable means are available
through which an applicant can meet the matching requirement
with respect to a coral reef project and the probable benefit
of the project outweighs the public interest in the matching
requirement.
``(c) Eligibility.--
``(1) In general.--An entity described in paragraph (2) may
submit to the Administrator a proposal for a coral reef
project.
``(2) Entities described.--An entity described in this
paragraph is--
``(A) a covered reef manager or a covered Native
entity--
``(i) with responsibility for coral reef
management; or
``(ii) the activities of which directly or
indirectly affect coral reefs or coral reef
ecosystems;
``(B) a regional fishery management council
established under the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery
Conservation and Management Act (16 U.S.C. 1801 et
seq.);
``(C) a coral reef stewardship partnership seeking
to implement a coral reef action plan in effect under
section 205;
``(D) a coral reef research center designated under
section 214(b); or
``(E) another nongovernmental organization or
research institution with demonstrated expertise in the
conservation or restoration of coral reefs in practice
or through significant contributions to the body of
existing scientific research on coral reefs.
``(d) Project Proposals.--Each proposal for a grant under this
section for a coral reef project shall include the following:
``(1) The name of the individual or entity responsible for
conducting the project.
``(2) A description of the qualifications of the individual
or entity.
``(3) A succinct statement of the purposes of the project.
``(4) An estimate of the funds and time required to
complete the project.
``(5) Evidence of support for the project by appropriate
representatives of States or other government jurisdictions in
which the project will be conducted.
``(6) Information regarding the source and amount of
matching funding available to the applicant.
``(7) A description of how the project meets one or more of
the criteria under subsection (f)(2).
``(8) In the case of a proposal submitted by a coral reef
stewardship partnership, a description of how the project
aligns with the applicable coral reef action plan in effect
under section 205.
``(9) Any other information the Administrator considers to
be necessary for evaluating the eligibility of the project for
a grant under this subsection.
``(e) Project Review and Approval.--
``(1) In general.--The Administrator shall review each
coral reef project proposal submitted under this section to
determine if the project meets the criteria set forth in
subsection (f).
``(2) Prioritization of conservation projects.--The
Administrator shall prioritize the awarding of funding for
projects that meet the criteria for approval under
subparagraphs (A) through (G) of subsection (f)(2) that are
proposed to be conducted within priority areas identified for
coral reef conservation by the Administrator under the national
coral reef resilience strategy in effect under section 204.
``(3) Prioritization of restoration projects.--The
Administrator shall prioritize the awarding of funding for
projects that meet the criteria for approval under
subparagraphs (E) through (L) of subsection (f)(2) that are
proposed to be conducted within priority areas identified for
coral reef restoration by the Administrator under the national
coral reef resilience strategy in effect under section 204.
``(4) Review; approval or disapproval.--Not later than 180
days after receiving a proposal for a coral reef project under
this section, the Administrator shall--
``(A) request and consider written comments on the
proposal from each Federal agency, State government,
covered Native entity, or other government
jurisdiction, including the relevant regional fishery
management councils established under the Magnuson-
Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (16
U.S.C. 1801 et seq.), or any National Marine Sanctuary
or Marine National Monument, with jurisdiction or
management authority over coral reef ecosystems in the
area where the project is to be conducted, including
the extent to which the project is consistent with
locally established priorities, unless such entities
were directly involved in the development of the
project proposal;
``(B) provide for the merit-based peer review of
the proposal and require standardized documentation of
that peer review;
``(C) after considering any written comments and
recommendations based on the reviews under
subparagraphs (A) and (B), approve or disapprove the
proposal; and
``(D) provide written notification of that approval
or disapproval, with summaries of all written comments,
recommendations, and peer reviews, to the entity that
submitted the proposal, and each of those States,
covered Native entity, and other government
jurisdictions that provided comments under subparagraph
(A).
``(f) Criteria for Approval.--The Administrator may not approve a
proposal for a coral reef project under this section unless the
project--
``(1) is consistent with--
``(A) the national coral reef resilience strategy
in effect under section 204; and
``(B) any Federal or non-Federal coral reef action
plans in effect under section 205 covering a coral reef
or ecologically significant unit of a coral reef to be
affected by the project; and
``(2) will enhance the conservation and restoration of
coral reefs by--
``(A) addressing conflicts arising from the use of
environments near coral reefs or from the use of
corals, species associated with coral reefs, and coral
products, including supporting consensus-driven,
community-based planning and management initiatives for
the protection of coral reef ecosystems;
``(B) improving compliance with laws that prohibit
or regulate the taking of coral products or species
associated with coral reefs or regulate the use and
management of coral reef ecosystems;
``(C) designing and implementing networks of real-
time water quality monitoring along coral reefs,
including data collection related to turbidity,
nutrient availability, harmful algal blooms, and
plankton assemblages, with an emphasis on coral reefs
impacted by agriculture and urban development;
``(D) promoting ecologically sound navigation and
anchorages, including mooring buoy systems to promote
enhanced recreational access, near coral reefs;
``(E) furthering the goals and objectives of coral
reef action plans in effect under section 205;
``(F) mapping the location and distribution of
coral reefs and potential coral reef habitat;
``(G) stimulating innovation to advance the ability
of the United States to understand, research, or
monitor coral reef ecosystems, or to develop management
or adaptation options to conserve and restore coral
reef ecosystems;
``(H) implementing research to ensure the
population viability of listed coral species in United
States waters as detailed in the population-based
recovery criteria included in species-specific recovery
plans consistent with the Endangered Species Act of
1973 (16 U.S.C. 1531 et seq.);
``(I) developing and implementing cost-effective
methods to restore degraded coral reef ecosystems or to
create geographically appropriate coral reef ecosystems
in suitable waters, including by improving habitat or
promoting success of keystone species, with an emphasis
on novel restoration strategies and techniques to
advance coral reef recovery and growth near population
centers threatened by rising sea levels and storm
surge;
``(J) translating and applying coral genetics
research to coral reef ecosystem restoration, including
research related to traits that promote resilience to
increasing ocean temperatures, ocean acidification,
coral bleaching, coral diseases, and invasive species;
``(K) developing and maintaining in situ native
coral propagation sites; or
``(L) developing and maintaining ex situ coral
propagation nurseries and land-based coral gene banks
to--
``(i) conserve or augment genetic diversity
of native coral populations;
``(ii) support captive breeding of rare
coral species; or
``(iii) enhance resilience of native coral
populations to increasing ocean temperatures,
ocean acidification, coral bleaching, and coral
diseases through selective breeding,
conditioning, or other approaches that target
genes, gene expression, phenotypic traits, or
phenotypic plasticity.
``(g) Funding Requirements.--To the extent practicable based upon
proposals for coral reef projects submitted to the Administrator, the
Administrator shall ensure that funding for grants awarded under this
section during a fiscal year is distributed as follows:
``(1) Not less than 40 percent of funds available shall be
awarded for projects in the Pacific Ocean within the maritime
areas and zones subject to the jurisdiction or control of the
United States.
``(2) Not less than 40 percent of the funds available shall
be awarded for projects in the Atlantic Ocean, the Gulf of
Mexico, or the Caribbean Sea within the maritime areas and
zones subject to the jurisdiction or control of the United
States.
``(3) Not more than 67 percent of funds distributed in each
region in accordance with paragraphs (1) and (2) shall be made
exclusively available to projects that are--
``(A) submitted by a coral reef stewardship
partnership; and
``(B) consistent with the coral reef action plan in
effect under section 205 by such a partnership.
``(4) Of the funds distributed to support projects in
accordance with paragraph (3), not less than 20 percent and not
more than 33 percent shall be awarded for projects submitted by
a Federal coral reef stewardship partnership.
``(h) Task Force.--The Administrator may consult with the Secretary
of the Interior and the Task Force to obtain guidance in establishing
priorities and evaluating proposals for coral reef projects under this
section.
``(i) Unobligated Amounts.--Any amounts available for grants under
this section that are not obligated by the National Oceanic and
Atmospheric Administration shall be transferred to the Coral Reef
Stewardship Fund established under section 209.
``SEC. 214. NON-FEDERAL CORAL REEF RESEARCH.
``(a) Reef Research Coordination Institutes.--
``(1) Establishment.--The Administrator shall designate 2
reef research coordination institutes for the purpose of
advancing and sustaining essential capabilities in coral reef
research, one each in the Atlantic and Pacific basins, to be
known as the `Atlantic Reef Research Coordination Institute'
and the `Pacific Reef Research Coordination Institute',
respectively.
``(2) Membership.--Each institute designated under
paragraph (1) shall be housed within a single coral reef
research center designated by the Administrator under
subsection (b) and may enter into contracts with other coral
reef research centers designated under subsection (b) within
the same basin to support the institute's capacity and reach.
``(3) Functions.--The institutes designated under paragraph
(1) shall--
``(A) conduct federally directed research to fill
national and regional coral reef ecosystem research
gaps and improve understanding of, and responses to,
continuing and emerging threats to the resilience of
United States coral reef ecosystems consistent with the
national coral reef resilience strategy in effect under
section 204;
``(B) support ecological research and monitoring to
study the effects of conservation and restoration
activities funded by this title on promoting more
effective coral reef management and restoration; and
``(C) through agreements--
``(i) collaborate directly with
governmental resource management agencies,
coral reef stewardship partnerships, nonprofit
organizations, and other coral reef research
centers designated under subsection (b);
``(ii) assist in the development and
implementation of--
``(I) the national coral reef
resilience strategy under section 204;
and
``(II) coral reef action plans
under section 205;
``(iii) build capacity within non-Federal
governmental resource management agencies to
establish research priorities and translate and
apply research findings to management and
restoration practices; and
``(iv) conduct public education and
awareness programs for policymakers, resource
managers, and the general public on--
``(I) coral reefs and coral reef
ecosystems;
``(II) best practices for coral
reef ecosystem management and
restoration;
``(III) the value of coral reefs;
and
``(IV) the threats to the
sustainability of coral reef
ecosystems.
``(b) Coral Reef Research Centers.--
``(1) In general.--The Administrator shall--
``(A) periodically solicit applications for
designation of qualifying institutions in covered
States as coral reef research centers; and
``(B) designate all qualifying institutions in
covered States as coral reef research centers.
``(2) Qualifying institutions.--For purposes of paragraph
(1), an institution is a qualifying institution if the
Administrator determines that the institution--
``(A) is operated by an institution of higher
education or nonprofit marine research organization;
``(B) has established management-driven national or
regional coral reef research or restoration programs;
``(C) has demonstrated abilities to coordinate
closely with appropriate Federal and State agencies, as
well as other academic and nonprofit organizations; and
``(D) maintains significant local community
engagement and outreach programs related to coral reef
ecosystems.
``(c) Unobligated Amounts.--Any amounts available for reef research
coordination institutes under this section that are not obligated by
the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration shall be
transferred to the Coral Reef Stewardship Fund established under
section 209.
``SEC. 215. REPORTS ON ADMINISTRATION.
``Not later than 3 years after the date of the enactment of the
Restoring Resilient Reefs Act of 2021, and every 2 years thereafter,
the Administrator shall submit to the appropriate congressional
committees, the Committee on Appropriations of the Senate, and the
Committee on Appropriations of the House of Representatives a report on
the administration of this title during the 2-year period preceding
submission of the report, including--
``(1) a description of all activities undertaken to
implement the most recent national coral reef resilience
strategy under section 204;
``(2) a statement of all funds obligated under the
authorities of this title; and
``(3) a summary, disaggregated by State, of Federal and
non-Federal contributions toward the costs of each project or
activity funded, in full or in part, under the authorities of
this title.
``SEC. 216. CORAL REEF PRIZE COMPETITIONS.
``(a) In General.--The head of any Federal agency with a
representative serving on the United States Coral Reef Task Force
established by Executive Order 13089 (16 U.S.C. 6401 note; relating to
coral reef protection), may, individually or in cooperation with one or
more agencies, carry out a program to award prizes competitively under
section 24 of the Stevenson-Wydler Technology Innovation Act of 1980
(15 U.S.C. 3719).
``(b) Purposes.--Any program carried out under this section shall
be for the purpose of stimulating innovation to advance the ability of
the United States to understand, research, or monitor coral reef
ecosystems, or to develop management or adaptation options to preserve,
sustain, and restore coral reef ecosystems.
``(c) Priority Programs.--Priority shall be given to establishing
programs under this section that address communities, environments, or
industries that are in distress as a result of the decline or
degradation of coral reef ecosystems, including--
``(1) scientific research and monitoring that furthers the
understanding of causes behind coral reef decline and
degradation and the generally slow recovery following
disturbances, including ocean acidification, temperature-
related bleaching, disease, and their associated impacts on
coral physiology;
``(2) the development of monitoring or management options
for communities or industries that are experiencing significant
financial hardship;
``(3) the development of adaptation options to alleviate
economic harm and job loss caused by damage to coral reef
ecosystems;
``(4) the development of measures to help vulnerable
communities or industries, with an emphasis on rural
communities and businesses; and
``(5) the development of adaptation and management options
for impacted tourism industries.'';
(3) in section 217, as redesignated by paragraph (1)--
(A) in subsection (c), by striking ``section 204''
and inserting ``section 213'';
(B) in subsection (d), by striking ``under section
207'' and inserting ``authorized under this title'';
and
(C) by adding at the end the following:
``(e) Block Grants.--There is authorized to be appropriated to the
Administrator $10,000,000 for each of fiscal years 2022 through 2026 to
carry out section 207.
``(f) Cooperative Agreements.--There is authorized to be
appropriated to the Administrator $10,000,000 for each of fiscal years
2022 through 2026 to carry out section 208.
``(g) Non-Federal Coral Reef Research.--There is authorized to be
appropriated to the Administrator $4,500,000 for each of fiscal years
2022 through 2026 for agreements with the reef research coordination
institutes designated under section 214.''; and
(4) by amending section 218, as redesignated by paragraph
(1), to read as follows:
``SEC. 218. DEFINITIONS.
``In this title:
``(1) Administrator.--The term `Administrator' means the
Administrator of the National Oceanic and Atmospheric
Administration.
``(2) Alaska native corporation.--The term `Alaska Native
Corporation' has the meaning given the term `Native
Corporation' in section 3 of the Alaska Native Claims
Settlement Act (43 U.S.C. 1602).
``(3) Appropriate congressional committees.--The term
`appropriate congressional committees' means the Committee on
Commerce, Science, and Transportation of the Senate and the
Committee on Natural Resources of the House of Representatives.
``(4) Conservation.--The term `conservation' means the use
of methods and procedures necessary to preserve or sustain
native corals and associated species as diverse, viable, and
self-perpetuating coral reef ecosystems with minimal impacts
from invasive species, including--
``(A) all activities associated with resource
management, such as monitoring, assessment, protection,
restoration, sustainable use, management of habitat,
and maintenance or augmentation of genetic diversity;
``(B) mapping;
``(C) scientific expertise and technical assistance
in the development and implementation of management
strategies for marine protected areas and marine
resources consistent with the National Marine
Sanctuaries Act (16 U.S.C. 1431 et seq.) and the
Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management
Act (16 U.S.C. 1801 et seq.);
``(D) law enforcement;
``(E) conflict resolution initiatives;
``(F) community outreach and education; and
``(G) promotion of safe and ecologically sound
navigation and anchoring.
``(5) Coral.--The term `coral' means species of the phylum
Cnidaria, including--
``(A) all species of the orders Antipatharia (black
corals), Scleractinia (stony corals), Alcyonacea (soft
corals, organ pipe corals, gorgonians), and
Helioporacea (blue coral), of the class Anthozoa; and
``(B) all species of the order Anthoathecata (fire
corals and other hydrocorals) of the class Hydrozoa.
``(6) Coral products.--The term `coral products' means any
living or dead specimens, parts, or derivatives, or any product
containing specimens, parts, or derivatives, of any species
referred to in paragraph (5).
``(7) Coral reef.--The term `coral reef' means calcium
carbonate structures in the form of a reef or shoal, composed
in whole or in part by living coral, skeletal remains of coral,
crustose coralline algae, and other associated sessile marine
plants and animals.
``(8) Coral reef ecosystem.--The term `coral reef
ecosystem' means--
``(A) corals and other geographically and
ecologically associated marine communities of other
reef organisms (including reef plants and animals)
associated with coral reef habitat; and
``(B) the biotic and abiotic factors and processes
that control or affect coral calcification rates,
tissue growth, reproduction, recruitment, abundance,
coral-algal symbiosis, and biodiversity in such
habitat.
``(9) Covered native entity.--The term `covered Native
entity' means a Native entity of a covered State with interests
in a coral reef ecosystem.
``(10) Covered reef manager.--The term `covered reef
manager' means--
``(A) a management unit of a covered State with
jurisdiction over a coral reef ecosystem;
``(B) a covered State; or
``(C) a coral reef stewardship partnership under
section 206(d).
``(11) Covered state.--The term `covered State' means
Florida, Hawaii, and the territories of American Samoa, the
Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Guam, Puerto
Rico, and the United States Virgin Islands.
``(12) Federal reef manager.--
``(A) In general.--The term `Federal reef manager'
means--
``(i) a management unit of a Federal agency
specified in subparagraph (B) with lead
management jurisdiction over a coral reef
ecosystem; or
``(ii) a coral reef stewardship partnership
under section 206(c).
``(B) Federal agencies specified.--A Federal agency
specified in this subparagraph is one of the following:
``(i) The National Oceanic and Atmospheric
Administration.
``(ii) The National Park Service.
``(iii) The United States Fish and Wildlife
Service.
``(iv) The Office of Insular Affairs.
``(13) Institution of higher education.--The term
`institution of higher education' has the meaning given that
term in section 101 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20
U.S.C. 1001).
``(14) Interested stakeholder groups.--The term `interested
stakeholder groups' includes community members such as
businesses, commercial and recreational fishermen, other
recreationalists, covered Native entities, Federal, State, and
local government units with related jurisdiction, institutions
of higher education, and nongovernmental organizations.
``(15) Native entity.--The term `Native entity' means any
of the following:
``(A) An Indian Tribe (as defined in section 4 of
the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance
Act (25 U.S.C. 5304)).
``(B) An Alaska Native Corporation.
``(C) The Department of Hawaiian Home Lands.
``(D) The Office of Hawaiian Affairs.
``(E) A Native Hawaiian organization (as defined in
section 6207 of the Elementary and Secondary Education
Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 7517)).
``(16) Nonprofit organization.--The term `nonprofit
organization' means any corporation, trust, association,
cooperative, or other organization, not including an
institutions of higher education, that--
``(A) is operated primarily for scientific,
educational, service, charitable, or similar purposes
in the public interest;
``(B) is not organized primarily for profit; and
``(C) uses net proceeds to maintain, improve, or
expand the operations of the organization.
``(17) Restoration.--The term `restoration' means the use
of methods and procedures necessary to enhance, rehabilitate,
recreate, or create a functioning coral reef or coral reef
ecosystem, in whole or in part, within suitable waters of the
historical geographic range of such ecosystems, to provide
ecological, economic, cultural, or coastal resiliency services
associated with healthy coral reefs and benefit native
populations of coral reef organisms.
``(18) Resilience.--The term `resilience' means the
capacity for corals within their native range, coral reefs, or
coral reef ecosystems to resist and recover from natural and
human disturbances, and maintain structure and function to
provide ecosystem services, as determined by clearly
identifiable, measurable, and science-based standards.
``(19) Secretary.--The term `Secretary' means the Secretary
of Commerce.
``(20) State.--The term `State' means--
``(A) any State of the United States that contains
a coral reef ecosystem within its seaward boundaries;
``(B) American Samoa, the Commonwealth of the
Northern Mariana Islands, Guam, Puerto Rico, or the
United States Virgin Islands; or
``(C) any other territory or possession of the
United States or separate sovereign in free association
with the United States that contains a coral reef
ecosystem within its seaward boundaries.
``(21) Stewardship.--The term `stewardship', with respect
to a coral reef, includes conservation, restoration, and public
outreach and education.
``(22) Task force.--The term `Task Force' means the United
States Coral Reef Task Force established under section 201 of
the Restoring Resilient Reefs Act of 2021.''.
(b) Conforming Amendment to National Oceans and Coastal Security
Act.--Section 905(a) of the National Oceans and Coastal Security Act
(16 U.S.C. 7504(a)) is amended by striking ``and coastal
infrastructure'' and inserting ``, coastal infrastructure, and
ecosystem services provided by natural systems such as coral reefs''.
TITLE II--UNITED STATES CORAL REEF TASK FORCE
SEC. 201. ESTABLISHMENT.
There is established a task force to lead, coordinate, and
strengthen Federal Government actions to better preserve, conserve, and
restore coral reef ecosystems, to be known as the ``United States Coral
Reef Task Force'' (in this title referred to as the ``Task Force'').
SEC. 202. DUTIES.
The duties of the Task Force shall be--
(1) to coordinate, in cooperation with covered States,
covered Native entities, Federal reef managers, covered reef
managers, coral reef research centers designated under section
214(b) of the Coral Reef Conservation Act of 2000 (as amended
by section 101), and other nongovernmental and academic
partners as appropriate, activities regarding the mapping,
monitoring, research, conservation, mitigation, and restoration
of coral reefs and coral reef ecosystems;
(2) to monitor and advise regarding implementation of the
policy and Federal agency responsibilities set forth in--
(A) Executive Order 13089 (63 Fed. Reg. 32701;
relating to coral reef protection); and
(B) the national coral reef resilience strategy
developed under section 204 of the Coral Reef
Conservation Act of 2000, as amended by section 101;
(3) to work with the Secretary of State and the
Administrator of the United States Agency for International
Development, and in coordination with the other members of the
Task Force--
(A) to assess the United States role in
international trade and protection of coral species;
(B) to encourage implementation of appropriate
strategies and actions to promote conservation and
sustainable use of coral reef resources worldwide; and
(C) to collaborate with international communities
successful in managing coral reefs;
(4) to provide technical assistance for the development and
implementation, as appropriate, of--
(A) the national coral reef resilience strategy
under section 204 of the Coral Reef Conservation Act of
2000, as amended by section 101; and
(B) coral reef action plans under section 205 of
that Act; and
(5) to produce a report each year, for submission to the
appropriate congressional committees and publication on a
publicly available internet website of the Task Force,
highlighting the status of the coral reef equities of a covered
State on a rotating basis, including--
(A) a summary of recent coral reef management and
restoration activities undertaken in that State; and
(B) updated estimates of the direct and indirect
economic activity supported by, and other benefits
associated with, those coral reef equities.
SEC. 203. MEMBERSHIP.
(a) Voting Membership.--The Task Force shall have the following
voting members:
(1) The Secretary of Commerce, acting through the
Administrator of the National Oceanic and Atmospheric
Administration, and the Secretary of the Interior, who shall be
co-chairpersons of the Task Force.
(2) The Administrator of the United States Agency for
International Development.
(3) The Secretary of Agriculture.
(4) The Secretary of Defense.
(5) The Secretary of the Army, acting through the Assistant
Secretary of the Army for Civil Works.
(6) The Secretary of Homeland Security, acting through the
Administrator of the Federal Emergency Management Agency.
(7) The Commandant of the Coast Guard.
(8) The Attorney General.
(9) The Secretary of State.
(10) The Secretary of Transportation.
(11) The Administrator of the Environmental Protection
Agency.
(12) The Administrator of the National Aeronautics and
Space Administration.
(13) The Director of the National Science Foundation.
(14) The Governor, or a representative of the Governor, of
each covered State.
(b) Nonvoting Members.--The Task Force shall have the following
nonvoting members:
(1) A member of the South Atlantic Fishery Management
Council who is designated by the Governor of Florida under
section 302(b)(1) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation
and Management Act (16 U.S.C. 1852(b)(1)).
(2) A member of the Gulf of Mexico Fishery Management
Council who is designated by the Governor of Florida under such
section.
(3) A member of the Western Pacific Fishery Management
Council who is designated under such section and selected as
follows:
(A) For the period beginning on the date of the
enactment of this Act and ending on December 31 of the
calendar year during which such date of enactment
occurs, the member shall be selected jointly by the
governors of Hawaii, American Samoa, Guam, and the
Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands.
(B) For each calendar year thereafter, the
governors of Hawaii, American Samoa, Guam, and the
Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands shall, on
a rotating basis, take turns selecting the member.
(4) A member of the Caribbean Fishery Management Council
who is designated under such section and selected as follows:
(A) For the period beginning on the date of the
enactment of this Act and ending on December 31 of the
calendar year during which such date of enactment
occurs, the member shall be selected jointly by the
governors of Puerto Rico and the United States Virgin
Islands.
(B) For each calendar year thereafter, the
governors of Puerto Rico and the United States Virgin
Islands shall, on an alternating basis, take turns
selecting the member.
(5) A member appointed by the President of the Federated
States of Micronesia.
(6) A member appointed by the President of the Republic of
the Marshall Islands.
(7) A member appointed by the President of the Republic of
Palau.
SEC. 204. RESPONSIBILITIES OF FEDERAL AGENCY MEMBERS.
(a) In General.--A member of the Task Force specified in paragraphs
(1) through (14) of section 203(a) shall--
(1) identify the actions of the agency that member
represents that may affect coral reef ecosystems;
(2) utilize the programs and authorities of that agency to
protect and enhance the conditions of such ecosystems,
including through the promotion of basic and applied scientific
research;
(3) collaborate with the Task Force to appropriately
reflect budgetary needs for coral reef conservation and
restoration activities in all agency budget planning and
justification documents and processes; and
(4) engage in any other coordinated efforts approved by the
Task Force.
(b) Co-chairpersons.--In addition to their responsibilities under
subsection (a), the co-chairpersons of the Task Force shall administer
performance of the functions of the Task Force and facilitate the
coordination of the members of the Task Force specified in paragraphs
(1) through (14) of section 203(a).
SEC. 205. WORKING GROUPS.
(a) In General.--The co-chairpersons of the Task Force may
establish working groups as necessary to meet the goals and carry out
the duties of the Task Force.
(b) Requests From Members.--The members of the Task Force may
request that the co-chairpersons establish a working group under
subsection (a).
(c) Participation by Nongovernmental Organizations.--The co-
chairpersons may allow nongovernmental organizations as appropriate,
including academic institutions, conservation groups, and commercial
and recreational fishing associations, to participate in a working
group established under subsection (a).
(d) Nonapplicability of Federal Advisory Committee Act.--The
Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. App.) shall not apply to
working groups established under this section.
SEC. 206. DEFINITIONS.
In this title:
(1) Appropriate congressional committees.--The term
``appropriate congressional committees'' means the Committee on
Commerce, Science, and Transportation of the Senate and the
Committee on Natural Resources of the House of Representatives.
(2) Conservation, coral, coral reef, etc.--The terms
``conservation'', ``coral'', ``coral reef'', ``coral reef
ecosystem'', ``covered Native entity'', ``covered reef
manager'', ``covered State'', ``Federal reef manager'',
``Native entity'', ``restoration'', ``resilience'', and
``State'' have the meanings given those terms in section 218 of
the Coral Reef Conservation Act of 2000, as amended by section
101.
TITLE III--DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR CORAL REEF AUTHORITIES
SEC. 301. CORAL REEF CONSERVATION AND RESTORATION ASSISTANCE.
(a) In General.--The Secretary of the Interior may provide
scientific expertise and technical assistance, and subject to the
availability of appropriations, financial assistance for the
conservation and restoration of coral reefs consistent with all
applicable laws governing resource management in Federal, State, and
Tribal waters, including--
(1) the national coral reef resilience strategy in effect
under section 204 of the Coral Reef Conservation Act of 2000,
as amended by section 101; and
(2) coral reef action plans in effect under section 205 of
that Act, as applicable.
(b) Coral Reef Initiative.--The Secretary may establish a Coral
Reef Initiative Program--
(1) to provide grant funding to support local management,
conservation, and protection of coral reef ecosystems in--
(A) coastal areas of covered States; and
(B) Freely Associated States;
(2) to enhance resource availability of National Park
Service and National Wildlife Refuge System management units to
implement coral reef conservation and restoration activities;
(3) to complement the other conservation and assistance
activities conducted under this Act or the Coral Reef
Conservation Act of 2000, as amended by section 101; and
(4) to provide other technical, scientific, and financial
assistance and conduct conservation and restoration activities
that advance the purposes of this Act and the Coral Reef
Conservation Act of 2000, as amended by section 101.
(c) Consultation With the Department of Commerce.--
(1) Coral reef conservation and restoration activities.--
The Secretary of the Interior may consult with the Secretary of
Commerce regarding the conduct of any activities to conserve
and restore coral reefs and coral reef ecosystems in waters
managed under the jurisdiction of the Federal agencies
specified in paragraphs (2) and (3) of section 203(c) of the
Coral Reef Conservation Act of 2000, as amended by section 101.
(2) Award of coral reef management fellowship.--The
Secretary of the Interior shall consult with the Secretary of
Commerce to award the Susan L. Williams Coral Reef Management
Fellowship under title IV.
(d) Cooperative Agreements.--Subject to the availability of
appropriations, the Secretary of the Interior may enter into
cooperative agreements with covered reef managers to fund coral reef
conservation and restoration activities in waters managed under the
jurisdiction of such managers that--
(1) are consistent with the national coral reef resilience
strategy in effect under section 204 of the Coral Reef
Conservation Act of 2000, as amended by section 101; and
(2) support and enhance the success of coral reef action
plans in effect under section 205 of that Act.
(e) Definitions.--In this section:
(1) Conservation, coral, coral reef, etc.--The terms
``conservation'', ``coral reef'', ``covered reef manager'',
``covered State'', ``restoration'', and ``State'' have the
meanings given those terms in section 218 of the Coral Reef
Conservation Act of 2000, as amended by section 101.
(2) Tribe; tribal.--The terms ``Tribe'' and ``Tribal''
refer to Indian Tribes (as defined in section 102 of the
Federally Recognized Indian Tribe List Act of 1994 (25 U.S.C.
5130)).
TITLE IV--SUSAN L. WILLIAMS NATIONAL CORAL REEF MANAGEMENT FELLOWSHIP
SEC. 401. SHORT TITLE.
This title may be cited as the ``Susan L. Williams National Coral
Reef Management Fellowship Act of 2021''.
SEC. 402. DEFINITIONS.
In this title:
(1) Alaska native corporation.--The term ``Alaska Native
Corporation'' has the meaning given the term ``Native
Corporation'' in section 3 of the Alaska Native Claims
Settlement Act (43 U.S.C. 1602).
(2) Fellow.--The term ``fellow'' means a National Coral
Reef Management Fellow.
(3) Fellowship.--The term ``fellowship'' means the National
Coral Reef Management Fellowship established in section 403.
(4) Covered native entity.--The term ``covered Native
entity'' means a Native entity of a covered State with
interests in a coral reef ecosystem.
(5) Covered state.--The term ``covered State'' means
Florida, Hawaii, and the territories of American Samoa, the
Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Guam, Puerto
Rico, and the United States Virgin Islands.
(6) Native entity.--The term ``Native entity'' means any of
the following:
(A) An Indian Tribe (as defined in section 4 of the
Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act
(25 U.S.C. 5304)).
(B) An Alaska Native Corporation.
(C) The Department of Hawaiian Home Lands.
(D) The Office of Hawaiian Affairs.
(E) A Native Hawaiian organization (as defined in
section 6207 of the Elementary and Secondary Education
Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 7517)).
(7) Secretary.--The term ``Secretary'' means the Secretary
of Commerce.
SEC. 403. ESTABLISHMENT OF FELLOWSHIP PROGRAM.
(a) In General.--There is established a National Coral Reef
Management Fellowship Program.
(b) Purposes.--The purposes of the fellowship are--
(1) to encourage future leaders of the United States to
develop additional coral reef management capacity in States and
local communities with coral reefs;
(2) to provide management agencies of covered States or
covered Native entities with highly qualified candidates whose
education and work experience meet the specific needs of each
covered State or covered Native entity; and
(3) to provide fellows with professional experience in
management of coastal and coral reef resources.
SEC. 404. FELLOWSHIP AWARDS.
(a) In General.--The Secretary, in partnership with the Secretary
of the Interior, shall award the fellowship in accordance with this
section.
(b) Term of Fellowship.--A fellowship awarded under this section
shall be for a term of not more than 24 months.
(c) Qualifications.--The Secretary shall award the fellowship to
individuals who have demonstrated--
(1) an intent to pursue a career in marine services and
outstanding potential for such a career;
(2) leadership potential, actual leadership experience, or
both;
(3) a college or graduate degree in biological science, a
resource management college or graduate degree with experience
that correlates with aptitude and interest for marine
management, or both;
(4) proficient writing and speaking skills; and
(5) such other attributes as the Secretary considers
appropriate.
SEC. 405. MATCHING REQUIREMENT.
(a) In General.--Except as provided in subsection (b), the non-
Federal share of the costs of a fellowship under this section shall be
25 percent of such costs.
(b) Waiver of Requirements.--The Secretary may waive the
application of subsection (a) if the Secretary finds that such waiver
is necessary to support a project that the Secretary has identified as
a high priority.
Calendar No. 223
117th CONGRESS
1st Session
S. 46
_______________________________________________________________________ | Restoring Resilient Reefs Act of 2021 | A bill to reauthorize the Coral Reef Conservation Act of 2000 and to establish the United States Coral Reef Task Force, and for other purposes. | Restoring Resilient Reefs Act of 2021
Susan L. Williams National Coral Reef Management Fellowship Act of 2021
Restoring Resilient Reefs Act of 2021
Susan L. Williams National Coral Reef Management Fellowship Act of 2021 | Sen. Rubio, Marco | R | FL |
46 | 6,291 | H.R.7001 | Government Operations and Politics | FEMA Intermittent Personnel Employment and Reemployment Rights Act of 2022
This bill makes employment protections under the Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act (USERRA) applicable to Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) reservists who deploy to major disaster and emergency sites. It allows such reservists to claim such rights under USERRA even if they do not provide notice of their absence from work due to deployment. | To amend the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency
Assistance Act to provide certain employment rights to reservists of
the Federal Emergency Management Agency, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``FEMA Intermittent Personnel
Employment and Reemployment Rights Act of 2022''.
SEC. 2. PERSONNEL PERFORMING SERVICE RESPONDING TO PRESIDENTIALLY
DECLARED MAJOR DISASTERS AND EMERGENCIES.
Section 306 of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency
Assistance Act (42 U.S.C. 5149) is amended by adding at the end the
following:
``(d) Personnel Performing Service Responding to Disasters and
Emergencies.--
``(1) USERRA employment and reemployment rights.--The
protections, rights, benefits, and obligations provided under
chapter 43 of title 38, United States Code, shall apply to
intermittent personnel appointed pursuant to subsection (b)(1)
to perform service to the Federal Emergency Management Agency
under sections 401 and 501 or to train for such service.
``(2) Notice of absence from position of employment.--
Preclusion of giving notice of service by necessity of service
under subsection (b)(1) to perform service to the Federal
Emergency Management Agency under sections 401 and 501 or to
train for such service shall be considered preclusion by
`military necessity' for purposes of section 4312(b) of title
38, United States Code, pertaining to giving notice of absence
from a position of employment. A determination of such
necessity shall be made by the Administrator and shall not be
subject to review in any judicial or administrative
proceeding.''.
SEC. 3. EXTENSION OF CERTAIN EMPLOYMENT AND REEMPLOYMENT RIGHTS TO FEMA
RESERVISTS.
(a) In General.--Section 4303 of title 38, United States Code, is
amended--
(1) in paragraph (13), by inserting before ``, and a
period'' the following: ``, a period for which a person is
absent from a position of employment due to an appointment into
service in the Federal Emergency Management Agency as
intermittent personnel under section 306(b)(1) of the Robert T.
Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act (42
U.S.C. 5149(b)(1))'';
(2) by redesignating the second paragraph (16) (relating to
uniformed services) as paragraph (17); and
(3) in paragraph (17), as so redesignated, by inserting
before ``and any other category'' the following: ``intermittent
personnel who are appointed into Federal Emergency Management
Agency service under section 306(b)(1) of the Robert T.
Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act (42
U.S.C. 5149(b)(1)) or to train for such service,''.
(b) Modification of Exception for Requirement for Members of
Uniformed Services To Provide Notice to Employers To Obtain Certain
Employment and Reemployment Rights.--Section 4312(b) of title 38,
United States Code, is amended--
(1) by striking the second sentence;
(2) by inserting ``(1)'' before ``No notice''; and
(3) by adding at the end the following new paragraph:
``(2) A determination of military necessity for purposes of
paragraph (1) shall be made--
``(A) except as provided in subparagraphs (B) and (C),
pursuant to regulations prescribed by the Secretary of Defense;
``(B) for persons performing service to the Federal
Emergency Management Agency under section 327 of the Robert T.
Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act (42
U.S.C. 5165f) and as intermittent personnel under section
306(b)(1) of such Act (42 U.S.C. 5149(b)(1)), by the
Administrator of the Federal Emergency Management Agency as
described in sections 327(j)(2) and 306(d)(2) of such Act (42
U.S.C. 5165f(j)(2) and 5149(d)(2)), respectively; or
``(C) for intermittent disaster-response appointees of the
National Disaster Medical System, by the Secretary of Health
and Human Services as described in section 2812(d)(3)(B) of the
Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 300hh-11(d)(3)(B)).
``(3) A determination of military necessity under paragraph (1)
shall not be subject to judicial review.''.
<all> | FEMA Intermittent Personnel Employment and Reemployment Rights Act of 2022 | To amend the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act to provide certain employment rights to reservists of the Federal Emergency Management Agency, and for other purposes. | FEMA Intermittent Personnel Employment and Reemployment Rights Act of 2022 | Rep. Titus, Dina | D | NV |
47 | 3,206 | S.3226 | Agriculture and Food | More Options to Develop and Enhance Remote Nutrition in WIC Act of 2021 or the MODERN WIC Act of 2021
This bill makes various changes to allow individuals to remotely certify their eligibility for, and receive benefits through, the Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children (WIC).
The Department of Agriculture must also report to Congress about the use of remote technologies and other tools in the WIC program. | To amend the Child Nutrition Act of 1966 to permit video or telephone
certifications under the special supplemental nutrition program for
women, infants, and children, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``More Options to Develop and Enhance
Remote Nutrition in WIC Act of 2021'' or the ``MODERN WIC Act of
2021''.
SEC. 2. PRESENCE AT CERTIFICATION.
(a) In General.--Section 17(d)(3)(C) of the Child Nutrition Act of
1966 (42 U.S.C. 1786(d)(3)(C)) is amended--
(1) in the subparagraph heading, by striking ``Physical
presence'' and inserting ``Presence'';
(2) in clause (i), by striking ``physically present at each
certification or recertification determination'' and inserting
``present at each certification or recertification, either in
person or through video technology permitting 2-way, real-time
interactive communications,''; and
(3) in clause (ii)--
(A) in subclause (I), in the matter preceding item
(aa), by striking ``an infant or child'' and inserting
``any eligible individual'';
(B) by redesignating subclauses (I) through (III)
as subclauses (II) through (IV), respectively; and
(C) by inserting before subclause (II) (as so
redesignated) the following:
``(I) any eligible individual--
``(aa) who completes the
certification process through a
telephone appointment or other
remote technology; and
``(bb) for whom all
necessary certification
information is obtained not
more than 90 days before or
after the certification
appointment;''.
(b) Technical Amendment.--Section 17(d)(3) of the Child Nutrition
Act of 1966 (42 U.S.C. 1786(d)(3)) is amended by conforming the margin
of subparagraph (B) to the margin of subparagraph (C).
SEC. 3. REMOTE BENEFIT ISSUANCE.
(a) In General.--Section 17(f)(6)(B) of the Child Nutrition Act of
1966 (42 U.S.C. 1786(f)(6)(B)) is amended--
(1) in the third sentence--
(A) by striking ``vouchers by mail'' and inserting
``food instruments''; and
(B) by striking ``The Secretary'' and inserting the
following:
``(iii) Disapproval of state plan.--The
Secretary'';
(2) in the second sentence--
(A) by striking ``vouchers by mail in its plan''
and inserting ``food instruments by mail, remote
issuance, or other means in the State plan''; and
(B) by striking ``The State'' and inserting the
following:
``(ii) State plan.--The State''; and
(3) by striking ``(B) State agencies'' and all that follows
through ``to obtain vouchers.'' and inserting the following:
``(B) Delivery of vouchers.--
``(i) In general.--State agencies may
provide for the delivery of food instruments,
including electronic benefit transfer cards, to
any participant through means that do not
require the participant to travel to the local
agency to obtain food instruments, such as
through mailing or remote issuance.''.
(b) Regulations.--The Secretary shall revise section 246.12(r) of
title 7, Code of Federal Regulations, by striking paragraph (4).
SEC. 4. ANNUAL INVESTMENT IN WIC TECHNOLOGIES.
Section 17(h) of the Child Nutrition Act of 1966 (42 U.S.C.
1786(h)) is amended--
(1) in paragraph (2)(B)--
(A) by striking clause (ii); and
(B) by striking the subparagraph designation and
all that follows through ``clause (ii) and'' and
inserting the following:
``(B) Allocation for nutrition services and
administration.--Except as provided in''; and
(2) in paragraph (10)--
(A) in subparagraph (A), by striking ``2010 through
2015'' and inserting ``2023 through 2028''; and
(B) in subparagraph (B), by striking clause (ii)
and inserting the following:
``(ii) $60,000,000 shall be used to
establish, develop, improve, replace, or
administer technology platforms, including
management information systems, that enhance
program services, access to the program, or
redemption of benefits, of which up to
$5,000,000 may be used for Federal
administrative costs; and''.
SEC. 5. REPORT TO CONGRESS.
(a) In General.--Not later than 1 year after the date of enactment
of this Act, the Secretary shall submit to the Committee on
Agriculture, Nutrition, and Forestry of the Senate and the Committee on
Education and Labor of the House of Representatives a report on the use
of remote technologies under the special supplemental nutrition program
for women, infants, and children established by section 17 of the Child
Nutrition Act of 1966 (42 U.S.C. 1786) (referred to in this section as
the ``program'').
(b) Content of Report.--The report submitted under subsection (a)
shall include a description of--
(1) the use of remote technologies and other digital tools,
including video, telephone, and online platforms--
(A) to certify eligible individuals for program
services; and
(B) to provide nutrition education and
breastfeeding support to program participants;
(2) the impact of remote technologies, including video,
telephone, and online platforms, on certifications,
appointments, and participant satisfaction under the program;
and
(3) best practices--
(A) to certify program participants for program
services using remote technologies;
(B) to incorporate the use of digital tools into
the program certification process;
(C) to integrate nutrition education and
breastfeeding support services for program participants
into remote technologies and platforms; and
(D) to securely manage program participant data.
<all> | MODERN WIC Act of 2021 | A bill to amend the Child Nutrition Act of 1966 to permit video or telephone certifications under the special supplemental nutrition program for women, infants, and children, and for other purposes. | MODERN WIC Act of 2021
More Options to Develop and Enhance Remote Nutrition in WIC Act of 2021 | Sen. Gillibrand, Kirsten E. | D | NY |
48 | 9,389 | H.R.4276 | Immigration | Hong Kong People's Freedom and Choice Act of 2021
This bill provides for temporary protected status (TPS) for qualifying Hong Kong residents and contains other immigration-related provisions.
Hong Kong shall be treated as a TPS-designated territory for 18 months starting from this bill's enactment. (Qualifying nationals of a TPS-designated territory or country may not be removed from the United States and shall have employment authorization while the designation is in effect.)
Furthermore, Hong Kong shall be treated as separate from China for the purposes of various numerical limitations on immigrant visas. (In the treaty that transferred sovereignty of Hong Kong to China, China pledged that Hong Kong "will enjoy a high degree of autonomy.")
The bill also establishes Priority Hong Kong Resident status for qualified individuals. To obtain such status, an individual must meet certain requirements, such as having resided in Hong Kong for at least ten years as of the day of this bill's enactment and not having citizenship in any jurisdiction other than China, Hong Kong, or Macau.
For seeking refugee status or asylum, a Priority Hong Kong Resident may establish a well-founded fear of persecution based on various factors, such as fear based on the individual's significant role in certain protests against China's encroachment into Hong Kong's autonomy.
The Department of Homeland Security (DHS) or the Department of State may provide special immigrant status to an eligible Priority Hong Kong Resident with a bachelor's or graduate degree if DHS determines that doing so would provide a significant benefit to the United States.
| To provide for temporary protected status for residents of Hong Kong,
and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Hong Kong People's Freedom and
Choice Act of 2021''.
SEC. 2. DEFINITIONS.
For purposes of this Act:
(1) Joint declaration.--The term ``Joint Declaration''
means the Joint Declaration of the Government of the United
Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland and the
Government of the People's Republic of China on the Question of
Hong Kong, signed on December 19, 1984, and entered into force
on May 27, 1985.
(2) Priority hong kong resident.--The term ``Priority Hong
Kong resident'' means--
(A) a permanent resident of Hong Kong who--
(i) holds no right to citizenship in any
country or jurisdiction other than the People's
Republic of China (referred to in this Act as
``PRC''), Hong Kong, or Macau as of the date of
enactment of this Act;
(ii) has resided in Hong Kong for not less
than the last 10 years as of the date of
enactment of this Act; and
(iii) has been designated by the Secretary
of State or Secretary of Homeland Security as
having met the requirements of this
subparagraph, in accordance with the procedures
described in section 7 of this Act; or
(B) the spouse of a person described in
subparagraph (A), or the child of such person as such
term is defined in section 101(b)(1) of the Immigration
and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1101(b)(1)), except that
a child shall be an unmarried person under twenty-seven
years of age.
(3) Hong kong national security law.--The term ``Hong Kong
National Security Law'' means the Law of the People's Republic
of China on Safeguarding National Security in the Hong Kong
Special Administrative Region that was passed unanimously by
the National People's Congress and signed by President Xi
Jinping on June 30, 2020, and promulgated in the Hong Kong
Special Administrative Region (referred to in this Act as
``Hong Kong SAR'') on July 1, 2020.
(4) Appropriate congressional committees.--The term
``appropriate congressional committees'' means--
(A) the Committee on Foreign Affairs and the
Committee on the Judiciary of the House of
Representatives; and
(B) the Committee on Foreign Relations and the
Committee on the Judiciary of the Senate.
SEC. 3. FINDINGS.
Congress finds the following:
(1) The Hong Kong National Security Law promulgated on July
1, 2020--
(A) contravenes the Basic Law of the Hong Kong
Special Administrative Region (referred to in this Act
as ``the Basic Law'') that provides in Article 23 that
the Legislative Council of Hong Kong shall enact
legislation related to national security;
(B) violates the PRC's commitments under
international law, as defined by the Joint Declaration;
and
(C) causes severe and irreparable damage to the
``one country, two systems'' principle and further
erodes global confidence in the PRC's commitment to
international law.
(2) On July 14, 2020, in response to the promulgation of
the Hong Kong National Security Law, President Trump signed an
Executive order on Hong Kong normalization that, among other
policy actions, suspended the special treatment of Hong Kong
persons under U.S. law with respect to the issuance of
immigrant and nonimmigrant visas.
(3) The United States has a long and proud history as a
destination for refugees and asylees fleeing persecution based
on race, religion, nationality, political opinion, or
membership in a particular social group.
(4) The United States also shares deep social, cultural,
and economic ties with the people of Hong Kong, including a
shared commitment to democracy, to the rule of law, and to the
protection of human rights.
(5) The United States has sheltered, protected, and
welcomed individuals who have fled authoritarian regimes,
including citizens from the PRC following the violent June 4,
1989, crackdown in Tiananmen Square, deepening ties between the
people of the United States and those individuals seeking to
contribute to a free, open society founded on democracy, human
rights, and the respect for the rule of law.
(6) The United States has reaped enormous economic,
cultural, and strategic benefits from welcoming successive
generations of scientists, doctors, entrepreneurs, artists,
intellectuals, and other freedom-loving people fleeing fascism,
communism, violent Islamist extremism, and other repressive
ideologies, including in the cases of Nazi Germany, the Soviet
Union, and Soviet-controlled Central Europe, Cuba, Vietnam, and
Iran.
(7) A major asymmetric advantage of the United States in
its long-term strategic competition with the Communist Party of
China is the ability of people from every country in the world,
irrespective of their race, ethnicity, or religion, to
immigrate to the United States and become American citizens.
SEC. 4. STATEMENT OF POLICY.
It is the policy of the United States--
(1) to reaffirm the principles and objectives set forth in
the United States-Hong Kong Policy Act of 1992 (Public Law 102-
383), namely that--
(A) the United States has ``a strong interest in
the continued vitality, prosperity, and stability of
Hong Kong'';
(B) ``support for democratization is a fundamental
principle of United States foreign policy'' and
therefore ``naturally applies to United States policy
toward Hong Kong'';
(C) ``the human rights of the people of Hong Kong
are of great importance to the United States and are
directly relevant to United States interests in Hong
Kong and serve as a basis for Hong Kong's continued
economic prosperity''; and
(D) Hong Kong must remain sufficiently autonomous
from the PRC to ``justify treatment under a particular
law of the United States, or any provision thereof,
different from that accorded the People's Republic of
China'';
(2) to continue to support the high degree of autonomy and
fundamental rights and freedoms of the people of Hong Kong, as
enumerated by--
(A) the Joint Declaration;
(B) the International Covenant on Civil and
Political Rights, done at New York December 19, 1966;
and
(C) the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, done
at Paris December 10, 1948;
(3) to continue to support the democratic aspirations of
the people of Hong Kong, including the ``ultimate aim'' of the
selection of the Chief Executive and all members of the
Legislative Council by universal suffrage, as articulated in
the Basic Law;
(4) to urge the Government of the PRC, despite its recent
actions, to uphold its commitments to Hong Kong, including
allowing the people of Hong Kong to govern Hong Kong with a
high degree of autonomy and without undue interference, and
ensuring that Hong Kong voters freely enjoy the right to elect
the Chief Executive and all members of the Hong Kong
Legislative Council by universal suffrage;
(5) to support the establishment of a genuine democratic
option to freely and fairly nominate and elect the Chief
Executive of Hong Kong, and the establishment of open and
direct democratic elections for all members of the Hong Kong
Legislative Council;
(6) to support the robust exercise by residents of Hong
Kong of the rights to free speech, the press, and other
fundamental freedoms, as provided by the Basic Law, the Joint
Declaration, and the International Covenant on Civil and
Political Rights;
(7) to support freedom from arbitrary or unlawful arrest,
detention, or imprisonment for all Hong Kong residents, as
provided by the Basic Law, the Joint Declaration, and the
International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights;
(8) to draw international attention to any violations by
the Government of the PRC of the fundamental rights of the
people of Hong Kong, as provided by the International Covenant
on Civil and Political Rights, and any encroachment upon the
autonomy guaranteed to Hong Kong by the Basic Law and the Joint
Declaration;
(9) to protect United States citizens and long-term
permanent residents living in Hong Kong, as well as people
visiting and transiting through Hong Kong;
(10) to maintain the economic and cultural ties that
provide significant benefits to both the United States and Hong
Kong, including the reinstatement of the Fulbright exchange
program with regard to Hong Kong at the earliest opportunity;
(11) to coordinate with allies, including the United
Kingdom, Australia, Canada, Japan, and the Republic of Korea,
to promote democracy and human rights in Hong Kong; and
(12) to welcome and protect in the United States residents
of Hong Kong fleeing persecution or otherwise seeking a safe
haven from violations by the Government of the PRC of the
fundamental rights of the people of Hong Kong.
SEC. 5. TEMPORARY PROTECTED STATUS FOR HONG KONG RESIDENTS IN THE
UNITED STATES.
(a) Designation.--
(1) In general.--For purposes of section 244 of the
Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1254a), Hong Kong
shall be treated as if it had been designated under subsection
(b)(1)(C) of that section, subject to the provisions of this
section.
(2) Period of designation.--The initial period of the
designation referred to in paragraph (1) shall be for the 18-
month period beginning on the date of enactment of this Act.
(b) Aliens Eligible.--As a result of the designation made under
subsection (a), an alien is deemed to satisfy the requirements under
paragraph (1) of section 244(c) of the Immigration and Nationality Act
(8 U.S.C. 1254a(c)), subject to paragraph (3) of such section, if the
alien--
(1) was a permanent resident of Hong Kong at the time such
individual arrived into the United States and is a national of
the PRC (or in the case of an individual having no nationality,
is a person who last habitually resided in Hong Kong);
(2) has been continuously physically present in the United
States since the date of the enactment of this Act;
(3) is admissible as an immigrant, except as otherwise
provided in paragraph (2)(A) of such section, and is not
ineligible for temporary protected status under paragraph
(2)(B) of such section; and
(4) registers for temporary protected status in a manner
established by the Secretary of Homeland Security.
(c) Consent To Travel Abroad.--
(1) In general.--The Secretary of Homeland Security shall
give prior consent to travel abroad, in accordance with section
244(f)(3) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C.
1254a(f)(3)), to an alien who is granted temporary protected
status pursuant to the designation made under subsection (a) if
the alien establishes to the satisfaction of the Secretary of
Homeland Security that emergency and extenuating circumstances
beyond the control of the alien require the alien to depart for
a brief, temporary trip abroad.
(2) Treatment upon return.--An alien returning to the
United States in accordance with an authorization described in
paragraph (1) shall be treated as any other returning alien
provided temporary protected status under section 244 of the
Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1254a).
(d) Fee.--
(1) In general.--In addition to any other fee authorized by
law, the Secretary of Homeland Security is authorized to charge
and collect a fee of $360 for each application for temporary
protected status under section 244 of the Immigration and
Nationality Act by a person who is only eligible for such
status by reason of subsection (a).
(2) Waiver.--The Secretary of Homeland Security shall
permit aliens to apply for a waiver of any fees associated with
filing an application referred to in paragraph (1).
SEC. 6. TREATMENT OF HONG KONG RESIDENTS FOR IMMIGRATION PURPOSES.
Notwithstanding any other provision of law, during the 5 fiscal
year period beginning on the first day of the first full fiscal year
after the date of enactment of this Act, Hong Kong shall continue to be
considered a foreign state separate and apart from the PRC as mandated
under section 103 of the Immigration and Nationality Act of 1990
(Public Law 101-649) for purposes of the numerical limitations on
immigrant visas under sections 201, 202, and 203 of the Immigration and
Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1151, 1152, and 1153).
SEC. 7. VERIFICATION OF HONG KONG PRIORITY RESIDENTS.
(a) In General.--Not later than 180 days after the date of the
enactment of this Act, the Secretary of State, in consultation with the
Secretary of Homeland Security, shall publish in the Federal Register,
an interim final rule establishing procedures for designation of Hong
Kong Priority Residents. Notwithstanding section 553 of title 5, United
States Code, the rule shall be effective, on an interim basis,
immediately upon publication, but may be subject to change and revision
after public notice and opportunity for comment. The Secretary of State
shall finalize such rule not later than 1 year after the date of the
enactment of this Act. Such rule shall establish procedures--
(1) for individuals to register with any United States
embassy or consulate outside of the United States, or with the
Department of Homeland Security in the United States, and
request designation as a Priority Hong Kong Resident; and
(2) for the appropriate Secretary to verify the residency
of registered individuals and designate those who qualify as
Priority Hong Kong Residents.
(b) Documentation.--The procedures described in subsection (a)
shall include the collection of--
(1) biometric data;
(2) copies of birth certificates, residency cards, and
other documentation establishing residency; and
(3) other personal information, data, and records deemed
appropriate by the Secretary.
(c) Guidance.--Not later than 90 days after the date of the
enactment of this Act, the Secretary of State shall issue guidance
outlining actions to enhance the ability of the Secretary to
efficiently send and receive information to and from the United Kingdom
and other like-minded allies and partners for purposes of rapid
verification of permanent residency in Hong Kong and designation of
individuals as Priority Hong Kong Residents.
(d) Report.--Not later than 90 days after the date of the enactment
of this Act, the Secretary of State shall submit a report to the House
Committees on Foreign Affairs and the Judiciary and the Senate
Committees on Foreign Relations and the Judiciary detailing plans to
implement the requirements described in this subsection.
(e) Protection for Refugees.--Nothing in this section shall be
construed to prevent a Priority Hong Kong Resident from seeking refugee
status under section 207 of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8
U.S.C. 1157) or requesting asylum under section 208 of such Act (8
U.S.C. 1158).
SEC. 8. REPORTING REQUIREMENTS.
(a) In General.--On an annual basis, the Secretary of State and the
Secretary of Homeland Security, in consultation with other Federal
agencies, as appropriate, shall submit a report to the appropriate
congressional committees, detailing for the previous fiscal year--
(1) the number of Hong Kong SAR residents who have applied
for U.S. visas or immigration benefits, disaggregated by visa
type or immigration benefit, including asylum, refugee status,
temporary protected status, and lawful permanent residence;
(2) the number of approvals, denials, or rejections of
applicants for visas or immigration benefits described in
paragraph (1), disaggregated by visa type or immigration
benefit and basis for denial;
(3) the number of pending refugee and asylum applications
for Hong Kong SAR residents, and the length of time and reason
for which such applications have been pending; and
(4) other matters deemed relevant by the Secretaries
relating to efforts to protect and facilitate the resettlement
of refugees and victims of persecution in Hong Kong.
(b) Form.--Each report under subsection (a) shall be submitted in
unclassified form and published on a text-searchable, publicly
available website of the Department of State and the Department of
Homeland Security.
SEC. 9. STRATEGY FOR INTERNATIONAL COOPERATION ON HONG KONG.
(a) In General.--It is the policy of the United States--
(1) to support the people of Hong Kong by providing safe
haven to Hong Kong SAR residents who are nationals of the PRC
following the enactment of the Hong Kong National Security Law
that places certain Hong Kong persons at risk of persecution;
and
(2) to encourage like-minded nations to make similar
accommodations for Hong Kong people fleeing persecution by the
Government of the PRC.
(b) Plan.--The Secretary of State, in consultation with the heads
of other Federal agencies, as appropriate, shall develop a plan to
engage with other nations, including the United Kingdom, on cooperative
efforts to--
(1) provide refugee and asylum protections for victims of,
and individuals with a fear of, persecution in Hong Kong,
either by Hong Kong authorities or other authorities acting on
behalf of the PRC;
(2) enhance protocols to facilitate the resettlement of
refugees and displaced persons from Hong Kong;
(3) identify and prevent the exploitation of immigration
and visa policies and procedures by corrupt officials; and
(4) expedite the sharing of information, as appropriate,
related to the refusal of individual applications for visas or
other travel documents submitted by residents of the Hong Kong
SAR based on--
(A) national security or related grounds under
section 212(a)(3) of the Immigration and Nationality
Act (8 U.S.C. 1182(a)(3)); or
(B) fraud or misrepresentation under section
212(a)(6)(C) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8
U.S.C. 1182(a)(6)(C)).
(c) Report.--Not later than 90 days after the date of the enactment
of this Act, the Secretary of State, in consultation with the heads of
other Federal agencies, as appropriate, shall submit a report on the
plan described in subsection (b) to the appropriate congressional
committees.
SEC. 10. REFUGEE STATUS FOR CERTAIN RESIDENTS OF HONG KONG.
(a) In General.--Aliens described in subsection (b) may establish,
for purposes of admission as a refugee under sections 207 of the
Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1157) or asylum under section
208 of such Act (8 U.S.C. 1158), that such alien has a well-founded
fear of persecution on account of race, religion, nationality,
membership in a particular social group, or political opinion by
asserting such a fear and a credible basis for concern about the
possibility of such persecution.
(b) Aliens Described.--
(1) In general.--An alien is described in this subsection
if such alien--
(A) is a Priority Hong Kong Resident and--
(i) had a significant role in a civil
society organization supportive of the protests
in 2019 and 2020 related to the Hong Kong
National Security Law and the encroachment on
the autonomy of Hong Kong by the PRC;
(ii) was arrested, charged, detained, or
convicted of an offense arising from their
participation in an action as described in
section 206(b)(2) of the United States-Hong
Kong Policy Act of 1992 (22 U.S.C. 5726(b)(2))
that was not violent in nature; or
(iii) has had their citizenship,
nationality, or residency revoked for having
submitted to any United States Government
agency a nonfrivolous application for refugee
status, asylum, or any other immigration
benefit under the immigration laws (as defined
in section 101(a) of that Act (8 U.S.C.
1101(a)));
(B) is a Priority Hong Kong Resident spouse or
child of an alien described in subparagraph (A); or
(C) is the parent of an alien described in
subparagraph (A), if such parent is a citizen of the
PRC and no other foreign state.
(2) Other categories.--The Secretary of Homeland Security,
in consultation with the Secretary of State, may designate
other categories of aliens for purposes of establishing a well-
founded fear of persecution under subsection (a) if such aliens
share common characteristics that identify them as targets of
persecution in the PRC on account of race, religion,
nationality, membership in a particular social group, or
political opinion.
(3) Significant role.--For purposes of clause (i) of
subsection (b)(1)(A), a significant role shall include, with
respect to the protests described in such clause--
(A) an organizing role;
(B) a first aid responder;
(C) a journalist or member of the media covering or
offering public commentary;
(D) a provider of legal services to one or more
individuals arrested for participating in such
protests; or
(E) a participant who during the period beginning
on June 9, 2019, and ending on June 30, 2020, was
arrested, charged, detained, or convicted as a result
of such participation.
(c) Age Out Protections.--For purposes of this section, a
determination of whether an alien is a child shall be made using the
age of the alien on the date an application for refugee or asylum
status, in which the alien is a named beneficiary, is filed with the
Secretary of Homeland Security.
(d) Exclusion From Numerical Limitations.--Aliens provided refugee
status under this section shall not be counted against the numerical
limitation on refugees established in accordance with the procedures
described in section 207 of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8
U.S.C. 1157).
(e) Reporting Requirements.--
(1) In general.--Not later than 90 days after the date of
the enactment of this Act, and every 90 days thereafter, the
Secretary of State and the Secretary of Homeland Security shall
submit a report on the matters described in paragraph (2) to--
(A) the Committee on the Judiciary and the
Committee on Foreign Relations of the Senate; and
(B) the Committee on the Judiciary and the
Committee on Foreign Affairs of the House of
Representatives.
(2) Matters to be included.--Each report required by
paragraph (1) shall include, with respect to applications
submitted under this section--
(A) the total number of refugee and asylum
applications that are pending at the end of the
reporting period;
(B) the average wait-times for all applicants for
refugee status or asylum pending--
(i) a prescreening interview with a
resettlement support center;
(ii) an interview with U.S. Citizenship and
Immigration Services; and
(iii) the completion of security checks;
(C) the number of approvals, referrals including
the source of the referral, denials of applications for
refugee status or asylum, disaggregated by the reason
for each such denial; and
(D) the number of refugee circuit rides to
interview populations that would include Hong Kong SAR
completed in the last 90 days, and the number planned
for the subsequent 90-day period.
(3) Form.--Each report required by paragraph (1) shall be
submitted in unclassified form, but may include a classified
annex.
(4) Public reports.--The Secretary of State shall make each
report submitted under this subsection available to the public
on the internet website of the Department of State.
SEC. 11. ADMISSION FOR CERTAIN HIGHLY SKILLED HONG KONG RESIDENTS.
(a) In General.--Subject to subsection (c), the Secretary of
Homeland Security, or, notwithstanding any other provision of law, the
Secretary of State in consultation with the Secretary of Homeland
Security, may provide an alien described in subsection (b) with the
status of a special immigrant under section 101(a)(27) of the
Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(27)), if the alien--
(1) or an agent acting on behalf of the alien, submits a
petition for classification under section 203(b)(4) of such Act
(8 U.S.C. 1153(b)(4));
(2) is otherwise eligible to receive an immigrant visa;
(3) is otherwise admissible to the United States for
permanent residence (excluding the grounds for inadmissibility
specified in section 212(a)(4) of such Act (8 U.S.C. (a)(4)));
and
(4) clears a background check and appropriate screening, as
determined by the Secretary of Homeland Security.
(b) Aliens Described.--
(1) Principal aliens.--An alien is described in this
subsection if--
(A) the alien--
(i) is a Hong Kong Priority Resident; and
(ii) has earned a bachelor's or higher
degree from an institution of higher education;
and
(B) the Secretary of Homeland Security determines
that such alien's relocation to the United States would
provide a significant benefit to the United States.
(2) Spouses and children.--An alien is described in this
subsection if the alien is the spouse or child of a principal
alien described in paragraph (1).
(c) Numerical Limitations.--
(1) In general.--The total number of principal aliens who
may be provided special immigrant status under this section may
not exceed 5,000 per year for each of the 5 fiscal years
beginning after the date of the enactment of this Act. The
Secretary of Homeland Security may, in consultation with the
Secretary of State, prioritize the issuance of visas to
individuals with a bachelor's or higher degree in science,
technology, engineering, mathematics, medicine, health care, or
medicine.
(2) Exclusion from numerical limitations.--Aliens provided
immigrant status under this section shall not be counted
against any numerical limitation under section 201, 202, 203,
or 207 of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1151,
1153, and 1157).
(d) Eligibility for Admission Under Other Classification.--No alien
shall be denied the opportunity to apply for admission under this
section solely because such alien qualifies as an immediate relative or
is eligible for any other immigrant classification.
(e) Timeline for Processing Applications.--
(1) In general.--The Secretary of State and the Secretary
of Homeland Security shall ensure that all steps under the
control of the United States Government incidental to the
approval of such applications, including required screenings
and background checks, are completed not later than 2 years
after the date on which an eligible applicant submits an
application under subsection (a).
(2) Exception.--Notwithstanding paragraph (1), the relevant
Federal agencies may take additional time to process
applications described in paragraph (1) if satisfaction of
national security concerns requires such additional time,
provided that the Secretary of Homeland Security, or the
designee of the Secretary, has determined that the applicant
meets the requirements for status as a special immigrant under
this section and has so notified the applicant.
SEC. 12. TERMINATION.
Except as provided in section 6 of this Act, this Act shall cease
to have effect on the date that is 5 years after the date of the
enactment of this Act.
<all> | Hong Kong People’s Freedom and Choice Act of 2021 | To provide for temporary protected status for residents of Hong Kong, and for other purposes. | Hong Kong People’s Freedom and Choice Act of 2021 | Rep. Malinowski, Tom | D | NJ |
49 | 3,495 | S.4825 | Crime and Law Enforcement | Safe Passage on Interstates Act
This bill establishes new federal criminal offenses for conduct involving the obstruction of interstate highways. | To criminalize the intentional obstruction of roadways on the
Interstate System.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Safe Passage on Interstates Act''.
SEC. 2. OBSTRUCTION OF INTERSTATE HIGHWAYS.
(a) In General.--Chapter 65 of title 18, United States Code, is
amended by adding at the end the following:
``Sec. 1370. Obstruction of interstate highways
``(a) Definition.--In this section, the term `interstate highway'
means a highway on the Interstate System (as defined in section 101(a)
of title 23).
``(b) Offense.--
``(1) In general.--It shall be unlawful to knowingly engage
in an activity described in paragraph (2) on an interstate
highway with the intent to obstruct the free, convenient, and
normal use of the interstate highway.
``(2) Activities described.--The activities described in
this paragraph are--
``(A) deliberately delaying traffic on an
interstate highway;
``(B) standing or approaching a motor vehicle on an
interstate highway; or
``(C) endangering the safe movement of a motor
vehicle on an interstate highway.
``(3) Exception.--Paragraph (1) shall not apply to any
lawful activity conducted or authorized by the United States, a
State, or a political subdivision of a State.
``(c) Penalties.--
``(1) In general.--Any person who violates subsection (b)
shall be fined not more than $10,000, imprisoned for not more
than 15 years, or both.
``(2) Obstruction of emergency vehicle.--Any person who, in
the course of violating subsection (b), knowingly obstructs the
passage of an authorized emergency vehicle (as defined in
section 1001.4 of title 36, Code of Federal Regulations, or any
successor regulation) shall be fined not more than $15,000,
imprisoned for not more than 20 years, or both.
``(3) Violation resulting in death.--Any person who commits
a violation of subsection (b) that results in the death of any
other person shall be fined not more than the applicable amount
under paragraph (1) or (2) of this subsection, imprisoned for
any term of years or for life, or both.''.
(b) Technical and Conforming Amendment.--The table of sections for
chapter 65 of title 18, United States Code, is amended by adding at the
end the following:
``1370. Obstruction of interstate highways.''.
<all> | Safe Passage on Interstates Act | A bill to criminalize the intentional obstruction of roadways on the Interstate System. | Safe Passage on Interstates Act | Sen. Rubio, Marco | R | FL |
50 | 3,943 | S.976 | Armed Forces and National Security | Caring for Survivors Act of 2021
This bill increases the monthly rate of dependency and indemnity compensation payable to surviving spouses through the Department of Veterans Affairs.
The bill also adjusts the amount payable to surviving spouses and children of veterans who were rated as totally disabled for a period of less than 10 years before their death. | To amend title 38, United States Code, to improve and to expand
eligibility for dependency and indemnity compensation paid to certain
survivors of certain veterans, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Caring for Survivors Act of 2021''.
SEC. 2. INCREASE IN AMOUNT OF DEPENDENCY AND INDEMNITY COMPENSATION FOR
SURVIVING SPOUSES.
(a) Increase.--Section 1311(a) of title 38, United States Code, is
amended in paragraph (1), by striking ``of $1,154'' and inserting
``equal to 55 percent of the rate of monthly compensation in effect
under section 1114(j) of this title''.
(b) Effective Date.--
(1) In general.--Except as provided by paragraph (2), the
amendments made by subsection (a) shall apply with respect to
compensation paid under chapter 13 of title 38, United States
Code, for months beginning after the date that is six months
after the date of the enactment of this Act.
(2) Special rule for certain individuals.--
(A) In general.--For months beginning after the
date that is six months after the date of the enactment
of this Act, the Secretary of Veterans Affairs shall
pay to an individual described in subparagraph (B)
dependents and survivors income security benefit under
section 1311 of title 38, United States Code, in the
monthly amount that is the greater of the following:
(i) The amount determined under subsection
(a)(3) of such section 1311, as in effect on
the day before the date of the enactment of
this Act.
(ii) The amount determined under subsection
(a)(1) of such section 1311, as amended by
subsection (a).
(B) Individuals described.--An individual described
in this subparagraph is an individual eligible for
dependents and survivors income security benefit under
section 1311 of title 38, United States Code, that is
predicated on the death of a veteran before January 1,
1993.
SEC. 3. MODIFICATION OF REQUIREMENTS FOR DEPENDENCY AND INDEMNITY
COMPENSATION FOR SURVIVORS OF CERTAIN VETERANS RATED
TOTALLY DISABLED AT TIME OF DEATH.
Section 1318 of title 38, United States Code, is amended--
(1) in subsection (a)--
(A) by striking ``The Secretary'' and inserting
``(1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), the
Secretary''; and
(B) by adding at the end the following new
paragraph:
``(2) In any case in which the Secretary makes a payment under
paragraph (1) of this subsection by reason of subsection (b)(1) and the
period of continuous rating immediately preceding death is less than 10
years, the amount payable under paragraph (1) of this subsection shall
be an amount that bears the same relationship to the amount otherwise
payable under such paragraph as the duration of such period bears to 10
years.''; and
(2) in subsection (b)(1), by striking ``10 or more years''
and inserting ``five or more years''.
<all> | Caring for Survivors Act of 2021 | A bill to amend title 38, United States Code, to improve and to expand eligibility for dependency and indemnity compensation paid to certain survivors of certain veterans, and for other purposes. | Caring for Survivors Act of 2021 | Sen. Tester, Jon | D | MT |
51 | 11,322 | H.R.6589 | Public Lands and Natural Resources | Historic Preservation Enhancement Act
This bill provides increased funding for and makes permanent the Historic Preservation Fund. This fund supports grants for states, tribes, localities, and nonprofits to carry out historic preservation activities.
Any amounts deposited in the fund shall be made available for expenditure without further congressional appropriation.
The President shall submit to Congress program allocations made available from the fund as part of the President's annual budget. | To amend title 54, United States Code, to increase amounts deposited in
the Historic Preservation Fund, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Historic Preservation Enhancement
Act''.
SEC. 2. AMENDMENTS TO HISTORIC PRESERVATION FUND PROVISIONS.
(a) Funding.--Section 303102 of title 54, United States Code, is
amended--
(1) by striking ``For each'' and inserting ``(a) In
General.-- For each'';
(2) by striking ``of fiscal years 2012 to 2023'' and
inserting ``fiscal year,'';
(3) by striking ``$150,000,000'' and inserting
``$300,000,000''; and
(4) by adding at the end the following:
``(b) Deposits.--Should revenues described in subsection (a) be
insufficient to deposit in the Historic Preservation Fund the amount
described in such subsection, the difference shall be deposited from
amounts in the General Treasury.''.
(b) Use and Availability.--Section 303103 of title 54, United
States Code, is amended to read as follows:
``Sec. 303103. Use and availability
``(a) In General.--Any amounts deposited in the Historic
Preservation Fund under section 303102 for fiscal year 2022 and each
fiscal year thereafter shall be made available for expenditure for
fiscal year 2023 and each fiscal year thereafter, without further
appropriation or fiscal year limitation, to carry out this division
(including programs made available from the Historic Preservation
Fund).
``(b) Allocation Authority.--
``(1) Submission of cost estimates.--The President shall
submit to Congress detailed program allocations of the full
amount made available under subsection (a)--
``(A) for fiscal year 2023, not later than 90 days
after the date of the enactment of the Historic
Preservation Enhancement Act; and
``(B) for each fiscal year thereafter, as part of
the annual budget submission of the President.
``(2) Alternate allocation.--
``(A) In general.--Appropriations Acts may provide
for alternate allocation of amounts made available
under subsection (a), including allocations by program.
``(B) Allocation by president.--
``(i) No alternate allocations.--If
Congress has not enacted legislation
establishing alternate allocations by the date
on which the Act making full-year
appropriations for the Department of the
Interior, Environment, and Related Agencies for
the applicable fiscal year is enacted into law,
amounts made available under subsection (a)
shall be allocated by the President.
``(ii) Insufficient alternate allocation.--
If Congress enacts legislation establishing
alternate allocations for amounts made
available under subsection (a) that are less
than the full amount appropriated under such
subsection, the difference between the amount
appropriated and the alternate allocation shall
be allocated by the President.
``(3) Annual report.--The President shall submit to
Congress an annual report that describes the final allocation
by program and project of amounts made available under
subsection (a), including a description of the status of
obligations and expenditures.''.
<all> | Historic Preservation Enhancement Act | To amend title 54, United States Code, to increase amounts deposited in the Historic Preservation Fund, and for other purposes. | Historic Preservation Enhancement Act | Rep. Leger Fernandez, Teresa | D | NM |
52 | 13,141 | H.R.906 | Transportation and Public Works | This bill prohibits the Federal Aviation Administration from setting a requirement that air carriers and foreign air carriers must require a passenger to test negative for COVID-19 (i.e., coronavirus disease 2019) to travel domestically on such carriers. | To prohibit the Secretary of Transportation, acting through the
Administrator of the Federal Aviation Administration, from setting a
requirement that air carriers and foreign air carriers must require an
individual to test negative for COVID-19 to travel in air
transportation on an air carrier, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. PROHIBITION ON REQUIRING COVID-19 TESTING TO FLY.
The Secretary of Transportation, acting through the Administrator
of the Federal Aviation Administration, may not set a requirement that
air carriers and foreign air carriers must require an individual to
test negative for COVID-19 to travel in air transportation on an air
carrier departing from an airport in the United States or a territory
of the United States and landing at another airport in the United
States or a territory of the United States.
<all> | To prohibit the Secretary of Transportation, acting through the Administrator of the Federal Aviation Administration, from setting a requirement that air carriers and foreign air carriers must require an individual to test negative for COVID-19 to travel in air transportation on an air carrier, and for other purposes. | To prohibit the Secretary of Transportation, acting through the Administrator of the Federal Aviation Administration, from setting a requirement that air carriers and foreign air carriers must require an individual to test negative for COVID-19 to travel in air transportation on an air carrier, and for other purposes. | Official Titles - House of Representatives
Official Title as Introduced
To prohibit the Secretary of Transportation, acting through the Administrator of the Federal Aviation Administration, from setting a requirement that air carriers and foreign air carriers must require an individual to test negative for COVID-19 to travel in air transportation on an air carrier, and for other purposes. | Rep. Biggs, Andy | R | AZ |
53 | 6,173 | H.R.9662 | Transportation and Public Works | Aviation Workforce, Opportunity, Recruiting, Knowledge, and Supply Act or the Aviation WORKS Act
This bill extends through FY2028 and expands aviation workforce development programs of the Department of Transportation (DOT).
Specifically, the bill directs DOT to establish an aviation manufacturing development grant program to develop the aviation manufacturing and supplier workforce. It also requires DOT to develop and support the education of workers who design or produce any aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance, or a component, part, or system thereof, that (1) is produced under a production approval issued by the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), (2) has been issued a design approval by the FAA, or (3) has an active application for a design approval.
Additionally, DOT must establish a program to provide grants for eligible projects to plan, establish, and expand workforce development partnership programs in the aviation and aerospace industry sector. | To amend the FAA Reauthorization Act of 2018 to extend the existing
aviation workforce development programs and provide grants to develop
aviation manufacturing and supplier workforce, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Aviation Workforce, Opportunity,
Recruiting, Knowledge, and Supply Act'' or the ``Aviation WORKS Act''.
SEC. 2. EXTENSION AND EXPANSION OF AVIATION WORKFORCE DEVELOPMENT
PROGRAMS.
Section 625 of the FAA Reauthorization Act of 2018 (49 U.S.C. 40101
note) is amended--
(1) in subsection (a)--
(A) in paragraph (1), by striking ``and'' at the
end;
(B) in paragraph (2), by striking the period at the
end and inserting a semicolon; and
(C) by adding at the end the following new
paragraphs:
``(3) a program to provide grants for eligible projects--
``(A) to develop the aviation manufacturing and
supplier workforce; or
``(B) to develop and support the education of
workers who design or produce any aircraft, aircraft
engine, propeller, or appliance, or a component, part,
or system thereof, that--
``(i) is produced under a production
approval issued by the Federal Aviation
Administration;
``(ii) has been issued a design approval by
the Federal Aviation Administration; or
``(iii) has an active application for a
design approval; and
``(4) a program to provide grants for eligible projects to
plan, establish, and expand workforce development partnership
programs in the aviation and aerospace industry sector.'';
(2) in subsection (b)--
(A) by redesignating paragraph (2) as paragraph
(3); and
(B) by inserting after paragraph (1) the following
new paragraph:
``(2) Subsequent funding.--There is authorized to be
appropriated--
``(A) $20,000,000 for each of fiscal years 2024
through 2028 to provide grants under the program
established under subsection (a)(1);
``(B) $20,000,000 for each of fiscal years 2024
through 2028 to provide grants under the program
established under subsection (a)(2);
``(C) $20,000,000 for each of fiscal years 2024
through 2028 to provide grants under the program
established under subsection (a)(3); and
``(D) $20,000,000 for each of fiscal years 2024
through 2028 to provide grants under the program
established under subsection (a)(4).'';
(3) in subsection (c), by adding at the end the following
new paragraphs:
``(3) An application for a grant under the program
established under subsection (a)(3) shall be submitted, in such
form as the Secretary may specify, by--
``(A) an aviation company that actively designs or
produces any aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, or
appliance, or a component, part, or system thereof,
covered under Federal Aviation Administration design
approval or application for design approval--
``(i) that--
``(I) operates a SAE AS9100-
certified process related to the
design, development, or provision of an
aviation product or service, including
a part, component or assembly;
``(II) holds or operates under a
type or production certificate under
section 44704 of title 49, United
States Code, or similar authorization;
or
``(III) has an active type
certificate application accepted by the
Federal Aviation Administration; or
``(ii) which--
``(I) is established, created, or
organized in the United States or under
the laws of the United States; and
``(II) has significant operations
in the United States, and a majority of
its employees engaged in aviation
manufacturing or development activities
and services, or aviation maintenance,
repair, or overhaul activities and
services based in the United States; or
``(B) an accredited institution of higher education
(as such term is defined in paragraph (1)(B)) or a high
school or a secondary school (as such terms are defined
in such paragraph) that has or is working to establish
an aviation manufacturing program.
``(4) An application for a grant under the program
established under subsection (a)(4) shall--
``(A) be submitted, in such form as the Secretary
may specify, by a partnership that--
``(i) is an industry or sector partnership
(as such term is defined in section 3 of the
Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act (29
U.S.C. 3102)), or is in the process of
establishing an industry or sector partnership;
``(ii) includes an air carrier (as such
term is defined in paragraph (1)(A)), a flight
school described in paragraph (1)(C), a holder
of a certificate described in paragraph (2)(A),
or an aviation company described in paragraph
(3)(A);
``(iii) is comprised of multiple employers
from the aviation and aerospace industry;
``(iv) may include not more than 1 entity
that is a previous recipient of grant funding
from any program established under paragraphs
(1) through (3) of subsection (a), but such
entity may not serve as a fiscal agent (as
described in subparagraph (B)); and
``(v) does not include an entity that is a
current recipient of grant funding from any
program established under paragraphs (1)
through (3) of subsection (a), unless the
application demonstrates that any grant funding
currently received by the entity would expire
or otherwise cease prior to the receipt of the
grant funding under paragraph (4) of subsection
(a);
``(B) designate a partner from within the
partnership, or an intermediary which may be a State or
local workforce board or an accredited institution of
higher education (as such term is defined in paragraph
(1)(B)), to serve as the fiscal agent for the grant;
and
``(C) instruct the fiscal agent designated under
subparagraph (B) to, as appropriate--
``(i) receive funds;
``(ii) ensure sustained fiscal integrity
and accountability for expenditures of funds in
accordance with Federal Aviation Administration
regulations;
``(iii) respond to audit financial
findings;
``(iv) maintain proper accounting records
and documentation; and
``(v) prepare financial reports.'';
(4) in subsection (d)--
(A) in paragraph (2), in the matter preceding
subparagraph (A), by striking ``pilot''; and
(B) by adding at the end the following new
paragraphs:
``(3) For purposes of the program established under
subsection (a)(3), an eligible project is a project--
``(A) to establish or support educational programs
that teach technical skills used in aviation
manufacturing, including the production of components,
parts, or systems thereof for inclusion in an aircraft,
aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance;
``(B) to establish scholarships, internships, or
apprenticeships for individuals pursuing employment in
the aviation manufacturing industry;
``(C) to support outreach about careers in the
aviation manufacturing industry to--
``(i) primary, secondary, and post-
secondary school students; or
``(ii) to communities underrepresented in
the industry;
``(D) to support educational opportunities related
to aviation manufacturing in economically disadvantaged
geographic areas;
``(E) to support transition to careers in aviation
manufacturing, including for members of the Armed
Forces; or
``(F) to otherwise enhance aviation manufacturing
technical education or the aviation manufacturing
industry workforce.
``(4) For purposes of the program established under
subsection (a)(4), an eligible project is a project--
``(A) to carry out planning and partner development
activities, which may include--
``(i) convening key stakeholders as
identified in the application process to
establish or expand educational programs that
teach technical skills used in pilot training,
aviation maintenance, or aviation
manufacturing;
``(ii) conducting outreach to local
businesses and business associations, including
activities to increase marketing and activity
visibility within the community;
``(iii) conducting an evaluation of
workforce needs in the local area;
``(iv) conducting survey and planning
activities for partnership-related
infrastructure needs; or
``(v) recruiting veterans of military
service and individuals with barriers to
employment;
``(B) to provide career services as described in
section 134(c)(2)(A) of the Workforce Innovation and
Opportunity Act (29 U.S.C. 3174(c)(2)(A));
``(C) to provide training services as described in
section 134(c)(3)(D) of the Workforce Innovation and
Opportunity Act (29 U.S.C. 3174(c)(3)(D)); or
``(D) to provide services to support the success
and retention of individuals who are participating in
any training program established under subsection
(a)(4).''; and
(5) in subsection (e)--
(A) in paragraph (1), by striking ``and'' at the
end;
(B) in paragraph (2)--
(i) by striking ``subsection (a)(1)'' and
inserting ``paragraph (1) or (2) of subsection
(a)''; and
(ii) by striking the period at the end and
inserting ``; and''; and
(C) by adding at the end the following new
paragraph:
``(3) ensure that the applications selected for projects
established under subsection (a)(4) will allow participation
from major and regional air carriers and a diverse collection
of industry partners.''.
<all> | Aviation WORKS Act | To amend the FAA Reauthorization Act of 2018 to extend the existing aviation workforce development programs and provide grants to develop aviation manufacturing and supplier workforce, and for other purposes. | Aviation WORKS Act
Aviation Workforce, Opportunity, Recruiting, Knowledge, and Supply Act | Rep. Larsen, Rick | D | WA |
54 | 3,614 | S.4999 | Transportation and Public Works | Puerto Rico Recovery Act
This bill requires the U.S. Coast Guard to provide temporary exemptions from certain Jones Act restrictions to vessels providing relief to Puerto Rico for areas affected by Hurricane Fiona. The Jones Act requires that vessels transporting merchandise or passengers between Puerto Rico and other U.S. ports be built in the United States, be at least 75% owned by U.S. citizens , and be mostly crewed by U.S. Citizens.
The exemptions are valid for one year or until the end of the major disaster declaration of September 22, 2022, for Puerto Rico, whichever comes first. | To provide exemptions from certain Jones Act restrictions to vessels
providing disaster relief to Puerto Rico for the areas affected by
Hurricane Fiona.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Puerto Rico Recovery Act''.
SEC. 2. TEMPORARY EXEMPTIONS FROM JONES ACT RESTRICTIONS FOR VESSELS
PROVIDING HURRICANE RELIEF TO PUERTO RICO.
(a) Temporary Exemption for Puerto Rican Hurricane Relief.--
(1) In general.--Notwithstanding sections 12112, 12103, and
55102 of title 46, United States Code, the Secretary of the
department in which the Coast Guard is operating (referred to
in this section as ``the Secretary'') shall exempt a vessel
from the requirements of such sections if the Secretary
determines that the owner or operator of the vessel has
reasonably demonstrated that the exemption is needed to provide
disaster relief to Puerto Rico for areas affected by Hurricane
Fiona.
(2) Process.--
(A) Request.--An owner or operator of a vessel may
request an exemption under paragraph (1), and the
Secretary shall approve or deny the request by not
later than 72 hours after the request is made.
(B) Public denial statement.--In any case where the
Secretary denies an exemption request under
subparagraph (A), the Secretary shall promptly provide
a public, detailed statement regarding the reasoning
and analysis for the denial.
(C) Deemed approval.--If the Secretary does not
approve or deny a request according to the terms of
subparagraph (A), the request shall be deemed to be
approved.
(b) Period of Exemption.--An exemption approved under subsection
(a) shall be valid until the earlier of--
(1) the date that is 1 year after the date on which the
exemption was approved; or
(2) the date on which the major disaster declared by the
President under section 401 of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster
Relief and Emergency Assistance Act (42 U.S.C. 5121) on
September 22, 2022 expires.
(c) Applicability.--This section, and any exemption issued under
this section, shall cease to have effect on the date described in
subsection (b)(2).
<all> | Puerto Rico Recovery Act | A bill to provide exemptions from certain Jones Act restrictions to vessels providing disaster relief to Puerto Rico for the areas affected by Hurricane Fiona. | Puerto Rico Recovery Act | Sen. Lee, Mike | R | UT |
55 | 10,464 | H.R.6454 | Commerce | Small Business Advocacy Improvements Act of 2022
This bill expands the primary functions and additional duties of the Office of Advocacy of the Small Business Administration to include (1) examining the role of small businesses in the international economy, and (2) representing the views and interests of small businesses before foreign governments and international entities to contribute to regulatory and trade initiatives that may affect small businesses. | To clarify the primary functions and duties of the Office of Advocacy
of the Small Business Administration, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Small Business Advocacy Improvements
Act of 2022''.
SEC. 2. AMENDMENT TO PRIMARY FUNCTIONS AND DUTIES OF THE OFFICE OF
ADVOCACY OF THE SMALL BUSINESS ADMINISTRATION.
(a) Primary Functions.--Section 202 of Public Law 94-305 (15 U.S.C.
634b) is amended--
(1) in paragraph (1), by inserting ``and the international
economy'' after ``economy'';
(2) in paragraph (9), by striking ``complete'' and
inserting ``compete''; and
(3) in paragraph (12), by striking ``serviced-disabled''
and inserting ``service-disabled''.
(b) Duties.--Section 203(a) of Public Law 94-305 (15 U.S.C. 634c)
is amended--
(1) in paragraph (5), by striking ``and'' at the end;
(2) in paragraph (6), by striking the period at the end and
inserting ``; and''; and
(3) by adding at the end the following:
``(7) represent the views and interests of small businesses
before foreign governments and international entities for the
purpose of contributing to regulatory and trade initiatives
which may affect small businesses.''.
Passed the House of Representatives April 26, 2022.
Attest:
CHERYL L. JOHNSON,
Clerk. | Small Business Advocacy Improvements Act of 2022 | To clarify the primary functions and duties of the Office of Advocacy of the Small Business Administration, and for other purposes. | Small Business Advocacy Improvements Act of 2022
Small Business Advocacy Improvements Act of 2022
Small Business Advocacy Improvements Act of 2022 | Rep. Luetkemeyer, Blaine | R | MO |
56 | 3,962 | S.3641 | Labor and Employment | Part-Time Worker Bill of Rights Act This bill modifies various employment, leave, and pension rules with respect to part-time workers. Specifically, the bill removes the requirement that employees work a minimum number of hours during the preceding 12-month period before becoming eligible for family and medical leave. The bill also sets the maximum length of service on which employers may condition the eligibility of part-time employees for a qualified pension plan (e.g., 401(k) retirement plan). Except as required by an applicable collective bargaining agreement, such service requirement may be no longer than two consecutive 12-month periods of at least 500 hours of service for part-time employees who have reached the age of 21 by the end of such period. The bill further prohibits employers of more than 15 employees from setting disparate terms of employment or working conditions for part-time employees, including with respect to compensation, notice of work hours, and promotion opportunities. Additionally, the bill requires such employers to offer available, qualified part-time employees additional work hours before hiring new employees for such hours. Among other enforcement methods, employers must maintain three years of records for offers of additional hours and employee responses to such offers. The bill also provides a private right of action for employees to enforce the nondiscrimination requirements of this bill. | To extend protections to part-time workers in the areas of family and
medical leave and pension plans, and to ensure equitable treatment in
the workplace.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Part-Time Worker Bill of Rights
Act''.
SEC. 2. TABLE OF CONTENTS.
The table of contents is as follows:
Sec. 1. Short title.
Sec. 2. Table of contents.
TITLE I--EXPANDING ACCESS TO BENEFITS FOR PART-TIME WORKERS
Sec. 101. Elimination of hours of service requirement for FMLA leave.
Sec. 102. Improving coverage for long-term part-time workers.
TITLE II--ENSURING FAIR TREATMENT FOR PART-TIME WORKERS
Sec. 201. Definitions.
Sec. 202. Elimination of discrimination on the basis of hours worked.
Sec. 203. Offer of work to existing employees.
Sec. 204. Prohibited acts.
Sec. 205. Remedies and enforcement.
Sec. 206. Regulations.
TITLE I--EXPANDING ACCESS TO BENEFITS FOR PART-TIME WORKERS
SEC. 101. ELIMINATION OF HOURS OF SERVICE REQUIREMENT FOR FMLA LEAVE.
(a) Amendment.--Section 101(2)(A) of the Family and Medical Leave
Act of 1993 (29 U.S.C. 2611(2)(A)) is amended to read as follows:
``(A) In general.--The term `eligible employee'
means an employee who has been employed for at least 12
months by the employer with respect to whom leave is
requested under section 102.''.
(b) Conforming Amendments.--
(1) Section 101(2) of such Act (29 U.S.C. 2611(2)) is
amended--
(A) by striking subparagraphs (C) and (D); and
(B) by redesignating subparagraph (E) as
subparagraph (C).
(2) Section 102(a) of such Act (29 U.S.C. 2612(a)) is
amended by striking paragraph (5).
(c) Effective Date.--The amendments made by subsections (a) and (b)
shall take effect beginning on the date that is 1 year after the date
of enactment of this Act.
SEC. 102. IMPROVING COVERAGE FOR LONG-TERM PART-TIME WORKERS.
(a) In General.--Section 202 of the Employee Retirement Income
Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1052) is amended by adding at the end
the following new subsection:
``(c) Special Rule for Certain Part-Time Employees.--
``(1) In general.--A pension plan that includes either a
qualified cash or deferred arrangement (as defined in section
401(k) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986) or a salary
reduction agreement (as described in section 403(b) of such
Code) shall not require, as a condition of participation in the
arrangement or agreement, that an employee complete a period of
service with the employer (or employers) maintaining the plan
extending beyond the close of the earlier of--
``(A) the period permitted under subsection (a)(1)
(determined without regard to subparagraph (B)(i)
thereof) and section 410(a)(1) of such Code (determined
without regard to subparagraph (B)(i) thereof); or
``(B) the first 24-month period--
``(i) consisting of 2 consecutive 12-month
periods during each of which the employee has
at least 500 hours of service; and
``(ii) by the close of which the employee
has attained the age of 21.
``(2) Exception.--Paragraph (1)(B) shall not apply to
employees who are included in a unit of employees covered by an
agreement which the Secretary finds to be a collective
bargaining agreement between employee representatives and 1 or
more employers, if there is evidence that retirement benefits
were the subject of good faith bargaining between such employee
representatives and such employer or employers.
``(3) Coordination with other rules.--In the case of
employees who are not highly compensated employees (within the
meaning of section 414(q) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986)
and who are eligible to participate in the arrangement or
agreement solely by reason of paragraph (1)(B):
``(A) Exclusions.--An employer may elect to exclude
such employees from the determination of whether the
plan that includes the arrangement or agreement
satisfies the requirements of subsections (a)(4),
(k)(3), (k)(12), (k)(13), (m)(2), (m)(11), and (m)(12)
of section 401 of such Code, section 410(b) of such
Code, and section 416 of such Code. If the employer so
excludes such employees with respect to the
requirements of any such provision, such employees
shall be excluded with respect to the requirements of
all such provisions. This subparagraph shall cease to
apply to any employee as of the first plan year
beginning after the plan year in which the employee
completes 1 year of service (without regard to
paragraph (1)(B) of this subsection).
``(B) Time of participation.--The rules of
subsection (a)(4) and section 410(a)(4) of the Internal
Revenue Code of 1986 shall apply to such employees.
``(4) 12-month period.--For purposes of this subsection,
12-month periods shall be determined in the same manner as
under the last sentence of subsection (a)(3)(A), except that
12-month periods beginning before January 1, 2022, shall not be
taken into account.''.
(b) Vesting.--Section 203(b) of the Employee Retirement Income
Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1053(b)) is amended by redesignating
paragraph (4) as paragraph (5) and by inserting after paragraph (3) the
following new paragraph:
``(4) Part-Time Employees.--For purposes of determining whether an
employee who is eligible to participate in a qualified cash or deferred
arrangement or a salary reduction agreement under a plan solely by
reason of section 202(c)(1)(B) has a nonforfeitable right to employer
contributions--
``(A) except as provided in subparagraph (B), each 12-month
period for which the employee has at least 500 hours of service
shall be treated as a year of service; and
``(B) 12-month periods occurring before the 24-month period
described in section 202(c)(1)(B) shall not be treated as years
of service.
For purposes of this paragraph, 12-month periods shall be determined in
the same manner as under the last sentence of section 202(a)(3)(A),
except that 12-month periods beginning before January 1, 2022, shall
not be taken into account.''.
(c) Penalty.--Section 502 of the Employee Retirement Income
Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1132) is amended by adding at the end
the following new subsection:
``(n) Requirements Relating to Part-Time Employees.--In the case of
a plan that fails to permit participation as required by section
202(c), the Secretary may assess a civil penalty against the plan
sponsor in an amount equal to $10,000 per year per employee to whom
such failure relates. The Secretary may, in the Secretary's sole
discretion, waive or reduce the penalty under this subsection if the
Secretary determines that the plan sponsor acted reasonably and in good
faith.''.
TITLE II--ENSURING FAIR TREATMENT FOR PART-TIME WORKERS
SEC. 201. DEFINITIONS.
In this title:
(1) Employ.--The term ``employ'' has the meaning given the
term in section 3(g) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938
(29 U.S.C. 203(g)).
(2) Employee.--The term ``employee'' means an individual
who is--
(A) an employee, as defined in section 3(e) of the
Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 (29 U.S.C. 203(e)),
who is not covered under any of subparagraphs (B)
through (G), except that a reference in such section to
an employer shall be considered to be a reference to a
person in commerce described in paragraph (3)(A);
(B) a State employee described in section 304(a) of
the Government Employee Rights Act of 1991 (42 U.S.C.
2000e-16c(a));
(C) a covered employee, as defined in section 101
of the Congressional Accountability Act of 1995 (2
U.S.C. 1301), except that such term shall not include
an applicant for employment;
(D) a covered employee, as defined in section
411(c) of title 3, United States Code;
(E) a Federal officer or employee covered under
subchapter V of chapter 63 of title 5, United States
Code; or
(F) an employee of the Government Accountability
Office.
(3) Employer.--The term ``employer''--
(A)(i) means any person in commerce that--
(I) employs more than 15 employees
described in paragraph (2)(A), which shall be
calculated by including all employees described
in paragraph (2)(A) performing work for
compensation on a full-time, part-time, or
temporary basis, except that if the number of
such employees who perform work for such a
person for compensation fluctuates, the number
may be determined for a calendar year based
upon the average number of such employees who
performed work for the person for compensation
during the preceding calendar year; or
(II) is part of an integrated enterprise,
chain of businesses, group of franchises
associated with a franchisor, or network of
franchises that, in the aggregate, employs more
than 15 employees, calculated in accordance
with subclause (I);
(ii) includes--
(I) any person who acts, directly or
indirectly, in the interest of such an employer
to any of the employees (described in clause
(i)) of such employer; and
(II) any successor in interest of such an
employer; and
(iii) includes an agency described in subparagraph
(A)(iii) of section 101(4) of the Family and Medical
Leave Act of 1993 (29 U.S.C. 2611(4)), to which
subparagraph (B) of such section shall apply;
(B) is an entity employing a State employee
described in section 304(a) of the Government Employee
Rights Act of 1991 (42 U.S.C. 2000e-16c(a));
(C) is an employing office, as defined in section
101 of the Congressional Accountability Act of 1995 (2
U.S.C. 1301);
(D) is an employing office, as defined in section
411(c) of title 3, United States Code;
(E) is an employing agency covered under subchapter
V of chapter 63 of title 5, United States Code; or
(F) is the Comptroller General of the United
States.
(4) Person.--The term ``person'', except as used with the
term ``person in commerce'', has the meaning given the term in
section 3(a) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 (29 U.S.C.
203(a)).
(5) Person in commerce.--
(A) In general.--The term ``person in commerce''
means any person who is engaged in commerce, in any
industry or activity affecting commerce, or in the
production of goods for commerce.
(B) Commerce.--In subparagraph (A), the term
``commerce'' includes government.
(6) Secretary.--The term ``Secretary'' means the Secretary
of Labor.
SEC. 202. ELIMINATION OF DISCRIMINATION ON THE BASIS OF HOURS WORKED.
(a) Rule.--
(1) In general.--An employer shall not discriminate against
an employee on the basis that such employee is scheduled to
work fewer hours per week, or is employed for a shorter
expected duration, than another employee of the employer if the
jobs of such employees require substantially equal skill,
effort, responsibility, and duties and such jobs are performed
under similar working conditions.
(2) Examples.--Discrimination described in paragraph (1)
shall include differential treatment with respect to--
(A) rate of compensation;
(B) notice of, and input into, work hours;
(C) eligibility to accrue, on a pro rata basis,
employer-provided paid and unpaid time off and other
benefits;
(D) promotion opportunities; or
(E) other terms, conditions, or privileges of
employment.
(b) Distinctions Permitted.--This section shall not be construed to
prohibit differences in rate of compensation, or other conditions,
terms, or privileges of employment, of employees of an employer for
reasons other than the number of hours the employees are scheduled to
work per week, or the expected duration of employment of the employees,
including for reasons such as--
(1) the date on which the employees are hired;
(2) a merit system; or
(3) a system that measures earnings by quantity per hour or
quality of production.
SEC. 203. OFFER OF WORK TO EXISTING EMPLOYEES.
(a) Written Statements Required.--
(1) In general.--Upon hiring an employee, an employer
shall--
(A) obtain a written statement of the employee's
desired number of weekly work hours and the days and
times the employee is available to work;
(B) notify the employee that this written statement
may be modified in writing at any time during
employment; and
(C) specify the process to modify the written
statement.
(b) Offer of Desired Weekly Work Hours to Existing Employees.--
(1) In general.--Except as provided in paragraph (2), an
employer shall schedule an employee of the employer to work the
number of weekly hours identified by the employee as desired
weekly hours in a written statement under subsection (a) prior
to hiring any new employee from an external applicant pool,
including hiring through the use of a temporary services or
staffing agency, or contracting with a contractor or
subcontractor, to work such hours.
(2) Exceptions.--An employer may hire an individual as a
new employee, or engage a contractor or subcontractor, to
perform work for the employer if--
(A) the employer needs to fill hours for which no
employees of the employer who have provided written
statements under subsection (a) are available based on
such written statements;
(B) all employees of the employer who have provided
written statements under subsection (a) lack, and
cannot obtain with reasonable training, the
qualifications necessary to perform the work; or
(C) scheduling any such employee to perform the
work would require providing such employee overtime
compensation at a rate not less than one and one half
times the regular rate at which the employee is
employed, in accordance with section 7 of the Fair
Labor Standards Act of 1938 (29 U.S.C. 207) or any
State law.
(c) Compensation Required.--
(1) In general.--Except as provided in paragraph (2), an
employee (referred to in this subsection as an ``existing
employee'') who is not scheduled for the desired number of
total weekly work hours identified by the employee in a written
statement under subsection (a) shall be compensated for each
hour worked by a newly hired employee, contractor, or
subcontractor hired after the existing employee so identified
such number of hours, during an hour that such existing
employee identified in a written statement under such
subsection as an hour for which the employee is available to
work.
(2) Exception.--An employer shall not be required to
compensate an existing employee under paragraph (1) for any
hour of work for which--
(A) the employee lacks, or cannot obtain with
reasonable training, the qualifications necessary to
perform the work;
(B) scheduling such employee to perform the work
would require providing the employee overtime
compensation as described in subsection (b)(2)(C);
(C) the employer made a reasonable attempt to
contact the employee to work such hour and was unable
to reach the employee; or
(D) the employee was otherwise no longer available.
(d) Definition.--For purposes of this section, the terms
``written'', with respect to a statement, and ``writing'' mean a
printed or printable communication in physical or electronic form.
SEC. 204. PROHIBITED ACTS.
(a) Interference With Rights.--It shall be unlawful for any
employer to interfere with, restrain, or deny the exercise or the
attempt to exercise, any rights set forth under this title.
(b) Retaliation Prohibited.--It shall be unlawful for any employer
to discharge, threaten to discharge, demote, suspend, reduce work hours
of, or otherwise discriminate (including taking any other adverse
employment action) against any person because of an employee of the
employer exercising the rights of the employee under this title or
opposing any practice made unlawful by this title.
(c) Interference With Proceedings or Inquiries.--It shall be
unlawful for any person to discharge or in any other manner
discriminate against an individual because such individual--
(1) has filed any charge, or has instituted or caused to be
instituted any proceeding, under or related to this title;
(2) has given, or is about to give, any information in
connection with any inquiry or proceeding relating to any right
provided under this title; or
(3) has testified, or is about to testify, in any inquiry
or proceeding relating to any right provided under this title.
SEC. 205. REMEDIES AND ENFORCEMENT.
(a) Investigative Authority.--
(1) In general.--To ensure compliance with this title,
including any regulation or order issued under this title, the
Secretary shall have, subject to paragraph (3), the
investigative authority provided under section 11(a) of the
Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 (29 U.S.C. 211(a)).
(2) Obligation to keep and preserve records.--
(A) In general.--Each employer shall maintain for a
period of not less than 3 years, or for the duration of
any claim (including the duration of a related civil
action or investigation) pending pursuant to this
title, whichever is longer, all records necessary to
demonstrate compliance with this title, including
compliance with the requirements of regulations issued
by the Secretary under section 206. Such records shall
include documentation of offers of hours of work to
employees and responses to such offers.
(B) Copies.--Each employer shall, upon a reasonable
request of an employee of the employer, provide the
employee with a copy of the records described in
subparagraph (A) relating to the employee.
(3) Required submissions generally limited to an annual
basis.--The Secretary shall not require, under the authority of
this subsection, any employer to submit to the Secretary any
books or records more than once during any 12-month period,
unless the Secretary has reasonable cause to believe there may
exist a violation of this title, including any regulation or
order issued pursuant to this title, or is investigating a
charge pursuant to subsection (c).
(4) Subpoena powers.--For the purposes of any investigation
provided for in this subsection, the Secretary shall have the
subpoena authority provided for under section 9 of the Fair
Labor Standards Act of 1938 (29 U.S.C. 209).
(b) Civil Action by Employees.--
(1) Liability.--
(A) In general.--Any employer who violates section
202, 203, or 204 (each such provision referred to in
this section as a ``covered provision'') shall be
liable to any person affected for--
(i) damages equal to the amount of--
(I) any wages, salary, employment
benefits (as defined in section 101 of
the Family and Medical Leave Act of
1993 (29 U.S.C. 2611)), or other
compensation denied, lost, or owed to
such employee by reason of the
violation; or
(II) in a case in which wages,
salary, employment benefits (as so
defined), or other compensation have
not been denied, lost, or owed to the
employee, any actual monetary losses
sustained by the employee as a direct
result of the violation;
(ii) interest on the amount described in
clause (i) calculated at the prevailing rate;
(iii) except as provided in subparagraph
(B), an additional amount as liquidated damages
equal to the sum of the amount described in
clause (i) and the interest described in clause
(ii); and
(iv) such equitable relief as may be
appropriate, including employment,
reinstatement, and promotion.
(B) Exception for liquidated damages.--If an
employer who has violated a covered provision proves to
the satisfaction of the court that the act or omission
which violated the covered provision was in good faith
and that the employer had reasonable grounds for
believing that the act or omission was not a violation
of a covered provision, such court may, in the
discretion of the court, reduce the amount of liability
under subparagraph (A) to the amount, interest, and
equitable relief determined under clauses (i), (ii),
and (iv), respectively.
(2) Right of action.--An action to recover the damages,
interest, or equitable relief set forth in paragraph (1) may be
maintained against any employer (including a public agency) in
any Federal or State court of competent jurisdiction by any one
or more employees for and on behalf of--
(A) such employees; or
(B) such employees and any other employees
similarly situated.
(3) Fees and costs.--The court in such an action shall, in
addition to any judgment awarded to the plaintiff, allow a
reasonable attorney's fee, reasonable expert witness fees, and
other costs of the action to be paid by the defendant.
(4) Limitations.--The right provided by paragraph (2) to
bring an action by or on behalf of any employee shall terminate
on the filing of a complaint by the Secretary in an action
under subsection (c)(4) in which a recovery is sought of the
damages, interest, or equitable relief described in paragraph
(1)(A) owing to an employee by an employer liable under
paragraph (1) unless the action is dismissed without prejudice
on motion of the Secretary.
(c) Actions by the Secretary.--
(1) Administrative action.--The Secretary shall receive,
investigate, and attempt to resolve complaints of violations of
this title in the same manner that the Secretary receives,
investigates, and attempts to resolve complaints of violations
of sections 6 and 7 of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 (29
U.S.C. 206 and 207), and may issue an order making
determinations, and assessing a civil penalty described in
paragraph (3) (in accordance with paragraph (3)), with respect
to such an alleged violation.
(2) Administrative review.--An affected person who takes
exception to an order issued under paragraph (1) may request
review of and a decision regarding such an order by an
administrative law judge. In reviewing the order, the
administrative law judge may hold an administrative hearing
concerning the order, in accordance with the requirements of
sections 554, 556, and 557 of title 5, United States Code. Such
hearing shall be conducted expeditiously.
(3) Civil penalty.--
(A) In general.--An employer who willfully and
repeatedly violates--
(i) section 204(a) shall be subject to a
civil penalty in an amount to be determined by
the Secretary, but not to exceed $100 per
violation (subject to subparagraph (B)); or
(ii) subsection (b) or (c) of section 204
shall be subject to a civil penalty in an
amount to be determined by the Secretary, but
not to exceed $1,100 per violation (subject to
subparagraph (B)).
(B) Inflation.--The Secretary shall, for each year
beginning with calendar year 2024, increase the maximum
amounts for the penalties described in clauses (i) and
(ii) of subparagraph (A) by a percentage equal to the
percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index for All
Urban Consumers, published by the Department of Labor,
between December 2022 and the December prior to the
year for which the increase takes effect.
(4) Civil action.--
(A) In general.--The Secretary may bring an action
in any court of competent jurisdiction on behalf of
aggrieved employees to--
(i) restrain violations of this title;
(ii) obtain such equitable relief as may be
appropriate, including employment,
reinstatement, and promotion; and
(iii) in the case of a violation of a
covered provision, recover the damages,
interest, and equitable relief described in
clauses (i) through (iv) of subsection
(b)(1)(A).
(B) Recovery on behalf of employees.--Any sums
recovered by the Secretary under subparagraph (A) on
behalf of an employee shall be held in a special
deposit account and shall be paid, on order of the
Secretary, directly to the employee affected. Any such
sums not paid to an employee because of inability to do
so within a period of three years shall be deposited in
the Treasury and credited to miscellaneous receipts.
(d) Limitation.--
(1) In general.--Except as provided in paragraph (2), an
action may be brought under this section not later than 2 years
after the date of the last event constituting the alleged
violation for which the action is brought.
(2) Willful violation.--In the case of such action brought
for a willful violation of section 204, such action may be
brought within 3 years of the date of the last event
constituting the alleged violation for which such action is
brought.
(3) Commencement.--In determining when an action is
commenced by the Secretary or by an employee under this section
for the purposes of this subsection, it shall be considered to
be commenced on the date when the complaint is filed.
(e) Other Administrative Officers.--
(1) Employees covered by congressional accountability act
of 1995.--The powers and procedures provided in the
Congressional Accountability Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1301 et
seq.) to the Board (as defined in section 101 of that Act (2
U.S.C. 1301)), or any person, alleging a violation of section
202(a)(1) of that Act (2 U.S.C. 1312(a)(1)) shall be the powers
and procedures this title provides to that Board, or any
person, alleging a violation of this title against an employee
described in section 201(2)(C).
(2) Employees covered by chapter 5 of title 3, united
states code.--The powers and procedures provided in chapter 5
of title 3, United States Code, to the President, the Merit
Systems Protection Board, or any person, alleging a violation
of section 412(a)(1) of that title, shall be the powers and
procedures this title provides to the President, that Board, or
any person, respectively, alleging a violation of this title
against an employee described in section 201(2)(D).
(3) Employees covered by chapter 63 of title 5, united
states code.--The powers and procedures provided in title 5,
United States Code, to an employing agency, provided in chapter
12 of that title to the Merit Systems Protection Board, or
provided in that title to any person, alleging a violation of
chapter 63 of that title, shall be the powers and procedures
this title provides to that agency, that Board, or any person,
respectively, alleging a violation of this title against an
employee described in section 201(2)(E).
(4) Comptroller general.--In the case of employees of the
Government Accountability Office, the authority of the
Secretary under this title shall be exercised by the
Comptroller General of the United States.
SEC. 206. REGULATIONS.
(a) Secretary of Labor.--Except as provided in subsections (b)
through (e), not later than 180 days after the date of enactment of
this title, the Secretary shall issue such regulations as may be
necessary to implement this title.
(b) Board.--
(1) In general.--Not later than 180 days after the date of
enactment of this Act, the Board of Directors of the Office of
Congressional Workplace Rights shall issue such regulations as
may be necessary to implement this title with respect to
employees described in section 201(2)(C). The procedures
applicable to regulations of the Board issued for the
implementation of the Congressional Accountability Act of 1995
(2 U.S.C. 1301 et seq.), prescribed in section 304 of that Act
(2 U.S.C. 1384), shall be the procedures applicable to
regulations issued under this subsection.
(2) Consideration.--In prescribing the regulations, the
Board shall take into consideration the enforcement and
remedies provisions concerning the Office and applicable to
rights and protections under the Family and Medical Leave Act
of 1993 (29 U.S.C. 2601 et seq.), under the Congressional
Accountability Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1301 et seq.).
(3) Modifications.--The regulations issued under paragraph
(1) to implement this title shall be the same as substantive
regulations issued by the Secretary to implement this title,
except to the extent that the Board may determine, for good
cause shown and stated together with the regulations issued by
the Board, that a modification of such substantive regulations
would be more effective for the implementation of the rights
and protections under this title.
(c) President.--
(1) In general.--Not later than 180 days after the date of
enactment of this Act, the President shall issue such
regulations as may be necessary to implement this title with
respect to employees described in section 201(2)(D).
(2) Consideration.--In prescribing the regulations, the
President shall take into consideration the enforcement and
remedies provisions concerning the President and the Merit
Systems Protection Board, and applicable to rights and
protections under the Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993,
under chapter 5 of title 3, United States Code.
(3) Modifications.--The regulations issued under paragraph
(1) to implement this title shall be the same as substantive
regulations issued by the Secretary to implement this title,
except to the extent that the President may determine, for good
cause shown and stated together with the regulations issued by
the President, that a modification of such substantive
regulations would be more effective for the implementation of
the rights and protections under this title.
(d) Office of Personnel Management.--
(1) In general.--Not later than 180 days after the date of
enactment of this Act, the Office of Personnel Management shall
issue such regulations as may be necessary to implement this
title with respect to employees described in section 201(2)(E).
(2) Consideration.--In prescribing the regulations, the
Office shall take into consideration the enforcement and
remedies provisions concerning an employing agency and the
Merit Systems Protection Board under subchapter V of chapter 63
of title 5, United States Code.
(3) Modifications.--The regulations issued under paragraph
(1) to implement this title shall be the same as substantive
regulations issued by the Secretary to implement this title,
except to the extent that the Office may determine, for good
cause shown and stated together with the regulations issued by
the Office, that a modification of such substantive regulations
would be more effective for the implementation of the rights
and protections under this title.
(e) Comptroller General.--
(1) In general.--Not later than 180 days after the date of
enactment of this Act, the Comptroller General of the United
States shall issue such regulations as may be necessary to
implement this title with respect to employees of the
Government Accountability Office.
(2) Consideration.--In prescribing the regulations, the
Comptroller General shall take into consideration the
enforcement and remedies provisions concerning the Comptroller
General under title I of the Family and Medical Leave Act of
1993 (29 U.S.C. 2611 et seq.).
(3) Modifications.--The regulations issued under paragraph
(1) to implement this title shall be the same as substantive
regulations issued by the Secretary to implement this title,
except to the extent that the Comptroller General may
determine, for good cause shown and stated together with the
regulations issued by the Comptroller General, that a
modification of such substantive regulations would be more
effective for the implementation of the rights and protections
under this title.
<all> | Part-Time Worker Bill of Rights Act | A bill to extend protections to part-time workers in the areas of family and medical leave and pension plans, and to ensure equitable treatment in the workplace. | Part-Time Worker Bill of Rights Act | Sen. Warren, Elizabeth | D | MA |
57 | 11,636 | H.R.2031 | Taxation | This bill excludes from gross income, for income tax purposes, gains from distributions of intangible property by controlled foreign corporations to U.S. domestic corporations. The bill defines intangible property to include patents, copyrights, licenses, formulas, computer software, and similar items with substantial value. | To amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to encourage the transfer of
intangible property from controlled foreign corporations to United
States shareholders.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SPECIAL RULES FOR TRANSFERS OF INTANGIBLE PROPERTY FROM
CONTROLLED FOREIGN CORPORATIONS TO UNITED STATES
SHAREHOLDERS.
(a) In General.--Subpart F of part III of subchapter N of chapter 1
of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 is amended by adding at the end
the following new section:
``SEC. 966. TRANSFERS OF INTANGIBLE PROPERTY TO UNITED STATES
SHAREHOLDERS.
``(a) In General.--If a controlled foreign corporation holds
intangible property on the date of the enactment of this section and
thereafter distributes such property to a domestic corporation which is
a United States shareholder with respect to such controlled foreign
corporation--
``(1) for purposes of part I of subchapter C and any other
provision of this title specified by the Secretary, the fair
market value of such property on the date of such distribution
shall be treated as not exceeding the adjusted basis of such
property immediately before such distribution, and
``(2) if any portion of such distribution is not a
dividend--
``(A) no gain shall be recognized by such United
States shareholder with respect to such distribution,
and
``(B) the adjusted basis of such property in the
hands of such United States shareholder immediately
after such distribution shall be the adjusted basis of
such property in the hands of such controlled foreign
corporation immediately before such distribution
reduced by the amount (if any) of gain not recognized
by reason of subparagraph (A) (determined after the
application of paragraph (1)).
``(b) Intangible Property.--For purposes of this section, the term
`intangible property' means any--
``(1) patent, copyright, license, invention, formula,
process, design, pattern, know-how, or format,
``(2) method, program, system, procedure, campaign, survey,
study, forecast, estimate, or technical data,
``(3) computer software (as defined in section
197(e)(3)(B)), or
``(4) any similar item, which has substantial value
independent of the services of any individual.''.
(b) Conforming Amendments.--
(1) Section 197(f)(2)(B)(i) of such Code is amended by
inserting ``966(a),'' after ``731,''.
(2) The table of sections for subpart F of part III of
subchapter N of chapter 1 of such Code is amended by adding at
the end the following new item:
``Sec. 966. Transfers of intangible property to United States
shareholders.''.
(c) Effective Date.--The amendments made by this section shall
apply to distributions made in taxable years of foreign corporations
beginning after December 31, 2021, and to taxable years of United
States shareholders in which or with which such taxable years of
foreign corporations end.
<all> | To amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to encourage the transfer of intangible property from controlled foreign corporations to United States shareholders. | To amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to encourage the transfer of intangible property from controlled foreign corporations to United States shareholders. | Official Titles - House of Representatives
Official Title as Introduced
To amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to encourage the transfer of intangible property from controlled foreign corporations to United States shareholders. | Rep. LaHood, Darin | R | IL |
58 | 12,616 | H.R.1386 | Commerce | Country of Origin Labeling Requirement Act This bill requires sellers of products online to conspicuously disclose the country of origin of the products. This requirement does not apply to individuals selling products through third-party websites.
The Federal Trade Commission must enforce violations of this requirement as unfair or deceptive trade practices. | To require retailers who offer products for purchase through a website
to disclose on such website the country of origin for each product
offered for sale.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Country of Origin Labeling
Requirement Act''.
SEC. 2. COUNTRY OF ORIGIN DISCLOSURE REQUIREMENTS FOR PRODUCTS SOLD ON
RETAIL WEBSITES.
(a) Disclosure Requirement.--Any person that operates an Internet
website (including a mobile application) and that sells or offers for
sale any product through such website or application, shall disclose on
such website or application, in a clear and conspicuous manner, the
country in which such product was manufactured or finally assembled.
(b) Exclusion.--The requirements in subsection (a) shall not be
construed to apply to any individual who uses a website operated by
another person to sell or offer for sale any good or product.
SEC. 3. ENFORCEMENT BY THE FEDERAL TRADE COMMISSION.
(a) Unfair or Deceptive Acts or Practices.--A violation of section
1(a) shall be treated as a violation of a regulation under section
18(a)(1)(B) of the Federal Trade Commission Act (15 U.S.C.
57a(a)(1)(B)) regarding unfair or deceptive acts or practices.
(b) Powers of the Commission.--The Commission shall enforce section
1(a) in the same manner, by the same means, and with the same
jurisdiction, powers, and duties as though all applicable terms and
provisions of the Federal Trade Commission Act (15 U.S.C. 41 et seq.)
were incorporated into and made a part of this Act. Any person who
violates such section shall be subject to the penalties and entitled to
the privileges and immunities provided in the Federal Trade Commission
Act.
(c) Effect on Other Laws.--Nothing in this Act shall be construed
in any way to limit or affect the authority of the Commission under any
other provision of law.
<all> | Country of Origin Labeling Requirement Act | To require retailers who offer products for purchase through a website to disclose on such website the country of origin for each product offered for sale. | Country of Origin Labeling Requirement Act | Rep. Van Drew, Jefferson | R | NJ |
59 | 9,012 | H.R.4076 | Education | Mentoring to Succeed Act of 2021
This bill requires the Department of Education to award grants to entities such as educational agencies, schools, and local governments to establish, expand, or support school-based mentoring programs that assist at-risk students in developing cognitive skills and promoting social-emotional learning to prepare them for success in high school, postsecondary education, and the workforce. | To amend the Carl D. Perkins Career and Technical Education Act of 2006
to give the Department of Education the authority to award competitive
grants to eligible entities to establish, expand, or support school-
based mentoring programs to assist at-risk students in middle school
and high school in developing cognitive and social-emotional skills to
prepare them for success in high school, postsecondary education, and
the workforce.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Mentoring to Succeed Act of 2021''.
SEC. 2. PURPOSE.
The purpose of this Act is to make assistance available for school-
based mentoring programs for at-risk students in order to--
(1) establish, expand, or support school-based mentoring
programs;
(2) assist at-risk students in middle school and high
school in developing cognitive and social-emotional skills; and
(3) prepare such at-risk students for success in high
school, postsecondary education, and the workforce.
SEC. 3. SCHOOL-BASED MENTORING PROGRAM.
Part C of title I of the Carl D. Perkins Career and Technical
Education Act of 2006 (20 U.S.C. 2351 et seq.) is amended by adding at
the end the following:
``SEC. 136. DISTRIBUTION OF FUNDS FOR SCHOOL-BASED MENTORING PROGRAMS.
``(a) Definitions.--In this section:
``(1) At-risk student.--The term `at-risk student' means a
student who--
``(A) is failing academically or at risk of
dropping out of school;
``(B) is pregnant or a parent;
``(C) is a gang member;
``(D) is a child or youth in foster care or a youth
who has been emancipated from foster care, but is still
enrolled in high school;
``(E) is or has recently been a homeless child or
youth;
``(F) is chronically absent;
``(G) has changed schools 3 or more times in the
past 6 months;
``(H) has come in contact with the juvenile justice
system in the past;
``(I) has a history of multiple suspensions or
disciplinary actions;
``(J) is an English learner;
``(K) has one or both parents incarcerated;
``(L) has experienced one or more adverse childhood
experiences, traumatic events, or toxic stressors, as
assessed through an evidence-based screening;
``(M) lives in a high-poverty area with a high rate
of community violence;
``(N) has a disability; or
``(O) shows signs of alcohol or drug misuse or
abuse or has a parent or guardian who is struggling
with substance abuse.
``(2) Disability.--The term `disability' has the meaning
given the term for purposes of section 602(3) of the
Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (20 U.S.C.
1401(3)).
``(3) Eligible entity.--The term `eligible entity'--
``(A) means a high-need local educational agency,
high-need school, or local government entity; and
``(B) may include a partnership between an entity
described in subparagraph (A) and a nonprofit,
community-based, or faith-based organization, or
institution of higher education.
``(4) English learner.--The term `English learner' has the
meaning given the term in section 8101 of the Elementary and
Secondary Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 7801).
``(5) Foster care.--The term `foster care' has the meaning
given the term in section 1355.20 of title 45, Code of Federal
Regulations.
``(6) High-need local educational agency.--The term `high-
need local educational agency' means a local educational agency
that serves at least one high-need school.
``(7) High-need school.--The term `high-need school' has
the meaning given the term in section 2211(b) of the Elementary
and Secondary Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 6631(b)).
``(8) Homeless children and youths.--The term `homeless
children and youths' has the meaning given the term in section
725 of the McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act (42 U.S.C.
11434a).
``(9) School-based mentoring.--The term `school-based
mentoring' means a structured, managed, evidenced-based program
conducted in partnership with teachers, administrators, school
psychologists, school social workers or counselors, and other
school staff, in which at-risk students are appropriately
matched with screened and trained professional or volunteer
mentors who provide guidance, support, and encouragement,
involving meetings, group-based sessions, and educational and
workforce-related activities on a regular basis to prepare at-
risk students for success in high school, postsecondary
education, and the workforce.
``(b) School-Based Mentoring Competitive Grant Program.--
``(1) In general.--The Secretary shall award grants on a
competitive basis to eligible entities to establish, expand, or
support school-based mentoring programs that--
``(A) are designed to assist at-risk students in
high-need schools in developing cognitive skills and
promoting social-emotional learning to prepare them for
success in high school, postsecondary education, and
the workforce by linking them with mentors who--
``(i) have received mentor training,
including on trauma-informed practices, youth
engagement, cultural competency, and social-
emotional learning; and
``(ii) have been screened using appropriate
reference checks and criminal background
checks;
``(B) provide coaching and technical assistance to
mentors in each such mentoring program;
``(C) seek to--
``(i) improve the academic achievement of
at-risk students;
``(ii) reduce dropout rates and absenteeism
and improve school engagement of at-risk
students and their families;
``(iii) reduce juvenile justice involvement
of at-risk students;
``(iv) foster positive relationships
between at-risk students and their peers,
teachers, other adults, and family members;
``(v) develop the workforce readiness
skills of at-risk students by exploring paths
to employment, including encouraging students
with disabilities to explore transition
services; and
``(vi) increase the participation of at-
risk students in community service activities;
and
``(D) encourage at-risk students to set goals and
plan for their futures, including making plans and
identifying goals for postsecondary education and the
workforce.
``(2) Duration.--The Secretary shall award grants under
this section for a period not to exceed 5 years.
``(3) Application.--To receive a grant under this section,
an eligible entity shall submit to the Secretary an application
that includes--
``(A) a needs assessment that includes baseline
data on the measures described in paragraph (6)(A)(ii);
and
``(B) a plan to meet the requirements of paragraph
(1).
``(4) Priority.--In selecting grant recipients, the
Secretary shall give priority to applicants that--
``(A) serve children and youth with the greatest
need living in high-poverty, high-crime areas, or rural
areas, or who attend schools with high rates of
community violence;
``(B) provide at-risk students with opportunities
for postsecondary education preparation and career
development, including--
``(i) job training, professional
development, work shadowing, internships,
networking, resume writing and review,
interview preparation, transition services for
students with disabilities, application
assistance and visits to institutions of higher
education, and leadership development through
community service; and
``(ii) partnerships with the private sector
and local businesses to provide internship and
career exploration activities and resources;
and
``(C) seek to provide match lengths between at-risk
students and mentors for at least 1 academic year.
``(5) Use of funds.--An eligible entity that receives a
grant under this section may use such funds to--
``(A) develop and carry out regular training for
mentors, including on--
``(i) the impact of adverse childhood
experiences;
``(ii) trauma-informed practices and
interventions;
``(iii) supporting homeless children and
youths;
``(iv) supporting children and youth in
foster care or youth who have been emancipated
from foster care, but are still enrolled in
high school;
``(v) cultural competency;
``(vi) meeting all appropriate privacy and
confidentiality requirements for students,
including students in foster care;
``(vii) working in coordination with a
public school system;
``(viii) positive youth development and
engagement practices; and
``(ix) disability inclusion practices to
ensure access and participation by students
with disabilities;
``(B) recruit, screen, match, and train mentors;
``(C) hire staff to perform or support the
objectives of the school-based mentoring program;
``(D) provide inclusive and accessible youth
engagement activities, such as--
``(i) enrichment field trips to cultural
destinations;
``(ii) career awareness activities,
including job site visits, informational
interviews, resume writing, interview
preparation, and networking; and
``(iii) academic or postsecondary education
preparation activities, including trade or
vocational school visits, visits to
institutions of higher education, and
assistance in applying to institutions of
higher education; and
``(E) conduct program evaluation, including by
acquiring and analyzing the data described under
paragraph (6).
``(6) Reporting requirements.--
``(A) In general.--Not later than 6 months after
the end of each academic year during the grant period,
an eligible entity receiving a grant under this section
shall submit to the Secretary a report that includes--
``(i) the number of students who
participated in the school-based mentoring
program that was funded in whole or in part
with the grant funds;
``(ii) data on the academic achievement,
dropout rates, truancy, absenteeism, outcomes
of arrests for violent crime, summer
employment, and postsecondary education
enrollment of students in the program;
``(iii) the number of group sessions and
number of one-to-one contacts between students
in the program and their mentors;
``(iv) the average attendance of students
enrolled in the program;
``(v) the number of students with
disabilities connected to transition services;
``(vi) data on social-emotional development
of students as assessed with a validated
social-emotional assessment tool; and
``(vii) any other information that the
Secretary may require to evaluate the success
of the school-based mentoring program.
``(B) Student privacy.--An eligible entity shall
ensure that the report submitted under subparagraph (A)
is prepared in a manner that protects the privacy
rights of each student in accordance with section 444
of the General Education Provisions Act (commonly
referred to as the `Family Educational Rights and
Privacy Act of 1974') (20 U.S.C. 1232g).
``(7) Mentoring resources and community service
coordination.--
``(A) Technical assistance.--The Secretary shall
work with the Office of Juvenile Justice and
Delinquency Prevention to--
``(i) refer grantees under this section to
the National Mentoring Resource Center to
obtain resources on best practices and research
related to mentoring and to request no-cost
training and technical assistance; and
``(ii) provide grantees under this section
with information regarding transitional
services for at-risk students returning from
correctional facilities and transition services
for students with disabilities.
``(B) Coordination.--The Secretary shall, to the
extent possible, coordinate with the Corporation for
National and Community Service, including through
entering into an interagency agreement or a memorandum
of understanding, to support mentoring and community
service-related activities for at-risk students.
``(c) Authorization of Funds.--There are authorized to be
appropriated to carry out this section such sums as may be necessary
for each of fiscal years 2022 through 2027.''.
SEC. 4. INSTITUTE OF EDUCATION SCIENCES STUDY ON SCHOOL-BASED MENTORING
PROGRAMS.
(a) In General.--The Secretary of Education, acting through the
Director of the Institute of Education Sciences, shall conduct a study
to--
(1) identify successful school-based mentoring programs and
effective strategies for administering and monitoring such
programs;
(2) evaluate the role of mentors in promoting cognitive
development and social-emotional learning to enhance academic
achievement and to improve workforce readiness; and
(3) evaluate the effectiveness of the grant program under
section 136 of the Carl D. Perkins Career and Technical
Education Act of 2006, as added by section 3, on student
academic outcomes and youth career development.
(b) Timing.--Not later than 3 years after the date of enactment of
this Act, the Secretary of Education, acting through the Director of
the Institute of Education Sciences, shall submit the results of the
study to the appropriate congressional committees.
<all> | Mentoring to Succeed Act of 2021 | To amend the Carl D. Perkins Career and Technical Education Act of 2006 to give the Department of Education the authority to award competitive grants to eligible entities to establish, expand, or support school-based mentoring programs to assist at-risk students in middle school and high school in developing cognitive and social-emotional skills to prepare them for success in high school, postsecondary education, and the workforce. | Mentoring to Succeed Act of 2021 | Rep. Schakowsky, Janice D. | D | IL |
60 | 8,356 | H.R.3584 | Government Operations and Politics | Made in America Emergency Preparedness Act
This bill establishes in the legislative branch the National Commission on United States Preparedness for National Emergencies and requires any medical, pharmaceutical, or emergency preparedness product deemed integral to a response to a national emergency to be manufactured and procured in the United States beginning on and after January 1, 2026.
The commission must, among other things, examine and report on the COVID-19 pandemic in the United States in 2020 and the private sector response, investigate the origin of the COVID-19 virus and measures for mitigating the impacts of future physical and medical national disasters, determine what medical, pharmaceutical, and emergency preparedness products are deemed to be essential to emergency preparedness, and report on infrastructure or capability deficiencies in hospitals and medical centers.
States must implement the commission's findings or lose access to federal emergency preparedness funds.
The bill allows 100% tax expensing for qualified pharmaceutical and medical device manufacturing property (e.g., personal protective equipment) placed in service after 2020 and before 2027. | To require the creation of a national commission to prepare for future
national emergencies, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Made in America Emergency
Preparedness Act''.
SEC. 2. TABLE OF CONTENTS.
The table of contents for this Act is as follows:
Sec. 1. Short title.
Sec. 2. Table of contents.
TITLE I--PROCUREMENT WITHIN THE UNITED STATES REQUIRED
Sec. 101. Procurement requirements.
TITLE II--NATIONAL COMMISSION ON UNITED STATES PREPAREDNESS FOR
NATIONAL EMERGENCIES
Sec. 201. Establishment of Commission.
Sec. 202. Purposes.
Sec. 203. Composition of Commission.
Sec. 204. Functions of Commission.
Sec. 205. Powers of Commission.
Sec. 206. Nonapplicability of Federal Advisory Committee Act.
Sec. 207. Staff of Commission.
Sec. 208. Compensation and travel expenses.
Sec. 209. Security clearances for Commission members and staff.
Sec. 210. Reports of Commission; termination.
TITLE III--STATE IMPLEMENTATION OF FINDINGS BY COMMISSION
Sec. 301. State implementation of findings.
TITLE IV--TEMPORARY 100 PERCENT EXPENSING FOR QUALIFYING GOODS
Sec. 401. Special allowance for certain property.
TITLE I--PROCUREMENT WITHIN THE UNITED STATES REQUIRED
SEC. 101. PROCUREMENT REQUIREMENTS.
(a) General Procurement Requirements for DoD, DHS, HHS, and CDC.--
Except as provided in subsection (c), any medical, pharmaceutical, or
emergency preparedness product, determined to be integral to the
response to a national emergency declared by the President under the
National Emergencies Act (50 U.S.C. 1601 et seq.), as determined by the
National Commission on United States Preparedness for National
Emergencies shall be manufactured and procured within the United States
if procured by the Department of Defense, the Department of Homeland
Security, the Department of Health and Human Services, the Centers for
Disease Control, or the National Institutes of Health.
(b) Requirement for the Procurement of American-Made Products
During a National Emergency.--Except as provided in subsection (c), any
product, material, minerals, ingredient, or equipment that is
essential, as determined by the National Commission on United States
Preparedness for National Emergencies, in the response to a declaration
of a national emergency declared by the President under the National
Emergencies Act (50 U.S.C. 1601 et seq.) with a specific focus on
medical, pharmaceutical, or emergency preparedness product, as
determined by the National Commission on United States Preparedness for
National Emergencies shall be manufactured by American-owned entities
unless specifically authorized by the President after the declaration.
(c) Exception.--Notwithstanding subsections (a) and (b), the
President or the National Commission on United States Preparedness for
National Emergencies may exempt certain goods or entities from the
requirements in such subsections as the President or Commission
determines it to be necessary for national security.
(d) Applicability.--The requirements of this section apply on and
after January 1, 2026, and apply to any contract entered into on or
after such date.
TITLE II--NATIONAL COMMISSION ON UNITED STATES PREPAREDNESS FOR
NATIONAL EMERGENCIES
SEC. 201. ESTABLISHMENT OF COMMISSION.
There is established in the legislative branch the National
Commission on United States Preparedness for National Emergencies (in
this title referred to as the ``Commission'').
SEC. 202. PURPOSES.
The purposes of the Commission are to--
(1) examine and report upon the facts and actions taken
relating to the COVID-19 pandemic in the United States in 2020
and private sector response;
(2) investigate the origin of the COVID-19 virus;
(3) investigate and report to the President and Congress on
its findings, conclusions, and recommendations for measures
that can be taken to mitigate impacts of future physical and
medical national disasters;
(4) determine products, materials, minerals, ingredients,
or equipment that is essential in the response to a declaration
of a national emergency and to determine surge capacity for
both physical and medical national disasters;
(5) give special attention to the need for or existence of
national Federal stockpile requirements and national surge
capacity; and
(6) report on infrastructure deficiencies or capability
deficiencies in hospitals and medical centers.
SEC. 203. COMPOSITION OF COMMISSION.
(a) Members.--The Commission shall be composed of 10 members, of
whom--
(1) 1 member shall be appointed by the President, who shall
serve as chairman of the Commission;
(2) 1 member shall be appointed by the leader of the Senate
(majority or minority leader, as the case may be) of the
Republican Party, in consultation with the leader of the House
of Representatives (majority or minority leader, as the case
may be) of the Republican Party, who shall serve as vice
chairman of the Commission;
(3) 2 members shall be appointed by the senior member of
the Senate leadership of the Democratic Party;
(4) 2 members shall be appointed by the senior member of
the leadership of the House of Representatives of the
Republican Party;
(5) 2 members shall be appointed by the senior member of
the Senate leadership of the Republican Party; and
(6) 2 members shall be appointed by the senior member of
the leadership of the House of Representatives of the
Democratic Party.
(b) Qualifications; Initial Meeting.--
(1) Political party affiliation.--Not more than 5 members
of the Commission shall be from the same political party.
(2) Nongovernmental appointees.--An individual appointed to
the Commission may not be an officer or employee of the Federal
Government or any State or local government.
(3) Other qualifications.--It is the sense of Congress that
individuals appointed to the Commission should be prominent
United States citizens, with national recognition and
significant depth of experience in such professions as health,
manufacturing, agriculture, emergency planning, governmental
service, law enforcement, the Armed Services, law, public
administration, commerce, and disaster relief.
(4) Initial meeting.--The Commission shall meet and begin
the operations of the Commission as soon as practicable.
(c) Quorum; Vacancies.--After its initial meeting, the Commission
shall meet upon the call of the chairman or a majority of its members.
Six members of the Commission shall constitute a quorum. Any vacancy in
the Commission shall not affect its powers, but shall be filled in the
same manner in which the original appointment was made.
SEC. 204. FUNCTIONS OF COMMISSION.
The functions of the Commission are to make recommendations to the
President on what resources are necessarily to properly address a wide
range of physical and health national disasters.
SEC. 205. POWERS OF COMMISSION.
(a) In General.--
(1) Hearings and evidence.--The Commission or, on the
authority of the Commission, any subcommittee or member
thereof, may, for the purpose of carrying out this title--
(A) hold such hearings and sit and act at such
times and places, take such testimony, receive such
evidence, administer such oaths; and
(B) subject to paragraph (2)(A), require, by
subpoena or otherwise, the attendance and testimony of
such witnesses and the production of such books,
records, correspondence, memoranda, papers, and
documents, as the Commission or such designated
subcommittee or designated member may determine
advisable.
(2) Subpoenas.--
(A) Issuance.--
(i) In general.--A subpoena may be issued
under this subsection only--
(I) by the agreement of the
chairman and the vice chairman; or
(II) by the affirmative vote of 6
members of the Commission.
(ii) Signature.--Subject to clause (i),
subpoenas issued under this subsection may be
issued under the signature of the chairman or
any member designated by a majority of the
Commission, and may be served by any person
designated by the chairman or by a member
designated by a majority of the Commission.
(B) Enforcement.--
(i) In general.--In the case of contumacy
or failure to obey a subpoena issued under
subsection (a), the United States district
court for the judicial district in which the
subpoenaed person resides, is served, or may be
found, or where the subpoena is returnable, may
issue an order requiring such person to appear
at any designated place to testify or to
produce documentary or other evidence. Any
failure to obey the order of the court may be
punished by the court as a contempt of that
court.
(ii) Additional enforcement.--In the case
of any failure of any witness to comply with
any subpoena or to testify when summoned under
authority of this section, the Commission may,
by majority vote, certify a statement of fact
constituting such failure to the appropriate
United States attorney, who may bring the
matter before the grand jury for its action,
under the same statutory authority and
procedures as if the United States attorney had
received a certification under sections 102
through 104 of the Revised Statutes of the
United States (2 U.S.C. 192 through 194).
(b) Contracting.--The Commission may, to such extent and in such
amounts as are provided in appropriation Acts, enter into contracts to
enable the Commission to discharge its duties under this title.
(c) Information From Federal Agencies.--
(1) In general.--The Commission is authorized to secure
directly from any executive department, bureau, agency, board,
commission, office, independent establishment, or
instrumentality of the Government, information, suggestions,
estimates, and statistics for the purposes of this title. Each
department, bureau, agency, board, commission, office,
independent establishment, or instrumentality shall, to the
extent authorized by law, furnish such information,
suggestions, estimates, and statistics directly to the
Commission, upon request made by the chairman, the chairman of
any subcommittee created by a majority of the Commission, or
any member designated by a majority of the Commission.
(2) Receipt, handling, storage, and dissemination.--
Information shall only be received, handled, stored, and
disseminated by members of the Commission and its staff
consistent with all applicable statutes, regulations, and
Executive orders.
(d) Assistance From Federal Agencies.--
(1) General services administration.--The Administrator of
General Services shall provide to the Commission on a
reimbursable basis administrative support and other services
for the performance of the Commission's functions.
(2) Other departments and agencies.--In addition to the
assistance prescribed in paragraph (1), departments and
agencies of the United States may provide to the Commission
such services, funds, facilities, staff, and other support
services as they may determine advisable and as may be
authorized by law.
(e) Gifts.--The Commission may accept, use, and dispose of gifts or
donations of services or property.
(f) Postal Services.--The Commission may use the United States
mails in the same manner and under the same conditions as departments
and agencies of the United States.
SEC. 206. NONAPPLICABILITY OF FEDERAL ADVISORY COMMITTEE ACT.
(a) In General.--The Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. App.)
shall not apply to the Commission.
(b) Public Meetings and Release of Public Versions of Reports.--The
Commission shall--
(1) hold public hearings and meetings to the extent
appropriate; and
(2) release public versions of the reports required under
section 310(a) and (b).
(c) Public Hearings.--Any public hearings of the Commission shall
be conducted in a manner consistent with the protection of information
provided to or developed for or by the Commission as required by any
applicable statute, regulation, or Executive order.
SEC. 207. STAFF OF COMMISSION.
(a) In General.--
(1) Appointment and compensation.--The chairman, in
consultation with the vice chairman, in accordance with rules
agreed upon by the Commission, may appoint and fix the
compensation of a staff director and such other personnel as
may be necessary to enable the Commission to carry out its
functions, without regard to the provisions of title 5, United
States Code, governing appointments in the competitive service,
and without regard to the provisions of chapter 51 and
subchapter III of chapter 53 of such title relating to
classification and General Schedule pay rates, except that no
rate of pay fixed under this subsection may exceed the
equivalent of that payable for a position at level V of the
Executive Schedule under section 5316 of title 5, United States
Code.
(2) Personnel as federal employees.--
(A) In general.--The executive director and any
personnel of the Commission who are employees shall be
employees under section 2105 of title 5, United States
Code, for purposes of chapters 63, 81, 83, 84, 85, 87,
89, and 90 of that title.
(B) Members of commission.--Subparagraph (A) shall
not be construed to apply to members of the Commission.
(b) Detailees.--Any Federal Government employee may be detailed to
the Commission without reimbursement from the Commission, and such
detailee shall retain the rights, status, and privileges of his or her
regular employment without interruption.
(c) Consultant Services.--The Commission is authorized to procure
the services of experts and consultants in accordance with section 3109
of title 5, United States Code, but at rates not to exceed the daily
rate paid a person occupying a position at level IV of the Executive
Schedule under section 5315 of title 5, United States Code.
SEC. 208. COMPENSATION AND TRAVEL EXPENSES.
(a) Compensation.--Each member of the Commission may be compensated
at not to exceed the daily equivalent of the annual rate of basic pay
in effect for a position at level IV of the Executive Schedule under
section 5315 of title 5, United States Code, for each day during which
that member is engaged in the actual performance of the duties of the
Commission.
(b) Travel Expenses.--While away from their homes or regular places
of business in the performance of services for the Commission, members
of the Commission shall be allowed travel expenses, including per diem
in lieu of subsistence, in the same manner as persons employed
intermittently in the Government service are allowed expenses under
section 5703(b) of title 5, United States Code.
SEC. 209. SECURITY CLEARANCES FOR COMMISSION MEMBERS AND STAFF.
The appropriate Federal agencies or departments shall cooperate
with the Commission in expeditiously providing to the Commission
members and staff appropriate security clearances to the extent
possible pursuant to existing procedures and requirements, except that
no person shall be provided with access to classified information under
this title without the appropriate security clearances.
SEC. 210. REPORTS OF COMMISSION; TERMINATION.
(a) Interim Reports.--The Commission may submit to the President
and Congress interim reports containing such findings, conclusions, and
recommendations for corrective measures as have been agreed to by a
majority of Commission members.
(b) Final Report.--Not later than 18 months after the date of the
enactment of this Act, the Commission shall submit to the President and
Congress a final report containing such findings, conclusions, and
recommendations for corrective measures as have been agreed to by a
majority of Commission members.
(c) Report on Essential Products, Materials, Ingredients, and
Equipment Required.--Not later than 18 months after the date of the
enactment of this Act, the Commission shall submit to the President and
Congress a report on the findings of the Commission regarding which
medical, pharmaceutical, and emergency preparedness products are
determined to be essential for purposes of section 101(b).
(d) Report on State Actions.--Not later than 18 months after the
date of the enactment of this Act, the Commission shall submit to the
President and Congress a report on--
(1) actions States should take to be better prepared;
(2) national Federal stockpile requirements; and
(3) national surge capacity infrastructure deficiencies in
hospitals and medical centers.
(e) Termination.--
(1) In general.--The Commission, and all the authorities of
this title, shall terminate 60 days after the date on which the
final report is submitted under subsection (b).
(2) Administrative activities before termination.--The
Commission may use the 60-day period referred to in paragraph
(1) for the purpose of concluding its activities, including
providing testimony to committees of Congress concerning its
reports and disseminating the final report.
TITLE III--STATE IMPLEMENTATION OF FINDINGS BY COMMISSION
SEC. 301. STATE IMPLEMENTATION OF FINDINGS.
(a) Loss of Federal Funding.--Except as provided in subsection (b),
any State that fails to implement the findings of the report described
in section 310(d) by January 1, 2026, at the State and local level will
lose access to all Federal funds for emergency preparedness.
(b) Exemption.--Notwithstanding subsection (a), the Secretary of
Homeland Security may exempt a State from the loss of Federal funds if
the Secretary determines that the State is working towards implementing
the findings in good faith. The Secretary shall evaluate each such
exemption every fiscal year.
TITLE IV--TEMPORARY 100 PERCENT EXPENSING FOR QUALIFYING GOODS
SEC. 401. SPECIAL ALLOWANCE FOR CERTAIN PROPERTY.
(a) In General.--For purposes of section 168(k) of the Internal
Revenue Code of 1986, in the case of any qualified pharmaceutical and
medical device manufacturing property which is placed in service after
December 31, 2020, and before January 1, 2027--
(1) such property shall be treated as qualified property
(within the meaning of such section);
(2) the applicable percentage otherwise determined under
section 168(k) of such Code with respect to such property shall
be 100 percent; and
(3) paragraph (8) of such section shall not apply.
(b) Qualified Pharmaceutical and Medical Device Manufacturing
Property.--For purposes of this section, the term ``qualified
pharmaceutical and medical device manufacturing property'' means any
tangible property placed in service in the United States as part of the
construction or expansion of property for the manufacture of drugs (as
defined in section 201(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
(21 U.S.C. 321(g))) or medical devices (as defined in section 201(h) of
such Act (21 U.S.C. 321(h)), including personal protective equipment
and any other item determined by the National Commission on United
States Preparedness for National Emergencies to be necessary.
<all> | Made in America Emergency Preparedness Act | To require the creation of a national commission to prepare for future national emergencies, and for other purposes. | Made in America Emergency Preparedness Act | Rep. Fitzpatrick, Brian K. | R | PA |
61 | 1,844 | S.2209 | Health | Verifying Accurate Leading-edge IVCT Development Act of 2021 or the VALID Act of 2021
This bill requires the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) to regulate in vitro clinical tests (IVCTs).
Currently, the FDA and the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services have authority to regulate in vitro diagnostic devices. The bill defines IVCTs, which includes in vitro diagnostic devices, as tests intended for the collection, preparation, analysis, or in vitro clinical examination of specimens from the human body to provide information about a disease, condition, or treatment.
An IVCT may not be introduced into interstate commerce unless it has received FDA premarket approval or is covered by certain exemptions, such as an exemption for a test that (1) was developed and introduced before this bill's enactment and meets certain requirements, (2) is a low-risk test, (3) is solely for public health surveillance, (4) is covered by a technology certification issued under this bill, or (5) has received a humanitarian exemption or emergency use authorization.
The FDA may grant upon application a technology certification. Generally, such a certification covers a group of tests that use a single technology and may be evaluated using a representative test. While such a certification is valid, a qualifying IVCT that falls within the scope of the certification shall be cleared for interstate commerce.
The bill also imposes various requirements related to IVCTs, including those related to quality control, labeling, and reporting adverse events.
The FDA shall have various enforcement authority, including authority to order the recall of an IVCT with a reasonable probability of causing serious adverse health consequences. | To amend the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act to provide for the
regulation of in vitro clinical tests, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE; TABLE OF CONTENTS.
(a) Short Title.--This Act may be cited as the ``Verifying Accurate
Leading-edge IVCT Development Act of 2021'' or the ``VALID Act of
2021''.
(b) Table of Contents.--The table of contents of this Act is as
follows:
Sec. 1. Short title; table of contents.
Sec. 2. Definitions.
Sec. 3. Regulation of in vitro clinical tests.
``subchapter j--in vitro clinical tests
``Sec. 587. Definitions.
``Sec. 587A. Applicability.
``Sec. 587B. Premarket review.
``Sec. 587C. Breakthrough in vitro clinical tests.
``Sec. 587D. Technology certification.
``Sec. 587E. Mitigating measures.
``Sec. 587F. Regulatory pathway redesignation.
``Sec. 587G. Advisory committees.
``Sec. 587H. Request for informal feedback.
``Sec. 587I. Registration and listing.
``Sec. 587J. Test design and quality requirements.
``Sec. 587K. Labeling requirements.
``Sec. 587L. Adverse event reporting.
``Sec. 587M. Corrections and removals.
``Sec. 587N. Restricted in vitro clinical tests.
``Sec. 587O. Appeals.
``Sec. 587P. Accredited persons.
``Sec. 587Q. Recognized standards.
``Sec. 587R. Investigational use.
``Sec. 587S. Collaborative communities for in vitro clinical
tests.
``Sec. 587T. Comprehensive test information system.
``Sec. 587U. Preemption.
``Sec. 587V. Adulteration.
``Sec. 587W. Misbranding.
``Sec. 587X. Postmarket surveillance.
``Sec. 587Y. Electronic format for submissions.
``Sec. 587Z. Postmarket remedies.
Sec. 4. Enforcement and other provisions.
Sec. 5. Transition.
Sec. 6. Emergency use authorization.
Sec. 7. Antimicrobial susceptibility tests.
Sec. 8. Combination products.
Sec. 9. Resources.
SEC. 2. DEFINITIONS.
(a) In General.--Section 201 of the Federal Food, Drug, and
Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 321) is amended--
(1) by adding at the end the following:
``(ss)(1) The term `in vitro clinical test'--
``(A) means a test intended by its developer (as defined in
section 587) to be used in the collection, preparation,
analysis, or in vitro clinical examination of specimens taken
or derived from the human body for the purpose of--
``(i) identifying or diagnosing a disease or
condition;
``(ii) providing information for diagnosing,
screening, measuring, detecting, predicting,
prognosing, analyzing, or monitoring a disease or
condition, including by making a determination of an
individual's state of health; or
``(iii) selecting, monitoring, or informing therapy
or treatment for a disease or condition; and
``(B) may include--
``(i) a test protocol or laboratory test protocol;
``(ii) an instrument (as defined in section
587(11));
``(iii) a specimen receptacle;
``(iv) software, excluding software that is
excluded by section 520(o) from the definition of a
device under section 201(h), and excluding
modifications that are exempt in accordance with
section 587A(l)(2)(A); and
``(v) subject to subparagraph (2), a component or
part of a test, a test protocol, an instrument, an
article, or software described in any of clauses (A)
through (D) of such subparagraph, whether alone or in
combination, including reagents, calibrators, and
controls.
``(2) Notwithstanding subparagraph (1)(v), an article intended to
be used as a component or part of an in vitro clinical test described
in subparagraph (1) is excluded from the definition in subparagraph (1)
if the article consists of any of the following:
``(A) Blood, blood components, or human cells or tissues,
from the time of acquisition, donation, or recovery of such
article, including determination of donor eligibility, as
applicable, until such time as the article is released as a
component or part of an in vitro clinical test by the
establishment that collected such article.
``(B) An article used for invasive sampling, a needle, or a
lancet, except to the extent such article, needle, or lancet is
an integral component of an article for holding, storing, or
transporting a specimen.
``(C) General purpose laboratory equipment, including
certain pre-analytical equipment, as determined by the
Secretary.
``(D) An article used solely for personal protection during
the administering, conducting, or otherwise performing of test
activities.'';
(2) by adding at the end of section 201(g) the following:
``(3) The term `drug' does not include an in vitro clinical
test.''; and
(3) in section 201(h), by striking ``section 520(o)'' and
inserting ``section 520(o) or an in vitro clinical test''.
(b) Exclusion From Definition of Biological Product.--Section
351(i)(1) of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 262(i)(1)) is
amended--
(1) by striking ``(1) The term `biological product' means''
and inserting ``(1)(A) The term `biological product' means'';
and
(2) by adding at the end the following:
``(B) The term `biological product' does not include an in
vitro clinical test as defined in section 201(ss) of the
Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.''.
(c) In Vitro Clinical Test Definition.--In this Act, the term ``in
vitro clinical test'' has the meaning given such term in section
201(ss) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as added by
subsection (a).
SEC. 3. REGULATION OF IN VITRO CLINICAL TESTS.
The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 301 et seq.) is
amended--
(1) by amending the heading of chapter V to read as
follows: ``DRUGS, DEVICES, AND IN VITRO CLINICAL TESTS''; and
(2) by adding at the end of chapter V the following:
``Subchapter J--In Vitro Clinical Tests
``SEC. 587. DEFINITIONS.
``In this subchapter:
``(1) Analytical validity.--
``(A) The term `analytical validity' means, with
respect to an in vitro clinical test, the ability of
the in vitro clinical test, to--
``(i) sufficiently identify, measure,
detect, calculate, or analyze one or more
analytes, biomarkers, substances, or other
targets intended to be identified, measured,
detected, calculated, or analyzed by the test;
or
``(ii) as applicable, assist in such
identification, measurement, detection,
calculation, or analysis.
``(B) For an article for taking or deriving
specimens from the human body described in section
201(ss)(1)(B)(iii), the term `analytical validity'
means that such article performs as intended and will
support the analytical validity of an in vitro clinical
test with which it is used.
``(2) Applicable standard.--The term `applicable standard',
with respect to an in vitro clinical test, means a reasonable
assurance of analytical and clinical validity, except that such
term--
``(A) with respect to test instruments, means a
reasonable assurance of analytical validity; and
``(B) with respect to articles for taking or
deriving specimens from the human body for purposes
described in clause (i) or (ii) of section
201(ss)(1)(A) means a reasonable assurance of
analytical validity and, where applicable, safety.
``(3) Clinical use.--The term `clinical use' means the
operation, application, or functioning of an in vitro clinical
test in connection with human specimens, including patient,
consumer, and donor specimens, for the purpose for which it is
intended as described in section 201(ss)(1)(A).
``(4) Clinical validity.--The term `clinical validity'
means the ability of an in vitro clinical test to achieve the
purpose for which it is intended as described in section
201(ss)(1)(A).
``(5) Cross-referenced test.--The term `cross-referenced
test' means an in vitro clinical test that references in its
labeling the name or intended use of another medical product
that is not an in vitro clinical test.
``(6) Develop.--The term `develop', with respect to an in
vitro clinical test, means--
``(A) designing, validating, producing,
manufacturing, remanufacturing, propagating, or
assembling an in vitro clinical test;
``(B) importing an in vitro clinical test;
``(C) modifying an in vitro clinical test initially
developed by a different person in a manner that--
``(i) changes any of the listing elements
that define indications for use specified in
paragraph (10), performance claims, or, as
applicable, the safety of such in vitro
clinical test; or
``(ii) affects the analytical or clinical
validity of the in vitro clinical test as
intended by the developer; or
``(D) adopting, using, or disseminating for use as
an in vitro clinical test an article not previously
intended for clinical use.
``(7) Developer.--The term `developer' means a person who
engages in an activity described in paragraph (6) for clinical
use.
``(8) First-of-a-kind.--The term `first-of-a-kind' means,
with respect to an in vitro clinical test, a test that has an
intended use and a combination of the elements specified in
paragraph (10) that differ from the intended use and such
elements of other in vitro clinical tests that already are
legally available in the United States.
``(9) High-risk.--
``(A) In general.--Subject to subparagraph (B), the
term `high-risk', with respect to an in vitro clinical
test or category of in vitro clinical tests--
``(i) means that, when used as intended by
the developer, an undetected inaccurate result
from such test or category--
``(I) presents unreasonable risk
for serious or irreversible harm or
death to a patient or patients, or
would otherwise cause serious harm to
the public health; or
``(II) is potentially likely to
result in the absence, significant
delay, or discontinuation of life-
supporting or life-sustaining medical
treatment; and
``(ii) shall account for the degree to
which the technology for the intended use of an
in vitro clinical test or tests is well-
characterized and the criteria for performance
of the test or tests are well-established for
the intended use, the clinical circumstances
under which the in vitro clinical test is used,
and the availability of other tests (such as
confirmatory or adjunctive tests).
``(B) Exception.--The term `high-risk' does not
include an in vitro clinical test described in
subparagraph (A) if--
``(i) mitigating measures are established
to prevent, detect, or otherwise mitigate the
risk of inaccurate results as described in
subparagraph (A), or
``(ii) an exemption from the definition of
such term applies under section 587A.
``(10) Indications for use.--The term `indications for use'
means one or more in vitro clinical tests that have all of the
following notification elements in common:
``(A) Substance or substances measured by the in
vitro clinical test, such as an analyte, protein, or
pathogen.
``(B) Test method.
``(C) Test purpose or purposes, as described in
section 201(ss)(1)(A).
``(D) Diseases or conditions for which the in vitro
clinical test is intended for use, including intended
patient populations.
``(E) Context of use, such as in a clinical
laboratory, in a health care facility, prescription
home use, over-the-counter use, or direct-to-consumer
testing.
``(11) Instrument.--The term `instrument' means an in vitro
clinical test that is hardware intended by the hardware's
developer to be used with one or more in vitro clinical tests
to generate a clinical test result, including software used to
effectuate the hardware's functionality.
``(12) Instrument family.--The term `instrument family'
means more than one instrument for which the developer
demonstrates and documents, with respect to all such
instruments, that all--
``(A) have the same basic architecture, design, and
performance characteristics, such as tolerance limits
and signal range;
``(B) have the same intended use or uses and
function;
``(C) share the same measurement principles,
detection methods, and reaction conditions; and
``(D) produce the same or similar analytical
results from samples of the same specimen type or
types.
``(13) Laboratory operations.--The term `laboratory
operations'--
``(A) means the conduct of a laboratory examination
or other laboratory procedure on materials derived from
the human body, including the conduct of an in vitro
clinical test and associated activities within or under
the oversight of a laboratory and not related to the
design of an in vitro clinical test; and
``(B) includes--
``(i) performing pre-analytical and post-
analytical processes for an in vitro clinical
test;
``(ii) conducting standard operating
procedures; and
``(iii) preparing reagents or other test
materials that do not meet the definition of a
in vitro clinical test for clinical use under
section 201(ss).
``(14) Low-risk.--The term `low-risk', with respect to an
in vitro clinical test or category of in vitro clinical tests,
means that an undetected inaccurate result from such in vitro
clinical test, or such category of in vitro clinical tests,
when used as intended by the developer--
``(A) would cause minimal or no harm, or minimal or
no disability, or immediately reversible harm, or would
lead to only a remote risk of adverse patient impact or
adverse public health impact, taking into account the
degree to which the technology for the intended use of
an in vitro clinical test or category of tests is well-
characterized and the criteria for performance of the
test or category of tests are well-established for the
intended use, the clinical circumstances under which
the in vitro clinical test or category of tests is
used, and the availability of other tests (such as
confirmatory or adjunctive tests); or
``(B) would cause a serious adverse health
consequence, harm that is reversible, a delay in
necessary treatment that is not life-supporting or
life-sustaining, or would lead to a serious risk of
adverse patient experience or adverse public health
impact, but applied mitigating measures have the
capacity to ensure the test meets the standard
described in subparagraph (A).
``(15) Mitigating measures.--The term `mitigating
measures'--
``(A) means controls, standards, or requirements
that the Secretary determines, based on available
evidence--
``(i) are necessary for an in vitro
clinical test, or a category of in vitro
clinical tests, to meet the applicable
standard; or
``(ii) to mitigate the risk of harm ensuing
from an inaccurate result such that a test or
category of tests subject to such mitigating
measures does not meet the definition of high
risk, or such that a test or category of tests
subject to such mitigating measures is low
risk; and
``(B) includes, as appropriate, applicable
requirements regarding labeling, conformance to
performance standards or guidance, performance testing,
submission of clinical data, advertising, website
posting of information, clinical studies, postmarket
surveillance, user comprehension studies, training, and
availability of confirmatory laboratory or clinical
findings.
``(16) Specimen receptacle.--The term `specimen receptacle'
means an in vitro clinical test specifically intended for the
holding, storing, or transporting of specimens derived from the
human body or for in vitro examination for purposes described
in clause (i) or (ii) of section 201(ss)(1)(A).
``(17) Technology.--The term `technology'--
``(A) means a developer's grouping of in vitro
clinical tests that do not significantly differ in
control mechanisms, energy sources, or operating
principals and for which design, development, and
manufacturing, including analytical and clinical
validation as applicable, of the tests would be
addressed in a similar manner or through similar
procedures; and
``(B) may include clot detection, colorimetric
(non-immunoassay), electrochemical (non-immunoassay),
enzymatic (non-immunoassay), flow cytometry,
fluorometry (non-immunoassay), immunoassay, mass
spectrometry or chromatography (such as HPLC),
microbial culture, next generation sequencing (also
known as `NGS'), nephlometric or turbidimetric (non-
immunoassay), singleplex or multiplex non-NGS nucleic
acid analysis, single-based technology, spectroscopy,
and any other technology, as the Secretary determines
appropriate.
``(18) Test.--The term `test', unless otherwise provided,
means an in vitro clinical test.
``(19) Valid scientific evidence.--The term `valid
scientific evidence'--
``(A) means, with respect to an in vitro clinical
test, evidence--
``(i) that has been generated and evaluated
by persons qualified by training or experience
to do so, using procedures generally accepted
by other persons so qualified; and
``(ii) from which it can be fairly and
responsibly concluded by qualified experts
whether the applicable standard has been met by
the in vitro clinical test for its intended
use; and
``(B) may include evidence described in
subparagraph (A) consisting of--
``(i) peer-reviewed literature;
``(ii) clinical guidelines;
``(iii) reports of significant human
experience with an in vitro clinical test;
``(iv) bench studies;
``(v) case studies or histories;
``(vi) clinical data;
``(vii) consensus standards;
``(viii) reference standards;
``(ix) data registries;
``(x) postmarket data;
``(xi) real world data;
``(xii) clinical trials; and
``(xiii) data collected in countries other
than the United States if such data are
demonstrated to be adequate for the purpose of
making a regulatory determination under the
applicable standard in the United States.
``(20) Well-characterized.--The term `well-characterized',
with respect to an in vitro clinical test, means well-
established and well-recognized by the scientific or clinical
community, if adequately evidenced by one or more of the
following:
``(A) Peer-reviewed literature.
``(B) Practice guidelines.
``(C) Consensus standards.
``(D) Recognized standards of care.
``(E) Technology in use for many years.
``(F) Scientific publication by multiple sites.
``(G) Adoption by the scientific or clinical
community.
``(H) Real world data.
``SEC. 587A. APPLICABILITY.
``(a) In General.--
``(1) Applicability of this subchapter.--
``(A) In general.--An in vitro clinical test shall
be subject to the requirements of this subchapter,
except as otherwise provided this subchapter.
``(B) Interstate commerce.--Any in vitro clinical
test that is offered for clinical use in the United
States is deemed to be introduced into interstate
commerce for purposes of enforcing the requirements of
this Act.
``(C) Non-applicable requirement.--Subject to any
exemption or exclusion in this section, an in vitro
clinical test shall not be subject to any provision or
requirement of this Act other than this subchapter
unless such other provision or requirement--
``(i) applies expressly to in vitro
clinical tests; or
``(ii) describes the authority of the
Secretary when regulating such in vitro
clinical tests or subset of in vitro clinical
tests, with respect to--
``(I) all articles regulated by the
Secretary pursuant to this Act; or
``(II) a subset of such articles
that includes in vitro clinical tests.
``(2) Laboratories and blood and tissue establishments.--
``(A) Relation to laboratory certification pursuant
to section 353 of the phsa.--Nothing in this subchapter
shall be construed to modify the authority of the
Secretary with respect to laboratories or clinical
laboratories under section 353 of the Public Health
Service Act.
``(B) Avoiding duplication.--In implementing this
subchapter, the Secretary shall avoid issuing or
enforcing regulations that are duplicative of
regulations under section 353.
``(C) Blood and tissue.--Nothing in this subchapter
shall be construed to modify the authority of the
Secretary with respect to laboratories, establishments,
or other facilities to the extent they are engaged in
the propagation, manufacture, or preparation, including
filling, testing, labeling, packaging, and storage, of
blood, blood components, human cells, tissues, or
tissue products under this Act or section 351 or 361 of
the Public Health Service Act.
``(3) Practice of medicine.--
``(A) In general.--Nothing in this subchapter shall
be construed to limit or interfere with the authority
of a health care practitioner to prescribe or
administer any legally marketed in vitro clinical test
for any condition or disease within a health care
practitioner-patient relationship pursuant to
applicable Federal or State law.
``(B) Rules of construction.--
``(i) Sale, distribution, labeling.--
Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to
limit the authority of the Secretary to
establish or enforce restrictions on the sale,
distribution, or labeling of an in vitro
clinical test under this Act.
``(ii) Promotion of unapproved uses.--
Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to
alter any prohibition on the promotion of
unapproved uses of legally marketed in vitro
clinical tests.
``(4) Special rule.--
``(A) Premarket review applicable.--Notwithstanding
the exemptions from premarket review under section 587B
set forth in subsections (b), (c), (d), (e), (f), (g),
(h), (j), and (k) of such section, an in vitro clinical
test (including any article for taking or deriving
specimens) shall be subject to the requirements of
section 587B if the Secretary determines, in accordance
with subparagraph (B), that--
``(i)(I) there is insufficient valid
scientific evidence to support the analytical
validity or the clinical validity of such in
vitro clinical test; and
``(II) such in vitro clinical test is being
offered by its developer with materially
deceptive or fraudulent analytical or clinical
claims;
``(ii) it is reasonably possible that such
in vitro clinical test will cause serious
adverse health consequences; or
``(iii) in the case of specimen
receptacles, there is sufficient valid
scientific evidence indicating that a specimen
receptacle did not perform as intended, will
not support the analytical validity of tests
with which it is used, or as applicable, is not
safe for use.
``(B) Process.--
``(i) Request for information.--If the
Secretary has valid scientific evidence
indicating that the criteria listed in
subparagraph (A) apply to an in vitro clinical
test, the Secretary may request that the
developer of the test submit information--
``(I) pertaining to such criteria;
and
``(II) establishing the basis for
any claimed exemption from premarket
review.
``(ii) Deadline for submitting
information.--The developer of an in vitro
clinical test shall submit the information
requested pursuant to clause (i) within 30 days
of receipt of such request.
``(iii) Review deadline.--Upon receiving a
submission under clause (ii), the Secretary
shall--
``(I) review the submitted
information within 60 calendar days of
such receipt; and
``(II) determine whether the
criteria listed in subparagraph (A)
apply to the in vitro clinical test.
``(iv) Premarket review required.--
``(I) In general.--If the Secretary
finds that the criteria listed in
subparagraph (A) apply to the in vitro
clinical test, the developer shall--
``(aa) promptly, and not
later than 90 days after the
date of receipt of such
information, submit an
application for premarket
review of the test under
section 587B; or
``(bb) cease to market the
test.
``(II) Extension.--The Secretary
may grant an extension to a developer
of the 90-day time period under
subclause (I)(aa), as appropriate.
``(v) Continued marketing.--During the
period beginning on the date of a request for
information under clause (ii) and ending on the
date of the disposition of an application for
premarket review of the in vitro clinical test
under section 587B, the developer of the test
may continue to market the test for clinical
use, unless the Secretary issues an order to
the developer under clause (vi) to immediately
cease distribution of the test.
``(vi) Order to cease distribution.--
``(I) In general.--If the developer
of an in vitro clinical test fails to
submit an application for premarket
review of the test by the deadline
applicable under clause (iv), or the
Secretary finds that the criteria
listed in subparagraph (A) apply to an
in vitro clinical test and that it is
in the best interest of the public
health, the Secretary may issue an
order, within 10 calendar days of the
applicable deadline or finding by the
Secretary, requiring the developer of
such in vitro clinical test, and any
other appropriate person (including a
distributor or retailer of the in vitro
clinical test) to immediately--
``(aa) cease distribution
of the test pending approval of
an application for premarket
review of the test under
section 587B; and
``(bb) notify health
professionals and other user
facilities of the order to
cease distribution and advise
health care professionals to
cease use of such in vitro
clinical test.
``(II) Hearing and review.--An
order under subclause (I) shall provide
the person subject to the order with an
opportunity for an informal hearing, to
be held not later than 10 days after
the date of the issuance of the order,
on the actions required by the order
and on whether the order should be
amended to require a recall of such in
vitro clinical test. If, after
providing an opportunity for such a
hearing, the Secretary determines that
inadequate grounds exist to support the
actions required by the order, the
Secretary shall terminate the order
within 30 days of the hearing. Upon
terminating an order, the Secretary
shall provide written notice of such
termination to the developer.
``(vii) Amendment to require recall.--If
the Secretary determines that an order issued
under clause (vi) should be amended to include
a recall of the in vitro clinical test with
respect to which the order was issued, the
Secretary shall amend the order to require a
recall. In such amended order, the Secretary
shall specify a timeframe in which the in vitro
clinical test recall will occur and shall
require periodic reports to the Secretary
describing the progress of the recall. Upon
termination of the recall, the Secretary shall
provide written notice of such termination to
the developer.
``(viii) Effect of test approval.--Any
order issued under this paragraph with respect
to an in vitro clinical test shall cease to be
in effect if such test is granted approval
under section 587B, provided that the in vitro
clinical test is developed and offered for
clinical use in accordance with such approval.
``(5) Emergency use.--
``(A) In general.--In the case of a determination
under section 319(a) of the Public Health Service Act
or a declaration under section 564(b) of this Act, an
in vitro clinical test is exempt from the requirements
of this subchapter and may be lawfully marketed in
accordance with subparagraph (B).
``(B) Criteria.--An in vitro clinical test is
exempt from the requirements of this subchapter and may
be lawfully marketed in accordance with the exemption
described in subparagraph (A) if--
``(i) such test--
``(I) is submitted for emergency
use authorization under section 564(b);
or
``(II) is developed and used in
laboratories for which a certificate is
in effect under section 353 of the
Public Health Service Act to conduct
high-complexity testing and the
developer; and
``(ii) the developer--
``(I) validates such in vitro
clinical test prior to use;
``(II) notifies the Secretary of
the assay validation; and
``(III) submits an emergency use
authorization application under section
564 within 15 calendar days of
marketing the test.
``(C) Disposition of product.--With respect to a
previously unapproved in vitro clinical test or an in
vitro clinical test with an unapproved use, for which
an emergency use authorization under section 564(b)
ceases to be effective, the Secretary shall consult
with the manufacturer of such product with respect to
the appropriate disposition of the product.
``(D) Streamlining of application review.--A
developer may include any data or information already
submitted to the Secretary within the emergency use
authorization as a part of a premarket application
under section 587B or a technology certification
application under section 587D.
``(6) Effect on other laws.--Any in vitro clinical test
that is lawfully marketed under this Act, including tests that
are approved under section 587B, cleared pursuant to an active
technology certification order under section 587D, or exempt
from premarket review under an exemption in this section, shall
be eligible for introduction into interstate commerce except as
otherwise provided in this subchapter.
``(b) Components and Parts.--
``(1) Exemption.--
``(A) In general.--Subject to subparagraph (B), a
component, part, or raw material described in section
201(ss)(1)(B)(v) is exempt from the requirements of
this subchapter if it is--
``(i) intended for further development as
described in paragraph (2); or
``(ii) otherwise to be regulated based on
its risk when used as intended by the
developer, notwithstanding its subsequent use
by a developer as a component, part, or raw
material of another in vitro clinical test.
``(B) Inapplicability to other tests.--
Notwithstanding subparagraph (A), an in vitro clinical
test that is described in section 201(ss)(1)(B) and
that uses a component or part described in such
subparagraph shall be subject to the requirements of
this subchapter, unless the test is otherwise exempt
under this section.
``(2) Further development.--A component, part, or raw
material (as described in paragraph (1)(A)) is intended for
further development (for purposes of such paragraph) if--
``(A) it is intended solely for use in the
development of another in vitro clinical test; and
``(B) in the case of such a test that is introduced
or delivered for introduction into interstate commerce
after the date of enactment of the Verifying Accurate
Leading-edge IVCT Development Act of 2021, the labeling
of such test bears the following statement: `This
product is intended solely for further development of
an in vitro clinical test and is exempt from FDA
regulation. This product must be evaluated by the in
vitro clinical test developer if it is used with or in
the development of an in vitro clinical test.'.
``(c) Grandfathered Tests.--
``(1) Exemption.--An in vitro clinical test that meets the
criteria set forth in paragraph (2) is exempt from the
requirements of this subchapter, except as provided under
subsection (a)(4), the registration and listing requirements
under section 587I, and the adverse reporting requirements
under section 587L, and may be lawfully marketed subject to the
other applicable requirements of this Act, if--
``(A) each test report template for the test bears
a statement of adequate prominence that reads as
follows: `This in vitro clinical test was developed and
first introduced prior to the date of enactment of the
Verifying Accurate Leading-edge IVCT Development Act of
2021 and has not been reviewed by the Food and Drug
Administration.'; and
``(B) the developer of the test--
``(i) maintains documentation demonstrating
that the test meets and continues to meet the
criteria set forth in paragraph (2); and
``(ii) makes such documentation available
to the Secretary upon request.
``(2) Criteria for exemption.--An in vitro clinical test is
exempt as specified in paragraph (1) if the test--
``(A)(i) was first offered for clinical use by such
laboratory before the date of enactment of the
Verifying Accurate Leading-edge IVCT Development Act of
2021;
``(ii) was developed by a clinical laboratory for
which a certificate was in effect under section 353 of
the Public Health Service Act that meets the
requirements under such section 353 for performing
high-complexity testing; and
``(iii) is performed--
``(I) in the same clinical laboratory in
which it was developed;
``(II) by another clinical laboratory for
which a certificate is in effect under section
353 within the same corporate organization and
having common ownership by the same parent
corporation; or
``(III) by a laboratory within a public
health laboratory network coordinated or
managed by the Centers for Disease Control and
Prevention;
``(B) does not have in effect an approval under
section 515, a clearance under section 510(k), an
authorization under section 513(f)(2), or an exemption
under section 520(m); and
``(C) is not modified on or after the date of
enactment of the Verifying Accurate Leading-edge IVCT
Development Act of 2021 by its initial developer (or
another person) in a manner such that the test is a new
in vitro clinical test under subsection (l).
``(3) Modifications.--In the case of a modification to an
in vitro clinical test that is exempt as specified in paragraph
(1) or such modification is otherwise not subject to premarket
review pursuant to section 587A(l), the test continues to
qualify for such exemption if the person modifying such test--
``(A) documents each such modification and
maintains a summary of the basis for such
determination; and
``(B) provides such documentation and summary to
the Secretary upon request or inspection.
``(d) Tests Exempt From Section 510(k).--
``(1) Exemption.--An in vitro clinical test is exempt from
premarket review under section 587B and may be lawfully
marketed subject to the other applicable requirements of this
Act, if the in vitro clinical test--
``(A)(i) was offered for clinical use prior to the
date of enactment of the Verifying Accurate Leading-
edge IVCT Development Act of 2021; and
``(ii) immediately prior to such date of enactment
was exempt pursuant to subsection (l) or (m)(2) of
section 510 from the requirements for submission of a
report under section 510(k); or
``(B)(i) was not offered for clinical use prior to
such date of enactment;
``(ii) is not a test platform; and
``(iii) falls within a category of tests that was
exempt from the requirements for submission of a report
under section 510(k) as of such date of enactment
(including class II devices and excluding class I
devices described in section 510(l)).
``(2) Effect on special controls.--For any in vitro
clinical test, or category of in vitro clinical tests, that is
exempt from premarket review based on the criteria in paragraph
(2), any special control that applied to a device within a
predecessor category immediately prior to the date of enactment
of Verifying Accurate Leading-edge IVCT Development Act of 2021
shall be deemed a mitigating measure applicable under section
587E to an in vitro clinical test within the successor
category, except to the extent such mitigating measure is
withdrawn or changed in accordance with section 587E.
``(3) Near-patient testing.--Not later than 1 year after
the date of enactment of the Verifying Accurate Leading-edge
IVCT Development Act of 2021, the Secretary shall issue draft
guidance indicating categories of tests that shall be exempt
from premarket review under section 587B when offered for near-
patient testing (point of care), which were not exempt from
submission of a report under section 510(k) pursuant to
subsection (l) or (m)(2) of section 510 and regulations
imposing limitations on exemption for in vitro devices intended
for near-patient testing (point of care).
``(e) Low-Risk Tests.--
``(1) Exemption.--An in vitro clinical test is exempt from
premarket review under section 587B and may be lawfully
marketed subject to the other applicable requirements of this
Act, including section 587I(b)(6), if such test meets the
definition of low-risk under section 587.
``(2) List of low-risk tests.--
``(A) In general.--The Secretary shall maintain,
and make publicly available on the website of the Food
and Drug Administration, a list of in vitro clinical
tests, and categories of in vitro clinical tests, that
are low-risk in vitro clinical tests for purposes of
the exemption under this subsection.
``(B) Inclusion.--The list under subparagraph (A)
shall consist of--
``(i) all in vitro clinical tests and
categories of in vitro clinical tests that are
exempt from premarket review pursuant to
subsection (d)(1) or (d)(3); and
``(ii) all in vitro clinical tests and
categories of in vitro clinical tests that are
designated by the Secretary pursuant to
subparagraph (C) as low-risk for purposes of
this subsection.
``(C) Designation of tests and categories.--Without
regard to subchapter II of chapter 5 of title 5, United
States Code, the Secretary may designate, in addition
to the tests and categories described in subparagraph
(B)(i), additional in vitro clinical tests, and
categories of in vitro clinical tests, as low-risk in
vitro clinical tests for purposes of the exemption
under this subsection. The Secretary may make such a
designation on the Secretary's own initiative or in
response to a request by any person. In making such a
designation for a test or category of tests, the
Secretary shall consider--
``(i) whether the test, or category of
tests, is low-risk; and
``(ii) such other factors as the Secretary
determines to be relevant to the protection of
the public health.
``(f) Manual Tests.--
``(1) Exemption.--An in vitro clinical test is exempt from
all requirements of this subchapter if the output of such in
vitro clinical test is the result of direct, manual
observation, without the use of automated instrumentation or
software for intermediate or final interpretation, by a
qualified laboratory professional, and such in vitro clinical
test--
``(A) is designed, manufactured, and used within a
single clinical laboratory for which a certificate is
in effect under section 353 of the Public Health
Service Act that meets the requirements under section
353 for performing high-complexity testing;
``(B) is not a high-risk test, or is a high-risk
test that the Secretary has determined meets at least
one condition in paragraph (2) and is otherwise
appropriate for this exemption; and
``(C) is not intended for testing donors,
donations, and recipients of blood, blood components,
human cells, tissues, cellular-based products, or
tissue-based products.
``(2) High-risk test limitation or condition.--A high-risk
test may be exempt under paragraph (1) from the requirements of
this subchapter only if--
``(A) no component or part of such test, including
any reagent, is introduced into interstate commerce
under the exemption under subsection (b)(1) (relating
to components or parts intended for further
development), and any article for taking or deriving
specimens from the human body used in conjunction with
the test remains subject to the requirements of this
subchapter; or
``(B) the test has been developed in accordance
with the applicable test design and quality
requirements under section 587J.
``(g) Humanitarian Test Exemption.--
``(1) In general.--An in vitro clinical test is exempt from
premarket review under section 587B and may be lawfully
marketed subject to the other applicable requirements of this
Act, if--
``(A) such in vitro clinical test is intended for
use for a disease or condition for which no more than
10,000 (or such other number determined by the
Secretary) individuals would be subject to negative or
positive diagnosis by such test in the United States
per year; and
``(B) the developer of the test--
``(i) maintains documentation (which may
include literature citations in specialized
medical journals, textbooks, specialized
medical society proceedings, governmental
statistics publications, or, if no such studies
or literature citations exist, credible
conclusions from appropriate research or
surveys) demonstrating that such test meets and
continues to meet the criteria described in
this paragraph; and
``(ii) makes such documentation available
to the Secretary upon request.
``(2) Cross-referenced tests.--In order to be eligible for
an exemption under this subsection, the developer of a cross-
referenced test shall submit a request under section 587H for
informal feedback.
``(h) Custom Tests and Low-Volume Tests.--An in vitro clinical test
is exempt from premarket review under section 587B, the quality
requirements under section 587J, and the notification requirements
under section 587I, and may be lawfully marketed subject to the other
applicable requirements of this Act, if--
``(1) such in vitro clinical test--
``(A) is a low-volume test performed in a
laboratory in which it was developed or developed in a
laboratory within the same corporate organization with
the laboratory in which such test is performed and is
administered to no more than 5 patients per year,
unless otherwise determined by the Secretary; or
``(B) is a custom test developed or modified to
diagnose a unique pathology or physical condition of a
specific patient for which no other in vitro clinical
test is commercially available in the United States,
and is--
``(i) not intended for use with respect to
other patients; and
``(ii) after the development of the custom
test, not included in any test menu, template
test report, or other promotional materials,
and not otherwise advertised; and
``(2) the developer of the test--
``(A) maintains documentation demonstrating that
such test meets and continues to meet the applicable
criteria described in paragraph (1);
``(B) makes such documentation, such as a
prescription order requesting the custom test for an
individual patient, available to the Secretary upon
request; and
``(C) informs the Secretary, on an annual basis, in
a manner prescribed by the Secretary by guidance, that
such test was introduced into interstate commerce.
``(i) Public Health Surveillance Activities.--
``(1) In general.--The provisions of this subchapter shall
not apply to a test intended by the developer to be used solely
for public health surveillance activities, including the
collection and testing of information or biospecimens,
conducted, supported, requested, ordered, required, or
authorized by a public health authority.
``(2) Limitation.--The public health surveillance
activities described in paragraph (1)--
``(A) are limited to activities necessary to allow
a public health authority to identify, monitor, assess,
or investigate potential public health signals, onsets
of disease outbreaks, or conditions of public health
importance (including trends, risk factors, patterns in
diseases, and increases in injuries from using consumer
products); and
``(B) include activities associated with providing
timely situational awareness and priority setting
during the course of a threat to the public health
(including natural or man-made disasters and deliberate
attacks on the United States).
``(3) Exclusion.--An in vitro clinical test is not excluded
from the provisions of this subchapter if such test is intended
for use in making clinical decisions for individual patients.
``(j) Law Enforcement or Employer Testing.--An in vitro clinical
test that is intended solely for use in forensic analysis, law
enforcement activity, or employment purposes is exempt from the
requirements of this Act. An in vitro clinical test that is intended
for use in making clinical decisions for individual patients, or whose
individually identifiable results may be reported back to an individual
patient or the patient's health care provider, even if also intended
for law enforcement or employment testing purposes, is not intended
solely for use in law enforcement or employment testing for purposes of
this subsection.
``(k) In Vitro Clinical Tests Under a Technology Certification
Order.--An in vitro clinical test that is within the scope of a
technology certification order, as described in section 587D(a), is
exempt from premarket review under section 587B.
``(l) Modified Tests.--
``(1) In general.--An in vitro clinical test that is
modified, by the initial developer of the test or a different
person, is a new in vitro clinical test subject to the
requirements of this subchapter if the modification--
``(A) affects the analytical or clinical validity
of such test;
``(B) causes the test to no longer comply with
applicable mitigating measures under section 587E or
restrictions under section 587N; or
``(C) as applicable, affects the safety of an
article for taking or deriving specimens from the human
body for a purpose described in section 201(ss)(1).
``(2) Exemptions.--Notwithstanding paragraph (1), an in
vitro clinical test that is modified by the initial developer
of the test or a different person is not a new in vitro
clinical test if the modification--
``(A) is a software update that does not have an
adverse effect on the analytical or clinical validity
or result in an increased risk to patients and
consumers;
``(B) is made pursuant to methods or criteria
included in the change protocol premarket submission,
amendment, or supplement approved by the Secretary for
the in vitro clinical test being modified;
``(C) is a labeling change that is appropriate to
address patient or user harm; or
``(D) is a specimen-related modification that--
``(i) is made to extend specimen stability;
or
``(ii) aligns with the data and information
submitted in an approved application for
premarket review under section 587B or a
technology certification order issued under
section 587D.
``(3) Documentation.--When a person modifies an in vitro
clinical test that was developed by another person, such
modified test is exempt from the requirements of this
subchapter provided that such person--
``(A) documents the modification that was made and
the basis for determining that the modification,
considering the changes individually and collectively,
was not a type of modification described in paragraph
(1); and
``(B) provides such documentation to the Secretary
upon request or inspection.
``(m) Investigational Use.--An in vitro clinical test for
investigational use is exempt from the requirements of this Act, except
as provided in section 587R.
``(n) Transfer or Sale of In Vitro Clinical Tests.--
``(1) Transfer and assumption of regulatory obligations.--
If ownership of an in vitro clinical test is sold or
transferred in such manner that the developer transfers the
regulatory submissions and obligations applicable under this
subchapter with respect to the test, the transferee or
purchaser becomes the developer of the test and shall have all
regulatory obligations applicable to such a test under this
subchapter. The transferee or purchaser shall update the
registration and listing information under section 587I for the
in vitro clinical test.
``(2) Transfer or sale of premarket approval.--
``(A) Notice required.--If a developer of an in
vitro clinical test transfers or sells the approval of
the in vitro clinical test, the transferor or seller
shall--
``(i) submit a notice of the transfer or
sale to the Secretary and update the
registration and listing information under
section 587I for the in vitro clinical test;
and
``(ii) submit a supplemental application if
required under section 587B(h).
``(B) Effective date of approval transfer.--A
transfer or sale described in subparagraph (A) shall
become effective upon completion of a transfer or sale
described in paragraph (1) or the approval of a
supplemental application under section 587B(h) if
required, whichever is later. The transferee or
purchaser shall update the registration and listing
information under section 587I for the in vitro
clinical test within 15 calendar days of the effective
date of the transfer or sale.
``(3) Transfer or sale of technology certification.--
``(A) Requirements for transfer or sale of
technology certification.--An unexpired technology
certification can be transferred or sold if the
transferee or purchaser--
``(i) is an eligible person under section
587D(b)(1); and
``(ii) maintains, upon such transfer or
sale, the site, test design and quality
requirements, processes and procedures under
the scope of technology certification, and
scope of the technology certification
identified in the applicable technology
certification order.
``(B) Notice required.--If a developer of an in
vitro clinical test transfers or sells a technology
certification order that has not expired, the
transferor or seller shall submit a notice of the
transfer or sale to the Secretary and shall update the
registration and listing information under section 587I
for all in vitro clinical tests covered by the
technology certification.
``(C) Effective date of technology certification
transfer.--The transfer of a technology certification
shall become effective upon completion of a transfer or
sale described in subparagraph (A). The transferee or
purchaser shall update the registration and listing
information under section 587I for the in vitro
clinical test within 30 calendar days of the effective
date of the technology certification transfer.
``(D) New technology certification required.--If
the requirements of subparagraph (A)(ii) are not met,
the technology certification order may not be
transferred and the transferee or purchaser of an in
vitro clinical test is required to submit an
application for technology certification and obtain a
technology certification order prior to offering the
test for clinical use.
``(o) General Laboratory Equipment.--Any instrument that does not
produce an analytical result, and that functions as a component of pre-
analytical procedures related to in vitro clinical tests, is not
subject to the requirements of this subchapter, provided that--
``(1) the instrument is operating in a clinical laboratory
that is certified under section 353 of the Public Health
Service Act; and
``(2) the instrument can be serviced by the manufacturer of
such instrument or, if that manufacturer is no longer in
business, a third party with the ability to service such
instrument.
``(p) Instrument Families.--In the case of an instrument family,
premarket approval under section 587B(d) of one version of the in vitro
clinical test is required, and previous and updated versions of the
same test within such instrument family shall be deemed to be subject
to the approval pursuant to that section, unless the Secretary
determines otherwise, as set forth in guidance.
``(q) General Exemption Authority.--The Secretary may, by order
published in the Federal Register following notice and an opportunity
for comment, exempt a class of persons from any section under this
subchapter upon a finding that such exemption is appropriate for the
protection of the public health and other relevant considerations.
``(r) Regulations.--The Secretary may issue regulations to
implement this subchapter.
``SEC. 587B. PREMARKET REVIEW.
``(a) In General.--No person shall introduce or deliver for
introduction into interstate commerce any in vitro clinical test,
unless--
``(1) an approval of an application filed pursuant to
subsection (c) or (d) is effective with respect to test; or
``(2) the test is exempt under section 587A from premarket
review under this section.
``(b) Transparency and Predictability.--
``(1) Pre-submission meeting or request for informal
feedback.--Pursuant to section 587H, prior to filing an
application under subsection (c) or (d), any person may request
a meeting or written correspondence with the Secretary to
discuss the eligibility of an in vitro clinical test for
premarket review or other information related to the filing of
an application. The Secretary shall respond to such request
within 45 calendar days.
``(2) Streamlining of applications.--
``(A) Premarket application and technology
certification.--If a person files a premarket
application under this section and provides any
additional documentation required under section 587D,
the in vitro clinical test that is the subject of the
application may be utilized as the representative test
reviewed by the Secretary to provide an approval for
both a premarket application under this section and a
technology certification order under section 587D.
``(B) Representative assays for premarket
approval.--With respect to a technology certification
application filed under section 587D, the
representative test, as described in subparagraph (A),
used to issue a technology certification order under
section 587D shall be deemed a test with premarket
approval under this section.
``(c) Application.--
``(1) Filing.--Any person may file with the Secretary an
application for premarket approval of an in vitro clinical
test.
``(2) Application content.--An application submitted under
paragraph (1) with respect to an in vitro clinical test shall
include the following, in such format as the Secretary
specifies:
``(A) General information regarding the in vitro
clinical test, including--
``(i) the name and address of the
applicant;
``(ii) the table of contents for the
application and the identification of the
information the applicant claims as trade
secret or confidential commercial or financial
information;
``(iii) a description of the test's
intended use;
``(iv) an explanation regarding test
function and any significant performance
characteristics; and
``(v) an explanation of how the development
and validation activities support the test
meeting the applicable standard.
``(B) A summary of the data and information in the
application for the in vitro clinical test, including--
``(i) a brief description of any existing
alternative practices or procedures for
diagnosing the disease or condition for which
the in vitro clinical test is intended, as
applicable;
``(ii) a brief description of the foreign
and domestic marketing history of the test, if
any, including a list of all countries in which
the test has been marketed and a list of all
countries in which the test has been withdrawn
from marketing for any reason related to the
applicable standard of the in vitro clinical
test, if known by the applicant;
``(iii) a summary of the any studies
submitted for such test, including a
description of the objective of the study, a
description of the experimental design of the
study, a brief description of how the data were
collected and analyzed, a brief description of
the results of the technical data submitted,
and a brief description of any nonclinical or
clinical studies;
``(iv) a risk assessment of the test; and
``(v) conclusions drawn from any studies
described in clause (iii), including a
discussion demonstrating that the data and
information in the application constitute valid
scientific evidence and meet the applicable
standard under section 587(2), an explanation
of how the development and validation
activities, as applicable, support that the
test meets the applicable standard under
section 587(2), and a discussion of any adverse
effects of the test on health and proposals to
mitigate those risks, if any.
``(C) The signature of the person filing the
premarket application or an authorized representative.
``(D) A bibliography of all published reports
reasonably known to the applicant related to such test
and a discussion of data and information relevant to
the evaluation of the applicable standard that may be
met by such test.
``(E) A statement that the applicant believes to
the best of the applicant's knowledge that all data and
information submitted to the Secretary are truthful and
accurate and that no material fact has been omitted in
the application.
``(F) Except as provided under subsection (d),
applicable information regarding the methods used in,
or the facilities or controls used for, the development
of the test to demonstrate compliance with the
applicable quality requirements under section 587J.
``(G) Information demonstrating compliance with any
relevant--
``(i) mitigating measures under section
587E; and
``(ii) standards established or recognized
under section 514 prior to the date of
enactment of the Verifying Accurate Leading-
edge IVCT Development Act of 2021, or, after
applicable standards are established or
recognized under section 587Q, with such
standards.
``(H) Valid scientific evidence to support
analytical and clinical validity of the test, which
shall include--
``(i) summary information for all
supporting validation studies performed;
``(ii) raw data, such as tabulations of
data and results as required under section
814.20(b)(6)(ii) of title 21, Code of Federal
Regulations (or any successor regulations);
``(iii) for nonclinical laboratory studies
involving the test, a statement that studies
were conducted in compliance with applicable
good laboratory practices; and
``(iv) for investigations involving human
subjects, statements that any clinical
investigation involving human subjects was
conducted in compliance with applicable--
``(I) institutional review board
regulations;
``(II) informed consent
regulations; and
``(III) investigational use
requirements in section 587R.
``(I) To the extent the application seeks
authorization to make modifications to the test within
the scope of the approval, a change protocol that
includes validation procedures and acceptance criteria
for anticipated modifications that could be made to the
test within the scope of the approval.
``(J) Proposed labeling, in accordance with the
requirements of section 587K.
``(K) Such other data or information as the
Secretary may require in accordance with the least
burdensome requirements of subsection (j).
``(3) Guidance for premarket and special premarket
applications.--In accordance with section 5 of the Verifying
Accurate Leading-edge IVCT Development Act of 2021, the
Secretary shall issue draft guidance detailing the information
to be provided in a premarket application and special premarket
application under this section. The Secretary shall issue final
guidance not later than 90 calendar days after the close of the
comment period for such guidance.
``(4) Refuse to file a premarket or special premarket
application.--If, after receipt of an application under this
section, the Secretary refuses to file such application, the
Secretary shall provide to the developer, within 60 calendar
days of receipt of such application, a description of the
reason for such refusal, and identify the information required,
if any, to allow for the filing of the application.
``(5) Substantive review for deficient application.--If,
after receipt of an application under this section, the
Secretary determines that any portion of such application is
deficient, the Secretary shall provide to the applicant, within
75 calendar days of receipt of such application, a description
of such deficiencies and identify the information required to
correct such deficiencies.
``(d) Special Premarket Review.--
``(1) In general.--Any person may file with the Secretary
an application for special premarket approval for--
``(A) an instrument;
``(B) a specimen receptacle;
``(C) an in vitro clinical test eligible for a
technology certification order under section 587D; or
``(D) a first-of-a-kind test (unless it is a high-
risk test), a direct-to-consumer test, or cross-
referenced test that does not have mitigating measures.
``(2) Application content.--An application under paragraph
(1) shall include--
``(A) the information required for applications
submitted under subsection (c)(2), except that
applications under paragraph (1) need not include--
``(i) quality requirement information; or
``(ii) raw data unless explicitly requested
by the Secretary;
``(B) in the case of a specimen receptacle, safety
information; and
``(C) data, as applicable, to support software
validation, electromagnetic compatibility, and
electrical safety, and information demonstrating
compliance with maintaining quality systems
documentation.
``(3) Inspections.--With respect to an application under
paragraph (1), preapproval inspections authorized by an
employee of the Food and Drug Administration or a person
accredited under section 587P need not occur unless requested
by the Secretary.
``(e) Instrument Family.--When an in vitro clinical test has been
approved, or is otherwise legally marketed, for use on a specific
approved or legally marketed instrument within an instrument family, a
submission under this section shall not be required for that in vitro
clinical test in order for it to be used on a new instrument within
that instrument's family.
``(f) Amendments to an Application.--
``(1) In general.--An applicant may amend an original or
supplemental application under subsection (c) or (d).
``(2) Required amendment or supplement.--An applicant shall
amend or supplement an application submitted under subsection
(c) or (d) if the applicant becomes aware of information that--
``(A) could reasonably affect an evaluation of
whether the applicable standard has been met; or
``(B) could reasonably affect the statement of
contraindications, warnings, precautions, and adverse
reactions in the proposed labeling.
``(3) Request for amendment or supplement.--The Secretary
may request that an applicant amend or supplement an
application under subsection (c) or (d) with any information
necessary for review under this section.
``(g) Action on an Application for Premarket Approval.--
``(1) Review.--
``(A) Disposition.--As promptly as possible, but
not later than 90 calendar days after an application
under subsection (c) is accepted for submission (unless
the Secretary determines that an extension is necessary
to review one or more major amendments to the
application), or not later than 60 calendar days after
an application under subsection (d) is accepted for
submission, the Secretary, after considering any
applicable report and recommendations pursuant to
advisory committees under section 587G, or prior to the
establishment of such advisory committees, any
recommendations by a classification panel under section
513, shall issue an order approving the application,
unless the Secretary finds that the grounds for
approval in paragraph (2) are not met.
``(B) Reliance on proposed labeling.--In
determining whether to approve or deny an application
under paragraph (1), the Secretary shall rely on the
intended use included in the proposed labeling,
provided that such labeling is not false or misleading
based on a fair evaluation of all material facts.
``(2) Approval of an application.--
``(A) In general.--The Secretary shall approve an
application submitted under subsection (c) with respect
to an in vitro clinical test if the Secretary finds
that there is a reasonable assurance that the
applicable standard is met, and--
``(i) except as provided under subsection
(d), the applicant is in compliance with
applicable quality requirements in section 587J
or as otherwise specified in a condition of
approval, or maintains the documentation
required to be in compliance with such
requirements if the applicant is not required
to submit such documentation as a part of the
application under this section;
``(ii) the application does not contain a
false statement of material fact;
``(iii) based on a fair evaluation of all
material facts, the proposed labeling is
truthful and non-misleading and complies with
the requirements of section 587K;
``(iv) except as provided under subsection
(d), the applicant permits, if requested,
authorized employees of the Food and Drug
Administration and persons accredited under
section 587P an opportunity--
``(I) to inspect at a reasonable
time and in a reasonable manner the
facilities and all pertinent equipment,
finished and unfinished materials,
containers, and labeling therein,
including all things (including
records, files, papers, and controls)
bearing on whether an in vitro clinical
test is adulterated, misbranded, or
otherwise in violation of this Act; and
``(II) to view and to copy and
verify all records pertinent to the
application and the in vitro clinical
test;
``(v) the test conforms with any applicable
performance standards under section 587Q and
any applicable mitigating measures under
section 587E; and
``(vi) all nonclinical laboratory studies
and clinical investigations involving human
subjects that are described in the application
were conducted in a manner that meets the
requirements of this section.
``(B) Conditions of approval.--An order approving
an application pursuant to this paragraph may require
conditions of approval for the in vitro clinical test,
including conformance with performance standards under
section 587Q and restrictions under section 587N.
``(C) First-of-a-kind test.--For a first-of-a-kind
in vitro clinical test, an order approving an
application pursuant to this paragraph--
``(i) may impose requirements for tests
with the same indications for use, including
conformance with performance standards under
section 587Q and mitigating measures under
section 587E, and comply with restrictions
under section 587N; and
``(ii) shall indicate whether subsequent in
vitro clinical tests with the same intended use
may meet an exemption set forth in section
587A.
``(D) Publication.--The Secretary shall publish
each order approving an application pursuant to this
paragraph on the public website of the Food and Drug
Administration and make publicly available a summary of
the data used to grant the approval, except to the
extent the Secretary determines that such order--
``(i) contains commercially confidential or
trade secret information; or
``(ii) relates to national security or
countermeasures is restricted from disclosure
pursuant to statutory provisions other than
this section.
``(3) Review of denials.--An applicant whose application
submitted under subsection (c) or (d) has been denied approval
may, by petition filed not more than 60 calendar days after the
date on which the applicant receives notice of such denial,
obtain review of the denial in accordance with section 587O.
``(h) Supplements to an Application.--
``(1) Risk analysis.--Prior to implementing any
modification to an in vitro clinical test, the holder of the
application approved under subsection (c) or (d) for such test
shall perform risk analyses in accordance with section 587J,
unless such modification is included in the change protocol
submitted by the applicant and approved under this section or
exempt under section 587A(l).
``(2) Supplement requirement.--
``(A) In general.--Except as provided in
subparagraph (B), or otherwise specified by the
Secretary, the holder of the application approved under
subsection (g) for an in vitro clinical test shall
submit to the Secretary and receive approval of a
supplement before implementing a modification to the
test, unless such modification is exempt under section
587A(l).
``(B) Adjustments to change protocol.--A person may
submit under this paragraph a supplemental application
adjusting the change protocol of the test at any time
after the initial filing of an application under
subsection (c) or (d).
``(C) Exceptions.--Subject to subparagraphs (D) and
(E), and so long as the holder of an approved
application submitted under subsection (c) or (d) for
an in vitro clinical test does not add a manufacturing
site, or change activities at an existing manufacturing
site, with respect to the test, the holder may, without
prior approval of a supplement, implement the following
modifications to the test:
``(i) Modifications included in and
implemented in accordance with an approved
change protocol under subsection (c)(2)(I).
``(ii) Modifications that do not change--
``(I) the analytical or clinical
validity of the test;
``(II) the intended use of the test
unless provided under an approved
change protocol under subsection
(c)(2)(I); or
``(III) the safety of the specimen
receptacles.
``(iii) Labeling changes to appropriately
address a safety concern.
``(iv) Modifications that are exempt under
section 587A(l).
``(D) Reporting for change protocol
modifications.--As a component of the report required
under subsection (k), the holder of an application
approved under subsection (g) for an in vitro clinical
test shall--
``(i) report any modification to the test
described in clause (i) or (ii) of subparagraph
(C) in the next annual report for the test
under subsection (k) following the date on
which the test, with such modification, is
introduced into interstate commerce; and
``(ii) include in such report--
``(I) a description of the
modification; and
``(II) as applicable, a summary of
the analytical validity and clinical
validity of the test, as modified, and
any changes to acceptance criteria.
``(E) Reporting for other category of exceptions.--
The holder of the application approved under subsection
(c) or (d) for an in vitro clinical test shall--
``(i) report to the Secretary any
modification to the test described in clause
(iii) of subparagraph (C) not more than 60 days
after the date on which the test, with the
modification, is introduced into interstate
commerce; and
``(ii) include in the report--
``(I) a summary of the relevant
change or changes;
``(II) the rationale for
implementing such change or changes;
and
``(III) a description of how the
change or changes were evaluated.
``(F) Request for supplement.--Upon review of the
information received under subparagraph (D) and a
finding that the relevant modification is inconsistent
with the standard specified under subparagraph (C), the
Secretary may require a supplement under subparagraph
(A). If the Secretary determines that a supplement
under subparagraph (A) is required, the Secretary shall
notify the applicant of such determination. Such
notification shall include a justification for the
submission of a supplement. Prior to the submission of
a supplement under this subparagraph, the applicant may
request a meeting or written correspondence to gain
agency feedback as to the necessity of such
supplemental filing. The Secretary shall respond to
such meeting request within 30 calendar days of
receipt.
``(3) Contents of supplement.--Unless otherwise specified
by the Secretary, a supplement under this subsection shall
include--
``(A) for modifications other than manufacturing
site changes--
``(i) a description of the modification;
``(ii) data to demonstrate that the
applicable standard is met;
``(iii) acceptance criteria; and
``(iv) any revised labeling; and
``(B) for manufacturing site changes--
``(i) the information listed in
subparagraph (A); and
``(ii) information regarding the methods
used in, or the facilities or controls used
for, the development of the test to demonstrate
compliance with the applicable quality
requirements under section 587J.
``(4) Additional data.--The Secretary may require, when
necessary, data to evaluate a modification to an in vitro
clinical test that is in addition to the data otherwise
required under the preceding paragraphs if the data request is
in accordance with the least burdensome requirements under
subsection (j).
``(5) Conditions of approval.--In an order approving a
supplement under this subsection, the Secretary may require
conditions of approval for the in vitro clinical test,
including compliance with restrictions under section 587N and
conformance to performance standards under section 587Q.
``(6) Approval.--The Secretary shall approve a supplement
under this subsection if--
``(A) the data demonstrate that the modified in
vitro clinical test meets the applicable standard; and
``(B) the holder of the application approved under
subsection (g) for the test has demonstrated compliance
with applicable quality and inspection requirements, as
applicable and appropriate.
``(7) Publication.--The Secretary shall publish on the
public website of the Food and Drug Administration notice of
any order approving a supplement under this subsection, except
that such publication shall exclude--
``(A) commercial confidential or trade secret
information; and
``(B) any other information that the Secretary
determines to relate to national security or
countermeasures or to be restricted from disclosure
pursuant to another provision of law.
``(8) Review of denial.--An applicant whose supplement
under this subsection has been denied approval may, by petition
filed on or before the 60th calendar day after the date upon
which the applicant receives notice of such denial, obtain
review of the denial in accordance with section 587O.
``(i) Withdrawal and Temporary Suspension of Approval.--
``(1) Order withdrawing approval.--
``(A) In general.--The Secretary may, within 10
calendar days of providing due notice and an
opportunity for an informal hearing to the holder of an
approved application for an in vitro clinical test
under this section, issue an order withdrawing approval
of the application if the Secretary finds that--
``(i) the grounds for approval under
subsection (g) are no longer met; or
``(ii) there is a reasonable likelihood
that the test would cause death or serious
adverse health consequences, including by
causing the absence, delay, or discontinuation
of life-saving or life sustaining medical
treatment.
``(B) Content.--An order under subparagraph (A)
withdrawing approval of an application shall state each
ground for withdrawal and shall notify the holder of
such application 60 calendar days prior to issuing such
order.
``(C) Publication.--The Secretary shall publish any
order under subparagraph (A) on the public website of
the Food and Drug Administration, except that such
publication shall exclude--
``(i) commercial confidential or trade
secret information; and
``(ii) any other information that the
Secretary determines to relate to national
security or countermeasures or to be restricted
from disclosure pursuant to another provision
of law.
``(2) Order of temporary suspension.--If, after providing
due notice and an opportunity for an informal hearing to the
holder of an approved application for an in vitro clinical test
under this section, the Secretary determines there is a
reasonable likelihood that the in vitro clinical test would
cause death or serious adverse health consequences, including
by causing the absence, delay, or discontinuation of life-
saving or life-sustaining medical treatment, the Secretary
shall by order temporarily suspend the approval of the
application. If the Secretary issues such an order, the
Secretary shall proceed expeditiously under paragraph (1) to
withdraw approval of such application.
``(j) Least Burdensome Requirements.--
``(1) In general.--In carrying out this subchapter, the
Secretary shall consider the least burdensome means necessary
to provide a reasonable assurance of analytical and clinical
validity, or applicable standard, and other regulatory
requirements, as determined by the Secretary.
``(2) Necessary defined.--For purposes of paragraph (1) and
paragraph (3), the term `necessary' means the minimum required
information that would support a determination by the Secretary
that the application provides a reasonable assurance of
analytical and clinical validity, or other applicable standard
or regulatory requirement, as determined by the Secretary.
``(3) Consideration of role of postmarket information.--For
purposes of this subsection, the Secretary shall consider the
role of postmarket information in determining the least
burdensome appropriate means necessary to demonstrate that the
applicable standard and other regulatory requirements have been
met.
``(k) Annual Report.--
``(1) In general.--Unless the Secretary specifies
otherwise, the holder of an approved application under this
section shall submit an annual report each year at a time
designated by the Secretary in the approval order. Such report
shall--
``(A) identify all modifications required to be
reported that an approved application holder has made
to any test that is covered by the approval order,
including any modification that requires a supplement
under subsection (h)(2); and
``(B) include any other information required by the
Secretary.
``(2) Exception.--The annual reporting requirement in
paragraph (1) shall not apply to in vitro clinical tests that
are deemed to have a premarket approval based on a prior
approval under section 515(c), clearance under section 510(k),
or authorization under section 513(f) of this Act, or that are
grandfathered under 587A(c).
``(l) Service of Orders.--Orders of the Secretary under this
section with respect to applications under subsection (c) or (d) or
supplements under subsection (h) shall be served--
``(1) in person by any officer or employee of the
Department of Health and Human Services designated by the
Secretary; or
``(2) by mailing the order by registered mail or certified
mail or electronic equivalent addressed to the applicant at the
last known address in the records of the Secretary.
``SEC. 587C. BREAKTHROUGH IN VITRO CLINICAL TESTS.
``(a) In General.--The purpose of this section is to encourage the
Secretary to apply efficient and flexible approaches to expedite the
development of, and prioritize the review of, in vitro clinical tests
that represent breakthrough technologies, and to provide the Secretary
with sufficient authority to do so.
``(b) Establishment of Program.--The Secretary shall establish a
program to expedite the development of, and provide for the priority
review of, in vitro clinical tests.
``(c) Eligibility.--The program developed under subsection (b)
shall be available for any in vitro clinical test that--
``(1) provides or enables more effective treatment or
diagnosis of life-threatening or irreversibly debilitating
human disease or conditions compared to existing approved or
precertified alternatives; and
``(2) is a test--
``(A) that represents a breakthrough technology;
``(B) for which no approved or precertified
alternative exists;
``(C) that offers a clinically meaningful advantage
over existing approved or precertified alternatives,
including the potential, compared to existing approved
or precertified alternatives, to reduce or eliminate
the need for hospitalization, improve patient quality
of life, facilitate patients' ability to manage their
own care (such as through self-directed personal
assistance), or establish long-term clinical
efficiencies; or
``(D) the availability of which is in the best
interest of patients or public health.
``(d) Designation.--
``(1) Request.--To receive breakthrough approval under this
section, an applicant may request that the Secretary designate
the in vitro clinical test for expedited development and
priority review. Any such request for designation may be made
at any time prior to the submission of an application under
section 587B, and shall include information demonstrating that
the test is eligible for designation under subsection (c).
``(2) Determination.--Not later than 60 calendar days after
the receipt of a request under paragraph (1), the Secretary
shall determine whether the in vitro clinical test that is the
subject of the request meets the criteria described in
subsection (c). If the Secretary determines that the test meets
the criteria, the Secretary shall designate the test for
expedited development and priority review.
``(3) Review.--Review of a request under paragraph (1)
shall be undertaken by a team that is composed of experienced
staff and senior managers of the Food and Drug Administration.
``(4) Withdrawal.--
``(A) In general.--The designation of an in vitro
clinical test under this subsection is deemed to be
withdrawn, and such in vitro clinical test shall no
longer be eligible for designation under this section,
if an application for approval under section 587B is
denied. Such test shall be eligible for designation
upon a new request for such designation.
``(B) Exception.--The Secretary may not withdraw a
designation granted under this subsection based on the
subsequent approval or technology certification of
another test that--
``(i) is designated under this section; or
``(ii) was given priority review under
section 515B.
``(e) Actions.--For purposes of expediting the development and
review of in vitro clinical tests under this section, the Secretary may
take the actions and additional actions set forth in paragraphs (1) and
(2), respectively, of section 515B(e) when reviewing such tests. Any
reference or authorization in section 515B(e) with respect to a device
shall be deemed a reference or authorization with respect to an in
vitro clinical test for purposes of this section.
``(f) Guidance.--
``(1) In general.--Not later than one year after the date
of enactment of the Verifying Accurate Leading-edge IVCT
Development Act of 2021, the Secretary shall issue draft
guidance on the implementation of this section. Such guidance
shall--
``(A) set forth the process by which a person may
seek a designation under subsection (d);
``(B) provide a template for request under
subsection (d);
``(C) identify the criteria the Secretary will use
in evaluating a request for designation; and
``(D) identify the criteria and processes the
Secretary will use to assign a team of staff, including
team leaders, to review in vitro clinical tests
designated for expedited development and priority
review, including any training required for such
personnel to ensure effective and efficient review.
``(2) Process.--Prior to finalizing the guidance under
paragraph (1), the Secretary shall seek public comment on the
draft guidance. The Secretary shall issue final guidance one
year after the close of the comment period for the draft
guidance.
``(g) Annual Report.--Unless otherwise specified by the Secretary,
the requirements under section 587B(k) apply to in vitro clinical tests
designated under this section.
``(h) Service of Orders.--Orders of the Secretary under this
section shall be served--
``(1) in person by any officer or employee of the
Department of Health and Human Services designated by the
Secretary; or
``(2) by mailing the order by registered mail or certified
mail or electronic equivalent addressed to the applicant at his
last known address in the records of the Secretary.
``SEC. 587D. TECHNOLOGY CERTIFICATION.
``(a) In General.--
``(1) Eligibility.--Any eligible person may seek a
technology certification order in accordance with this section.
``(2) Exception.--An in vitro clinical test is exempt from
premarket review under section 587B and may be introduced into
interstate commerce if the developer is eligible under this
section and the in vitro clinical test--
``(A) is an eligible in vitro clinical test under
subsection (b)(2); and
``(B) falls within the scope of a technology
certification order issued under this section that is
in effect.
``(b) Eligibility.--
``(1) Eligible person.--In this section, the term `eligible
person' means an in vitro clinical test developer unless, at
the time such person seeks or would seek technology
certification order, the person--
``(A) has been found to have committed a
significant violation of section 353 of the Public
Health Service Act, unless--
``(i) such violation occurred more than 5
years prior to the date on which such
technology certification order is or would be
sought; or
``(ii) such violation has been resolved;
``(B) fails to maintain required certifications
under section 353 of the Public Health Service Act, as
applicable; or
``(C) has been found to have submitted information
to the Secretary that--
``(i) makes false or misleading statements
about a technology certification order
previously issued or an application approved
under section 587B; or
``(ii) violates any requirement of this
subchapter, where such violation exposes
individuals to serious risk of illness, injury,
or death.
``(2) Technology certification eligibility limitations.--An
in vitro clinical test is not eligible under subsection (a)(2)
for exemption from premarket review under section 587B, if--
``(A) such test is--
``(i) a component or part of an in vitro
clinical test as described in section
201(ss)(1)(B)(v);
``(ii) an instrument under section
201(ss)(1)(B)(ii);
``(iii) a specimen receptacle under section
201(ss)(1)(B)(iii);
``(iv) an in vitro clinical test, including
reagents used in such tests, intended for use
for testing donors, donations, and recipients
of blood, blood components, human cells,
tissues, cellular-based products, or tissue-
based products; or
``(v) a high-risk in vitro clinical test
without mitigating measures under section 587E,
which may include first-of-a-kind in vitro
clinical tests, home use in vitro clinical
tests, cross-referenced in vitro clinical
tests, and direct-to-consumer in vitro clinical
tests.
``(c) Public Meeting and Input.--
``(1) Public docket.--Not later than 30 days after the date
of enactment of the Verifying Accurate Leading-edge IVCT
Development Act of 2021, the Secretary shall establish a public
docket to receive comments concerning recommendations for
implementation of this section, including criteria and
procedures for subsections (e) through (j). The public docket
shall remain open for the duration of time that this section
remains in effect.
``(2) Public meeting.--Not later than 180 days after the
date of enactment of the Verifying Accurate Leading-edge IVCT
Development Act of 2021, the Secretary shall convene a public
meeting to which stakeholders from organizations representing
patients and consumers, academia, and the in vitro clinical
test industry are invited in order to discuss the technology
certification process including application requirements,
inspections, alignment with third-party accreditors, and the
definition of `technology' under section 587(17).
``(d) Regulations.--The Secretary shall issue regulations on
technology certification including describing criteria or procedures
relating to technology certification under this section, which shall be
subject to public comment for a minimum of 60 days from issuance prior
to finalizing such regulations after considering the comments received.
The regulation shall include an outline of the application and
recertification process, opportunities to meet with officials of the
Food and Drug Administration and plans to streamline inspections.
``(e) Application for Technology Certification.--
``(1) In general.--A person seeking a technology
certification order shall submit an application under this
subsection, which shall contain the information specified under
paragraph (2).
``(2) Content of application.--An application for
technology certification shall contain--
``(A) a statement identifying the scope of the
proposed technology certification, which shall be no
broader than a single technology intended to be offered
under the application;
``(B) information describing that the person
seeking a technology certification order is an eligible
person under subsection (b)(1);
``(C) information describing that the methods used
in, and the facilities and controls used for, the
development of eligible in vitro clinical tests covered
by the scope of the technology certification conform to
the applicable quality requirements of section 587J;
``(D) procedures for analytical validation,
including all procedures for validation, verification,
and acceptance criteria, and an explanation as to how
such procedures, when used, provide a reasonable
assurance of analytical validity of eligible in vitro
clinical tests within the proposed scope of the
technology certification order;
``(E) procedures for clinical validation, including
all procedures for validation, verification, and
acceptance criteria, and an explanation as to how such
procedures, when used, provide a reasonable assurance
of clinical validity of eligible in vitro clinical
tests within the proposed scope of the technology
certification order;
``(F) a submission under section 587I(b) for each
in vitro clinical test that the developer intends to
introduce into interstate commerce upon receiving a
technology certification order;
``(G) information concerning one or more
representative in vitro clinical tests, including--
``(i) a test within the scope of the
technology certification application with the
appropriate analytical complexity at the time
of the filing of the application under this
section to serve as the representative test and
validate and run within the developer's stated
scope;
``(ii) the information specified in
subsection (c) or (d) of section 587B, as
applicable, for the representative in vitro
clinical test or tests, including information
and data required pursuant to subsection
(c)(2)(H) of section 587B, unless the Secretary
determines that such information is not
necessary;
``(iii) an explanation of the choice of the
representative in vitro clinical test or tests
for the technology certification application
and how such test adequately demonstrates the
range of procedures that the developer includes
in the application under subparagraphs (C),
(D), (E), and (F); and
``(iv) a brief explanation of the ways in
which the procedures included in the
application under subparagraphs (C), (D), (E),
and (F) have been applied to the representative
in vitro clinical test or tests;
``(H) such other information as the Secretary may
determine necessary; and
``(I) a statement that the applicant believes to
the best of the applicant's knowledge that all data and
information submitted to the Secretary are truthful and
accurate and that no material fact has been omitted.
``(3) Reference to approved premarket application under
section 587b.--With respect to the content requirements in the
technology certification application described in paragraph
(2), a developer may incorporate by reference any content of an
application previously submitted by the developer and approved
under section 587B.
``(f) Action on an Application for Technology Certification.--
``(1) Secretary response.--
``(A) In general.--As promptly as practicable, and
no later than 90 days after receipt of an application
under subsection (c), the Secretary shall--
``(i) issue a technology certification
order granting the application, which shall
specify the scope of the technology
certification, if the Secretary finds that all
of the grounds in paragraph (3) are met; or
``(ii) deny the application if the
Secretary finds (and sets forth the basis of
such finding as part of or accompanying such
denial) that one or more grounds for granting
the application specified in paragraph (3) are
not met.
``(B) Extension.--The timeline described in
subparagraph (A) may be extended by mutual agreement
between the Secretary and the applicant.
``(2) Deficient applications.--
``(A) If, after receipt of an application under
this section, the Secretary determines that any portion
of such application is deficient, the Secretary, not
later than 60 days after receipt of such application,
shall provide to the applicant a description of such
deficiencies and identify the information required to
correct such deficiencies.
``(B) When responding to the deficiency letter, the
applicant may convert the application for technology
certification under subsection (c) into a premarket
application under section 587B.
``(3) Technology certification order.--The Secretary shall
grant a technology certification order under this section if,
on the basis of the information submitted to the Secretary as
part of the application and any other information with respect
to such applicant, the Secretary finds that--
``(A) in accordance with subsection (e)(2)(D),
there is a showing of reasonable assurance of
analytical validity for all eligible in vitro clinical
tests within the proposed scope of the technology
certification, as evidenced by the procedures for
analytical validation;
``(B) in accordance with subsection (e)(2)(E),
there is a showing of reasonable assurance of clinical
validity for eligible in vitro clinical tests within
the proposed scope of the technology certification, as
evidenced by the clinical program, including procedures
for clinical validation;
``(C) the methods used in, or the facilities or
controls used for, the development of eligible in vitro
clinical tests covered by the proposed scope of the
technology certification conform to the applicable
requirements of section 587J;
``(D) based on a fair evaluation of all material
facts, the applicant's proposed labeling and
advertising is not false or misleading in any
particular;
``(E) the application does not contain a false
statement of material fact;
``(F) there is a showing that the representative in
vitro clinical test or tests--
``(i) meet the applicable standard for such
order; and
``(ii) reasonably represent the range of
procedures for analytical validation and
clinical validation included in the
application, as applicable; and
``(G) the applicant permits authorized employees of
the Food and Drug Administration or persons accredited
under this Act an opportunity to inspect at a
reasonable time and in a reasonable manner the
facilities and all pertinent equipment, finished and
unfinished materials, containers, and labeling therein,
including all things (including records, files, papers,
and controls) bearing on whether an in vitro clinical
test is adulterated, misbranded, or otherwise in
violation of this Act, and permits such authorized
employees or persons accredited under this Act to view
and to copy and verify all records pertinent to the
application and the in vitro clinical test.
``(4) Effect of technology certification order.--An in
vitro clinical test or tests within the scope of a granted
technology certification order are cleared to be introduced
into interstate commerce.
``(5) Review of denials.--If the Secretary denies an
application for technology certification, including an
application for renewal under subsection (g), the Secretary
will provide a summary of deficiencies on which the Secretary
based its denial. An applicant whose application has been
denied may, by petition filed on or before the date that is 30
calendar days after the date upon which such applicant receives
notice of such denial, obtain review thereof in accordance with
section 587O.
``(g) Duration; Subsequent Submissions.--
``(1) Order duration.--A technology certification order
shall remain in effect until the earlier of--
``(A) the expiration of such technology
certification order under paragraph (2); or
``(B) the withdrawal of such technology
certification order under subsection (j).
``(2) Expiration.--
``(A) An initial technology certification order
issued under subsection (f)(3) shall expire 4 years
after the date that such order is issued, except that
if an application for renewal under paragraph (3) has
been received not later than 30 days prior to the
expiration of such order under this paragraph, such
order shall expire on the date on which the Secretary
has granted or denied the application for renewal. Any
such subsequent renewal of a technology certification
shall expire on such date specified by the Secretary
that is not later than 4 years after the date that such
technology certification order is issued.
``(B) In the event of expiration of technology
certification order, the clearance of tests introduced
into interstate commerce under such order prior to its
expiration pursuant to subsection (f)(3) remain in
effect.
``(3) Renewal.--
``(A) In general.--Any person previously granted a
technology certification order in effect may seek
renewal of such order provided that--
``(i) such person is an eligible person
under subsection (b)(1);
``(ii) the previously granted technology
certification order--
``(I) is not on temporary hold
under subsection (i); and
``(II) was not withdrawn under
subsection (j); and
``(iii) none of the information specified
in subsection (e)(2) has substantially changed,
except as described in supplements to orders
granted under paragraph (4).
``(B) Content.--An application for renewal under
this paragraph shall include information concerning one
or more representative in vitro clinical tests in
accordance with subsection (e)(2)(G), except that such
representative test or tests shall be different from
the representative test or tests relied upon as the
representative assay in any prior technology
certification, if applicable.
``(C) Process.--The Secretary's action on an
application for renewal of technology certification
under this paragraph shall be conducted, to the extent
practicable, in coordination with inspections conducted
under section 353 of the Public Health Service Act, if
applicable, and any order resulting from such renewal
application shall be treated as a technology
certification order for purposes of this subchapter.
``(4) Supplements and reports.--
``(A) Supplements.--Except as provided in
subparagraph (B), any person with a technology
certification order in effect may seek a supplement to
such order upon a change or changes to the information
provided in the application for technology
certification under subparagraphs (C), (D), and (E) of
subsection (e)(2), provided that--
``(i) such person is an eligible person
under subsection (b)(1); and
``(ii) such change does not expand the
scope of the technology certification, unless
the Secretary determines that such expansion is
appropriate.
A supplement to an order may contain only information
relevant to the change or changes. The Secretary's
action on a supplement shall be in accordance with
subsection (f), and any order resulting from such
supplement shall be treated as an amendment to a
technology certification order that is in effect.
``(B) Reports.--
``(i) In general.--If a change is made to
an in vitro clinical test or tests that is
beyond the scope of a technology certification
order but is made in order to address a
potential risk to public health by adding a new
specification or test method, the person may
immediately implement such change or changes
and shall report such changes or changes to the
Secretary within 30 days.
``(ii) Content.--Any report to the
Secretary under this subparagraph shall
include--
``(I) a summary of the relevant
change or changes;
``(II) the rationale for
implementing such change or changes;
``(III) a description of how the
change or changes were evaluated; and
``(IV) data indicating analytical
and clinical validity.
``(iii) Supplemental reports.--Upon review
of such report and a finding that the relevant
change or changes are inconsistent with the
standard specified under this subparagraph, the
Secretary may require a supplement under
subparagraph (A).
``(h) Maintenance Requirements.--For the duration of a technology
certification order, a holder of a technology certification order
shall--
``(1) use the procedures included in the relevant
application, supplement, or report under subsections (b) and
(e);
``(2) ensure compliance with any applicable mitigating
measures;
``(3) maintain, and provide to the Secretary upon request,
records related to any in vitro clinical test offered under the
technology certification order, where those records are
necessary to demonstrate compliance with applicable provisions
of this subchapter; and
``(4) comply with the listing requirements under section
587I for each in vitro clinical test offered under the
technology certification order.
``(i) Temporary Hold.--
``(1) In general.--Upon one or more findings under
paragraph (4) and after promptly notifying the developer of
such findings, the Secretary may issue a temporary hold
prohibiting any holder of a technology certification order from
introducing into interstate commerce an in vitro clinical test
that was not previously the subject of a notification under
section 587I. The temporary hold must identify the grounds for
the temporary hold under paragraph (4) and the rationale for
such finding, and may only remain in place until the Secretary
responds to a written request under paragraph (3).
``(2) Notification to the developer.--The Secretary shall
not place a temporary hold under this subsection unless the
Secretary has promptly notified the developer of such hold and
provided 30 calendar days for the developer to come into
compliance with or resolve the findings under paragraph (4).
``(3) Written requests.--Any written request to the
Secretary from the holder of a technology certification order
that a temporary hold under paragraph (1) be removed shall
receive a decision, in writing and specifying the reasons
therefore, within 90 days after receipt of such request. Any
such request shall include information to support the removal
of the temporary hold.
``(4) Grounds for temporary hold.--A temporary hold under
this subsection may be instated upon a finding or findings that
the holder of a technology certification order--
``(A) is not in compliance with any maintenance
requirements under subsection (h);
``(B) labels or advertises one or more in vitro
clinical tests with false or misleading claims; or
``(C) is no longer an eligible person under
subsection (b)(1).
``(j) Withdrawal.--The Secretary may, after due notice and
opportunity for informal hearing, issue an order withdrawing a
technology certification order if the Secretary finds that--
``(1) the application, supplement, or report under
subsection (e) or (g) contains materially false or misleading
information or fails to reveal a material fact;
``(2) such holder fails to correct materially false or
misleading labeling or advertising upon the request of the
Secretary;
``(3) in connection with a technology certification, the
holder provides materially false or misleading information to
the Secretary; or
``(4) the holder of such technology certification order
fails to correct the grounds for temporary hold within a
timeframe specified in the temporary hold order.
``(k) Reports to Congress.--
``(1) In general.--Not later than one year after date of
enactment of the Verifying Accurate Leading-edge IVCT
Development Act of 2021, and annually thereafter for the next 4
years, the Secretary shall submit to the Committee on Energy
and Commerce of the House of Representatives and the Committee
on Health, Education, Labor, and Pensions of the Senate, and
make publicly available, including through posting on the
website of the Food and Drug Administration, a report
containing the information described in paragraph (2).
``(2) Content.--
``(A) In general.--Each report under paragraph (1)
shall address, at a minimum--
``(i) the total number of applications for
technology certifications filed, granted,
withdrawn and denied;
``(ii) the total number of technology
certification orders put on temporary hold
under subsection (i) and the number of
technology certification orders withdrawn under
subsection (j);
``(iii) the types of technologies for which
technology certification orders were granted;
``(iv) the total number of developers,
including laboratories, with technology
certification orders in effect; and
``(v) the total number of approved tests
under section 587B that were reclassified and
granted a technology certification order under
this section.
``(B) Final report.--The fifth report submitted
under paragraph (1) shall include a summary of, and
responses to, comments raised in the meeting and
docket.
``(C) Performance reports.--The reports required
under this section may be issued with performance
reports as required under section 9 of the Verifying
Accurate Leading-edge IVCT Development Act of 2021.
``SEC. 587E. MITIGATING MEASURES.
``(a) Establishment of Mitigating Measures.--
``(1) Establishing, changing, or withdrawing.--
``(A) Establishment.--If the Secretary requires the
establishment of mitigating measures pursuant to clause
(i) or (ii) of section 587(15)(A) for any in vitro
clinical test, the Secretary may require such
mitigating measures for any other in vitro clinical
test with the same indications for use.
``(B) Process.--Notwithstanding subchapter II of
chapter 5 of title 5, United States Code, the Secretary
may--
``(i) establish, change, or withdraw
mitigating measures by--
``(I) publishing a proposed
administrative order in the Federal
Register;
``(II) providing an opportunity for
public comment for a period of not less
than 30 calendar days; and
``(III) after consideration of any
comments submitted, publishing a final
administrative order in the Federal
Register; and
``(ii) may establish mitigating measures
with respect to a category in a premarket
approval order or technology certification
order.
``(2) In vitro clinical tests previously approved, cleared,
or exempted as devices.--
``(A) In general.--Any special controls or
restrictions applicable to an in vitro clinical test
with the same indications for use pursuant to section
587(10) based on prior regulation as a device approved
under section 515, cleared or exempt under section
510(k), or classified under section 513(f)(2),
including any such special controls or restrictions
established during the period beginning on the date of
enactment of the Verifying Accurate Leading-edge IVCT
Development Act of 2021 and ending on the effective
date of such Act (as described in section 5(b) of such
Act)--
``(i) shall continue to apply to such
approved, cleared, or exempted in vitro
clinical test after such effective date; and
``(ii) are deemed to be mitigating measures
as of the effective date of such approval,
clearance, or exemption.
``(B) Changes.--The Secretary may establish,
change, or withdraw mitigating measures for such a test
or indications for use the procedures under paragraph
(1).
``(b) Documentation.--
``(1) Tests subject to premarket review.--The developer of
an in vitro clinical test subject to premarket review under
section 587B and to which mitigating measures apply shall--
``(A) in accordance with section 587B(c)(2)(G)(i),
submit documentation to the Secretary as part of the
application for the test under subsection (c) or (d) of
section 587B demonstrating that such mitigating
measures have been met;
``(B) if such application is approved, maintain
documentation demonstrating that such mitigating
measures continue to be met following a test
modification by the developer; and
``(C) after responding to any informal
communications from the Secretary, make such
documentation available to the Secretary upon request
or inspection.
``(2) Other tests.--The developer of an in vitro clinical
test that is marketed within the scope of a technology
certification order or other exemption from premarket review
under section 587B and to which mitigating measures apply
shall--
``(A) maintain documentation in accordance with the
applicable quality requirements under section 587J
demonstrating that such mitigating measures continue to
be met following a test modification by the developer;
``(B) after responding to any informal
communications from the Secretary, make such
documentation available to the Secretary upon request
or inspection; and
``(C) include in the performance summary for such
test a brief description of how such mitigating
measures are met, if applicable.
``(c) Mitigating Measures for Cross-Referenced Tests.--Not later
than 1 year after the implementation of the Verifying Accurate Leading-
edge IVCT Development Act of 2021, the Secretary shall issue mitigating
measures for cross-referenced tests.
``SEC. 587F. REGULATORY PATHWAY REDESIGNATION.
``(a) Technology Certification and Exemption Determinations.--
``(1) In general.--Based on new information, including the
establishment of mitigating measures under section 587E, and
after considering available evidence respecting tests with the
same indications for use pursuant to section 587(10), the
Secretary may, upon the initiative of the Secretary or upon
petition of an interested person--
``(A) revoke any exemption or requirement in effect
under this subchapter with respect to such indications
for use; or
``(B) determine that such indications for use are
eligible for technology certification in accordance
with section 587D(b)(2).
``(2) Process.--Any action under paragraph (1) shall be
made by publication of a notice of such proposed action on the
website of the Food and Drug Administration, the consideration
of comments to a public docket on such proposal, and
publication of a final action on such website within 60
calendar days of the close of the comment period posted to such
public docket, notwithstanding subchapter II of chapter 5 of
title 5, United States Code.
``(b) Revocation.--The Secretary may revoke any exemption with
respect to such test or indications for use pursuant to section
587(10), if--
``(1) new clinical information indicates that the exemption
of an in vitro clinical test or tests from premarket review
under section 587B or exemption under section 587A has a
reasonable probability of severe adverse health consequences,
including the absence, delay, or discontinuation of appropriate
medical treatment.
``(2) Process.--Any action under this subsection shall be
made by publication of a notice of such proposed action in the
Federal Register, consideration of comments to a public docket
on such proposal, and publication of a final notice in the
Federal Register, notwithstanding subchapter II of chapter 5 of
title 5, United States Code.
``SEC. 587G. ADVISORY COMMITTEES.
``(a) In General.--The Secretary may establish advisory committees
or use advisory committee panels of experts established before the date
of enactment of this section for the purposes of providing expert
scientific advice and making recommendations related to--
``(1) the approval of an application for an in vitro
clinical test submitted under this subchapter, including for
evaluating, as applicable, the analytical validity, clinical
validity, and safety of in vitro clinical tests;
``(2) the potential effectiveness of mitigating measures
for a determination on the applicable regulatory pathway under
section 587F or risk evaluation for an in vitro clinical test
or tests;
``(3) quality requirements under section 587J or applying
such requirements to in vitro clinical tests developed or
imported by developers; or
``(4) such other purposes as the Secretary determines
appropriate.
``(b) Appointments.--
``(1) Voting members.--The Secretary shall appoint to each
committee established under subsection (a), as voting members,
individuals who are qualified by training and experience to
evaluate in vitro clinical tests referred to the committee for
the purposes specified in subsection (a), including individuals
with, to the extent feasible, scientific expertise in the
development, manufacture, or utilization of such in vitro
clinical tests, laboratory operations, and the use of in vitro
clinical tests. The Secretary shall designate one member of
each committee to serve as chair.
``(2) Nonvoting members.--In addition to the individuals
appointed pursuant to paragraph (1), the Secretary shall
appoint to each committee established under subsection (a), as
nonvoting members--
``(A) a representative of consumer interests; and
``(B) a representative of interests of in vitro
clinical test developers not directly affected by the
matter to be brought before the committee.
``(3) Limitation.--No individual who is in the regular
full-time employee of the United States and engaged in the
administration of this Act may be a member of any advisory
committee established under subsection (a).
``(4) Education and training.--The Secretary shall, as
appropriate, provide education and training to each new
committee member before such member participates in a
committee's activities, including education regarding
requirements under this Act and related regulations of the
Secretary, and the administrative processes and procedures
related to committee meetings.
``(5) Meetings.--The Secretary shall ensure that scientific
advisory committees meet regularly and at appropriate intervals
so that any matter to be reviewed by such a committee can be
presented to the committee not more than 60 calendar days after
the matter is ready for such review. Meetings of the committee
may be held using electronic communication to convene the
meetings.
``(6) Compensation.--Members of an advisory committee
established under subsection (a), while attending meetings or
conferences or otherwise engaged in the business of the
advisory committee--
``(A) shall be entitled to receive compensation at
rates to be fixed by the Secretary, but not to exceed
the daily equivalent of the rate in effect for
positions classified above level GS-15 of the General
Schedule; and
``(B) may be allowed travel expenses as authorized
by section 5703 of title 5, United States Code, for
employees serving intermittently in the Government
service.
``(c) Guidance.--The Secretary may issue guidance on the policies
and procedures governing advisory committees established under
subsection (a).
``SEC. 587H. REQUEST FOR INFORMAL FEEDBACK.
``Before submitting a premarket application or technology
certification application for an in vitro clinical test--
``(1) the developer of the test may submit to the Secretary
a written request for a meeting, conference, or written
feedback to discuss and provide information relating to the
regulation of such in vitro clinical test which may include--
``(A) the submission process and the type and
amount of evidence expected to demonstrate the
applicable standard;
``(B) which regulatory pathway is appropriate for
an in vitro clinical test; and
``(C) an investigation plan for an in vitro
clinical test, including a clinical protocol; and
``(2) upon receipt of such a request, the Secretary shall--
``(A) within 60 calendar days after such receipt,
or within such time period as may be agreed to by the
developer, meet or confer with the developer submitting
the request; and
``(B) within 15 calendar days after such meeting or
conference, provide to the developer a written record
or response describing the issues discussed and
conclusions reached in the meeting or conference.
``SEC. 587I. REGISTRATION AND LISTING.
``(a) Registration of Establishments for In Vitro Clinical Tests.--
``(1) In general.--Each person described in subsection
(b)(1), or an accredited person under section 587P, acting on
behalf of such a person, shall--
``(A) during the period beginning on October 1 and
ending on December 31 of each year, register with the
Secretary the name of such person, places of business
of such person, all establishments engaged in the
activities specified under this paragraph, the
establishment registration number of each such
establishment, and a point of contact for each such
establishment, including an electronic point of
contact; and
``(B) submit an initial registration containing the
information required under subparagraph (A) not later
than--
``(i) the date of implementation of this
section if such establishment is engaged in any
activity described in subsection (b)(1) on the
date of enactment of this section, unless the
Secretary establishes by guidance a date later
than such implementation date for all or a
category of such establishments; or
``(ii) 30 days prior to engaging in any
activity described in subsection (b)(1) after
enactment of this section, if such
establishment is not engaged in any activity
described in this paragraph on the date of
enactment of this section.
``(2) Registration numbers.--The Secretary may assign a
registration number to any person or an establishment
registration number to any establishment registered in
accordance with this section. Registration information shall be
made publicly available by publication on the website
maintained by the Food and Drug Administration, in accordance
with subsection (d).
``(3) Inspection.--Each person or establishment that is
required to be registered with the Secretary under this section
shall be subject to inspection pursuant to section 704.
``(b) Listing Information for In Vitro Clinical Tests.--
``(1) In general.--Each person who--
``(A) is a developer, a contract manufacturer
(including contract packaging), contract sterilizer,
repackager, relabeler, or distributor of an in vitro
clinical test; and
``(B) introduces or proposes to begin the
introduction or delivery for introduction into
interstate commerce through an exemption under section
587A(f)(2)(b) or 587A(g) or through the filing of an
application under section 587B or 587D,
shall submit a listing to the Secretary containing the
information described in paragraph (2) in accordance with the
applicable schedule described under subsection (c). Such
listing shall be prepared in such form and manner as the
Secretary may specify in guidance. Listing information shall be
submitted through the comprehensive test information system in
accordance with section 587T, as appropriate.
``(2) Submissions.--Each developer submitting a listing
under paragraph (1) shall electronically submit to the
comprehensive test information system under section 587T the
following information for each in vitro clinical test for which
such person is a developer in the form and manner prescribed by
the Secretary:
``(A) Name of the establishment and its
establishment registration number.
``(B) Contact information for the official
correspondent for the listing.
``(C) Name (common name and trade name, if
applicable) of the in vitro clinical test and its test
listing number (when available).
``(D) CLIA certificate number for any laboratory
certified by the Secretary under section 353 of the
Public Health Service Act that meets the requirements
for performing high-complexity testing that is the
developer of the in vitro clinical test, and CLIA
certificate number for any laboratory under common
ownership that is performing the test developed by such
test developer.
``(E) Whether the in vitro clinical test is, as
applicable, offered as a test approved under section
587B, offered under a technology certification o, or
offered as an in vitro clinical test under section
587Arder issued under section 587D.
``(F) Indications for use information under section
587(10).
``(G) Brief narrative description of the in vitro
clinical test.
``(H) A brief summary of the analytical and
clinical performance of the in vitro clinical test, and
as applicable, the lot release criteria.
``(I) A brief description of conformance with any
applicable mitigating measures, restrictions, and
standards.
``(J) Representative labeling for the in vitro
clinical test, as appropriate.
``(K) A statement that the information submitted is
truthful and accurate.
``(3) Test listing number.--The Secretary may assign a test
listing number to each in vitro clinical test that is the
subject of a listing under this section. The process for
assigning test listing numbers may be established through
guidance, and may include the recognition of standards,
formats, or conventions developed by a third-party
organization.
``(4) Abbreviated listing.--A person who is not a developer
but is otherwise required to register pursuant to subsection
(a) shall submit an abbreviated listing to the Secretary
containing the information described in subparagraphs (A)
through (C) of paragraph (2), and the name of the developer.
The information shall be submitted in accordance with the
applicable schedule described under subsection (c). Such
abbreviated listing shall be prepared in such form and manner
as the Secretary may specify in guidance. Listing information
shall be submitted to the comprehensive test information system
in accordance with section 587T, as appropriate.
``(5) Grandfathered tests.--A developer of an in vitro
clinical test developer offering a test that is grandfathered
under section 587A(c) shall submit listing information required
under subparagraphs (A) through (K) of paragraph (2).
``(6) Low-risk tests.--A developer of a low risk in vitro
clinical test shall notify and submit listing information to
the Secretary within one year of offering such test for
clinical use.
``(7) Exempt tests.--A developer of an in vitro clinical
test who introduces or proposes to begin the introduction or
delivery for introduction into interstate commerce pursuant to
an exemption under section 587A may submit listing information
under this subsection.
``(c) Timelines for Submission.--
``(1) In general.--The timelines for submission of
registration and listing under subsections (a) and (b) are as
follows:
``(A) For an in vitro clinical test that was listed
as a device under section 510(j) prior to the date of
enactment of this section, a person shall maintain a
device listing under section 510 until such time as the
system for submitting the notification information
required under subsection (b) becomes available and
thereafter shall submit the notification information no
later than 1 year after the system for submitting the
notification under this section becomes available.
``(B) For an in vitro clinical test that is subject
to the grandfathering provisions of section 587A(c), a
person shall submit the listing information required
under subsection (b)(5) no later than 1 year after the
system for submitting the notification under this
section becomes available.
``(C) For an in vitro clinical test that is not
described in subparagraph (A) or (B), a person shall
submit the required notification information prior to
offering, introducing, or marketing the in vitro
clinical test as follows:
``(i) For an in vitro clinical test that is
not exempt from premarket approval under
section 587B, a person shall submit the
required listing information no later than 30
business days after the date of approval of the
premarket approval application.
``(ii) For a developer who has received a
technology certification order under section
587D, a person shall submit the required
listing information at least 30 business days
after receiving such technology certification
order.
``(2) Updates.--
``(A) Updates after changes.--Each developer
required to submit listing information under this
section shall update such information within 10
business days of any change that causes any previously
notified information to be inaccurate or incomplete.
``(B) Annual updates.--Each developer required to
submit listing information under this section shall
update its information annually during the period
beginning on October 1 and ending on December 31 of
each year as a component of the annual report submitted
under sections 587B and 587D.
``(d) Public Availability of Notification Information.--
``(1) In general.--Notification information submitted
pursuant to this section shall be made publicly available on
the website of the Food and Drug Administration in accordance
with paragraph (3).
``(2) Confidentiality.--Notification information for an in
vitro clinical test that is subject to premarket approval or
technical certification shall remain confidential until such
date as the in vitro clinical test receives the applicable
premarket approval or the developer receives a technology
certification order.
``(3) Exceptions from public availability requirements.--
The registration and listing information requirements described
in subsections (a) and (b) shall not apply to the extent the
Secretary determines that such information relates to--
``(A) trade secret or commercial confidential
information; or
``(B) national security or countermeasures or is
restricted from disclosure pursuant to another
provision of law.
``(e) Submission of Information by Accredited Persons.--If agreed
upon by the developer, the information required under this section may
be submitted by an accredited person under section 587P.
``SEC. 587J. TEST DESIGN AND QUALITY REQUIREMENTS.
``(a) Applicability.--
``(1) In general.--Each developer and each other person
required to register under section 587I(b)(1) shall establish
and maintain quality requirements in accordance with the
applicable requirements set forth in subsection (b), except as
provided in section 587A.
``(2) Certified laboratory requirements.--A developer that
operates a clinical laboratory certified by the Secretary under
section 353 of the Public Health Service Act that--
``(A) meets the requirements for performing high-
complexity testing;
``(B)(i) develops an vitro clinical test or
indications for use; or
``(ii) modifies another developer's in vitro
clinical test in that certified laboratory in a manner
described in section 587(6)(C); and
``(C) develops an in vitro clinical test or
indications for use that are for use only within that
certified laboratory or within another certified
laboratory with common ownership,
shall establish and maintain quality requirements that comply
with the requirements set forth in subsection (b)(2).
``(3) Applicability for certain in vitro clinical tests.--
The applicable requirements set forth in subsection (b)(1)
shall apply to any instrument, specimen receptacle, or
component or part that is developed for use by a clinical
laboratory to which paragraph (2) applies.
``(4) Regulations.--In promulgating regulations under this
section, the Secretary shall consider whether and to what
extent international harmonization is appropriate.
``(b) Quality Requirements.--
``(1) Quality requirements for laboratories without clia
certification to conduct high-complexity tests.--The quality
requirements applicable under this section shall--
``(A) avoid duplication of regulations under
section 353 of the Public Health Service Act;
``(B) apply only to the development, validation,
production, preparation, propagation, or assembly
related to the design and associated manufacture and
distribution of an in vitro clinical test offered under
this subchapter;
``(C) not apply with respect to laboratory
operations; and
``(D) shall include the following, subject to
paragraphs (2) and (3)--
``(i) management responsibility;
``(ii) quality audits;
``(iii) personnel;
``(iv) design controls;
``(v) document controls;
``(vi) purchasing controls;
``(vii) identification and traceability;
``(viii) production and process controls;
``(ix) acceptance activities;
``(x) nonconforming product;
``(xi) corrective and preventive action;
``(xii) labeling and packaging controls;
``(xiii) handling, storage, distribution,
and installation;
``(xiv) records;
``(xv) servicing; and
``(xvi) statistical techniques.
``(2) Quality requirements for laboratories certified to
conduct high-complexity tests.--Quality requirements applicable
to the in vitro clinical tests and developers described in
subsection (a)(2) shall--
``(A) avoid duplication of regulations under
section 353 of the Public Health Service Act; and
``(B) consist of, as directed related to the design
and development--
``(i) design controls;
``(ii) purchasing controls;
``(iii) acceptance activities;
``(iv) corrective and preventative action;
and
``(v) records.
``(3) Quality requirements for certain laboratories
distributing in vitro clinical tests or test protocols within
organizations or public health networks.--
``(A) In general.--Quality requirements applicable
to the developer who is distributing in vitro clinical
test distributed as described in subparagraph (B) shall
consist of the following:
``(i) The requirements in paragraph (2).
``(ii) The labeling requirements in
paragraph (1)(C)(xii).
``(iii) The requirement to maintain records
of the laboratories to which the in vitro
clinical test or test protocol is distributed.
``(B) Distributing laboratory.--Subparagraph (A)
shall apply to developers that meet the following
conditions:
``(i) The laboratory distributing the test
protocol is certified by the Secretary under
section 353 of the Public Health Service Act
and meets the requirements for performing high-
complexity testing.
``(ii) The laboratory develops its own in
vitro clinical test or modifies another
developer's in vitro clinical test in a manner
described in section 587(6)(C).
``(iii) The laboratory distributes the in
vitro clinical test or test protocol for such
test only to another laboratory that--
``(I) is certified by the Secretary
under section 353 of the Public Health
Service Act and meets the requirements
for performing high-complexity testing;
``(II) is within the same corporate
organization and having common
ownership by the same parent
corporation; or as applicable, is a
laboratory within a public health
laboratory network coordinated or
managed by the Centers for Disease
Control and Prevention; and
``(III) implements the test
protocol without further modification.
``(c) Regulations.--In implementing quality requirements for test
developers under this section, the Secretary shall--
``(1) for purposes of facilitating international
harmonization, consider whether the developer participates in
an audit program in which the United States participates or the
United States recognizes or conforms with standards recognized
by the Secretary; and
``(2) ensure a least burdensome approach described in
section 587B(j) by leveraging, to the extent applicable, the
quality assurance requirements applicable to developers
certified by the Secretary under section 353 of the Public
Health Service Act.
``SEC. 587K. LABELING REQUIREMENTS.
``(a) In General.--An in vitro clinical test shall bear or be
accompanied by labeling, and a label as applicable, that meet the
requirements set forth in subsections (b) and (c), unless such test is
exempt as specified in subsection (d) or (e).
``(b) Labels.--
``(1) In general.--The label of an in vitro clinical test
shall meet the requirements set forth in paragraph (2), except
this requirement shall not apply to an in vitro clinical test
that--
``(A) consists solely of a test protocol; or
``(B) is developed, manufactured, and used solely
within a single laboratory certified by the Secretary
under section 353 of the Public Health Service Act that
meets the requirements for performing high-complexity
testing.
``(2) Regulations.--The label of an in vitro clinical test
shall state the name and place of business of its developer and
meet the requirements set forth in regulations promulgated
under this section.
``(c) Labeling.--
``(1) In general.--Labeling accompanying an in vitro
clinical test, including labeling in the form of a package
insert, standalone laboratory reference document, or other
similar document except the labeling specified in paragraph
(2), shall include adequate directions for use and shall meet
the requirements set forth in regulations promulgated under
this section, except as provided in subsection (d) or (e).
``(2) Content.--
``(A) In general.--Labeling accompanying an in
vitro clinical test that is in the form of a test
report template or ordering information shall include--
``(i) the test listing number that was
provided to the developer at the time of
listing;
``(ii) instructions for how and where to
report an adverse event under section 587L;
``(iii) instructions for how and where to
access the performance summary data displayed
in the listing database for the test;
``(iv) the intended use of the in vitro
clinical test; and
``(v) any warnings, contraindications, or
limitations.
``(B) Public availability of information.--The
Secretary shall make all of the information described
in subparagraph (A) with respect to each in vitro
clinical test available to the public, as applicable,
in accordance with section 587T, except to the extent
that the Secretary determines that such information
is--
``(i) trade secret or commercial
confidential information; or
``(ii) national security or countermeasures
or is restricted from disclosure pursuant to
another provision of law.
``(3) Additional requirements.--Labeling for an in vitro
clinical test used for immunohematology testing shall meet the
applicable requirements set forth in part 660 of title 21, Code
of Federal Regulations (or any successor regulations), related
to the labeling of blood grouping reagents, reagent red blood
cells, and anti-human globulin.
``(d) Exemptions and Alternative Requirements.--
``(1) In general.--
``(A) In general.--With respect to an in vitro
clinical test that meets the criteria of subparagraph
(B), the `state in one place' regulations under section
809.10(b) of title 21 of the Code of Federal
Regulations (or any successor regulations) may be
satisfied by the laboratory posting such information on
its website or in multiple documents, if such documents
are maintained and accessible in one place.
``(B) Applicable tests.--An in vitro clinical test
meets the criteria of this subparagraph if such test
is--
``(i) designed and manufactured by a
laboratory certified by the Secretary under
section 353 of the Public Health Service Act
that meets the requirements for performing
high-complexity testing; and
``(ii) performed in the same laboratory in
which it was developed or by another such
laboratory certified by the Secretary under
section 353 of the Public Health Service Act
that meets the requirements for performing high
complexity testing and is under common
ownership with the laboratory that designed and
manufactured the test.
``(2) Test instrument labeling.--The labeling for an
instrument is not required to bear the information indicated in
paragraphs (3), (4), (5), (7), (8), (9), (10), (11), (12), and
(13) of section 809.10(b) of title 21 of the Code of Federal
Regulations (or any successor regulations).
``(3) Reagent labeling.--For purposes of compliance with
subsection (c)(1), the labeling for a reagent intended for use
as a replacement in an in vitro clinical test may be limited to
that information necessary to identify the reagent adequately
and to describe its proper use in the system.
``(4) Lab research or investigational use.--A shipment or
other delivery of an in vitro clinical test for research or
investigational use pursuant to section 587A(m) shall be exempt
from the labeling requirements of subsections (b) and (c)(1)
and from any standard promulgated through regulations, except
as required under section 353 of the Public Health Service Act
or section 587R of this Act.
``(5) General purpose laboratory reagents.--The labeling of
general purpose laboratory reagents (such as hydrochloric acid)
whose uses are generally known by persons trained in their use
need not bear the directions for use required by subsections
(b) and (c)(1).
``(6) Analyte specific reagents.--The labeling for analyte
specific reagents shall bear the following statement: `This
product is intended solely for further development of an in
vitro clinical test and is exempt from most FDA regulation.
This product must be evaluated by the in vitro clinical test
developer in accordance with applicable requirements.'. If the
labeling of an analyte specific reagent bears the statement set
forth in this paragraph, it need not bear the information
required by subsection (c)(1).
``(7) Over-the-counter test sample collection systems
labeling.--The labeling for over-the-counter test sample
collection systems for drugs of abuse testing shall bear the
name and place of business of the developer included in the
registration listing under section 587I, in language
appropriate for the intended users.
``(e) Tests in the Strategic National Stockpile.--
``(1) In general.--The Secretary may grant an exception or
alternative to any provision listed in this section, unless
explicitly required by a statutory provision outside this
subchapter, for specified lots, batches, or other units of an
in vitro clinical test, if the Secretary determines that
compliance with such labeling requirement could adversely
affect the safety, effectiveness, or availability of such
products that are or will be included in the Strategic National
Stockpile under section 319F-2 of the Public Health Service
Act.
``(2) Regulations.--The Secretary may issue regulations
amending section 809.11 of title 21 of the Code of Federal
Regulations or any successor regulation to apply in full or in
part to in vitro clinical tests and in vitro clinical test
developers.
``(f) Guidance.--The Secretary may, in collaboration with
developers, issue guidance on standardized, general content and format
for in vitro clinical test labeling to help ensure compliance with
applicable requirements in this subsection.
``SEC. 587L. ADVERSE EVENT REPORTING.
``(a) Applicability.--
``(1) In general.--Each in vitro clinical test developer
shall establish and maintain a system for reporting adverse
events in accordance with subsection (b), except as provided in
section 587A.
``(2) Regulations.--The Secretary shall promulgate
regulations to implement this section, including information
necessary to be reported to ensure the analytical and clinical
validity of in vitro clinical tests, and the safety of articles
for taking or deriving specimens from the human body.
``(b) Adverse Event Reporting Requirements.--Each developer shall
report to the Secretary whenever information that reasonably suggests
that one of the developer's in vitro clinical tests is associated with
an adverse event becomes known to the developer.
``(c) Reports.--Reports required under this section shall be
submitted as follows:
``(1) An individual adverse event report shall be submitted
for the following events not later than--
``(A) 5 calendar days after an in vitro clinical
test developer receives or otherwise becomes aware of
information that reasonably suggests the adverse event
involves a patient death; or
``(B) 5 calendar days after an in vitro clinical
test developer receives or otherwise becomes aware of
information that reasonably suggests the event presents
an imminent threat to public health.
``(2) Quarterly reports shall be submitted for all other
adverse events, if any, and no later than the end of the
quarter following the quarter in which the adverse event
information was received by the in vitro clinical test
developer.
``(d) Definitions.--In this section--
``(1) the term `adverse event'--
``(A) means--
``(i) death of, or serious injury to, a
specific patient or user for which it is
reasonably believed that an in vitro clinical
test error contributed to such death or serious
injury; or
``(ii) an in vitro clinical test error that
may have reasonable likelihood to cause serious
injury or death; and
``(B) excludes laboratory errors that are subject
to the requirements of section 353 of the Public Health
Service Act and corrective or preventive actions to
prevent such errors;
``(2) the term `in vitro clinical test error'--
``(A) means a failure in an in vitro clinical test
to meet the analytical or clinical validity standard or
otherwise perform as intended by the developer; and
``(B) includes an inaccurate false result that
reaches a health care provider, patient, or consumer,
except that such term excludes any such event or error
related to laboratory operations pursuant to section
353 of the Public Health Service Act; and
``(3) the term `serious injury' means--
``(A) a significant delay in a critical diagnosis
or causing the absence, delay, or discontinuation of
critical medical treatment or that irreversibly or
seriously and negatively alters the course of the
disease or condition; or
``(B) an injury that--
``(i) is life threatening;
``(ii) results in permanent impairment of a
body function or permanent damage to a body
structure; or
``(iii) necessitates medical or surgical
intervention to preclude permanent impairment
of a body function or permanent damage to a
body structure.
``SEC. 587M. CORRECTIONS AND REMOVALS.
``(a) In General.--The Secretary shall promulgate regulations to
implement this section, including information necessary to be reported
to ensure the analytical and clinical validity of in vitro clinical
tests, and the safety of specimen receptacles.
``(b) Reports of Removals and Corrections.--
``(1) In general.--Each in vitro clinical test developer or
importer shall report to the Secretary any correction or
removal of an in vitro clinical test undertaken by such
developer or importer if the removal or correction was
undertaken--
``(A) to reduce the risk to health posed by the in
vitro clinical test; or
``(B) to remedy a violation of this Act caused by
the in vitro clinical test which may present a risk to
health.
``(2) Exception.--No report of the correction or removal of
an in vitro clinical test is required under paragraph (1) if a
report of the correction or removal is required under, and has
been submitted under, section 587L.
``(c) Timing.--A developer or importer shall submit any report
required under this subsection to the Secretary within 15 business days
of initiating such correction or removal.
``(d) Recordkeeping.--A developer or importer of an in vitro
clinical test who undertakes a correction or removal of an in vitro
clinical test which is not required to be reported under this
subsection shall keep a record of such correction or removal.
``(e) Recall Communications.--Upon the voluntary reporting of a
correction or removal by the developer--
``(1) the Secretary shall classify such correction or
removal under this section within 15 calendar days; and
``(2) not later than 45 calendar days after the developer
or other responsible party notifies the Secretary that it has
completed a recall action, the Secretary shall provide the
developer or other responsible party with a written statement
closing the recall action or stating the reasons the Secretary
cannot close the recall at that time.
``(f) Limitation.--The developer is not required to report a
correction or removal of an in vitro clinical test based solely on an
adverse event report under section 587L that captures an error within
the approved performance standards for such test.
``(g) Definitions.--For purposes of this section--
``(1) the term `correction' means the repair, modification,
adjustment, relabeling, destruction, or inspection (including
patient monitoring) of an in vitro clinical test without its
physical removal from its point of use to another location, and
does not include routine servicing; and
``(2) the term `removal' means the physical removal of an
in vitro clinical test from its point of use to another
location for repair, modification, adjustment, relabeling,
destruction, or inspection, and does not include routine
servicing.
``SEC. 587N. RESTRICTED IN VITRO CLINICAL TESTS.
``(a) Applicability.--
``(1) In general.--The Secretary, in issuing an approval of
an in vitro clinical test under section 587B of a category
described in paragraph (3) may require that such test be
restricted to sale, distribution, or use upon such conditions
as the Secretary may prescribe under paragraph (2).
``(2) Conditions prescribed by the secretary.--The
conditions prescribed by the Secretary under this paragraph,
with respect to an in vitro clinical test described in
paragraph (3), are those conditions which the Secretary
determines due to the potentiality for harmful effect of such
test (including any resulting absence, delay, or
discontinuation of appropriate medical treatment), are
necessary to assure the analytical or clinical validity of the
test, or the safety of a specimen receptacle.
``(3) In vitro clinical tests subject to restrictions.--The
restrictions authorized under this section may be applied by
the Secretary to any high-risk in vitro clinical test,
prescription home-use in vitro clinical test, direct-to-
consumer in vitro clinical test, or over-the-counter in vitro
clinical test.
``(b) Labeling and Advertising of a Restricted In Vitro Clinical
Test.--The label, labeling, and advertising of an in vitro clinical
test to which restrictions apply under subsection (a) shall bear such
appropriate statements of the restrictions as the Secretary may
prescribe in the approval, provisional approval, technology
certification, or regulation, as applicable.
``(c) Requirements Prior to Enactment.--An in vitro clinical test
that was offered, sold, or distributed as a restricted device prior to
the enactment date of this subchapter shall continue to comply with the
applicable restrictions under section 515 or section 520(e) until the
effective date of restrictions issued under subsection (a).
``SEC. 587O. APPEALS.
``(a) Significant Decision.--
``(1) In general.--The Secretary shall provide a
substantive summary of the scientific and regulatory rationale
for any significant decision of the Center for Devices and
Radiological Health regarding submission of an application for,
or a review of, an in vitro clinical test under section 587B or
section 587D or regarding an exemption under section 587A,
including documentation of significant controversies or
differences of opinion and the resolution of such controversies
or differences of opinion.
``(2) Provision of documentation.--Upon request, the
Secretary shall furnish a substantive summary described in
paragraph (1) to the person who has made, or is seeking to
make, a submission described in such paragraph.
``(3) Application of least burdensome requirements.--The
substantive summary required under this subsection shall
include a brief statement regarding how the least burdensome
requirements were considered and applied consistent with
section 587B(j), as applicable.
``(b) Review of Significant Decisions.--
``(1) Request for supervisory review of significant
decision.--Any person may request a supervisory review of the
significant decision described in subsection (a)(1). Such
review may be conducted at the next supervisory level or higher
above the agency official who made the significant decision.
``(2) Submission of request.--A person requesting a
supervisory review under paragraph (1) shall submit such
request to the Secretary not later than 30 days after the
decision for which the review is requested and shall indicate
in the request whether such person seeks an in-person meeting
or a teleconference review.
``(3) Timeframe.--The Secretary shall schedule an in-person
or teleconference review, if so requested, not later than 30
days after such request is made. The Secretary shall issue a
decision to the person requesting a review under this
subsection not later than 45 days after the request is made
under paragraph (1), or, in the case of a person who requests
an in-person meeting or teleconference, 30 days after such
meeting or teleconference.
``(c) Advisory Panels.--The process established under subsection
(a) shall permit the appellant to request review by an advisory
committee established under section 513 or 587G. The Secretary shall
provide a response to an appellant under this subsection not later than
45 days after the requested advisory committee is convened.
``SEC. 587P. ACCREDITED PERSONS.
``(a) In General.--
``(1) Review of applications.--
``(A) Accreditation for application review.--
Subject to subparagraph (C), during the period
beginning on the date of enactment of the Verifying
Accurate Leading-edge IVCT Development Act of 2021 and
ending 2 years after the date of enactment of such Act,
the Secretary shall accredit persons for any of the
following purposes:
``(i) Reviewing applications for premarket
approval under section 587B and applications
for technology certification under section
587D.
``(ii) Making recommendations to the
Secretary with respect to an approval of an
application under section 587B or issuance of a
technology certification order under section
587D.
``(B) Requirement regarding review
recommendations.--
``(i) In general.--In making a
recommendation to the Secretary under this
section, an accredited person shall notify the
Secretary in writing of the reasons for the
recommendation concerning the application.
``(ii) Time period for review.--Not later
than 30 calendar days after the date on which
the Secretary is notified of a recommendation
under this section with respect to an
application for premarket approval or
technology certification, the Secretary shall
make a determination with respect to the
application.
``(C) Lack of applications within 2-year
timeframe.--If the Secretary does not receive
applications from persons that meet the criteria under
subsection (c) within such period, the Secretary--
``(i) may accredit persons under this
paragraph after the 2-year period described in
subparagraph (A); and
``(ii) shall issue a public notice on the
website of the Food and Drug Administration
calling for applications for such
accreditation.
``(2) Inspections.--
``(A) Accreditation for inspections.--Subject to
subparagraph (B), during the period beginning on the
date of enactment of the Verifying Accurate Leading-
edge IVCT Development Act of 2021 and ending 2 years
after the date of enactment of such Act, the Secretary
shall accredit persons for the purpose of conducting
inspections of in vitro clinical test developers and
other persons required to register pursuant to section
587I.
``(B) Lack of applications within 2-year
timeframe.--If no persons who meet the criteria for
such accreditation apply during the 2-year period
described in subparagraph (A), the Secretary--
``(i) may accredit persons under this
subparagraph after such period; and
``(ii) shall issue a public notice on the
website of the Food and Drug Administration
calling for applications for such
accreditation.
``(C) Effect of accreditation.--
``(i) In general.--Persons accredited under
subparagraph (A) to conduct inspections, when
conducting such inspections, shall record in
writing their specific observations and shall
present their observations to the designated
representative of the inspected establishment.
``(ii) Inspection report requirements.--
Each person accredited under this paragraph
shall prepare and submit to the Secretary an
inspection report in a form and manner
designated by the Secretary for conducting
inspections, taking into consideration the
goals of international harmonization of quality
systems standards. Any official classification
of the inspection shall be determined by the
Secretary. Any statement or representation made
by an employee or agent of an establishment to
a person accredited to conduct inspections
shall be subject to section 1001 of title 18,
United States Code.
``(D) Savings clause.--Nothing in this section
affects the authority of the Secretary to inspect any
in vitro clinical test developer or other person
registered under section 587I.
``(E) Inspection limitations.--The Secretary shall
ensure that inspections carried out under this section
are not duplicative of inspections carried out under
section 353 of the Public Health Service Act.
Inspections under this section shall be limited to the
data and information necessary--
``(i) for routine surveillance activities
associated with applications under sections
587B and 587D; or
``(ii) to meet the requirements to receive
premarket approval under section 587B or a
technology certification order under section
587D, as applicable.
``(b) Accreditation.--
``(1) Accreditation program.--
``(A) In general.--The Secretary may provide for
accreditation under this section through programs
administered by the Food and Drug Administration, by
other non-Federal government agencies, or by qualified
nongovernmental organizations. A person may be
accredited for the review of both applications
submitted under sections 587B and 587D as described in
subsection (a)(1)(A) and to conduct inspection
activities under subsection (a)(2)(A), or for a subset
of such review or activities.
``(B) Eligible persons.--Not later than 180 days
after the date of enactment of the Verifying Accurate
Leading-edge IVCT Development Act of 2021, the
Secretary shall issue draft guidance on the criteria
that the Secretary will use to accredit or deny
accreditation to a person who requests such
accreditation under subsection (a), and not later than
one year after the close of the comment period for the
draft guidance issued in this section, issue final
guidance.
``(C) Requirements.--
``(i) In general.--The Secretary shall not
accredit or maintain accreditation for a person
unless such person meets the minimum
qualifications required under subsection (c).
``(ii) Scope of accreditation.--The
accreditation of a person under this section
shall specify the particular activities under
subsection (a) for which such person is
accredited.
``(D) Public list.--The Secretary shall publish on
the website of the Food and Drug Administration a list
of persons who are accredited under this section. Such
list shall be updated on at least a monthly basis. The
list shall specify the particular activity or
activities under this section for which the person is
accredited.
``(2) Accreditation process.--
``(A) Accreditation process guidance.--The
Secretary shall--
``(i) not later than 180 days after the
date of enactment of the Verifying Accurate
Leading-edge IVCT Development Act of 2021,
issue draft guidance specifying the process for
submitting a request for each type of
accreditation and reaccreditation under this
section, including the form and content of
information to be submitted in such a request;
and
``(ii) not later than 1 year after the
close of the comment period for the draft
guidance, issue final guidance.
``(B) Response to request.--The Secretary shall
respond to a request for accreditation or
reaccreditation within 60 calendar days of the receipt
of the request. The Secretary's response may be to
accredit or reaccredit the person, to deny
accreditation, or to request additional information in
support of the request. If the Secretary requests
additional information, the Secretary shall respond
within 60 calendar days of receipt of such additional
information to accredit or deny the accreditation.
``(C) Type of accreditation.--The accreditation or
reaccreditation of a person shall specify the
particular activity or activities under subsection (a)
for which such person is accredited, and shall include
any limitation to certain eligible in vitro clinical
tests.
``(D) Audit.--The Secretary may audit the
performance of persons accredited under this section
for purposes of ensuring that such persons continue to
meet the published criteria for accreditation, and may
modify the scope or particular activities for which a
person is accredited if the Secretary determines that
such person fails to meet one or more criteria for
accreditation.
``(E) Suspension or withdrawal.--The Secretary may
suspend or withdraw accreditation of any person
accredited under this section, after providing notice
and an opportunity for an informal hearing, when such
person is substantially not in compliance with the
requirements of this section or the published criteria
for accreditation, or poses a threat to public health,
or fails to act in a manner that is consistent with the
purposes of this section.
``(F) Reaccreditation.--Accredited persons may be
initially accredited for up to 4 years. After
expiration of such initial period, persons may be
reaccredited for unlimited additional 4-year periods,
as determined by the Secretary.
``(c) Qualifications of Accredited Persons.--
``(1) Eligibility.--An accredited person, at a minimum,
shall--
``(A) not be an employee of the Federal Government;
``(B) not engage in the activities of a developer,
as defined in section 587(7);
``(C) not be a person required to register under
section 587I, unless such person has established
sufficient processes and protocols to separate
activities to develop in vitro clinical tests and the
activities for which such person would be accredited
under subsection (a) and discloses applicable
information under this section;
``(D) not be owned or controlled by, and shall have
no organizational, material or financial affiliation
with, an in vitro clinical test developer or other
person required to register under section 587I;
``(E) be a legally constituted entity permitted to
conduct the activities for which it seeks
accreditation;
``(F) ensure that the operations of such person are
in accordance with generally accepted professional and
ethical business practices; and
``(G) include in its request for accreditation a
commitment to, at the time of accreditation and at any
time it is performing activities pursuant to this
section--
``(i) certify that the information reported
to the Secretary accurately reflects the data
or protocol reviewed, and the documented
inspection findings, as applicable;
``(ii) limit work to that for which
competence and capacity are available;
``(iii) treat information received or
learned, records, reports, and recommendations
as proprietary information of the person
submitting such information; and
``(iv) in conducting the activities for
which the person is accredited in respect to a
particular in vitro clinical test, protect
against the use of any employee or consultant
who has a financial conflict of interest
regarding that in vitro clinical test.
``(2) Waiver.--The Secretary may waive any requirements in
subparagraph (A), (B), (C), or (D) of paragraph (1) upon making
a determination that such person has implemented other
appropriate controls sufficient to ensure a competent and
impartial review.
``(d) Compensation of Accredited Persons.--
``(1) In general.--Compensation of an accredited person who
reviews an application for premarket approval submitted under
section 587B or an application for technical certification
submitted under section 587D shall be determined by agreement
between the accredited person and the person who engages the
services of the accredited person, and shall be paid by the
person who engages such services.
``(2) Inspection accreditation.--Compensation of an
accredited person who is conducting an inspection under section
704 shall be determined by agreement between the accredited
person and the person who engages the services of the
accredited person, and shall be paid by the person who engages
such services.
``(e) Cooperative Agreements.--The Secretary is authorized to enter
into cooperative arrangements with officials of foreign countries to
ensure that adequate and effective means are available for purposes of
determining, from time to time, whether in vitro clinical tests
intended for use in the United States by a person whose facility is
located outside the United States shall be refused admission on any of
the grounds set forth in section 801(a).
``(f) Information Sharing Agreements.--An accredited person may
enter into an agreement with a test developer to provide information to
the comprehensive test information system under section 587T, including
any requirements under section 587I.
``SEC. 587Q. RECOGNIZED STANDARDS.
``(a) In General.--The Secretary may by order establish performance
standards for an in vitro clinical test or tests with the same
indication for use to provide reasonable assurance of the analytical
validity, clinical validity, or as applicable safety, of that in vitro
clinical test or tests with the same indications for use.
``(b) Other Standards.--The Secretary may recognize all or part of
appropriate standards established by nationally or internationally
recognized standard development organizations for which a person may
submit a declaration of conformity in order to meet a requirement under
this subchapter to which that standard is applicable. In recognizing a
standard, any person requesting recognition of a standard or seeking to
use a recognized standard, the Secretary shall follow the processes and
requirements, in accordance with section 514(c). Standards for in vitro
diagnostic devices previously recognized under section 514(c) shall be
considered recognized standards under this section. The application of
any such consensus standard shall only apply prospectively. The
Secretary shall issue guidance establishing the criteria and process
for such recognition and adoption.
``(c) Order Process.--In establishing a standard under subsection
(a), the Secretary shall issue a draft order proposing to establish a
standard and shall provide for a comment period of not less than 60
calendar days. The Secretary may seek the recommendation of an advisory
committee under section 587G concerning a proposed standard either
prior to or after issuance of a proposed order. After considering the
comments and within 90 days of the close of the comment period, the
Secretary shall issue a final order adopting the proposed standard,
adopting a modification of the proposed standard or terminating the
proceeding.
``(d) Amendment Process.--The procedures established in this
section or in guidance issued under this section shall apply to
amendment of an existing standard.
``SEC. 587R. INVESTIGATIONAL USE.
``(a) In General.--Except as provided in subsection (c), an in
vitro clinical test for investigational use shall be exempt from the
requirements of this subchapter other than sections 587A, 587O, and
587U.
``(b) Regulations.--Not later than 2 years after the date of
enactment of the Verifying Accurate Leading-edge IVCT Development Act
of 2021, the Secretary shall promulgate regulations to implement this
section.
``(c) Application for Investigational Use.--
``(1) In general.--The following shall apply with respect
to in vitro clinical tests for investigational use:
``(A) Streamlining applications submitted under
this section.--Requirements with respect to such tests
shall be completed in accordance with current, at the
time of submitting the application, investigational use
requirements for institutional review boards and
current processes for any analytical or clinical
validation.
``(B) Variation.--The requirements in the
regulations promulgated under this section shall take
into account variations based on--
``(i) the scope and duration of clinical
testing to be conducted under investigation
that is the subject of such application;
``(ii) the number of human subjects that
are to be involved in such testing;
``(iii) the need to permit changes to be
made in the in vitro clinical test involved
during testing conducted in accordance with a
plan required under paragraph (3)(B); or
``(iv) whether the clinical testing of such
in vitro clinical test is for the purpose of
developing data to obtain approval to offer
such test.
``(C) Significant risk studies.--In the case of an
in vitro clinical test the investigational use of which
poses a significant risk, a sponsor of an investigation
of such a test seeking an investigational use exemption
shall submit to the Secretary an investigational use
application with respect to the test in accordance with
paragraphs (2) and (3). For purposes of this
subparagraph, the term `significant risk' means, with
respect to an in vitro clinical test that is a high-
risk test, and that the use of the test--
``(i) is a use of substantial importance in
performing an activity or activities described
in subsection (ss)(1)(A) for, a serious or
life-threatening disease or condition without
confirmation of the diagnosis by a medically
established means;
``(ii) requires an invasive sampling
procedure that presents a significant risk to
the human subject; or
``(iii) otherwise presents a reasonably
foreseeable serious risk to the health of a
human subject.
``(D) Non-significant risk tests.--In the case of
an in vitro clinical test, the investigational use of
which does not pose a significant risk--
``(i) the sponsor of such investigation
shall--
``(I) conduct such investigation in
compliance with an investigational plan
specified in paragraph (5) and labeling
specified in paragraph (3)(A)(ii);
``(II) ensure each investigator
obtains informed consent under part 50
of title 21, Code of Federal
Regulations (or any successor
regulations), subject to the exceptions
set forth in paragraphs (5)(A)(iii) and
(5)(B);
``(III) submit a listing to the
Secretary of such investigation; and
``(IV) maintain records with
respect to all requirements in this
subparagraph; and
``(ii) the sponsor may rely on any
exception or exemption identified in paragraph
(5)(B) or as established by the Secretary in
regulations issued under subsection (b).
``(2) Application content.--An investigational use
application shall be submitted in such time and manner and
contain such information as the Secretary may require in
regulation, and shall include an investigational plan for
proposed clinical testing and assurances that the sponsor
submitting the application will--
``(A) establish and maintain records relevant to
the investigation of such in vitro clinical test; and
``(B) submit to the Secretary annual reports of
data obtained as a result of the investigational use of
the in vitro clinical test during the period covered by
the exemption that the Secretary reasonably determines
will enable the Secretary--
``(i) to ensure compliance with the
conditions for the exemption specified in
paragraph (3);
``(ii) to review the progress of the
investigation involved; and
``(iii) to evaluate the analytical validity
and clinical validity of such test.
``(3) Conditions for exemption.--
``(A) In general.--A request for an investigational
use exemption with respect to significant risk tests
shall be granted only if each of the following
conditions is met:
``(i) The risks to the subjects of the in
vitro clinical test are outweighed by the
anticipated benefits to the subjects and the
importance of the knowledge to be gained, and
adequate assurance of informed consent is
provided in accordance with paragraph
(5)(A)(iii).
``(ii) The proposed labeling for the in
vitro clinical test involved clearly and
conspicuously states `For investigational use'.
``(iii) Such other requirements the
Secretary determines to be necessary for the
protection of the public health and safety as
long as the requirements do not unduly delay
investigation after finding that the results of
such investigation establish sufficient data to
support clinical or analytical validity.
``(B) Certain significant risk in vitro clinical
tests for an unmet need.--As a condition for granting
an exemption under this paragraph, the Secretary shall
not impose a limit on the sample size for a significant
risk in vitro clinical test that meets the requirements
of section 587C, as long as such test is developed
within a laboratory that is certified to conduct high-
complexity testing under section 353 of the Public
Health Service Act.
``(4) Coordination with investigational new drug
applications.--Any requirement for the submission of a report
to the Secretary pursuant to a request for an investigational
new drug exemption involving an in vitro clinical test shall
supersede the reporting requirement in paragraph (2)(B), but
only to the extent the requirement with respect to the request
for exemption with respect to the drug is duplicative of the
reporting requirement under such paragraph.
``(5) Investigation plan requirements.--
``(A) In general.--With respect to an
investigational plan submitted under paragraph (2)(A),
the sponsor submitting such plan shall--
``(i) in the case of such a plan submitted
to an institutional review committee, promptly
notify the Secretary of the approval or the
suspension or termination of the approval of
such plan by an institutional review committee;
``(ii) in the case of an in vitro clinical
test made available to investigators for
clinical testing, assurance that all
investigators will comply with this section,
regulations promulgated or revised under this
section, and applicable human subjects
regulations; and
``(iii) submit an assurance to the
Secretary that informed consent will be
obtained from each human subject (or the
representative of such subject) of proposed
clinical testing involving such in vitro
clinical test, except in the case that--
``(I) there is a life-threatening
situation involving the human subject
of such testing which necessitates the
use of such in vitro clinical test;
``(II) it is not feasible to obtain
informed consent from the subject; and
``(III) there is not sufficient
time to obtain such consent from a
representative of such subject.
``(B) Exception.--The informed consent of human
subjects shall not be required with respect to clinical
testing conducted as part of an investigation, if--
``(i) the clinical testing uses remnants of
specimens collected for routine clinical care
or analysis that would have been discarded,
leftover specimens that were previously
collected for other research purposes, or
specimens obtained from specimen repositories;
``(ii) the identity of the subject of the
specimen is not known to, and may not readily
be ascertained by, the investigator or any
other individual associated with the
investigation, including the sponsor;
``(iii) any clinical information that
accompanies the specimens does not make the
specimen source identifiable to the
investigator or any other individual associated
with the investigation, including the sponsor;
``(iv) the individuals caring for the human
subjects as patients are different from, and do
not share information about the patient with,
the individuals conducting the investigation;
and
``(v) the specimens are provided to the
investigators without personally identifiable
information and the supplier of the specimens
has established policies and procedures to
prevent the release of personally identifiable
information.
``(d) Review of Applications.--
``(1) In general.--The Secretary may issue an order
approving an investigation as proposed, approving it with
conditions or modifications, or disapproving it.
``(2) Failure to act.--Unless the Secretary, not later than
the date that is 30 calendar days after the date of the
submission of an investigational use exemption request that
meets the requirements of subsection (c)(2), issues an order
under subsection (d)(1) and notifies the sponsor submitting the
application, the request shall be treated as granted as of such
date without further action by the Secretary.
``(3) Disapproval.--The Secretary may deny an
investigational use request submitted under this subsection if
the Secretary determines that the investigation with respect to
which the request is submitted does not conform to the
requirements of subsection (c)(3). A listing of such denial
submitted to the sponsor with respect to such a request shall
contain the order of disapproval and a complete statement of
the reasons for the Secretary's denial of the request.
``(e) Withdrawal of Approval.--
``(1) In general.--The Secretary may, by administrative
order, withdraw an exemption granted under this section with
respect to an in vitro clinical test, including an exemption
granted based on the Secretary's failure to act pursuant to
subsection (d)(2), if the Secretary determines that the test
does not meet the applicable conditions under subsection (c)(3)
for such exemption.
``(2) Opportunity to be heard.--
``(A) In general.--Subject to subparagraph (B), an
order withdrawing the exemption granted under this
section may be issued only after the Secretary provides
the applicant or sponsor of the test with an
opportunity for an informal hearing.
``(B) Exception.--An order referred to in
subparagraph (A) with respect to an exemption granted
under this subsection may be issued on a preliminary
basis before the provision of an opportunity for an
informal hearing if the Secretary determines that the
continuation of testing under the exemption will result
in an unreasonable risk to the public health. The
Secretary will provide an opportunity for an informal
hearing promptly following any preliminary action under
this subparagraph.
``(f) Changes.--
``(1) In general.--The regulations promulgated under
subsection (b) shall provide, with respect to an in vitro
clinical test for which an exemption under this subsection is
in effect, procedures and conditions under which the changes to
the test are allowed without the additional determination on a
request for an exemption or submission of a supplement to such
a request. Such regulations shall provide that such a change
may be made if--
``(A) the sponsor or applicant determines, on the
basis of credible information (as defined by the
Secretary) that the change meets the conditions
specified in paragraph (2); and
``(B) the sponsor or applicant submits to the
Secretary, not later than 5 calendar days after making
the change, a notice of the change.
``(2) Conditions.--The conditions specified in this
paragraph are that--
``(A) in the case of developmental changes to an in
vitro clinical test (including manufacturing changes),
the changes--
``(i) do not constitute a significant
change in design or in basic principles of
operation;
``(ii) do not affect the rights, safety, or
welfare of the human subjects (if any) involved
in the investigation; and
``(iii) are made in response to information
gathered during the course of an investigation;
and
``(B) in the case of changes to clinical protocols
applicable to the test, the changes do not affect--
``(i) the validity of data or information
resulting from the completion of an approved
clinical protocol;
``(ii) the scientific soundness of a plan
submitted under subsection (c)(5); or
``(iii) the rights, safety, or welfare of
the human subjects (if any) involved in the
investigation.
``(g) Clinical Hold.--
``(1) In general.--At any time, the Secretary may impose a
clinical hold with respect to an investigation of an in vitro
clinical test if the Secretary makes a determination described
in paragraph (2). The Secretary shall, in imposing such
clinical hold, specify the basis for the clinical hold,
including the specific information available to the Secretary
which served as the basis for such clinical hold, and confirm
such determination in writing. The applicant or sponsor may
immediately appeal any such determination pursuant to section
587O.
``(2) Determination.--For purposes of paragraph (1), a
determination described in this subparagraph with respect to a
clinical hold is a determination that--
``(A) the in vitro clinical test involved
represents an unreasonable risk to the safety of the
persons who are the subjects of the clinical
investigation, taking into account the qualifications
of the clinical investigators, information about the in
vitro clinical test, the design of the clinical
investigation, the condition for which the in vitro
clinical test is to be investigated, and the health
status of the subjects involved;
``(B) the clinical hold should be issued for such
other reasons as the Secretary may by regulation
establish; or
``(C) any written request to the Secretary from the
sponsor of an investigation that a clinical hold be
removed shall receive a decision, in writing and
specifying the reasons therefor, within 30 days after
receipt of such request. Any such request shall include
sufficient information to support the removal of such
clinical hold.
``SEC. 587S. COLLABORATIVE COMMUNITIES FOR IN VITRO CLINICAL TESTS.
``(a) In General.--
``(1) For the purposes of facilitating community solutions
and decision making with respect to in vitro clinical tests,
the Secretary may participate in collaborative communities
comprised of public and private participants that may provide
recommendations and other advice to the Secretary on the
development and regulation of in vitro clinical tests.
``(2) A collaborative community under this section shall
have broad representation of interested private and public-
sector stakeholder communities and may include patients, care
partners, academics, health care professionals, health care
systems, payors, Federal and State agencies, entities
responsible for accrediting clinical laboratories,
international regulatory bodies, test developers, or other
interested entities or communities.
``(b) Guidance.--The Secretary shall issue a draft guidance not
later than 180 days after the date of enactment of the Verifying
Accurate Leading-edge IVCT Development Act of 2021, addressing the
participation process and framework to build consensus, and how the
Secretary may consider, review, and implement recommendations under
subsection (c).
``(c) Recommendations.--A collaborative community for in vitro
clinical tests may make recommendations to the Secretary on matters
including--
``(1) mitigating measures for in vitro clinical tests;
``(2) standards development activities and performance
standards for in vitro clinical tests or groups of such tests;
``(3) scientific and clinical evidence to support new
claims for in vitro clinical tests;
``(4) new technologies and methodologies related to in
vitro clinical tests;
``(5) stakeholder communication and engagement; and
``(6) development of effective policies and processes,
including to develop tests, and to regulate such tests in
accordance with least burdensome requirements described in
section 587B(j).
``(d) Use by Secretary.--
``(1) In general.--The Secretary may adopt recommendations
made under subsection (b), or otherwise incorporate the
feedback from collaborative communities into regulatory
decision making, through rulemaking or guidance, as
appropriate.
``(2) Clarification.--The Secretary is not required to
adopt recommendations submitted by collaborative communities.
``(e) Transparency.--The Secretary shall--
``(1) publish on the website of the Food and Drug
Administration matters for which it is seeking comments or
recommendations, in a timely manner;
``(2) maintain a list of all collaborative communities in
which the Secretary participates and make such list available
on the website of the Food and Drug Administration; and
``(3) post on the website of the Food and Drug
Administration at least once every year a report on the
recommendations it has adopted and recommendations it has not
adopted from collaborative communities.
``(f) Participation.--The Secretary may participate in a
collaborative community only if such community requires members to
disclose conflicts of interest and has established a process to address
conflicts of interest.
``(g) Exemption.--The collaborative communities established and
used in accordance with this section shall be exempt from the Federal
Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. App.).
``SEC. 587T. COMPREHENSIVE TEST INFORMATION SYSTEM.
``(a) Purpose.--For the purposes of improving the transparency of
information on in vitro clinical tests and allowing patients and health
care providers better access to information about in vitro clinical
tests, the Secretary shall establish a comprehensive test information
system.
``(b) Establishment.--Not later than 2 years after the date of
enactment of the Verifying Accurate Leading-edge IVCT Development Act
of 2021, the Secretary shall make available a comprehensive test
information system for in vitro clinical tests that is designed to--
``(1) provide a transparent interface on the website of the
Food and Drug Administration for stakeholders, to the extent
permitted by applicable law, to access the--
``(A) regulatory pathway designation information
for each in vitro clinical test or tests with the same
indications for use;
``(B) registration and listing information provided
by developers under section 587I, including the use of
a link for labels;
``(C) adverse event reports submitted under section
587L;
``(D) reports of corrections and removals submitted
under section 587M; and
``(E) other information pertaining to an in vitro
clinical test or tests with the same indications for
use, as the Secretary determines appropriate; and
``(2) provide a secure portal for electronic submission,
including applications and other in vitro clinical test
submissions, registration and listing information, and adverse
event reports.
``(c) Submission Function.--The comprehensive test information
system shall serve as the electronic submission service for test
developers submitting information for applications under sections 587B
and 587D.
``SEC. 587U. PREEMPTION.
``(a) In General.--No State, Tribal, or local government (or
political subdivision thereof) may establish or continue in effect any
requirement related to the development, manufacture, labeling,
distribution, sale, or use of an in vitro clinical test that is
different from, or in addition to, the requirements of this subchapter.
``(b) Exceptions.--Subsection (a) shall not be construed to affect
the authority of a State, Tribal, or local government--
``(1) to license laboratory personnel, health care
practitioners, or health care facilities or to regulate any
aspect of a health care practitioner-patient relationship; or
``(2) to enforce laws of general applicability, such as
zoning laws, environmental laws, labor laws, and general
business laws.
``(c) Clarification.--This section shall not be construed to shift
liability to health care practitioners or other users.
``SEC. 587V. ADULTERATION.
``An in vitro clinical test shall be deemed to be adulterated:
``(1) If it consists in whole or in part of any filthy,
putrid, or decomposed substance.
``(2) If it has been developed, prepared, packed, or held
under insanitary conditions whereby it may have been
contaminated with filth, or whereby it may have been rendered
injurious to health.
``(3) If its container or package is composed, in whole or
in part, of any poisonous or deleterious substance which may
render the contents injurious to health.
``(4) If it bears or contains, for purposes of coloring
only, a color additive which is unsafe within the meaning of
section 721(a).
``(5) If its analytical or clinical validity, or with
respect to a specimen receptacle, its safety, or its strength,
purity, or quality, differs from or falls below that which it
purports or is represented to possess.
``(6) If it is required to be, declared to be, purports to
be, or is represented as being, in conformity with any
performance standard established or recognized under section
587Q and is not in all respects in conformity with such
standard.
``(7) If it is required to be in conformity with a
mitigating measure established under section 587E and is not in
all respects in conformity with such mitigating measure.
``(8) If it fails to have an approved premarket application
under section 587B unless such in vitro clinical test can be
lawfully offered--
``(A) for clinical use pursuant to an exemption
under section 587A;
``(B) for emergency use pursuant to an
authorization under section 564; or
``(C) for investigational use pursuant to section
587R.
``(9) If it is not in conformity with any condition
established under section 587B, 587D, or 564.
``(10) If it purports to be an in vitro clinical test that
is offered for clinical use subject to an exemption under
section 587A and it fails to meet or maintain any criteria,
condition, or requirement of such exemption.
``(11) If it has been granted an exemption under section
587R for investigational use, and the person granted such
exemption or any investigator who uses such in vitro clinical
test under such exemption fails to comply with a requirement
prescribed by or under such section.
``(12) If it fails to meet the quality requirements
prescribed in or established under section 587J (as
applicable), or the methods used in, or facilities or controls
used for, its development, manufacture, packing, storage, or
installation are not in conformity with applicable requirements
established under such section.
``(13) If it has been developed, manufactured, processed,
packed or held in any establishment, factory, or warehouse and
the owner, operator or agent of such establishment, factory, or
warehouse delays, denies, or limits an inspection, or refuses
to permit entry or inspection.
``(14) If it is not in compliance with any restriction
required under section 587N.
``SEC. 587W. MISBRANDING.
``An in vitro clinical test shall be deemed to be misbranded:
``(1) If its labeling is false or misleading in any
particular.
``(2) If in a package form unless it bears a label
containing--
``(A) the name and place of business of the test
developer, manufacturer, packer, or distributor; and
``(B) an accurate statement of the quantity of
contents in terms of weight, measure, or numerical
count with respect to small packages, unless an
exemption is granted by the Secretary by the issuance
of guidance.
``(3) If any word, statement, or other information required
by or under authority of this Act to appear on the label or
labeling, including a test report, is not prominently placed
thereon with such conspicuousness (as compared with other
words, statements, designs, or devices, in the labeling) and in
such terms as to render it likely to be read and understood by
the ordinary individual under customary conditions of purchase
and use.
``(4) Unless its labeling bears adequate directions for use
and such adequate warnings as are necessary for the protection
of users of the in vitro clinical test and recipients of the
results of such in vitro clinical test, including patients,
consumers, donors, and related health care professionals.
Required labeling for in vitro clinical tests intended for use
in health care facilities or by a health care professional may
be made available solely by electronic means, provided that the
labeling complies with all applicable requirements of law, and
that the test developer, manufacturer, or distributor affords
such users the opportunity to request the labeling in paper
form, and after such request, promptly provides the requested
information without additional cost.
``(5) If it causes serious or adverse health consequences
or death, including through absence, delay, or discontinuation
in diagnosis or treatment, when used in the manner prescribed,
recommended, or suggested in the labeling thereof.
``(6) If it was developed or manufactured in an
establishment not duly registered under section 587I or it was
not included in a listing under section 587I, in accordance
with timely reporting requirements under this subchapter.
``(7) In the case of any in vitro clinical test subject to
restrictions under section 587N, (1) if its advertising is
false or misleading in any particular, (2) if it is offered for
clinical use, sold, distributed, or used in violation of such
restrictions, or (3) unless the test developer, manufacturer,
or distributor includes in all advertisements and other
descriptive printed matter that such person issues or causes to
be issued, a brief statement of the intended uses of the in
vitro clinical test and relevant warnings, precautions, side
effects, and contraindications. This subsection shall not be
applicable to any printed matter that the Secretary determines
to be labeling as defined in section 201(m) or section 587K.
``(8) If it was subject to a mitigating measure established
under section 587E, unless it bears such labeling as may be
prescribed in such mitigating measure.
``(9) If it was subject to a standard established under
section 587Q, unless it bears such labeling as may be
prescribed in such standard.
``(10) Unless it bears such labeling as may be prescribed
by or established under an applicable labeling requirement
under this Act.
``(11) If there was a failure or refusal to comply with any
requirement prescribed under section 587I or 587X, or to comply
with a requirement under section 587Y, or to provide any
report, material, or information required under this
subchapter.
``SEC. 587X. POSTMARKET SURVEILLANCE.
``(a) In General.--
``(1) In general.--In addition to other applicable
requirements under this Act, the Secretary may issue an order
requiring a developer to conduct postmarket surveillance of a
single in vitro clinical test as a condition of approval under
section 587B.
``(2) Exempt tests.--The Secretary may order postmarket
surveillance for tests exempt pursuant to section 587A for
which the failure of the in vitro clinical test to meet the
applicable standard for approval is likely to result in serious
or adverse health consequences or death from use of the single
in vitro clinical test.
``(3) Consideration.--In determining whether to require a
developer to conduct postmarket surveillance of an in vitro
clinical test, the Secretary shall take into consideration the
benefits and risks for the patient and the least burdensome
principles under section 587B.
``(b) Surveillance Approval.--
``(1) Each developer required to conduct a surveillance of
an in vitro clinical test shall submit, within 30 days of
receiving an order from the Secretary, a plan for the required
surveillance. The Secretary, within 60 days of the receipt of
such plan, shall determine if the person designated to conduct
the surveillance has the appropriate qualifications and
experience to undertake such surveillance and if the plan will
result in useful data that can reveal unforeseen adverse events
or other information necessary to protect the health of
patients or the public.
``(2) The developer shall commence surveillance under this
section not later than 15 months after the day on which the
Secretary orders such postmarket surveillance, unless the
Secretary determines more time is needed to commence
surveillance.
``(3) The Secretary may order a prospective surveillance
period of up to 3 years. Any determination by the Secretary
that a longer period is necessary shall be made by mutual
agreement between the Secretary and the manufacturer or, if no
agreement can be reached, after the completion of a dispute
resolution process.
``SEC. 587Y. ELECTRONIC FORMAT FOR SUBMISSIONS.
``(a) In General.--All presubmissions and submissions to the Food
and Drug Administration with respect to an in vitro clinical test shall
include an electronic copy of such presubmission or submission, and,
with respect to the information required under sections 587B and 587D,
shall utilize the system described in section 587T.
``(b) Electronic Format.--Beginning on such date as the Secretary
specifies in final guidance issued under subsection (c), presubmissions
and submissions for in vitro clinical tests (and any appeals of action
taken by the Secretary with respect to such presubmissions and
submissions) shall be submitted solely in such electronic format as
specified by the Secretary in such guidance.
``(c) Guidance.--The Secretary shall issue guidance implementing
this section. In such guidance, the Secretary may--
``(1) provide standards for the electronic copy required
under subsection (a) or the submission in electronic format
required under subsection (b);
``(2) set forth criteria for waivers of or exemptions from
the requirements of subsection (a) or (b); and
``(3) provide any other information for the efficient
implementation and enforcement of this section.
``SEC. 587Z. POSTMARKET REMEDIES.
``(a) Safety Notice.--
``(1) In general.--If the Secretary determines that an in
vitro clinical test presents an unreasonable risk of
substantial harm to the public health, and notification under
this subsection is necessary to eliminate the unreasonable risk
of such harm and no more practicable means is available under
the provisions of this Act (other than this section) to
eliminate the risk, the Secretary may issue such order as may
be necessary to ensure that adequate safety notice is provided
in an appropriate form, by the persons and means best suited
under the circumstances, to all health care professionals who
prescribe, order, or use the in vitro clinical test and to any
other person (including developers, manufacturers, importers,
distributors, retailers, and users) who should properly receive
such notice.
``(2) Notice to individuals.--An order under this
subsection shall require that the individuals subject to the
risk with respect to which the order is to be issued be
included in the persons to be notified of the risk unless the
Secretary determines that notice to such individuals would
present a greater danger to the health of such individuals than
no such notice. If the Secretary makes such a determination
with respect to such individuals, the order shall advise the
health care professionals who prescribed, ordered, or used the
in vitro clinical test provide notification to the individuals
for whom the health professionals prescribed, ordered, or used
such test, of the risk presented by such in vitro clinical test
and of any action which may be taken by or on behalf of such
individuals to eliminate or reduce such risk. Before issuing an
order under this subsection, the Secretary shall consult with
the persons required to give notice under the order.
``(b) Repair, Replacement, or Refund.--
``(1) Determination after an informal hearing.--
``(A) In general.--If, after affording opportunity
for an informal hearing, the Secretary determines
that--
``(i) an in vitro clinical test presents an
unreasonable risk of substantial harm to the
public health;
``(ii) there are reasonable grounds to
believe that the in vitro clinical test was not
properly developed or manufactured considering
the state of the art as it existed at the time
of its development or manufacture;
``(iii) there are reasonable grounds to
believe that the unreasonable risk was not
caused by failure of a person other than a
developer, manufacturer, importer, distributor,
or retailer of the in vitro clinical test to
exercise due care in the installation,
maintenance, repair, or use of the in vitro
clinical test; and
``(iv) the notice authorized by subsection
(a) would not by itself be sufficient to
eliminate the unreasonable risk and action
described in paragraph (2) of this subsection
is necessary to eliminate such risk,
the Secretary may order the developer, manufacturer,
importer, or any distributor of such in vitro clinical
test, or any combination of such persons, to submit to
him within a reasonable time a plan for taking one or
more of the actions described in paragraph (2). An
order issued under the preceding sentence which is
directed to more than one person shall specify which
person may decide which action shall be taken under
such plan and the person specified shall be the person
who the Secretary determines bears the principal,
ultimate financial responsibility for action taken
under the plan unless the Secretary cannot determine
who bears such responsibility or the Secretary
determines that the protection of the public health
requires that such decision be made by a person
(including a health professional or user of the in
vitro clinical test) other than the person the
Secretary determines bears such responsibility.
``(B) Secretary approval of plan.--Within 30
calendar days of issuing an order under subparagraph
(A), the Secretary shall approve a plan submitted
pursuant to an order issued under subparagraph (A)
unless the Secretary determines (after affording
opportunity for an informal hearing) that the action or
actions to be taken under the plan or the manner in
which such action or actions are to be taken under the
plan will not assure that the unreasonable risk with
respect to which such order was issued will be
eliminated. If the Secretary disapproves a plan, the
Secretary shall order a revised plan to be submitted
within a reasonable time. If the Secretary determines
(after affording opportunity for an informal hearing)
that the revised plan is unsatisfactory or if no
revised plan or no initial plan has been submitted to
the Secretary within the prescribed time, the Secretary
shall (i) prescribe a plan to be carried out by the
person or persons to whom the order issued under
subparagraph (A) was directed, or (ii) after affording
an opportunity for an informal hearing, by order
prescribe a plan to be carried out by a person who is a
manufacturer, importer, distributor, or retailer of the
in vitro clinical test with respect to which the order
was issued but to whom the order under subparagraph (A)
was not directed.
``(2) Actions on a plan.--The actions which may be taken
under a plan submitted under an order issued under paragraph
(1) are as follows:
``(A) To repair the in vitro clinical test so that
it does not present the unreasonable risk of
substantial harm with respect to which the order under
paragraph (1)(A) was issued.
``(B) To replace the in vitro clinical test with a
like or equivalent test which is in conformity with all
applicable requirements of this Act.
``(C) To refund the purchase price of the in vitro
clinical test (less a reasonable allowance for use if
such in vitro clinical test has been in the possession
of the user for one year or more at the time of notice
ordered under subsection (a), or at the time the user
receives actual notice of the unreasonable risk with
respect to which the order was issued under paragraph
(1)(A), whichever occurs first).
``(3) No charge.--No charge shall be made to any person
(other than a developer, manufacturer, importer, distributor or
retailer) for using a remedy described in paragraph (2) and
provided under an order issued under paragraph (1), and the
person subject to the order shall reimburse each person (other
than a developer, manufacturer, importer, distributor, or
retailer) who is entitled to such a remedy for any reasonable
and foreseeable expenses actually incurred by such person in
availing himself of such remedy.
``(c) Reimbursement.--An order issued under subsection (b)(1)(A)
with respect to an in vitro clinical test may require any person who is
a developer, manufacturer, importer, distributor, or retailer of the in
vitro clinical test to reimburse any other person who is a developer,
manufacturer, importer, distributor, or retailer of such in vitro
clinical test for such other person's expenses actually incurred in
connection with carrying out the order if the Secretary determines such
reimbursement is required for the protection of the public health. Any
such requirement shall not affect any rights or obligations under any
contract to which the person receiving reimbursement or the person
making such reimbursement is a party.
``(d) Recall Authority.--
``(1) In general.--If the Secretary finds that there is a
reasonable probability that an in vitro clinical test approved
under section 587B would cause serious, adverse health
consequences or death, including by the absence, delay, or
discontinuation of appropriate medical treatment, the Secretary
shall issue an order requiring the appropriate person
(including the developers, manufacturers, importers,
distributors, or retailers of the in vitro clinical test)--
``(A) to immediately cease distribution of such in
vitro clinical test; and
``(B) to immediately notify health professionals
and user facilities of the order and to instruct such
professionals and facilities to cease use of such in
vitro clinical test.
``(2) Informal hearing.--The order issued under paragraph
(1)(A), shall provide the person subject to the order with an
opportunity for an informal hearing, to be held not later than
10 calendar days after the date of the issuance of the order,
on the actions required by the order and on whether the order
should be amended to require a recall of such in vitro clinical
test. If, after providing an opportunity for such a hearing,
the Secretary determines that inadequate grounds exist to
support the actions required by the order, the Secretary shall
vacate the order.
``(3) Amended order.--
``(A) In general.--If, after providing an
opportunity for an informal hearing under paragraph
(2), the Secretary determines that the order should be
amended to include a recall of the in vitro clinical
test with respect to which the order was issued, the
Secretary shall, except as provided in subparagraph
(B), amend the order to require a recall. The Secretary
shall specify a timetable in which the recall will
occur and shall require periodic reports describing the
progress of the recall.
``(B) Requirements.--An amended order under
subparagraph (A)--
``(i) shall not include recall of the in
vitro clinical test from individuals;
``(ii) shall not include recall of an in
vitro clinical test from test user facilities
if the Secretary determines that the risk of
recalling such in vitro clinical test from the
facilities presents a greater health risk than
the health risk of not recalling the in vitro
clinical test from use; and
``(iii) shall provide for notice to
individuals subject to the risks associated
with the use of such in vitro clinical test. In
providing the notice required by this clause,
the Secretary may use the assistance of health
professionals who prescribed, ordered, or used
such an in vitro clinical test for individuals.
``(4) Clarification.--The remedy provided by this
subsection shall be in addition to remedies provided by
subsections (b) and (c).''.
SEC. 4. ENFORCEMENT AND OTHER PROVISIONS.
(a) Prohibited Acts.--Section 301 of the Federal Food, Drug, and
Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 331) is amended--
(1) in paragraphs (a), (b), (c), (g), (k), (q), (r), and
(y), by inserting ``in vitro clinical test,'' after ``device,''
each place it appears;
(2) in paragraph (y) by inserting ``or 587P'' after
``section 523'' each place it appears; and
(3) by adding at the end, the following:
``(fff)(1) The introduction or delivery for introduction into
interstate commerce of an in vitro clinical test in violation of
section 587B(a).
``(2) The false, fraudulent, or deceptive claiming for an in vitro
clinical test of an exemption from the premarket review required under
section 587B.
``(3) When claiming an exemption under section 587A from the
premarket review required under section 587B, the failure to maintain
complete and accurate documentation for the exemption as required under
section 587A or the failure to provide labeling required under section
587A.
``(4) With respect to an in vitro clinical test, the submission of
any report that is required by or under this Act that is false or
misleading in any material respect.
``(5) The making of a false, fraudulent, or materially deceptive
analytical or clinical claim for an in vitro clinical test--
``(A) in any application, report, or notification submitted
to the Secretary under this Act; or
``(B) in the labeling or advertising of an in vitro
clinical test.
``(6) The failure to comply with a condition of approval,
performance standard, mitigating measure, or restriction established in
an order approving an application or supplement under section 587B; the
failure to perform a risk analysis required by section 587B; the
failure to submit an annual report required under section 587B(k); or
the failure to complete postmarket studies required under section 587V.
``(7) The marketing of an in vitro clinical test in violation of--
``(A) an order issued by the Secretary under section 587A;
or
``(B) any requirement under section 587A.
``(8) With respect to technology certification under section 587D,
the refusal to permit, or unreasonable delay in permitting, an
inspection authorized under section 587D(f)(3)(G); the failure to
comply with applicable requirements to submit an application or report
under section 587D(e); or the failure to comply with applicable
maintenance requirements under section 587D(h).
``(9) The failure to comply with an applicable mitigating measure
established under section 587E or to maintain the documentation
required under section 587E(b); or the failure to comply with a
performance standard established under section 587Q.
``(10) The failure to register in accordance with section 587I, the
failure to provide information required under section 587I(b), or the
failure to maintain or submit information required under section
587I(c).
``(11) The failure to submit a report required under section 587L
or 587M; the failure to comply with a restriction imposed under section
587N; or the failure to comply with labeling and advertising
requirements under section 587N(b).
``(12) The failure to comply with the requirements of section 587P
(relating to accredited persons).
``(13) The failure to comply with any requirement prescribed or
established under section 587R; the failure to furnish any
notification, information, material, or report required under section
587R; or the failure to comply with an order issued under section
587R.''.
(b) Penalties.--Section 303(f)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and
Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 333(f)(1)) is amended--
(1) in subparagraph (A), by inserting ``or in vitro
clinical tests'' after ``devices''; and
(2) in subparagraph (B)(i)--
(A) by inserting ``, or 587J or 587L,'' after
``520(f)''; and
(B) by inserting ``, or who violates section
587M(b) with respect to a correction report'' after
``risk to public health''.
(c) Seizure.--Section 304 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic
Act (21 U.S.C. 334) is amended--
(1) in subsection (a)(2)--
(A) by striking ``and'' before ``(E) Any''; and
(B) by inserting ``, and (F) Any adulterated or
misbranded in vitro clinical test'' after ``tobacco
product'';
(2) in subsection (d)(1), by inserting ``in vitro clinical
test,'' after ``device,''; and
(3) in subsection (g)--
(A) in paragraph (1), by inserting ``, in vitro
clinical test,'' after ``device'' each place it
appears; and
(B) in paragraph (2)--
(i) in subparagraph (A), by inserting ``,
in vitro clinical test,'' after ``device''; and
(ii) in subparagraph (B), by inserting ``or
in vitro clinical test'' after ``device'' each
place it appears.
(d) Debarment, Temporary Denial of Approval, and Suspension.--
Section 306 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C.
335a) is amended by adding at the end the following:
``(n) In Vitro Clinical Tests; Mandatory Debarment Regarding Third-
Party Inspections and Reviews.--
``(1) In general.--If the Secretary finds that a person has
been convicted of a felony under section 301(gg), 301(fff)(2),
301(fff)(5), or 301(fff)(8), the Secretary shall debar such
person from being accredited under section 587P and from
carrying out activities under an agreement described in section
803(b).
``(2) Debarment period.--The Secretary shall debar a person
under paragraph (1) for the following periods:
``(A) The period of debarment of a person (other
than an individual) shall not be less than 1 year or
more than 10 years, but if an act leading to a
subsequent debarment under such paragraph occurs within
10 years after such person has been debarred under such
paragraph, the period of debarment shall be permanent.
``(B) The debarment of an individual shall be
permanent.
``(3) Termination of debarment; judicial review; other
matters.--Subsections (c)(3), (d), (e), (i), (j), and (l)(1)
apply with respect to a person (other than an individual) or an
individual who is debarred under paragraph (1) to the same
extent and in the same manner as such subsections apply with
respect to a person who is debarred under subsection (a)(1), or
an individual who is debarred under subsection (a)(2),
respectively.''.
(e) Judicial Review.--Section 517(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and
Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360g(a)) is amended--
(1) in paragraph (8), by striking ``or'' at the end;
(2) in paragraph (9), by inserting ``or'' after the comma
at the end; and
(3) before the matter that follows paragraph (9), by
inserting the following:
``(10) an order issued pursuant to section 587B, 587D,
587R, or 587S,''.
(f) Expanded Access to Unapproved Therapies and Diagnostics.--
Section 561 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C.
360bbb) is amended--
(1) in subsections (a) through (d)--
(A) by striking ``or investigational devices'' each
place it appears and inserting ``, investigational
devices, or investigational in vitro clinical tests'';
and
(B) by striking ``or investigational device'' each
place it appears (other than the second such place in
paragraph (3)(A)) and inserting ``, investigational
device, or investigational in vitro clinical test'';
(2) in subsection (b)(4) by striking ``or 520(g)'' and
inserting ``, 520(g), or 587R'' each place it appears;
(3) in subsection (c)--
(A) by amending the subsection heading to read:
``Treatment Investigational New Drug Applications,
Treatment Investigational Device Exemptions, and
Treatment Investigational in Vitro Clinical Test
Exemptions'';
(B) in paragraph (3)(A), by striking ``or
investigational device exemption in effect under
section 520(g)'' and inserting ``, investigational
device exemption in effect under section 520(g), or
investigational in vitro clinical test exemption under
section 587R'';
(C) by striking ``or treatment investigational
device exemption'' each place it appears and inserting
``, treatment investigational device exemption, or
treatment investigational in vitro clinical test
exemption''; and
(D) in the matter following paragraph (7) by
striking ``or 520(g)'' each place it appears and
inserting ``, 520(g) or 587R''; and
(4) by amending subsection (e) to read as follows:
``(e) Definitions.--In this section, the terms `investigational
drug', `investigational device', `investigational in vitro clinical
test', `treatment investigational new drug application', `treatment
investigational device exemption', and `treatment investigational in
vitro clinical test exemption' shall have the meanings given the terms
in regulations prescribed by the Secretary.''.
(g) Optimizing Global Clinical Trials.--Section 569A(b) of the
Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360bbb-8a(b)) is
amended by inserting ``an in vitro clinical test, as defined in
subsection (ss) of such section,'' before ``or a biological product''.
(h) Patient Participation in Medical Product Discussion.--The
heading of subsection (a) of section 569C of the Federal Food, Drug,
and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360bbb-8c) is amended by striking ``Drugs
and Devices'' and inserting ``Drugs, Devices, and In Vitro Clinical
Tests''.
(i) Regulations and Hearings.--Section 701(h)(1)(C)(ii) of the
Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 371(h)(1)(C)(ii)) is
amended by inserting ``and in vitro clinical tests'' after ``devices''.
(j) Factory Inspection.--Section 704 of the Federal Food, Drug, and
Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 374) (other than subsection (g)) is amended--
(1) by striking ``drugs or devices'' each place it appears
and inserting ``drugs, devices, or in vitro clinical tests'';
(2) in subsection (a)(1), in the third sentence, by
striking ``or chapter IX'' and inserting ``section 587R or
chapter IX'';
(3) in subsection (a)(2)(B)--
(A) by inserting ``or in vitro clinical tests''
after ``prescribe or use devices''; and
(B) by inserting ``or in vitro clinical tests''
after ``process devices'';
(4) by inserting ``in vitro clinical test,'' after
``device,'' each place it appears;
(5) after making the amendments in paragraphs (1) and (2),
by inserting ``in vitro clinical tests,'' after ``devices,''
each place it appears;
(6) in subsection (e), by inserting ``, or section 587L,
587M, or 587R,'' after ``section 519 or 520(g)''; and
(7) in subsection (f)(3)--
(A) in subparagraph (A), by striking ``or'' at the
end;
(B) in subparagraph (B), by striking the period at
the end and inserting ``; or''; and
(C) after subparagraph (B), by inserting the
following:
``(C) is accredited under section 587P.''.
(k) Publicity.--Section 705(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and
Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 375(b)) is amended by inserting ``in vitro
clinical tests,'' after ``devices,''.
(l) Presumption.--Section 709 of the Federal Food, Drug, and
Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 379a) is amended by inserting ``in vitro
clinical test,'' after ``device,''.
(m) Imports and Exports.--Section 801 of the Federal Food, Drug,
and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 381) is amended--
(1) in subsection (a)--
(A) by inserting ``in vitro clinical tests,'' after
``devices,'' each place it appears; and
(B) by inserting ``in the case of an in vitro
clinical test, the test does not conform to the
applicable requirements of section 587J, or'' after
``requirements of section 520(f), or'';
(2) in subsection (d)(3)--
(A) in subparagraph (A)--
(i) in the matter preceding clause (i), by
inserting ``and no component of an in vitro
clinical test or other article of in vitro
clinical test that requires further
processing,'' after ``health-related
purposes'';
(ii) in clause (i), by striking ``drug or
device'' and inserting ``drug, device, or in
vitro clinical test''; and
(iii) in clause (i)(I), by inserting ``in
vitro clinical test,'' after ``device,''; and
(B) in subparagraph (B), by inserting ``in vitro
clinical test,'' after ``device,''; and
(3) in subsection (e)(1), by inserting ``in vitro clinical
test,'' after ``device,''.
(n) Office of International Relations.--Section 803 of the Federal
Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 383) is amended--
(1) in subsection (b)--
(A) in the matter preceding paragraph (1), by
inserting ``and in vitro clinical tests'' after
``devices''; and
(B) in paragraph (1), by inserting ``quality
requirements established under section 587J; and'' at
the end; and
(2) in subsection (c)--
(A) in paragraph (2), by inserting ``in vitro
clinical tests,'' after ``devices,''; and
(B) in paragraph (4), by inserting ``or in vitro
clinical tests'' after ``devices''.
(o) Recognition of Foreign Government Inspections.--Section
809(a)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C.
384e(a)(1)) is amended by inserting ``, or section 587I'' after
``510(h)''.
(p) Food and Drug Administration.--Section 1003(b)(2) of the
Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 393(b)(2)) is amended--
(1) in subparagraph (D), by striking ``and'' at the end;
(2) in subparagraph (E), by striking the semicolon at the
end and inserting ``; and''; and
(3) by adding at the end the following:
``(F) in vitro clinical tests are analytically and
clinically valid;''.
(q) Office of Women's Health.--Section 1011(b) of the Federal Food,
Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 399b(b)) is amended--
(1) in paragraph (1), by inserting ``in vitro clinical
tests,'' after ``devices,''; and
(2) in paragraph (4), by striking ``and device
manufacturers'' and inserting ``device manufacturers, and in
vitro clinical test developers,''.
(r) Countermeasure Provisions of the PHSA.--Title III of the PHSA
is amended--
(1) in section 319F-2(c)(1)(B) (42 U.S.C. 247d-6b(c)(1)(B))
is amended--
(A) by striking ``or device'' and inserting
``device''; and
(B) by inserting ``or an in vitro clinical test (as
that term is defined in section 201(ss) of the Federal
Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 321(ss)))''
after ``Act (21 U.S.C. 321(h)))'';
(2) in section 319F-1(a)(2) (42 U.S.C. 247d-6a(a)(2)), by
inserting ``an in vitro clinical tests (as that term is defined
in section 201(ss) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
(21 U.S.C. 321(ss))),'' before ``or device''; and
(3) in section 319F-3(i)(7) (42 U.S.C. 247d-6d(i)(7)), by
inserting ``an in vitro clinical tests (as that term is defined
in section 201(ss) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
(21 U.S.C. 321(ss))),'' before ``or device''.
SEC. 5. TRANSITION.
(a) Implementation.--
(1) Effective date.--
(A) In general.--Except as otherwise provided in
this section, the amendments made by this Act apply 4
years after the date of enactment of this Act (in this
section and in subchapter J of chapter V of the Federal
Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as added by this Act,
referred to in this section as the ``effective date of
this Act'').
(B) Exception.--The Secretary of Health and Human
Services (in this section referred to as the
``Secretary'') may take the actions described in
paragraph (2), and may expend such funds as the
Secretary determines necessary to ensure an orderly
transition.
(2) Actions.--The Secretary shall, prior to the date on
which the amendments made by this Act generally apply pursuant
to paragraph (1)--
(A) within 1 year of the date of enactment of this
Act hold the public meetings described in subchapter J
of chapter V of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic
Act, as added by section 3;
(B) within 2 years of the date of enactment of this
Act promulgate final regulations required under
sections 587B, 587D, 587L, 587M, 587V, and 587W; and
(C) within 2 years of the date of enactment of this
Act issue final guidance on applicability requirements
under section 587A.
(3) Applicability of regulations.--Notwithstanding the date
on which guidance or regulations are issued under paragraph
(2), no guidance or regulations issued pursuant to the
amendments made by this Act shall take effect until the
effective date of this Act, as described in paragraph (1),
except as otherwise provided for transitional tests under this
section.
(b) Application of Authorities to In Vitro Clinical Tests Until and
After Effective Date of This Act.--Except as provided in subsections
(c) and (d), for any in vitro clinical test as defined in section
201(ss) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as added by this
Act, the following authorities shall apply:
(1) Tests offered prior to enactment.--An in vitro clinical
test that meets the criteria for a grandfathered test as set
forth in section 587A(c)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and
Cosmetic Act, as added by section 3, may continue to be offered
for clinical use and shall be subject only to applicable
provisions of section 353 of the Public Health Service Act and
section 587A(a)(4) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act,
as added by section 3.
(2) Tests approved or cleared on or after the date of
enactment but prior to the effective date.--Before any in vitro
clinical test as defined in section 201(ss) of the Federal
Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as added by this Act, is first
offered, sold, or distributed after the date of enactment of
this Act, but prior to the effective date of this Act, such
product or test shall be considered a transitional test as
described under subsection (c) and comply with the applicable
device provisions of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
(21 U.S.C. 301 et seq.) and the Public Health Service Act (42
U.S.C. 201 et seq.).
(3) Tests under fda review beginning on or after the date
of enactment of this act but prior to implementation.--For any
in vitro clinical test as defined in section 201(ss) of the
Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as added by this Act, for
which a submission for marketing authorization under section
515, clearance under section 510(k), authorization under
section 513(f)(2), approval under section 520(m), or emergency
use authorization under section 564 of the Federal Food, Drug,
and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360e, 360(k), 360c(f)(2), 360j(m),
360bbb-3) or approval under the Public Health Service Act (42
U.S.C. 201 et seq.) is pending on the effective date of this
Act, the Secretary may review and take action on such
submission after the effective date of this Act according to
the statutory provision under which such submission was
submitted.
(c) Application of Authorities to Transitional and Grandfathered In
Vitro Clinical Tests.--
(1) Definition.--For purposes of this section, the term
``transitional in vitro clinical test'' means an in vitro
clinical test, as defined in section 201(ss) of the Federal
Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as added by this Act, that--
(A) is offered for clinical use during the period
beginning on the date of enactment of this Act and
ending on the date that is 90 days after the effective
date of this Act;
(B) is developed by a clinical laboratory certified
by the Secretary under section 353 of the Public Health
Service Act (42 U.S.C. 263a) that meets the
requirements for performing high-complexity testing for
use only within that certified laboratory or another
laboratory within the organization under common
ownership; and
(C) is not approved under section 515, cleared
under section 510(k), authorized under section
513(f)(2), subject to an exemption under section
520(m), or authorized under section 564 of the Federal
Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360e, 360(k),
360c(f)(2), 360j(m), 360bbb-3) or approval under the
Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 201 et seq.).
(2) Premarket review or technology certification.--A
transitional in vitro clinical test that is the subject of an
application for premarket review under section 587B of the
Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or technology
certification application under section 587D of such Act, as
added by this Act, that is submitted prior to the effective
date of this Act may continue to be offered, sold, or
distributed until completion of the Secretary's review of the
premarket application or technology certification application.
(d) Conversion.--
(1) Deemed premarket approval.--Any in vitro clinical test
(as defined in section 201(ss) of the Federal Food, Drug, and
Cosmetic Act, as added by this Act) with a premarket approval
under section 515, a clearance under section 510(k), an
authorization under section 513(f), or a licensure under
section 351 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 262) is
deemed to have an approved application under section 587B of
the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as added by this Act,
beginning on the later of--
(A) the effective date of this Act; or
(B) such other date, not later than 3 years after
such effective date, as the person responsible for the
device selects.
(2) Deemed investigational use approval.--Any in vitro
clinical test (as defined in section 201(ss) of the Federal
Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as added by this Act) that has an
approved investigational device exemption under section 520(g)
of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360j(g))
is deemed to have an approved investigational use under section
587Q of such Act, as added by this Act, beginning on the
effective date of this Act.
(e) Instruments.--An instrument (as defined in section 587 of the
Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as added by this Act) that was
purchased prior to the date of enactment of this Act and was not
cleared, authorized, or approved by the Food and Drug Administration or
part of an instrument family that was cleared, authorized, or approved
by the Food and Drug Administration at the time of purchase may
continue to be used by the purchaser to develop and introduce into
interstate commerce an in vitro clinical test during the period
beginning on the date of enactment of this Act and ending 5 years after
such date of enactment. Beginning at the end of such period, any new in
vitro clinical test that is developed and introduced into interstate
commerce shall be based on an instrument (as defined in section 587(11)
of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as added by section 3)
that complies with the requirements of the Federal Food, Drug, and
Cosmetic Act, as amended by this Act.
(f) Relation to In Vitro Clinical Test Provision.--This section
applies notwithstanding section 587A(a)(1)(C) of the Federal Food,
Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as added by this Act.
SEC. 6. EMERGENCY USE AUTHORIZATION.
Section 564 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C.
360bbb-3) is amended--
(1) in paragraphs (1) and (4)(C) of subsection (a), by
inserting ``in vitro clinical test,'' before ``or biological
product'' each place such term appears; and
(2) in subsection (e)(3)--
(A) in subparagraph (B), by striking ``and'' at the
end;
(B) in subparagraph (C), by striking the period and
inserting ``; and''; and
(C) by adding at the end the following:
``(D) quality system requirements (with respect to
in vitro clinical tests) under section 587J.''.
SEC. 7. ANTIMICROBIAL SUSCEPTIBILITY TESTS.
Section 511A of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C.
360a-2) is amended--
(1) in subsection (a)(1)(C)--
(A) by striking ``or approve under section 515''
and inserting ``approve under section 515, or approve,
exempt, or issue a technology certification order under
subchapter J''; and
(B) by striking ``testing devices'' and inserting
``tests'';
(2) in subsection (c)(5), by striking ``drug or device''
each place it appears and inserting ``drug, device, or in vitro
clinical test'';
(3) in subsection (e)--
(A) in the heading, by striking ``Testing Devices''
and inserting ``In Vitro Clinical Tests'';
(B) in paragraph (1)--
(i) by striking ``and 515,'' and inserting
``515, 587B, and 587D'';
(ii) by striking ``antimicrobial
susceptibility testing device'' and inserting
``antimicrobial susceptibility in vitro
clinical test''; and
(iii) by striking ``such device'' and
inserting ``such test'';
(C) in paragraph (2)--
(i) in the heading, by striking ``testing
devices'' and inserting ``in vitro clinical
tests''; and
(ii) by amending subparagraph (C) to read
as follows:
``(C) The antimicrobial susceptibility in vitro
clinical test meets all other requirements to be
approved under section 587B or exempted from premarket
review under section 587D.''; and
(D) after making the amendments in subparagraphs
(B)(ii), (B)(iii), and (C)(ii), by striking ``device''
each place it appears and inserting ``in vitro clinical
test'';
(4) in subsection (f), by amending paragraph (1) to read as
follows:
``(1) The term `antimicrobial susceptibility in vitro
clinical test' means an in vitro clinical test that utilizes
susceptibility test interpretive criteria to determine and
report the in vitro susceptibility of certain microorganisms to
a drug (or drugs).''; and
(5) in subsection (g)(2)--
(A) by amending the matter preceding subparagraph
(A) to read as follows:
``(2) with respect to clearing under section 510(k),
classifying under section 513(f)(2), approving under section
515 or section 587B, or exempting from approval requirements
under section 587D--''; and
(B) in subparagraph (A)--
(i) by striking ``device'' and inserting
``in vitro clinical test''; and
(ii) by striking ``antimicrobial
susceptibility testing device'' and inserting
``antimicrobial susceptibility in vitro
clinical test''.
SEC. 8. COMBINATION PRODUCTS.
(a) In General.--Section 503(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and
Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 353(g)) is amended--
(1) in paragraph (1)--
(A) in subparagraph (A)--
(i) by inserting ``(except for a
combination product constituted of a device and
an in vitro clinical test)'' after ``agency
center,''; and
(ii) by inserting ``in vitro clinical
test,'' before ``or biological product''; and
(B) in subparagraph (D)--
(i) in the matter preceding clause (i), by
striking ``. If the Secretary determines'' and
inserting ``, except for a combination product
constituted of a device and an in vitro
clinical test. For other combination products,
if the Secretary determines''; and
(ii) in clause (ii)--
(I) by inserting ``or in vitro
clinical test'' after ``device''; and
(II) by inserting ``and in vitro
clinical tests'' before ``shall'';
(2) in paragraph (3), by striking ``safety and
effectiveness or substantial equivalence'' and inserting
``safety and effectiveness, substantial equivalence, or
analytical validity and clinical validity'' before ``for the
approved constituent part'';
(3) in paragraph (4)--
(A) in subparagraph (A), by striking ``or 513(f)(2)
(submitted in accordance with paragraph (5))'' and
inserting ``513(f)(2) (submitted in accordance with
paragraph (5)), 587B, or an exempt test under section
587A, as applicable''; and
(B) in subparagraph (B), by inserting ``or 587B''
after ``section 515'';
(4) in paragraph (5)(A), by striking ``or 510(k)'' and
inserting ``, 510(k), or 587B'';
(5) in paragraph (7), by striking ``or substantial
equivalence'' and inserting ``, substantial equivalence, or
analytical validity and clinical validity'';
(6) in paragraph (8), by adding at the end the following:
``(I) This paragraph shall not apply to a
combination product constituted of a device and an in
vitro clinical test.''; and
(7) in paragraph (9)--
(A) in subparagraph (C)(i), by striking ``or
520(g)'' and inserting ``520(g), or 587B''; and
(B) in subparagraph (D), by striking ``or 520'' and
inserting ``520, or 587B''.
(b) Classification of Products.--Section 563 of the Federal Food,
Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360bbb-2) is amended by adding at the
end the following:
``(d) Exemption.--This section shall not apply to a combination
product constituted of a device and an in vitro clinical test.''.
SEC. 9. RESOURCES.
(a) Findings.--Congress finds that the fees authorized by this
section will be dedicated to meeting the goals identified in the
letters from the Secretary of Health and Human Services to the
Committee on Health, Education, Labor, and Pensions of the Senate and
the Committee on Energy and Commerce of the House of Representatives,
as set forth in the Congressional Record.
(b) Establishment of User Fee Program.--
(1) Development of user fees for in vitro clinical tests.--
(A) In general.--Beginning not later than October
1, 2021, the Secretary of Health and Human Services (in
this section referred to as the ``Secretary'') shall
develop recommendations to present to Congress with
respect to the goals, and plans for meeting the goals,
for the process of the review of in vitro clinical test
applications submitted under subchapter J of chapter V
of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as added
by this Act, for the first 5 fiscal years after fiscal
year 2022. In developing such recommendations, the
Secretary shall consult with--
(i) the Committee on Energy and Commerce of
the House of Representatives;
(ii) the Committee on Health, Education,
Labor, and Pensions of the Senate;
(iii) scientific and academic experts;
(iv) health care professionals;
(v) representatives of patient and consumer
advocacy groups; and
(vi) the regulated industry.
(B) Prior public input.--Prior to beginning
negotiations with the regulated industry on the
authorization of such subchapter J, the Secretary
shall--
(i) publish a notice in the Federal
Register requesting public input on the
authorization of user fees;
(ii) hold a public meeting at which the
public may present its views on the
authorization, including specific suggestions
for the recommendations submitted under
subparagraph (E);
(iii) provide a period of 30 days after the
public meeting to obtain written comments from
the public suggesting changes to such
subchapter J; and
(iv) publish any comments received under
clause (iii) on the website of the Food and
Drug Administration.
(C) Periodic consultation.--Not less frequently
than once every month during negotiations with the
regulated industry, the Secretary shall hold
discussions with representatives of patient and
consumer advocacy groups to continue discussions of the
authorization under such subchapter J and to solicit
suggestions to be included in the recommendations
transmitted to Congress under subparagraph (E).
(D) Public review of recommendations.--After
negotiations with the regulated industry, the Secretary
shall--
(i) present the recommendations developed
under subparagraph (A) to the Committee on
Health, Education, Labor, and Pensions of the
Senate and the Committee on Energy and Commerce
of the House of Representatives;
(ii) publish such recommendations in the
Federal Register;
(iii) provide for a period of 30 days for
the public to provide written comments on such
recommendations;
(iv) hold a meeting at which the public may
present its views on such recommendations; and
(v) after consideration of such public
views and comments, revise such recommendations
as necessary.
(E) Transmittal of recommendations.--
(i) In general.--Not later than June 1,
2021, the Secretary shall transmit to Congress
the revised recommendations under subparagraph
(A), a summary of the views and comments
received under such subparagraph, and any
changes made to the recommendations in response
to such views and comments.
(ii) Recommendation requirements.--The
recommendations transmitted under this
subparagraph shall--
(I) include the number of full-time
equivalent employees per fiscal year
that are agreed to be hired to carry
out the goals included in such
recommendations for each year of the 5-
year period;
(II) provide that the amount of
operating reserve balance in the user
fee program established under this
section is not more than the equivalent
of 10 weeks of operating reserve;
(III) require the development of a
strategic plan for any surplus within
the operating reserve account above the
10-week operating reserve within 2
years of the establishment of the
program;
(IV) include an operating reserve
adjustment such that, if the Secretary
has an operating reserve balance in
excess of 10 weeks of such operating
reserves, the Secretary shall decrease
such fee revenue and fees to provide
for not more than 10 weeks of such
operating reserves;
(V) if an adjustment is made as
described in subclause (IV), provide
the rationale for the amount of the
decrease in fee revenue and fees shall
be contained in the Federal Register;
and
(VI) provide that the fees assessed
and collected for the full-time
equivalent employees at the Center for
Devices and Radiological Health, with
respect to which the majority of time
reporting data indicates are dedicated
to the review of in vitro clinical
tests, are not supported by the funds
authorized to be collected and assessed
under section 738 of the Federal Food,
Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C.
379j).
(F) Publication of recommendations.--The Secretary
shall publish on the website of the Food and Drug
Administration the revised recommendations under
subparagraph (A), a summary of the views and comments
received under subparagraphs (B) through (D), and any
changes made to the recommendations originally proposed
by the Secretary in response to such views and
comments.
(G) Minutes of negotiation meetings.--
(i) Public availability.--Before
transmitting the recommendations developed
under subparagraphs (A) through (F) to
Congress, the Secretary shall make publicly
available, on the website of the Food and Drug
Administration, minutes of all negotiation
meetings conducted under this subsection
between the Food and Drug Administration and
the regulated industry.
(ii) Content.--The minutes described under
clause (i) shall summarize any substantive
proposal made by any party to the negotiations,
any significant controversies or differences of
opinion during the negotiations, and the
resolution of any such controversy or
difference of opinion.
(2) Establishment of user fee program.--Effective on
October 1, 2021, provided that the Secretary transmits the
recommendations under paragraph (1)(E), the Secretary is
authorized to collect user fees relating to the submission of
in vitro clinical test applications submitted under subchapter
J of chapter V of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as
added by this Act. Fees under such program shall be assessed
and collected only if the requirements under paragraph (4) are
met.
(3) Audit.--
(A) In general.--On the date that is 2 years after
first receiving a user fee applicable to submission of
an in vitro clinical test application submitted under
subchapter J of chapter V of the Federal Food, Drug,
and Cosmetic Act, as added by this Act, and on a
biennial basis thereafter until October 1, 2027, the
Secretary shall perform an audit of the costs of
reviewing such applications under such subchapter J.
Such an audit shall compare the costs of reviewing such
applications under such subchapter J to the amount of
the user fee applicable to such applications.
(B) Alteration of user fee.--If the audit performed
under subparagraph (A) indicates that the user fees
applicable to applications submitted under such
subchapter J exceed 30 percent of the costs of
reviewing such applications, the Secretary shall alter
the user fees applicable to applications submitted
under such subchapter J such that the user fees do not
exceed such percentage.
(C) Accounting standards.--The Secretary shall
perform an audit under subparagraph (A) in conformance
with the accounting principles, standards, and
requirements prescribed by the Comptroller General of
the United States under section 3511 of title 31,
United States Code, to ensure the validity of any
potential variability.
(4) Conditions.--The user fee program described in this
subsection shall take effect only if the Food and Drug
Administration issues draft guidance related to the review
requirements for in vitro diagnostic tests that would be
subject to premarket review under section 587B of the Federal
Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as added by section 3, the review
requirements for test categories eligible for technology
certification under section 587D of such Act, as added by
section 3, and the parameters for the test categories that
would be exempt from any review under subchapter J of chapter V
of such Act.
(5) User fee program definitions and resource
requirements.--
(A) In general.--The term ``process for the review
of in vitro clinical test applications'' means the
following activities of the Secretary with respect to
the review of premarket applications under section 587B
of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (as added
by section 3), technology certification applications
under section 587D of such Act (as added by section 3),
and supplements for such applications:
(i) The activities necessary for the review
of premarket applications, premarket reports,
and supplements to such applications.
(ii) The issuance of action letters that
allow the marketing of in vitro clinical tests
or which set forth in detail the specific
deficiencies in such applications, reports,
supplements, or submissions and, where
appropriate, the actions necessary to place
them in condition for approval.
(iii) The inspection of manufacturing
establishments and other facilities undertaken
as part of the Secretary's review of pending
premarket applications, technology
certifications, and supplements.
(iv) Monitoring of research conducted in
connection with the review of such
applications, supplements, and submissions.
(v) Review of in vitro clinical test
applications subject to section 351 of the
Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 262),
investigational new drug applications under
section 505(i) of the Federal Food, Drug, and
Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 355(i)), or
investigational test exemptions under section
587A(m) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic
Act (as added by section 3), and activities
conducted in anticipation of the submission of
such applications under section 505(i) of the
Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or
investigational use under section 587R of the
Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (as added
by section 3).
(vi) The development of guidance, policy
documents, or regulations to improve the
process for the review of premarket
applications, technology certification
applications, and supplements.
(vii) The development of voluntary test
methods, consensus standards, or mandatory
performance standards in connection with the
review of such applications, supplements, or
submissions and related activities.
(viii) The provision of technical
assistance to in vitro clinical test developers
in connection with the submission of such
applications, reports, supplements, or
submissions.
(ix) Any activity undertaken in connection
with the initial classification or
reclassification of an in vitro clinical test
in connection with any requirement for approval
of an in vitro clinical test.
(x) Evaluation of postmarket studies
required as a condition of an approval of a
premarket application of an in vitro clinical
test.
(xi) Compiling, developing, and reviewing
information on relevant in vitro clinical tests
to identify issues with the applicable standard
for premarket applications, technology
certification applications, and supplements.
(B) Resource requirements.--Fees collected and
assessed under this section shall be used for the
process for the review of in vitro clinical test
applications, as described in subparagraph (A), and
shall--
(i) be subject to the limitation under
section 738(g)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug,
and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 379j(g)(3)), in the
same manner that fees collected and assessed
under section 737(9)(C) of such Act (21 U.S.C.
379i(9)(C)) are subject to such limitation;
(ii) include travel expenses for officers
and employees of the Food and Drug
Administration only if the Secretary determines
that such travel is directly related to an
activity described in subparagraph (A); and
(iii) not be allocated to purposes
described under section 722(a) of the
Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2018 (Public
Law 115-141).
(c) Reports.--
(1) Performance report.--
(A) In general.--
(i) General requirements.--Beginning with
fiscal year 2021, for each fiscal year for
which fees are collected under this section,
the Secretary shall prepare and submit to the
Committee on Health, Education, Labor, and
Pensions of the Senate and the Committee on
Energy and Commerce of the House of
Representatives annual reports concerning the
progress of the Food and Drug Administration in
achieving the goals identified in the
recommendations transmitted to Congress by the
Secretary pursuant to subsection (b)(1)(E)
during such fiscal year and the future plans of
the Food and Drug Administration for meeting
the goals.
(ii) Additional information.--Beginning
with fiscal year 2021, the annual report under
this subparagraph shall include the progress of
the Food and Drug Administration in achieving
the goals, and future plans for meeting the
goals, including--
(I) the number of premarket
applications filed under section 587B
of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic
Act during the applicable fiscal year;
(II) the number of technology
certification applications submitted
under section 587D of the Federal Food,
Drug, and Cosmetic Act during the
applicable fiscal year for each review
division; and
(III) the number of breakthrough
designations under section 587C of the
Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
during the applicable fiscal year.
(iii) Real-time reporting.--
(I) In general.--Not later than 30
calendar days after the end of the
second quarter of fiscal year 2021, and
not later than 30 calendar days after
the end of each quarter of each fiscal
year thereafter, the Secretary shall
post the data described in subclause
(II) on the website of the Food and
Drug Administration for such quarter
and on a cumulative basis for such
fiscal year, and may remove duplicative
data from the annual report under this
subparagraph.
(II) Data.--The Secretary shall
post the following data in accordance
with subclause (I):
(aa) The number and titles
of draft and final guidance on
topics related to the process
for the review of in vitro
clinical tests, and whether
such guidances were issued as
required by statute or pursuant
to the recommendations
transmitted to Congress by the
Secretary pursuant to
subsection (b)(1)(E).
(bb) The number and titles
of public meetings held on
topics related to the process
for the review of in vitro
clinical tests, and if such
meetings were required by
statute or pursuant to the
recommendations transmitted to
Congress by the Secretary
pursuant to subsection
(b)(1)(E).
(iv) Rationale for ivct user fee program
changes.--Beginning with fiscal year 2022, the
Secretary shall include in the annual
performance report under paragraph (1)--
(I) data, analysis, and discussion
of the changes in the number of full-
time equivalents hired as agreed upon
in the recommendations transmitted to
Congress by the Secretary pursuant to
subsection (b)(1)(E) and the number of
full-time equivalents funded by budget
authority at the Food and Drug
Administration by each division within
the Center for Devices and Radiological
Health, the Center for Biologics
Evaluation and Research, the Office of
Regulatory Affairs, and the Office of
the Commissioner;
(II) data, analysis, and discussion
of the changes in the fee revenue
amounts and costs for the process for
the review of in vitro clinical tests,
including identifying drivers of such
changes; and
(III) for each of the Center for
Devices and Radiological Health, the
Center for Biologics Evaluation and
Research, the Office of Regulatory
Affairs, and the Office of the
Commissioner, the number of employees
for whom time reporting is required and
the number of employees for whom time
reporting is not required.
(v) Analysis.--For each fiscal year, the
Secretary shall include in the report under
clause (i) an analysis of the following:
(I) The difference between the
aggregate number of premarket
applications filed under section 587B
or section 587D of the Federal Food,
Drug, and Cosmetic Act and the
aggregate number of major deficiency
letters, not approvable letters, and
denials for such applications issued by
the agency, accounting for--
(aa) the number of
applications filed under each
of sections 587B and 587D of
the Federal Food, Drug, and
Cosmetic Act during one fiscal
year for which a decision is
not scheduled to be made until
the following fiscal year; and
(bb) the aggregate number
of applications under each of
sections 587B and 587D of the
Federal Food, Drug, and
Cosmetic Act for each fiscal
year that did not meet the
goals as identified by the
recommendations transmitted to
Congress by the Secretary
pursuant to subsection
(b)(1)(E).
(II) Relevant data to determine
whether the Center for Devices and
Radiological Health has met performance
enhancement goals identified by the
recommendations transmitted to Congress
by the Secretary pursuant to subsection
(b)(1)(E).
(III) The most common causes and
trends for external or other
circumstances affecting the ability of
the Food and Drug Administration to
meet review time and performance
enhancement goals identified by the
recommendations transmitted to Congress
by the Secretary pursuant to subsection
(b)(1)(E).
(B) Publication.--With regard to information to be
reported by the Food and Drug Administration to
industry on a quarterly and annual basis pursuant to
recommendations transmitted to Congress by the
Secretary pursuant to subsection (b)(1)(E), the
Secretary shall make such information publicly
available on the website of the Food and Drug
Administration not later than 60 days after the end of
each quarter or 120 days after the end of each fiscal
year, respectively, to which such information applies.
(C) Updates.--The Secretary shall include in each
report under subparagraph (A) information on all
previous cohorts for which the Secretary has not given
a complete response on all in vitro clinical test
premarket applications and technology certification
orders and supplements, premarket, and technology
certification notifications in the cohort.
(2) Corrective action report.--Beginning with fiscal year
2022, for each fiscal year for which fees are collected under
this section, the Secretary shall prepare and submit a
corrective action report to the Committee on Health, Education,
Labor, and Pensions and the Committee on Appropriations of the
Senate and the Committee on Energy and Commerce and the
Committee on Appropriations of the House of Representatives.
The report shall include the following information, as
applicable:
(A) Goals met.--For each fiscal year, if the
Secretary determines, based on the analysis under
paragraph (1)(A)(v), that each of the goals identified
by the recommendations transmitted to Congress by the
Secretary pursuant to subsection (b)(1)(E) for the
applicable fiscal year have been met, the corrective
action report shall include recommendations on ways in
which the Secretary can improve and streamline the in
vitro clinical test premarket application and
technology certification review process.
(B) Goals missed.--For each of the goals identified
by the letters described in recommendations transmitted
to Congress by the Secretary pursuant to subsection
(b)(1)(E) for the applicable fiscal year that the
Secretary determines to not have been met, the
corrective action report shall include--
(i) a justification for such determination;
(ii) a description of the types of
circumstances, in the aggregate, under which
applications or reports submitted under
sections 587B and 587D of the Federal Food,
Drug, and Cosmetic Act missed the review goal
times but were approved during the first cycle
review, as applicable;
(iii) a summary and any trends with regard
to the circumstances for which a review goal
was missed; and
(iv) the performance enhancement goals that
were not achieved during the previous fiscal
year and a description of efforts the Food and
Drug Administration has put in place for the
fiscal year in which the report is submitted to
improve the ability of such agency to meet each
such goal for the such fiscal year.
(3) Fiscal report.--For fiscal years 2021 and annually
thereafter, not later than 120 days after the end of each
fiscal year during which fees are collected under this subpart,
the Secretary shall prepare and submit to the Committee on
Health, Education, Labor, and Pensions of the Senate and the
Committee on Energy and Commerce of the House of
Representatives, a report on the implementation of the
authority for such fees during such fiscal year and the use, by
the Food and Drug Administration, of the fees collected during
such fiscal year for which the report is made.
(A) Contents.--Such report shall include
expenditures delineated by budget authority and user
fee dollars related to administrative expenses and
information technology infrastructure contracts and
expenditures.
(B) Operating reserve.--Such report shall provide
the amount of operating reserve balance available each
year, and any planned allocations or obligations of
such balance that is above 10 weeks of operating
reserve for the program.
(4) Public availability.--The Secretary shall make the
reports required under paragraphs (1) through (3) available to
the public on the website of the Food and Drug Administration.
(5) Enhanced communication.--
(A) Communications with congress.--Each fiscal
year, as applicable and requested, representatives from
the Centers with expertise in the review of in vitro
clinical tests shall meet with representatives from the
Committee on Health, Education, Labor, and Pensions of
the Senate and the Committee on Energy and Commerce of
the House of Representatives to report on the contents
described in the reports under this section.
(B) Participation in congressional hearing.--Each
fiscal year, as applicable and requested,
representatives from the Food and Drug Administration
shall participate in a public hearing before the
Committee on Health, Education, Labor, and Pensions of
the Senate and the Committee on Energy and Commerce of
the House of Representatives, to report on the contents
described in the reports under this section. Such
hearing shall occur not later than 120 days after the
end of each fiscal year for which fees are collected
under this section.
<all> | VALID Act of 2021 | A bill to amend the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act to provide for the regulation of in vitro clinical tests, and for other purposes. | VALID Act of 2021
Verifying Accurate Leading-edge IVCT Development Act of 2021 | Sen. Burr, Richard | R | NC |
62 | 3,662 | S.44 | Taxation | Student Empowerment Act
This bill allows tax-exempt distributions from qualified tuition programs (known as 529 plans) to be used for additional educational expenses in connection with enrollment or attendance at an elementary or secondary school.
(Under current law, distributions in connection with an elementary or secondary school are limited to tuition for a public, private, or religious school.) The bill allows the distributions to be used for additional educational expenses, including
Distributions may also be used for tuition and the purposes above in connection with a homeschool (whether treated as a homeschool or a private school under state law). | To amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to permit kindergarten
through grade 12 educational expenses to be paid from a 529 account.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Student Empowerment Act''.
SEC. 2. 529 ACCOUNT FUNDING FOR HOMESCHOOL AND ADDITIONAL ELEMENTARY
AND SECONDARY EXPENSES.
(a) In General.--Section 529(c)(7) of the Internal Revenue Code of
1986 is amended to read as follows:
``(7) Treatment of elementary and secondary tuition.--Any
reference in this section to the term `qualified higher
education expense' shall include a reference to the following
expenses in connection with enrollment or attendance at, or for
students enrolled at or attending, an elementary or secondary
public, private, or religious school:
``(A) Tuition.
``(B) Curriculum and curricular materials.
``(C) Books or other instructional materials.
``(D) Online educational materials.
``(E) Tuition for tutoring or educational classes
outside of the home, including at a tutoring facility,
but only if the tutor or instructor is not related to
the student and--
``(i) is licensed as a teacher in any
State,
``(ii) has taught at an eligible
educational institution, or
``(iii) is a subject matter expert in the
relevant subject.
``(F) Fees for a nationally standardized norm-
referenced achievement test, an advanced placement
examination, or any examinations related to college or
university admission.
``(G) Fees for dual enrollment in an institution of
higher education.
``(H) Educational therapies for students with
disabilities provided by a licensed or accredited
practitioner or provider, including occupational,
behavioral, physical, and speech-language therapies.
Such term shall include expenses for the purposes described in
subparagraphs (A) through (H) in connection with a homeschool
(whether treated as a homeschool or a private school for
purposes of applicable State law).''.
(b) Effective Date.--The amendment made by this section shall apply
to distributions made after the date of the enactment of this Act.
<all> | Student Empowerment Act | A bill to amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to permit kindergarten through grade 12 educational expenses to be paid from a 529 account. | Student Empowerment Act | Sen. Cruz, Ted | R | TX |
63 | 9,586 | H.R.542 | Education | Save Education Jobs Act
This bill establishes through FY2030 the Education Jobs Fund, from which the Department of Education (ED) must award grants to state educational agencies and, through them, subgrants to local educational agencies (LEAs) to retain and create education jobs. ED must also provide grants to outlying areas and the Bureau of Indian Education.
Specifically, LEAs must use subgrants for compensation and benefits to retain existing employees, rehire former employees, and hire new employees. Further, subgrants may be used for certain activities such as training and professional development, providing salary increases to cover extended days or school years to make up for lost instructional time due to COVID-19 (i.e., coronavirus disease 2019), and developing teacher leadership roles in high-need schools.
The bill prohibits the use of subgrants for certain activities, such as funding voucher programs, tax-credit scholarships, or education savings accounts. | To authorize the establishment of an Education Jobs Fund to retain and
create education jobs in communities most impacted by COVID-19, and for
other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Save Education Jobs Act''.
SEC. 2. AUTHORIZATION OF APPROPRIATIONS TO RETAIN AND CREATE EDUCATION
JOBS.
(a) In General.--There are authorized to be appropriated to the
Secretary to establish and implement an Education Jobs Fund--
(1) $56,600,000,000 for fiscal year 2021;
(2) $52,400,000,000 for fiscal year 2022;
(3) $34,300,000,000 for fiscal year 2023;
(4) $26,100,000,000 for fiscal year 2024;
(5) $17,700,000,000 for fiscal year 2025;
(6) $14,400,000,000 for fiscal year 2026;
(7) $14,600,000,000 for fiscal year 2027;
(8) $14,800,000,000 for fiscal year 2028;
(9) $15,000,000,000 for fiscal year 2029; and
(10) $15,200,000,000 for fiscal year 2030.
(b) Reservation for Administrative Expenses.--Of the amounts made
available for a fiscal year under subsection (a), the Secretary may
reserve not more than $1,000,000 for each such fiscal year for
administration and oversight of this Act.
(c) Allocation Schedule.--
(1) First year of grants.--From the amounts first made
available under subsection (a), not later than 30 days after
the date of the enactment of this Act, the Secretary shall
award grants in accordance with section 3.
(2) Subsequent years.--Not later than 30 days after the
first day of the first fiscal year that begins after the date
of the enactment of this Act and annually thereafter, from the
amounts made available under subsection (a), the Secretary
shall award grants in accordance with section 3.
SEC. 3. GRANTS TO RETAIN AND CREATE EDUCATION JOBS.
(a) Eligibility.--
(1) National eligibility.--
(A) Fiscal years 2021 through 2026.--For fiscal
years 2021 through 2026, each State educational agency
that submits an application meeting the requirements
under section 5 shall be eligible to receive a grant in
accordance with this section for each such fiscal year.
(B) Fiscal years 2027 through 2030.--Except as
provided in paragraph (2), for fiscal years 2027
through 2030, each State educational agency that
submits an application meeting the requirements under
section 5 shall be eligible to receive a grant in
accordance with this section for each such fiscal year.
(2) State educational agency eligibility in the case of
national unemployment average decrease.--
(A) Fiscal years for which national eligibility
does not apply.--Paragraph (1)(B) shall not apply with
respect to a fiscal year described in such paragraph if
during the period beginning on the first day of fiscal
year 2021 and ending on the last day of the fiscal year
preceding such a fiscal year, the average rate of total
unemployment in the Nation (seasonally adjusted) for
the period consisting of the most recent 3 consecutive
months for which data for all States are published by
the Bureau of Labor Statistics was less than or equal
to 5.5 percent.
(B) State educational agency-based eligibility.--In
the case of a fiscal year described in subparagraph
(A), a State educational agency shall be eligible to
receive a grant in accordance with this section for
such fiscal year if--
(i) such State educational agency submits
an application meeting the requirements under
section 5; and
(ii) with respect to each month occurring
in the fiscal year preceding such fiscal year,
the average rate of total unemployment in the
State (seasonally adjusted) for the period
consisting of the most recent 3 consecutive
months for which data are published by the
Bureau of Labor Statistics was greater than 5.5
percent.
(3) Outlying area and bureau of indian education
eligibility.--
(A) Fiscal years 2021 through 2026.--For fiscal
years 2021 through 2026, each outlying area and program
operated or funded by the Bureau of Indian Education
shall be eligible to receive a grant in accordance with
this section for each such fiscal year.
(B) Fiscal years 2027 through 2030.--Except as
provided in subparagraph (C), for fiscal years 2027
through 2030, each outlying area and program operated
or funded by the Bureau of Indian Education shall be
eligible to receive a grant in accordance with this
section for each such fiscal year.
(C) Exception.--Subparagraph (B) shall not apply
with respect to a fiscal year described in such
subparagraph if during the period beginning on the
first day of fiscal year 2021 and ending on the last
day of the fiscal year preceding such a fiscal year,
the average rate of total unemployment in the Nation
(seasonally adjusted) for the period consisting of the
most recent 3 consecutive months for which data for all
States are published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics
was less than or equal to 3.5 percent.
(b) Allocation of Grant Funds.--
(1) Allocation to outlying areas and bureau of indian
education.--
(A) Reservation.--Subject to subsection (a)(3),
from the amount made available under section 2(a) for a
fiscal year, the Secretary shall reserve--
(i) an amount equal to \1/2\ of 1 percent
for allocations to the outlying areas in
accordance with subparagraph (B); and
(ii) an amount equal to \1/2\ of 1 percent
for allocations to programs operated or funded
by the Bureau of Indian Education in accordance
with subparagraph (C).
(B) Outlying areas.--From the amount made available
under subparagraph (A)(i) for a fiscal year, the
Secretary shall allocate to each outlying area a grant
that bears the same proportion to such amount as the
amount the outlying area received under part A of title
I of the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965
(20 U.S.C. 6311 et seq.) for the preceding fiscal year
bears to the amount all outlying areas received under
such part for the preceding fiscal year.
(C) Programs operated or funded by the bureau of
indian education.--From the amount made available under
subparagraph (A)(ii) for a fiscal year, the Secretary
shall, in consultation with the Secretary of the
Interior, allocate to each program operated or funded
by the Bureau of Indian Education a grant that bears
the same proportion to such amount as the amount the
program operated or funded by the Bureau of Indian
Education received under part A of title I of the
Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965 (20
U.S.C. 6311 et seq.) for the preceding fiscal year
bears to the amount all programs operated or funded by
the Bureau of Indian Education received under such part
for the preceding fiscal year.
(2) Allocation to state educational agencies.--From the
amount made available under section 2(a) for a fiscal year
remaining after the reservation under paragraph (1)(A), the
Secretary shall allocate to each State educational agency that
is eligible under subsection (a) a grant that bears the same
proportion to such amount as the amount the State educational
agency received under part A of title I of the Elementary and
Secondary Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 6311 et seq.) for
the preceding fiscal year bears to the amount all State
educational agencies received under such part for the preceding
fiscal year.
(c) Reservation by State Educational Agency.--
(1) In general.--Of the amounts allocated to a State
educational agency under subsection (b)(2) for a fiscal year,
such State educational agency may reserve not more than 5
percent--
(A) for administrative costs of carrying out
subgrants under subsection (d);
(B) for the costs of retaining or creating
positions in the State educational agency related to
the administration or support of early childhood,
public elementary, public secondary, or public
postsecondary education; and
(C) to implement evidence-based strategies to
ensure that low-income students and minority children
enrolled in schools assisted under this section are not
served at disproportionate rates by ineffective, out-
of-field, or inexperienced teachers, as described in
section 1111(g)(1)(B) of the Elementary and Secondary
Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 6311(g)(1)(B)).
(2) Prohibited use of funds.--None of the funds reserved by
a State educational agency under paragraph (1) may be used by
such State educational agency to carry out an activity
described in paragraphs (1) through (5) of section 4(c).
(d) Subgrants to Local Educational Agencies.--Of the amounts
allocated to a State educational agency under subsection (b)(2) for a
fiscal year and remaining after such State educational agency reserves
funds under subsection (c)(1), such State educational agency shall
allocate to each local educational agency in the State a grant that
bears the same proportion to such amount as the amount the local
educational agency received under part A of title I of the Elementary
and Secondary Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 6311 et seq.) for the
preceding fiscal year bears to the amount all local educational
agencies in the State received under such part for the preceding fiscal
year.
SEC. 4. USE OF FUNDS.
(a) Required Use of Funds.--A local educational agency that
receives a subgrant under section 3(d) shall use not less than 90
percent of the subgrant funds for compensation and benefits and other
expenses, such as support services, necessary to retain existing
employees, to recall or rehire former employees, and to hire new
employees, in order to provide early childhood, elementary, or
secondary educational related services.
(b) Permissible Use of Funds.--A local educational agency that
receives a subgrant under section 3(d) may use not more than 10 percent
of such subgrant funds for any of the following:
(1) Training, which may include high-quality residency,
mentoring and induction programs, and professional development.
(2) Salary increases to cover extended days or school years
for instruction and enrichment to make up for students' lost
instructional time due to COVID-19 and to ensure all students
have access to a well-rounded education and the supports needed
to succeed.
(3) Salary increases to cover increased workdays to provide
intensive professional learning and educator planning
opportunities, including through professional learning
communities.
(4) Except as provided in subsection (c)(2), incentives,
such as loan forgiveness, service scholarship programs, fee
reimbursement for costs associated with obtaining advanced or
additional teacher certification, or increased salaries, for
teachers to teach in high-need schools and in high-need fields
such as special education.
(5) To develop, maintain, or expand partnership programs
with teacher preparation programs in institutions of higher
education that target high-need fields, high-need schools, and
diverse candidates to expand the pipeline into the teaching
profession.
(6) Developing teacher leadership roles in high-need
schools.
(c) Prohibited Use of Funds.--A local educational agency that
receives a subgrant under section 3(d) may not use such subgrant
funds--
(1) for general administrative expenses or for other
support services expenditures (as such terms are defined on the
date of the enactment of this Act in the Common Core of Data of
the National Center for Education Statistics);
(2) to provide increased salaries or bonuses related to on-
the-job performance;
(3) directly or indirectly, to--
(A) establish, restore, or supplement a rainy-day
fund;
(B) supplant State funds in a manner that has the
effect of establishing, restoring, or supplementing a
rainy-day fund;
(C) reduce or retire debt obligations incurred by
the State; or
(D) supplant State funds in a manner that has the
effect of reducing or retiring debt obligations
incurred by the State;
(4) to meet the requirements under section 1117 or 8501 of
the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C.
6320; 20 U.S.C. 7881); or
(5) to support private schools, through employment,
services, vouchers, tax-credit scholarships, or savings
accounts for students to attend private elementary or secondary
schools, or other means.
SEC. 5. APPLICATIONS.
(a) In General.--A State educational agency seeking to receive a
grant under this Act shall provide to the Secretary an application that
includes the following:
(1) An assurance that the State educational agency will
develop and implement a monitoring plan that will enable the
State educational agency to ensure that local educational
agencies in such State comply with all applicable programmatic
and fiscal requirements, including with the use of funds
requirements under section 4.
(2) An assurance that the State educational agency will
support local educational agencies in targeting funding
provided under this Act to high-need schools and to support
subgroups of students, including low-income students, students
with disabilities, English learners, minority children,
students experiencing homelessness, children or youth in foster
care, migrant children, students involved with the juvenile
justice system, or children at risk for academic failure.
(3) An assurance that the funds received under this Act
will be used to supplement the level of Federal, State, and
local public funds that would, in the absence of such Federal
funds provided under this Act, be used to support public
elementary and public secondary education and not supplant such
funds.
(4) An assurance that the State educational agency and
local educational agencies in such State will provide the
reports required under section 7.
(5) An assurance that the State educational agency will
provide the local educational agencies in such State with the
technical assistance and support needed to help avoid
unanticipated spending cliffs.
(6) An assurance that the State educational agency will
take action to ensure that low-income students and minority
children enrolled in schools assisted under this section are
not served at disproportionate rates by ineffective, out-of-
field, or inexperienced teachers, as described in section
1111(g)(1)(B) of the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of
1965 (20 U.S.C. 6311(g)(1)(B)).
(7) An assurance the State educational agency will meet the
maintenance of effort and equity requirements under section 6.
(b) No Further Information or Assurances.--The Secretary may not
require information or assurances in addition to the information and
assurances required under subsection (a) and section 6 unless such
information or assurance is necessary to determine compliance with this
Act.
SEC. 6. MAINTENANCE OF EFFORT AND EQUITY.
(a) State Educational Agency Maintenance of Effort.--As a condition
of receiving a grant under this Act for a fiscal year, a State
educational agency shall provide to the Secretary an assurance that
such State educational agency will, in such fiscal year, provide
support for public elementary and public secondary education, including
current and capital spending, that bears the same proportion to the
overall State budget for such fiscal year as the average amount of such
support for school years 2017-2018 and 2018-2019 bears to the average
overall State budget for the fiscal years applicable to such school
years.
(b) Maintenance of Equity.--
(1) State educational agency maintenance of equity for
high-need local educational agencies.--As a condition of
receiving a grant under this Act for a fiscal year, a State
educational agency shall provide to the Secretary an assurance
that if any per-pupil reduction in State funding occurs in such
fiscal year for any high-need local educational agency in the
State, it shall not be more than the overall per-pupil
reduction in State funds.
(2) State educational agency maintenance of equity for
schools with highest share of economically disadvantaged
students.--As a condition of receiving a grant under this Act
for a fiscal year, a State educational agency shall provide to
the Secretary an assurance that the State educational agency
will not reduce State funding below fiscal year 2019 levels for
the 20 percent of local educational agencies in the State with
the highest share of economically disadvantaged students.
(3) Local educational agency maintenance of equity for
high-poverty schools.--As a condition of receiving a subgrant
under this Act for a fiscal year, a local educational agency
shall provide to the State educational agency an assurance
that--
(A) if any per-pupil reduction in local educational
agency funding occurs in such fiscal year for any high-
poverty school served by the local educational agency,
it shall not be more than the overall per-pupil
reduction in local educational agency funds; and
(B) the local educational agency will not reduce
staffing in any high-poverty school in an amount that
is greater than--
(i) the total reduction in staffing in all
schools served by the local educational agency,
divided by
(ii) the total enrollment in such local
educational agency.
SEC. 7. REPORTING REQUIREMENTS.
(a) Reporting Requirements.--
(1) In general.--Not later than 60 days after the date of
enactment of this Act, and annually for each subsequent year
for which funds are made available under this Act, the
Secretary shall submit a report to the Committee on Health,
Education, Labor, and Pensions of the Senate, the Committee on
Appropriations of the Senate, the Committee on Education and
Labor of the House of Representatives, and the Committee on
Appropriations of the House of Representatives that includes
the following information:
(A) The outlying areas to which the Secretary
allocated funds under this Act.
(B) The outlying areas to which the Secretary did
not allocate funds under this Act.
(C) The amounts allocated to each outlying area
under this Act.
(D) The programs operated or funded by the Bureau
of Indian Education to which the Secretary, in
consultation with the Secretary of the Interior,
allocated funds.
(E) The programs operated or funded by the Bureau
of Indian Education to which the Secretary, in
consultation with the Secretary of the Interior, did
not allocate funds.
(F) The amount allocated to each program operated
or funded by the Bureau of Indian Education.
(G) The amount allocated to each State educational
agency under this Act.
(H) A summary of the reports the Secretary received
under subsections (b) and (c).
(2) Publication.--The Secretary shall make each report
submitted under paragraph (1) publicly available on the website
of the Department of Education.
(b) State Educational Agency Reporting.--Not later than 6 months
after the disbursement of subgrants and annually for each subsequent
year for which funds are made available under this Act, a State
educational agency that receives a grant under this Act shall submit a
report to the Secretary that includes the following information:
(1) The number and percentage of educator and other staff
positions that are eliminated or left unfilled in the State (as
reported on the annual report card under paragraph (1) or (2)
of section 1111(h) of the Elementary and Secondary Education
Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 6311(h))), included in the aggregate and
disaggregated by:
(A) High-poverty local education agencies and
schools compared to low-poverty local education
agencies and schools.
(B) Local educational agencies and schools serving
the highest number and percentage of minority children
compared to local education agencies and schools
serving the fewest number and percent of minority
children.
(2) The number and percentage of teaching positions that
are eliminated or left unfilled in the State (as reported on
the annual report card under paragraph (1) or (2) of section
1111(h) of the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965
(20 U.S.C. 6311(h))), included in the aggregate and
disaggregated by the following characteristics of the teacher
who previously held the position:
(A) Race and ethnicity.
(B) Certification status (full-certification or
provisional certification).
(C) Teachers in the first 2 years of teaching.
(D) Teachers with 3 or more years of teaching
experience.
(E) If determined appropriate by the State
educational agency, the most recent effectiveness
rating with respect to such teacher.
(3) The percentage of funds under this Act reserved under
section 3(c) and how such funds were spent.
(4) A summary of the activities for which the subgrants
were used in the State.
(5) A summary of how the State educational agency ensured
State funding for the 20 percent of local educational agencies
in the State with the highest share of economically
disadvantaged students remained at or above fiscal year 2019
levels.
(6) A summary of how the State educational agency supported
local educational agencies in prioritizing subgrants to meet
the needs of low-income students, students with disabilities,
English learners, minority children, students experiencing
homeless, children and youth in foster care, migrant children,
students involved with the juvenile justice system, and
children at risk for academic failure.
(7) The amount allocated by the State educational agency to
each local educational agency.
(8) A description of grant outcomes, including the extent
to which teacher shortages in high-need-fields in high-needs
schools remain.
(9) A summary of the reports the State educational agency
received under subsection (d).
(c) Fiscal Accountability.--Not later than 60 days after a State
educational agency receives funds under this Act, and annually for each
subsequent year for which funds are made available under this Act
thereafter, such State educational agency shall submit to the Secretary
the following:
(1) The number of full-time equivalent employees by
category prior to receiving the funds under this Act and the
number of full-time equivalent employees by category after
receiving such funds.
(2) The most current applicable maintenance of effort data
available to demonstrate compliance with section 6(a).
(3) The most current maintenance of equity data available
to demonstrate compliance with section 6(b).
(4) A summary of development and implementation of a
monitoring plan that will enable the State educational agency
to ensure that its local educational agencies comply with all
applicable programmatic and fiscal requirements.
(d) Local Educational Agency Reporting.--Not later than 1 year
after a local educational agency receives a subgrant under section
3(d), and annually for each subsequent year for which funds are made
available under this Act thereafter, such local educational agency
shall submit a report to the State educational agency that includes the
following:
(1) A list of the activities for which such subgrant funds
were used.
(2) A description of the outcomes from the use of such
subgrant funds.
(3) A summary of how the local educational agency sought to
preserve or improve the number of teacher and support staff
positions in the local educational agency's highest poverty
schools.
(4) The per-pupil expenditures (which shall include actual
personnel expenditures, including staff salary differentials
for years of employment, and actual nonpersonnel expenditures)
of State and local education funds for each school served by
the agency for the preceding fiscal year, disaggregated by each
quartile of students attending the school based on student
level of poverty and by each major racial or ethnic group in
the school, for the preceding fiscal year.
(5) A description of how the local educational agency
sought to protect the highest poverty schools from reductions-
in-force or hiring freezes.
(6) A description of how low-income and minority children
are not served at disproportionate rates by ineffective, out-
of-field, or inexperienced teachers.
(7) A description of how the local educational agency
allocated funding to high-need schools to support subgroups of
students, including low-income students, students with
disabilities, English learners, minority children, students
experiencing homelessness, children or youth in foster care,
migrant children, students involved with the juvenile justice
system, and children at risk for academic failure.
(8) The number of full-time equivalent employees by
category prior to receiving the subgrant and the number of full
time equivalent employees by category after receiving the
subgrant.
SEC. 8. DEFINITIONS.
In this Act:
(1) Economically disadvantaged student.--The term
``economically disadvantaged student'' means a student eligible
for a free or reduced price lunch under the Richard B. Russell
National School Lunch Act (42 U.S.C. 1751 et seq.).
(2) Education jobs fund.--The term ``Education Jobs Fund''
means the fund established under section 2(a).
(3) ESEA terms.--The terms ``English learner'', ``local
educational agency'', ``outlying area'', ``paraprofessional'',
``professional development'', ``school leader'', ``specialized
instructional support personnel'', ``Secretary'', ``State'',
``State educational agency'', and ``well-rounded education''
have the meanings given such terms in section 8101 of the
Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C.
7801).
(4) High-need local educational agency.--The term ``high-
need local educational agency'' means a local educational
agency that has a percentage of economically disadvantaged
students that is greater than the median percentage of
economically disadvantaged students for all local educational
agencies in the State.
(5) High-poverty school.--The term ``high-poverty school''
means, with respect to a school served by a local educational
agency, a school that serves a higher percentage of
economically disadvantaged students than the school that serves
the median amount of economically disadvantaged students served
by such local educational agency.
(6) Overall per-pupil reduction in local educational agency
funds.--The term ``overall per-pupil reduction in local
educational agency funds'' means, with respect to a fiscal
year--
(A) the total reduction in local educational agency
funds in such fiscal year provided to all schools
served by such local educational agency, divided by
(B) the total student enrollment in such schools
served by such local educational agency for each school
year applicable to such fiscal year.
(7) Overall per-pupil reduction in state funds.--The term
``overall per-pupil reduction in State funds'' means, with
respect to a fiscal year--
(A) the total reduction in State funds in such
fiscal year provided to all local educational agencies
in the State, divided by
(B) the total student enrollment in such local
educational agencies in the State for each school year
applicable to such fiscal year.
<all> | Save Education Jobs Act | To authorize the establishment of an Education Jobs Fund to retain and create education jobs in communities most impacted by COVID-19, and for other purposes. | Save Education Jobs Act | Rep. Hayes, Jahana | D | CT |
64 | 12,299 | H.R.1580 | Health | Improving Access to Alternative Pain Management Act
This bill allows psychological evaluation requirements for Medicare coverage of specified neurostimulation services to be met via telehealth. The bill also expands Medicare coverage to include such telehealth services. | To amend title XVIII of the Social Security Act to permit the use of
certain psychological evaluation via telehealth for Medicare coverage
of neurostimulation services for the treatment of chronic pain.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Improving Access to Alternative Pain
Management Act''.
SEC. 2. PERMITTING CERTAIN PSYCHOLOGICAL EVALUATIONS VIA TELEHEALTH FOR
MEDICARE COVERAGE OF NEUROSTIMULATION SERVICES FOR THE
TREATMENT OF CHRONIC PAIN.
(a) Permitting Use of Psychological Evaluation Via Telehealth for
Purposes of Certain Coverage of Neurostimulation Services.--Section
1834 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395m) is amended by adding
at the end the following:
``(z) Use of Psychological Evaluation Via Telehealth for Purposes
of Coverage of Neurostimulation Services for the Treatment of Chronic
Pain.--Notwithstanding any other provision of this title, beginning
January 1, 2022, for coverage under this part of neurostimulation
services, as identified under the National Coverage Determination
section 160.7, titled Medicare National Coverage Determination for
Electrical Nerve Stimulators, as in effect on January 1, 2020, for the
treatment of chronic pain, any requirement for a psychological
evaluation prior to receipt of the service may be satisfied through
such an evaluation via telehealth.''.
(b) Inclusion of Certain Psychological Evaluations as Telehealth
Services.--Section 1834(m)(4)(F)(i) of the Social Security Act (42
U.S.C. 1395m(4)(F)(i)) is amended by inserting before the period at the
end the following: ``, and, beginning January 1, 2022, shall include
psychological evaluations (identified by CPT codes 96130, 96131, 96136,
96137, 96138, and 96139 and any successor codes and additional codes
the Secretary determines may be necessary to perform the psychological
evaluation furnished prior to the provision of neurostimulation
services) furnished prior to the provision of neurostimulation services
(as described in section 1834(z)) for the purpose of treating chronic
pain''.
<all> | Improving Access to Alternative Pain Management Act | To amend title XVIII of the Social Security Act to permit the use of certain psychological evaluation via telehealth for Medicare coverage of neurostimulation services for the treatment of chronic pain. | Improving Access to Alternative Pain Management Act | Rep. Latta, Robert E. | R | OH |
65 | 7,263 | H.R.6312 | Health | Preventing Mandates on Toddlers Act
This bill prohibits federal funds from being used to implement or enforce the Department of Health and Human Services' rule titled Vaccine and Mask Requirements To Mitigate the Spread of COVID-19 in Head Start Programs, published on November 30, 2021, or any substantially similar rule, regulation, or agency statement. | To prohibit the use of Federal funds to enforce the rule submitted by
the Department of Health and Human Services relating to COVID-19
vaccine and mask requirements for Head Start programs.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Preventing Mandates on Toddlers
Act''.
SEC. 2. PROHIBITION ON FUNDING THE HHS RULE ON HEAD START COVID VACCINE
AND MASK REQUIREMENTS.
Notwithstanding any other law, no funds appropriated or otherwise
made available to the Department of Health and Human Services shall be
obligated or expended to--
(1) implement or enforce the rule submitted by the
Department of Health and Human Services relating to ``Vaccine
and Mask Requirements To Mitigate the Spread of COVID-19 in
Head Start Programs'' (86 Fed. Reg. 68052 (November 30, 2021));
or
(2) promulgate, implement, or enforce any rule, regulation,
or other agency statement, that is substantially similar to the
rule described in paragraph (1).
<all> | Preventing Mandates on Toddlers Act | To prohibit the use of Federal funds to enforce the rule submitted by the Department of Health and Human Services relating to COVID-19 vaccine and mask requirements for Head Start programs. | Preventing Mandates on Toddlers Act | Rep. McClain, Lisa C. | R | MI |
66 | 1,228 | S.4732 | Public Lands and Natural Resources | Enslaved Voyages Memorial Act
This bill authorizes the Georgetown African American Historic Landmark Project and Tour to establish a commemorative work on federal land in the District of Columbia to commemorate the enslaved individuals, the identities of whom may be known or unknown, who endured the Middle Passage.
The Georgetown African American Historic Landmark Project and Tour shall be solely responsible for acceptance of contributions for, and payment of the expenses of, the establishment of the commemorative work.
Federal funds may not be used to pay any expense of the establishment of the commemorative work. | To authorize the Georgetown African American Historic Landmark Project
and Tour to establish a commemorative work in the District of Columbia
and its environs, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Enslaved Voyages Memorial Act''.
SEC. 2. AUTHORIZATION TO ESTABLISH COMMEMORATIVE WORK.
(a) In General.--The Georgetown African American Historic Landmark
Project and Tour may establish a commemorative work on Federal land in
the District of Columbia and its environs to commemorate the enslaved
individuals, the identities of whom may be known or unknown, who
endured the Middle Passage.
(b) Compliance With Standards for Commemorative Works.--The
establishment of the commemorative work under this section shall be in
accordance with chapter 89 of title 40, United States Code (commonly
known as the ``Commemorative Works Act'').
(c) Prohibition on the Use of Federal Funds.--
(1) In general.--Federal funds may not be used to pay any
expense of the establishment of the commemorative work under
this section.
(2) Responsibility of the georgetown african american
historic landmark project and tour.--The Georgetown African
American Historic Landmark Project and Tour shall be solely
responsible for the acceptance of contributions for, and the
payment of the expenses of, the establishment of the
commemorative work under this section.
(d) Deposit of Excess Funds.--
(1) In general.--If, on payment of all expenses for the
establishment of the commemorative work (including the
maintenance and preservation amount required by paragraph (1)
of section 8906(b) of title 40, United States Code), there
remains a balance of funds received for the establishment of
the commemorative work, the Georgetown African American
Historic Landmark Project and Tour shall transmit the amount of
the balance to the Secretary of the Interior for deposit in the
account provided for in paragraph (3) of that section.
(2) On expiration of authority.--If, on expiration of the
authority for the commemorative work under section 8903(e) of
title 40, United States Code, there remains a balance of funds
received for the establishment of the commemorative work, the
Georgetown African American Historic Landmark Project and Tour
shall transmit the amount of the balance to a separate account
with the National Park Foundation for memorials, to be
available to the Secretary of the Interior or the Administrator
of General Services, as appropriate, in accordance with the
process provided in paragraph (4) of section 8906(b) of that
title for accounts established under paragraph (2) or (3) of
that section.
<all> | Enslaved Voyages Memorial Act | A bill to authorize the Georgetown African American Historic Landmark Project and Tour to establish a commemorative work in the District of Columbia and its environs, and for other purposes. | Enslaved Voyages Memorial Act | Sen. Booker, Cory A. | D | NJ |
67 | 6,215 | H.R.5712 | Government Operations and Politics | Drain the Swamp Act of 2021
This bill repeals the requirement that all offices attached to the seat of the federal government be exercised in the District of Columbia, except as otherwise expressly provided by law.
Each executive agency, by September 30, 2022, must submit a plan for the relocation of its headquarters outside of the Washington metropolitan area. Such plan shall
Each agency shall implement the plan by September 30, 2026. | To require the head of each executive agency to relocate such agency
outside of the Washington, DC, metropolitan area, and for other
purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Drain the Swamp Act of 2021''.
SEC. 2. RELOCATION OF AGENCY HEADQUARTERS.
(a) Repeal of Headquarters Location Requirement.--Section 72 of
title 4, United States Code, is repealed.
(b) Headquarters Relocation Plan.--
(1) In general.--Not later than September 30, 2022, the
head of each executive agency shall develop and submit to
Congress a plan for the relocation of the headquarters of that
agency outside of the Washington metropolitan area.
(2) Requirements.--The plan described in paragraph (1)
shall--
(A) identify a location for a new headquarters
outside of the Washington metropolitan area;
(B) maximize any potential cost savings associated
with the relocation;
(C) provide that, upon implementation of the plan,
no more than 10 percent of the employees of the agency
are based in the Washington metropolitan area; and
(D) consider any potential national security
implications of the relocation.
(3) Certification.--Prior to the submission of a plan under
paragraph (1), the Director of the Office of Management and
Budget and the Administrator of General Services shall certify
the compliance of the plan with the provisions of this section
if the plan meets the requirements described in paragraph (2).
(4) Implementation.--Not later than September 30, 2026, the
head of each executive agency shall implement the plan for such
agency submitted under paragraph (1).
(c) Definitions.--For purposes of this section:
(1) Executive agency.--The term ``executive agency'' has
the meaning given the term ``Executive agency'' in section 105
of title 5, United States Code, except that the term does not
include the Executive Office of the President.
(2) Washington metropolitan area.--The term ``Washington
metropolitan area'' means the geographic area located within
the boundaries of--
(A) the District of Columbia;
(B) Montgomery and Prince George's Counties in the
State of Maryland; and
(C) Arlington, Fairfax, Loudon, and Prince William
Counties and the City of Alexandria in the Commonwealth
of Virginia.
<all> | Drain the Swamp Act of 2021 | To require the head of each executive agency to relocate such agency outside of the Washington, DC, metropolitan area, and for other purposes. | Drain the Swamp Act of 2021 | Rep. Davidson, Warren | R | OH |
68 | 11,565 | H.R.9391 | Crime and Law Enforcement | Tribal Firearm Access Act
This bill expands the definition of identification document (for criminal offenses related to fraud and aggravated identity theft) to include an identification document issued by a tribal government. | To provide that identification documents issued by tribal governments
are generally accorded the same treatment under Federal criminal law as
identification documents issued by the Federal Government or by a State
or local government.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Tribal Firearm Access Act''.
SEC. 2. TREATMENT OF IDENTIFICATION DOCUMENTS ISSUED BY TRIBAL
GOVERNMENTS.
(a) In General.--Section 1028(d) of title 18, United States Code,
is amended--
(1) in paragraph (3), by inserting ``a tribal government,''
before ``a sponsoring entity'';
(2) in paragraph (11), by striking ``and'' at the end;
(3) in paragraph (12), by striking the period and inserting
``; and''; and
(4) by adding at the end the following:
``(13) the term `tribal government' means the recognized
governing body of any Indian or Alaska Native tribe, band,
nation, pueblo, village, community, component band, or
component reservation, individually identified (including
parenthetically) in the list published most recently as of the
date of the enactment of this paragraph pursuant to section 104
of the Federally Recognized Indian Tribe List Act of 1994.''.
(b) Effective Date.--The amendments made by subsection (a) shall
take effect on the date that is 90 days after the date of the enactment
of this Act.
<all> | Tribal Firearm Access Act | To provide that identification documents issued by tribal governments are generally accorded the same treatment under Federal criminal law as identification documents issued by the Federal Government or by a State or local government. | Tribal Firearm Access Act | Rep. Johnson, Dusty | R | SD |
69 | 3,424 | S.2898 | Labor and Employment | Unemployment Insurance Systems Modernization Act of 2021
This bill expands the list of requirements a state unemployment compensation system must meet for the state to receive federal funds for administration of the system.
Specifically the bill requires the unemployment law of each state to include various provisions to promote adaptability, including provisions for (1) handling surges in claims, (2) processing disaster unemployment assistance claims, (3) processing claims under temporary federal benefits programs, and (4) automating claims for short-time compensation.
The bill also requires states to utilize databases and other systems in an effort to prevent fraudulent and improper unemployment compensation payments. Specifically, states must use (1) a system selected by the Department of Labor for cross-matching unemployment claimants against available databases, (2) an automated system developed and approved by Labor for exchanging unemployment compensation information, and (3) the existing National Directory of New Hires for identifying individuals who have become employed. | To amend title III of the Social Security Act to provide for
improvements to State unemployment systems and to strengthen program
integrity, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Unemployment Insurance Systems
Modernization Act of 2021''.
SEC. 2. IMPROVEMENTS TO STATE UNEMPLOYMENT SYSTEMS AND STRENGTHENING
PROGRAM INTEGRITY.
(a) Unemployment Compensation Systems.--
(1) In general.--Section 303(a) of the Social Security Act
(42 U.S.C. 503(a)) is amended--
(A) in the matter preceding paragraph (1), by
striking ``provision for--'' and inserting ``provision
for each of the following:'';
(B) at the end of each of paragraphs (1) through
(10), by striking ``; and'' and inserting a period;
(C) in paragraph (11)(B), by striking ``The
immediate'' and inserting ``the immediate''; and
(D) by adding at the end the following new
paragraph:
``(13) The State system shall, in addition to meeting the
requirements under section 1137, meet the following
requirements:
``(A) The system shall be capable of accurately and
expeditiously processing a surge of claims, including
those filed under temporary Federal benefit programs
that the State may be expected to administer, that
would represent a twentyfold increase in claims from
January 2020 levels, occurring over a one-month period.
``(B) The system shall be capable of--
``(i) adjusting wage replacement levels for
each individual receiving unemployment
compensation, but not to exceed 100 percent of
wage replacement;
``(ii) adjusting weekly earnings
disregards, including the ability to adjust
such disregards in relation to an individual's
earnings or weekly benefit amount; and
``(iii) providing for wage replacement
levels that vary based on the individual's
duration of benefit receipt.
``(C) The system shall have in place an automated
process for receiving and processing claims for
disaster unemployment assistance under section 410(a)
of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency
Assistance Act (42 U.S.C. 5177(a)), with flexibility to
adapt rules regarding individuals eligible for
assistance and the amount payable.
``(D) In the case of a State that makes payments of
short-time compensation under a short-time compensation
program (as defined in section 3306(v) of the Internal
Revenue Code of 1986), the system shall have in place
an automated process of receiving and processing claims
for short-time compensation.
``(E) The system shall have in place an automated
process for receiving and processing claims for--
``(i) unemployment compensation for Federal
civilian employees under subchapter I of
chapter 85 of title 5, United States Code;
``(ii) unemployment compensation for ex-
servicemembers under subchapter II of chapter
85 of title 5, United States Code; and
``(iii) trade readjustment allowances under
sections 231 through 233 of the Trade Act of
1974 (19 U.S.C. 2291-2293).
``(F) The system shall have in place an automated
process capable of receiving and processing claims
under future temporary Federal benefit programs, such
as those that may--
``(i) provide extended benefits for
individuals exhausting State compensation (such
as under the Pandemic Emergency Unemployment
Compensation program established in section
2107 of the CARES Act (15 U.S.C. 9025)); or
``(ii) expand coverage to include
individuals not eligible for State compensation
(such as under the Pandemic Unemployment
Assistance program established in section 2102
of the CARES Act (15 U.S.C. 9021)).''.
(2) Effective date.--The amendments made by paragraph (1)
shall apply to weeks of unemployment beginning on or after the
earlier of--
(A) the date the State changes its statutes,
regulations, or policies in order to comply with such
amendment; or
(B) October 1, 2024.
(b) Electronic Transmission of Unemployment Compensation
Information.--Section 303 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 503) is
amended by adding at the end the following new subsection:
``(n) Electronic Transmission of Unemployment Compensation
Information.--
``(1) In general.--Not later than October 1, 2024, the
State agency charged with administration of the State law shall
use a system developed (in consultation with stakeholders) and
designated by the Secretary of Labor for automated electronic
transmission of requests for information relating to
unemployment compensation and the provision of such information
between such agency and employers or their agents. Such system
shall ensure that any information shared is secure and
safeguarded from potential abuse or misuse.
``(2) Use of appropriated funds.--The Secretary of Labor
may use funds appropriated for grants to States under this
title to make payments on behalf of States as the Secretary
determines is appropriate for the use of the system described
in paragraph (1).
``(3) Employer participation.--The Secretary of Labor shall
work with the State agency charged with administration of the
State law to increase the number of employers using this system
and to resolve any technical challenges with the system.
``(4) Reports on use of electronic system.--After the end
of each fiscal year, on a date determined by the Secretary,
each State shall report to the Secretary information on--
``(A) the proportion of employers using the
designated system described in paragraph (1);
``(B) the reasons employers are not using such
system; and
``(C) the efforts the State is undertaking to
increase employer's use of such system.
``(5) Enforcement.--Whenever the Secretary of Labor, after
reasonable notice and opportunity for hearing to the State
agency charged with the administration of the State law, finds
that there is a failure to comply substantially with the
requirements of paragraph (1), the Secretary of Labor shall
notify such State agency that further payments will not be made
to the State until the Secretary of Labor is satisfied that
there is no longer any such failure. Until the Secretary of
Labor is so satisfied, such Secretary shall make no future
certification to the Secretary of the Treasury with respect to
the State.''.
(c) Unemployment Compensation Integrity Data Hub.--
(1) In general.--Section 303(a) of the Social Security Act
(42 U.S.C. 503(a)), as amended by subsection (a), is amended by
adding at the end the following new paragraph:
``(14) The State agency charged with administration of the
State law shall use the system designated by the Secretary of
Labor for cross-matching claimants of unemployment compensation
under State law against any databases in the system to prevent
and detect fraud and improper payments.''.
(2) Effective date.--The amendment made by paragraph (1)
shall apply to weeks of unemployment beginning on or after the
earlier of--
(A) the date the State changes its statutes,
regulations, or policies in order to comply with such
amendment; or
(B) October 1, 2024.
(d) Use of National Directory of New Hires in Administration of
Unemployment Compensation Programs and Penalties on Noncomplying
Employers.--
(1) In general.--Section 303 of the Social Security Act (42
U.S.C. 503), as amended by subsection (b), is amended by adding
at the end the following new subsection:
``(o) Use of National Directory of New Hires.--
``(1) In general.--Not later than October 1, 2024, the
State agency charged with administration of the State law
shall--
``(A) compare information in the National Directory
of New Hires established under section 453(i) against
information about individuals claiming unemployment
compensation to identify any such individuals who may
have become employed, in accordance with any
regulations or guidance that the Secretary of Health
and Human Services may issue and consistent with the
computer matching provisions of the Privacy Act of
1974;
``(B) take timely action to verify whether the
individuals identified pursuant to subparagraph (A) are
employed; and
``(C) upon verification pursuant to subparagraph
(B), take appropriate action to suspend or modify
unemployment compensation payments, and to initiate
recovery of any improper unemployment compensation
payments that have been made.
``(2) Enforcement.--Whenever the Secretary of Labor, after
reasonable notice and opportunity for hearing to the State
agency charged with the administration of the State law, finds
that there is a failure to comply substantially with the
requirements of paragraph (1), the Secretary of Labor shall
notify such State agency that further payments will not be made
to the State until the Secretary of Labor is satisfied that
there is no longer any such failure. Until the Secretary of
Labor is so satisfied, such Secretary shall make no future
certification to the Secretary of the Treasury with respect to
the State.''.
(2) Penalties.--
(A) In general.--Section 453A(d) of the Social
Security Act (42 U.S.C. 653a(d)), in the matter
preceding paragraph (1), is amended by striking ``have
the option to set a State civil money penalty which
shall not exceed'' and inserting ``set a State civil
money penalty which shall be not less than''.
(B) Effective date.--The amendment made by
subparagraph (A) shall apply to penalties assessed on
or after October 1, 2024.
(e) State Performance.--
(1) In general.--Section 303 of the Social Security Act (42
U.S.C. 503), as amended by subsections (b) and (d), is amended
by adding at the end the following new subsection:
``(p) State Performance.--
``(1) In general.--For purposes of assisting States in
meeting the requirements of this title, title IX, title XII, or
chapter 23 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (commonly
referred to as `the Federal Unemployment Tax Act'), the
Secretary of Labor may--
``(A) consistent with subsection (a)(1), establish
measures of State performance, including criteria for
acceptable levels of performance, performance goals,
and performance measurement programs;
``(B) consistent with subsection (a)(6), require
States to provide to the Secretary of Labor data or
other relevant information from time to time concerning
the operations of the State or State performance,
including the measures, criteria, goals, or programs
established under paragraph (1);
``(C) require States with sustained failure to meet
acceptable levels of performance or with performance
that is substantially below acceptable standards, as
determined based on the measures, criteria, goals, or
programs established under subparagraph (A), to
implement specific corrective actions and use specified
amounts of the administrative grants under this title
provided to such States to improve performance; and
``(D) based on the data and other information
provided under subparagraph (B)--
``(i) to the extent the Secretary of Labor
determines funds are available after providing
grants to States under this title for the
administration of State laws, recognize and
make awards to States for performance
improvement, or performance exceeding the
criteria or meeting the goals established under
subparagraph (A); or
``(ii) to the extent the Secretary of Labor
determines funds are available after providing
grants to States under this title for the
administration of State laws, provide incentive
funds to high-performing States based on the
measures, criteria, goals, or programs
established under subparagraph (A).
``(2) Enforcement.--Whenever the Secretary of Labor, after
reasonable notice and opportunity for hearing to the State
agency charged with the administration of the State law, finds
that there is a failure to comply substantially with the
requirements of paragraph (1), the Secretary of Labor shall
notify such State agency that further payments will not be made
to the State until the Secretary of Labor is satisfied that
there is no longer any such failure. Until the Secretary of
Labor is so satisfied, such Secretary shall make no future
certification to the Secretary of the Treasury with respect to
the State.''.
(2) Effective date.--The amendments made by this subsection
shall take effect on the date of enactment of this Act.
(f) Funding.--Notwithstanding any other provision of law, out of
any payments of compensation from the unemployment fund of the State
that were made under the provisions of subtitle A of title II of
division A of the CARES Act and are determined to have been made in
error and are subsequently recovered by the State, the State may,
immediately following receipt of such recovered amount--
(1) deposit 50 percent of such amount in a fund from which
moneys may be withdrawn to carry out the provisions of, and the
amendments made by, this section, including any regional or
multi-State efforts; and
(2) pay 50 percent of such amount to the Secretary of the
Treasury to the credit of the account of the State in the
Unemployment Trust Fund.
(g) Permissible Use of CARES Act Funding.--Section 2118 of the
CARES Act (15 U.S.C. 9034) is amended by adding at the end the
following new subsection:
``(d) Permissible Use of Grant Funds.--A grant to a State or
territory awarded under subsection (b)(3) may be used for purposes of
carrying out the provisions of, and the amendments made by, subsections
(a) through (e) of section 2 of the Unemployment Insurance Systems
Modernization Act of 2021.''.
<all> | Unemployment Insurance Systems Modernization Act of 2021 | A bill to amend title III of the Social Security Act to provide for improvements to State unemployment systems and to strengthen program integrity, and for other purposes. | Unemployment Insurance Systems Modernization Act of 2021 | Sen. Young, Todd | R | IN |
70 | 12,094 | H.R.8758 | Armed Forces and National Security | Building Credit Access for Veterans Act of 2022
This bill requires the Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) to implement a pilot program to assess the feasibility and advisability of using alternative credit scoring information or models to improve the determination of creditworthiness of certain individuals and to increase the number of such individuals who are able to obtain VA housing and small business loans. Specifically, the program is for veterans or members of the Armed Forces who are eligible for VA housing or small business loans and have insufficient credit history.
Under the program, the VA must assess the feasibility and advisability of establishing criteria for acceptable commercially available credit scoring models to be used by lenders for the purpose of guaranteeing or insuring a VA housing or small business loan.
Participation is voluntary on an opt-in basis for lenders, borrowers, and individuals.
The VA must conduct outreach to lenders and individuals to inform them of the pilot program. | To require the Secretary of Veterans Affairs to carry out a pilot
program on using alternative credit scoring information for veterans
and members of the Armed Forces, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Building Credit Access for Veterans
Act of 2022''.
SEC. 2. DEPARTMENT OF VETERANS AFFAIRS PILOT PROGRAM ON USE OF
ALTERNATIVE CREDIT SCORING INFORMATION OR CREDIT SCORING
MODELS.
(a) Pilot Program Required.--
(1) In general.--Not later than one year after the date of
the enactment of this Act, the Secretary of Veterans Affairs
shall commence carrying out a pilot program that will assess
the feasibility and advisability of--
(A) using alternative credit scoring information or
credit scoring models using alternative credit scoring
methodology for an individual described in paragraph
(2)--
(i) to improve the determination of
creditworthiness of such an individual; and
(ii) to increase the number of such
individuals who are able to obtain a loan
guaranteed or insured under chapter 37 of title
38, United States Code; and
(B) in consultation with such entities as the
Secretary considers appropriate, establishing criteria
for acceptable commercially available credit scoring
models to be used by lenders for the purpose of
guaranteeing or insuring a loan under chapter 37 of
title 38, United State Code.
(2) Individual described.--An individual described in this
paragraph is a veteran or a member of the Armed Forces who--
(A) is eligible for a loan under chapter 37 of
title 38, United States Code; and
(B) has an insufficient credit history for a lender
or the Secretary to determine the creditworthiness of
the individual.
(3) Alternative credit scoring information.--Alternative
credit scoring information described in paragraph (1)(A) may
include proof of rent, utility, and insurance payment
histories, and such other information as the Secretary
considers appropriate.
(b) Voluntary Participation.--
(1) In general.--The Secretary shall ensure that any
participation in the pilot program is voluntary on an opt-in
basis for a lender, a borrower, and an individual described in
subsection (a)(2).
(2) Notice of participation.--Subject to paragraph (3), any
lender who participates in the pilot program shall--
(A) notify each individual described in subsection
(a)(2) who, during the pilot program, applies for a
loan under chapter 37 of title 38, United States Code,
from such lender, of the lender's participation in the
pilot program; and
(B) offer such individual the opportunity to
participate in the pilot program.
(3) Limitation.--
(A) In general.--The Secretary may establish a
limitation on the number of individuals and lenders
that may participate in the pilot program.
(B) Report.--If the Secretary limits participation
in the pilot program under subparagraph (A), the
Secretary shall, not later than 15 days after
establishing such limitation, submit to Congress a
report setting forth the reasons for establishing such
limitation.
(c) Approval of Credit Scoring Models.--
(1) In general.--A lender participating in the pilot
program may not use a credit scoring model under subsection
(a)(1)(A) until the Secretary has reviewed and approved such
credit scoring model for purposes of the pilot program.
(2) Publication of criteria.--The Secretary shall publish
in the Federal Register any criteria established under
subsection (a)(1)(B) for acceptable commercially available
credit scoring models that use alternative credit scoring
information described in subsection (a)(1)(A) to be used for
purposes of the pilot program.
(3) Considerations; approval of certain models.--In
selecting credit scoring models to approve under this section,
the Secretary shall--
(A) consider the criteria for credit score
assessments under section 1254.7 of title 12, Code of
Federal Regulations; and
(B) approve any commercially available credit
scoring model that has been approved pursuant to
section 302(b)(7) of the Federal National Mortgage
Association Charter Act (12 U.S.C. 1717(b)(7)) or
section 305(d) of the Federal Home Loan Mortgage
Corporation Act (12 U.S.C. 1454)(d)).
(d) Outreach.--To the extent practicable, the Secretary shall
conduct outreach to lenders and individuals described in subsection
(a)(2) to inform such persons of the pilot program.
(e) Report.--
(1) In general.--Not later than two years after the date of
the enactment of this Act, the Secretary shall submit to
Congress a report on the pilot program.
(2) Contents.--The report submitted under paragraph (1)
shall include the following:
(A) The findings of the Secretary with respect to
the feasibility and advisability of using alternative
credit scoring information or credit scoring models
using alternative credit scoring methodology for
individuals described in subsection (a)(2).
(B) A description of the efforts of the Secretary
to assess the feasibility and advisability of using
alternative credit scoring information or credit
scoring models as described in subparagraph (A).
(C) To the extent practicable, the following:
(i) The rate of participation in the pilot
program.
(ii) An assessment of whether participants
in the pilot program benefitted from such
participation.
(D) An assessment of the effect of the pilot
program on the subsidy rate for loans guaranteed or
insured by the Secretary under chapter 37 of title 38,
United States Code.
(E) Such other information as the Secretary
considers appropriate.
(f) Termination.--
(1) In general.--The Secretary shall complete the pilot
program required by subsection (a)(1) not later than September
30, 2025.
(2) Effect on loans and applications.--The termination of
the pilot program under paragraph (1) shall not affect a loan
guaranteed, or for which loan applications have been received
by a participating lender, on or before the date of the
completion of the pilot program.
(g) Insufficient Credit History Defined.--In this section, the term
``insufficient credit history'', with respect to an individual
described in subsection (a)(2), means that the individual does not have
a credit record with one of the national credit reporting agencies or
such credit record contains insufficient credit information to assess
creditworthiness.
<all> | Building Credit Access for Veterans Act of 2022 | To require the Secretary of Veterans Affairs to carry out a pilot program on using alternative credit scoring information for veterans and members of the Armed Forces, and for other purposes. | Building Credit Access for Veterans Act of 2022 | Rep. Levin, Mike | D | CA |
71 | 13,830 | H.R.2305 | Taxation | Senior Accessible Housing Act
This bill allows a refundable income tax credit to individual taxpayers who have attained age 60 for expenditures in their residences for the installation of entrance and exit ramps, the widening of doorways, the installation of handrails, grab bars, and non-slip flooring. | To amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to provide a refundable tax
credit to seniors who install modifications on their residences that
would enable them to age in place, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Senior Accessible Housing Act''.
SEC. 2. HOME MODIFICATION CREDIT FOR SENIORS.
(a) In General.--Subpart C of part IV of subchapter A of chapter 1
of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (relating to refundable credits)
is amended by inserting after section 36B the following:
``SEC. 36C. HOME MODIFICATION CREDIT FOR SENIORS.
``(a) Allowance of Credit.--In the case of a qualified individual,
there shall be allowed as a credit against the tax imposed by this
subtitle for the taxable year an amount equal to the aggregate
qualified expenditures made by the taxpayer with respect to a qualified
residence during such year.
``(b) Limitations.--
``(1) Limitation based on adjusted gross income.--
``(A) In general.--The amount of the credit
allowable under subsection (a) shall be reduced (but
not below zero) by $1 for each $2 (or fraction thereof)
by which the taxpayer's modified adjusted gross income
exceeds the threshold amount.
``(B) Threshold amount.--For purposes of
subparagraph (A), the term `threshold amount' means--
``(i) $150,000 in the case of a joint
return, and
``(ii) $100,000 in any other case.
``(C) Modified adjusted gross income.--For purposes
of this paragraph, the term `modified adjusted gross
income' means adjusted gross income--
``(i) increased by any amount excluded from
gross income under section 911, 931, or 933,
and
``(ii) reduced by any amount of social
security benefits (as defined in section 86(d))
which is included in gross income under section
86 for the taxable year.
``(D) Marital status.--For purposes of this
paragraph, marital status shall be determined under
section 7703.
``(2) Lifetime credit limitation.--The amount allowed as a
credit under subsection (a) (determined after the application
of paragraph (1)) with respect to the taxpayer for any taxable
year shall not exceed the excess (if any) of--
``(A) $30,000, over
``(B) the aggregate amount allowed as a credit
under subsection (a) to such taxpayer for all prior
taxable years.
``(c) Definitions.--For purposes of this section--
``(1) Qualified individual.--The term `qualified
individual' means an individual who has attained 60 years of
age.
``(2) Qualified expenditure.--The term `qualified
expenditure' means an expenditure for any of the following
modifications installed on a qualified residence:
``(A) The installation of entrance and exit ramps.
``(B) The widening of doorways.
``(C) The installation of handrails or grab bars.
``(D) The installation of non-slip flooring.
``(E) A modification that is included in a list
established and maintained in accordance with
subsection (d)(2).
``(3) Qualified residence.--The term `qualified residence'
has the meaning given that term in section 163(h)(4)(A).
``(d) Special Rules.--
``(1) Labor costs.--Expenditures for labor costs properly
allocable to the onsite preparation, assembly, or original
installation of a modification described under subsection
(c)(2) and for piping or wiring to interconnect such
modification to the dwelling unit shall be taken into account
for purposes of this section.
``(2) List of modifications.--The Secretary, in
consultation with the Secretary of Health and Human Services
and after receiving the input of members of the public
(including seniors groups, health organizations, and social
services organizations), shall establish and maintain a list of
any modification that, if installed on a residence of a
qualified individual, would enhance the ability of such
individual to remain living safely, independently, and
comfortably in such residence.
``(3) When expenditure made.--
``(A) In general.--Except as provided in
subparagraph (B), a qualified expenditure shall be
treated as made when the original installation of the
modification is completed.
``(B) Expenditures as part of building
construction.--In the case of a qualified expenditure
in connection with the construction or reconstruction
of a structure, such expenditure shall be treated as
made when the original use of the constructed or
reconstructed structure by the taxpayer begins.
``(e) Basis Adjustments.--For purposes of this subtitle, if a
credit is allowed under this section for any expenditure with respect
to any property, the increase in the basis of such property which would
(but for this subsection) result from such expenditure shall be reduced
by the amount of the credit so allowed.
``(f) Credit May Be Assigned.--
``(1) In general.--If the taxpayer elects the application
of this subsection for any taxable year, any portion of the
credit determined under this section (after the application of
subsection (b)) for such year which would (but for this
subsection) be allowable to the taxpayer may be assigned to any
person who is an eligible designee. The person so designated
shall be allowed the amount of the credit so assigned and shall
be treated as the taxpayer with respect to such credit for
purposes of this title (other than this paragraph), except that
such credit shall be treated as a credit listed in section
38(b) for such taxable year (and not allowed under subsection
(a)).
``(2) Eligible designee.--For purposes of paragraph (1),
the term `eligible designee' means any person who--
``(A) with respect to the qualified residence,
makes any modification described in subsection (c)(2)
with respect to which the credit allowable under
subsection (a) is attributable,
``(B) is licensed by the local governmental
jurisdiction in which the qualified residence is
located to make the modification or installation, and
``(C) is credentialed in aging home modification by
an entity approved by the Secretary of Health and Human
Services pursuant to section 2(b) of the Senior
Accessible Housing Act.
``(3) Election requirements.--Any election under paragraph
(1) shall include such information and shall be made at such
time, and in such form and manner, as the Secretary shall by
regulation prescribe.''.
(b) Certification Requirements.--For purposes of section
36C(f)(2)(C) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, the Secretary of
Health and Human Services may approve a third-part entity to certify
persons qualified in the area of accessible home modifications and
independent living. In determining whether to approve a person, the
Secretary shall ensure that certifications cover home modification
solutions for aging at home, local and State building regulations,
construction standards, and appropriateness of modifications.
(c) Conforming Amendments.--
(1) Section 38(b) of such Code is amended by striking
``plus'' at the end of paragraph (32), by striking the period
at the end of paragraph (33) and inserting ``, plus'', and by
adding at the end the following new paragraph:
``(34) the portion of the home modification credit for
seniors assigned to the taxpayer under section 36C(f).''.
(2) Section 1016(a) of such Code is amended by striking
``and'' at the end of paragraph (37), by striking the period at
the end of paragraph (38) and inserting ``; and'', and by
inserting after paragraph (38) the following:
``(39) to the extent provided in section 36C(e), in the
case of amounts with respect to which a credit has been allowed
under section 36E.''.
(3) Paragraph (2) of section 1324(b) of title 31, United
States Code, is amended by inserting ``36C,'' after ``36B,''.
(d) Clerical Amendment.--The table of sections for subpart C of
part IV of subchapter A of chapter 1 of the Internal Revenue Code of
1986 is amended by inserting after the item relating to section 36B the
following new item:
``Sec. 36C. Home modification credit for seniors.''.
(e) Effective Date.--The amendments made by this section shall
apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2020.
<all> | Senior Accessible Housing Act | To amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to provide a refundable tax credit to seniors who install modifications on their residences that would enable them to age in place, and for other purposes. | Senior Accessible Housing Act | Rep. Crist, Charlie | D | FL |
72 | 11,289 | H.R.5599 | Armed Forces and National Security | Burn Pit Program to Review Operations and Management of ILER System Efficacy Act or the Burn Pit PROMISE Act
This bill requires the Government Accountability Office to study and report on the implementation and effectiveness of the Individual Longitudinal Exposure Record program of the Department of Defense and the Department of Veterans Affairs. | To direct the Comptroller General of the United States to conduct a
biennial study on the Individual Longitudinal Exposure Record program
of the Department of Defense and the Department of Veterans Affairs,
and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Burn Pit Program to Review
Operations and Management of ILER System Efficacy Act'' or the ``Burn
Pit PROMISE Act''.
SEC. 2. GAO BIENNIAL STUDY ON INDIVIDUAL LONGITUDINAL EXPOSURE RECORD
PROGRAM.
(a) Studies and Reports Required.--Not later than December 31,
2022, and once every two years thereafter until December 31, 2030, the
Comptroller General of the United States shall--
(1) conduct a study on the implementation and effectiveness
of the Individual Longitudinal Exposure Record program of the
Department of Defense and the Department of Veterans Affairs;
and
(2) submit to the appropriate congressional committees a
report containing the findings of the most recently conducted
study.
(b) Elements.--The biennial studies under subsection (a) shall
include an assessment of elements as follows:
(1) Initial study.--The initial study conducted under
subsection (a) shall assess, at a minimum, the following:
(A) Statistics relating to use of the Individual
Longitudinal Exposure Record program, including the
total number of individuals the records of whom are
contained therein and the total number of records
accessible under the program.
(B) Costs associated with the program, including
any cost overruns associated with the program.
(C) The capacity to expand the program to include
the medical records of veterans who served prior to the
establishment of the program.
(D) Any illness recently identified as relating to
a toxic exposure (or any guidance relating to such an
illness recently issued) by either the Secretary of
Defense or the Secretary of Veterans Affairs, including
any such illness or guidance that relates to open burn
pit exposure.
(E) How the program has enabled (or failed to
enable) the discovery, notification, and medical care
of individuals affected by an illness described in
subparagraph (D).
(F) Physician and patient feedback on the program,
particularly feedback that relates to ease of use.
(G) Cybersecurity and privacy protections of
patient data stored under the program, including
whether any classified or restricted data has been
stored under the program (such as data relating to
deployment locations or duty stations).
(H) Any technical or logistical impediments to the
implementation or expansion of the program, including
any impediments to the inclusion in the program of
databases or materials originally intended to be
included.
(I) Any issues relating to read-only access to data
under the program by veterans.
(J) Any issues relating to the interoperability of
the program between the Department of Defense and the
Department of Veterans Affairs.
(2) Subsequent studies.--Except as provided in paragraph
(3), each study conducted under subsection (a) following the
initial study specified in paragraph (1) shall assess--
(A) statistics relating to use of the Individual
Longitudinal Exposure Record program, including the
total number of individuals the records of whom are
contained therein and the total number of records
accessible under the program; and
(B) such other elements as the Comptroller General
determines appropriate, which may include any other
element specified in paragraph (1).
(3) Final study.--The final study conducted under
subsection (a) shall assess--
(A) the elements specified in subparagraphs (A),
(B), (D), (E), (F), and (H) of paragraph (1); and
(B) such other elements as the Comptroller General
determines appropriate, which may include any other
element specified in paragraph (1).
(c) Access by Comptroller General.--
(1) Information and materials.--Upon request of the
Comptroller General, the Secretary of Defense and the Secretary
of Veterans Affairs shall make available to the Comptroller
General any information or other materials necessary for the
conduct of each biennial study under subsection (a).
(2) Interviews.--In addition to such other authorities as
are available, the Comptroller General shall have the right to
interview officials and employees of the Department of Defense
and the Department of Veterans Affairs (including clinicians,
claims adjudicators, and researchers) as necessary for the
conduct of each biennial study under subsection (a).
(3) Information from patients and former patients.--
(A) Development of questionnaire.--In carrying out
each biennial study under subsection (a), the
Comptroller General may develop a questionnaire for
individuals the records of whom are contained in the
Individual Longitudinal Exposure Record, to obtain the
information necessary for the conduct of the study.
(B) Distribution.--The Secretary concerned shall
ensure that any questionnaire developed pursuant to
subparagraph (A) is distributed to individuals the
records of whom are contained in the Individual
Longitudinal Exposure Record.
(d) Definitions.--In this Act:
(1) The term ``appropriate congressional committees''
means--
(A) the Committee on Armed Services and the
Committee on Veterans' Affairs of the House of
Representatives; and
(B) the Committee on Armed Services and the
Committee on Veterans' Affairs of the Senate.
(2) The term ``Secretary concerned'' means--
(A) the Secretary of Defense, with respect to
matters concerning the Department of Defense; and
(B) the Secretary of Veterans Affairs, with respect
to matters concerning the Department of Veterans
Affairs.
<all> | Burn Pit Program to Review Operations and Management of ILER System Efficacy Act | To direct the Comptroller General of the United States to conduct a biennial study on the Individual Longitudinal Exposure Record program of the Department of Defense and the Department of Veterans Affairs, and for other purposes. | Burn Pit PROMISE Act
Burn Pit Program to Review Operations and Management of ILER System Efficacy Act | Rep. Sherrill, Mikie | D | NJ |
73 | 14,868 | H.R.7130 | Public Lands and Natural Resources | Leandra Wai Act
This bill provides for the conveyance and return by the Department of Defense (DOD), to the state of Hawaii, without consideration, all interest of the United States in the parcel of property known as the Makua Military Reservation located in Oahu, Hawaii.
DOD shall, in collaboration with the state, conduct a study to
There is established a Makua Military Reservation Conveyance, Remediation, and Environmental Restoration Trust Fund to (1) make the reservation suitable for agriculture, residential use, and human habitation, including any remedial actions under the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980; and (2) carry out this bill.
The U.S. Army Corps of Engineers shall enter into a memorandum of understanding with the state that shall govern | To direct the Secretary of Defense to convey the Makua Military
Reservation to the State of Hawai`i and establish a trust fund for such
conveyance, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This bill may be cited as the ``Leandra Wai Act''.
SEC. 2. FINDINGS.
Congress finds the following:
(1) Leandra Wai was a co-founder of the Native Hawaiian-led
non-profit Malama Makua, served as its president, and grounded
the organization as its cultural practitioner until her passing
in 2016. She embodied the cultural healing power of Makua
Valley, and was the heart, soul, and spirit of Malama Makua as
the organization fought in Federal court to stop live-fire
training in the sacred valley. Twice per month, from 2002 until
shortly before her passing, Wai led cultural access into Makua
Valley, facilitating the cultural reconnection of thousands of
community members with Makua. Her leadership still guides
Malama Makua.
(2) Makua, which means ``parents'' in Hawaiian, is a sacred
site, rich in culture and biological resources.
(3) Makua Military Reservation (in this section referred to
as ``MMR'') contains more than 100 sites eligible for listing
on the National Register of Historic Places, including Hawaiian
temples, shrines, petroglyphs, and other sacred, cultural, and
historic sites. Past military live-fire training has damaged
Makua's cultural sites, bombing them and pockmarking them with
bullet holes. Moreover, continued military occupation of MMR
severely limits access by Native Hawaiian cultural
practitioners.
(4) In Native Hawaiian stories and legends, or
``mo`olelo'', Makua is an important place within a much more
expansive traditional cultural landscape and network of
interrelated sites. It has heightened cultural significance
because of its relationship to other sites.
(5) Military training-related fires at MMR threaten more
than 40 species of animals and plants protected under the
Endangered Species Act (Public Law 93-205; 16 U.S.C. 1531 et
seq.), as well as native habitat identified as critical to the
survival and recovery of these imperiled species. Additionally,
training-related fires have burned thousands of acres at MMR.
(6) Historically, Makua was considered ```aina momona'', or
fertile land, with evidence of extensive agricultural terracing
that could have produced substantial amounts of food and
provided access to important offshore fisheries.
(7) Traditional and customary practices, such as fishing,
gathering of plants, and funerary practices, have continued at
Makua in different forms to the present.
(8) Toxins from military training and related activities at
MMR, such as prescribed burns, contaminate Makua's air, land,
and water. Contaminants are transported to civilian areas
beyond MMR's boundaries--to Makua Beach and the ocean--via the
air, Makua's streams, overland flow during storm events, and
groundwater.
(9) The Armed Forces seized Makua for training shortly
after the attack on Pearl Harbor, evicting the families who had
lived there for generations, bombing their church, and
destroying their homes. The Armed Forces promised to return the
land to the local families six months after the end of
hostilities but broke that promise. Nearly eight decades after
World War II ended, the Armed Forces still occupy MMR.
(10) In addition to seizing Hawaiian trust lands, the Armed
Forces condemned kuleana land grants from Native Hawaiian
families.
(11) MMR lies just across Farrington Highway, a public
roadway, from Makua Beach, a public beach where local children
play, and local families gather fish and limu to put food on
their tables.
(12) The Armed Forces have not conducted live fire training
at MMR since June 2004. For more than 23 years, Hawai`i-based
military units have consistently and repeatedly been able to
achieve readiness to deploy for combat missions without
conducting any live-fire training at MMR.
(13) The Wai`anae district is home to one of the largest
concentrations of Native Hawaiians anywhere, yet approximately
one-third of Wai`anae's land is occupied by the Armed Forces.
The community has been burdened with multiple threats to
health, safety, and the environment, which is reflected in poor
health and socioeconomic indicators.
(14) Makua is an important site for the revitalization of
Native Hawaiian cultural practices and a valuable educational
resource for Hawaiian culture, history, ecology, and
environmental restoration.
SEC. 3. STUDY OF THE COST TO MAKE THE MAKUA MILITARY RESERVATION
SUITABLE FOR HUMAN HABITATION.
(a) Study Required.--The Secretary of Defense shall, in
collaboration with the State of Hawai`i, conduct a study to--
(1) map out land hazards including--
(A) unexploded ordnance; and
(B) other contaminants;
(2) determine an appropriate schedule, consistent with
community standards, for the removal of such land hazards; and
(3) provide a cost estimate for the land remediation and
restoration activities required to make the Makua Military
Reservation suitable for agriculture, residential use, and
human habitation.
(b) Report Required.--Not later than one year following the date of
the enactment of this Act, the Secretary, in collaboration with the
State of Hawai`i, shall submit a report to the appropriate
congressional committees that contains the results of such study.
SEC. 4. CONVEYANCE OF THE MAKUA MILITARY RESERVATION TO THE STATE OF
HAWAI`I.
(a) Conveyance.--The United States, through the Secretary of
Defense, shall convey and return, without consideration, to the State
of Hawai`i, all right, title, and interest of the United States in and
to that parcel of property known as the Makua Military Reservation
located in Oahu, Hawai`i.
(b) Deadline.--Notwithstanding section 120(h)(3)(A)(ii)(I) of the
Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act
of 1980 (42 U.S.C. 9620(h)(3)(A)(ii)(I)), the Secretary shall carry out
the conveyance under subsection (a) of this section not later than 180
days after the date of the enactment of this Act.
(c) Description of Property.--The exact acreage and legal
description of the parcel of property to be conveyed under this Act
shall be determined by a survey that is satisfactory to the State of
Hawai`i after consultation with the Secretary.
(d) Report on Conveyance.--Not later than 180 days after the
conveyance under this Act, and annually thereafter, the Secretary shall
submit to the appropriate congressional committees a report on the
compliance with the provisions of this Act.
SEC. 5. MAKUA MILITARY RESERVATION CONVEYANCE, REMEDIATION, AND
ENVIRONMENTAL RESTORATION TRUST FUND.
(a) Establishment of Trust Fund.--There is established in the
Treasury of the United States a trust fund that shall be known as the
``Makua Military Reservation Conveyance, Remediation, and Environmental
Restoration Trust Fund'' (in this section referred to as the ``Fund''),
consisting of such sums as may be appropriated or credited to the Fund
as provided in this section.
(b) Transfer to the Fund.--
(1) Appropriations.--There are authorized to be
appropriated to the Fund such sums as may be necessary--
(A) to make the Makua Military Reservation suitable
for agriculture, residential use, and human habitation,
including any remedial actions under the Comprehensive
Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act
of 1980 (42 U.S.C. 9620 et seq.); and
(B) to carry out this Act.
(2) Investment yield.--There shall be deposited into the
Fund any returns yielded from the investment of the sums
appropriated to the Fund under paragraph (1) of this
subsection.
(c) Expenditures From the Fund.--Amounts in the Fund shall be made
available pursuant to the terms of the Memorandum of Understanding
under subsection (d).
(d) Memorandum of Understanding.--
(1) In general.--Not later than 180 days after the date of
the enactment of this Act, the Secretary of the Army, acting
through the Chief of Engineers, shall enter into a Memorandum
of Understanding with the State of Hawai`i that shall govern--
(A) the study required under section 3(a);
(B) the conveyance required under section 4(a);
(C) the timing, planning, methodology, and
implementation for the removal of--
(i) unexploded ordnance; and
(ii) other contaminants; and
(D) the use of the sums appropriated to the Fund
under subsection (b)(1).
(2) Consultation.--In carrying out paragraph (1), with
respect to the terms and conditions included in the Memorandum
of Understanding pursuant to paragraph (1)(C), the Secretary of
the Army shall consult with Native Hawaiian organizations.
(3) Access to site.--Nothing in the Memorandum of
Understanding may restrict access to the Makua Military
Reservation pursuant to paragraph 13 of the settlement
agreement and stipulated order of the United States District
Court for the District of Hawai`i executed on October 4, 2001
(Civil No. 00-00813 SOM-LEK).
SEC. 6. DEFINITIONS.
In this Act:
(1) The term ``appropriate congressional committees'' means
the Committees on Armed Services of the Senate and House of
Representatives.
(2) The term ``Native Hawaiian organization'' has the
meaning given such term--
(A) in section 6207 of the Native Hawaiian
Education Act (20 U.S.C. 7517); or
(B) in section 300314 of title 54, United States
Code.
(3) The term ``other contaminants'' includes--
(A) improved conventional munitions;
(B) munitions waste;
(C) medical waste; and
(D) other hazardous materials introduced to the
Makua Military Reservation by the Secretary of Defense.
<all> | Leandra Wai Act | To direct the Secretary of Defense to convey the M?kua Military Reservation to the State of Hawai?i and establish a trust fund for such conveyance, and for other purposes. | Leandra Wai Act | Rep. Kahele, Kaiali'i | D | HI |
74 | 7,990 | H.R.4810 | Energy | Supporting Trucking Efficiency and Emission Reductions Act or the STEER Act
This bill requires the Department of Energy to establish a voucher program for expenses associated with retrofitting certain heavy-duty trucks with emission-reducing technologies. | To establish a voucher program for the purchase and installation of
emission reducing technologies for Class 8 trucks, and for other
purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Supporting Trucking Efficiency and
Emission Reductions Act'' or the ``STEER Act''.
SEC. 2. VOUCHER PROGRAM FOR EMISSION REDUCING TECHNOLOGIES ON CLASS 8
TRUCKS.
(a) Voucher Program.--Not later than 180 days after the date of
enactment of this Act, the Secretary shall establish a program to
provide vouchers for covered expenditures associated with retrofitting
emission reducing active technologies on Class 8 trucks (in this
section referred to as the ``program'').
(b) Voucher Program Requirements.--
(1) Eligible entities.--A voucher under the program may be
made to an individual, a State or local government, a private
entity, a not-for-profit entity, a nonprofit entity, or other
applicants as deemed appropriate by the Secretary.
(2) Eligible equipment.--
(A) In general.--Not later than 150 days after the
date of enactment of this Act, the Secretary shall
publish and maintain on the Department of Energy
internet website a list of emission reducing active
technologies that are eligible for the program.
(B) Updates.--The Secretary may add to, or
otherwise revise, the list of emission reducing active
technologies under subparagraph (A) if the Secretary
determines that such addition or revision will likely
lead to--
(i) greater usage of emission reducing
active technologies; or
(ii) greater access to emission reducing
active technologies by users.
(C) Location requirement.--To be eligible for the
program, the emission reducing active technologies
described in subparagraph (A) shall be installed in the
United States.
(3) Application.--
(A) In general.--An eligible entity under paragraph
(1) may submit to the Secretary an application for a
voucher under the program. Such application shall
include--
(i) the estimated cost of covered
expenditures to be expended on the emission
reducing active technologies that are eligible
under paragraph (2);
(ii) the estimated installation cost of the
emission reducing active technologies that are
eligible under paragraph (2);
(iii) the global positioning system
location, including the integer number of
degrees, minutes, and seconds, where such
emission reducing active technologies are to be
installed;
(iv) the technical specifications of such
emission reducing active technologies; and
(v) any other information determined by the
Secretary to be necessary for a complete
application.
(B) Review process.--The Secretary shall review an
application for a voucher under the program and approve
an eligible entity under paragraph (1) to receive such
voucher if the application meets the requirements of
the program under this subsection.
(C) Notification to eligible entity.--Not later
than 90 days after the date on which the eligible
entity under paragraph (1) applies for a voucher under
the program, the Secretary shall notify the eligible
entity whether the eligible entity will be awarded a
voucher under the program following the submission of
additional materials required under paragraph (5).
(4) Voucher amount.--The amount of a voucher made under the
program for each technology for covered expenditures shall
cover the lesser of--
(A) $4,000 or 75 percent of total costs per unit
for fleets operating 10 trucks or less;
(B) $3,500 or 72.5 percent of total costs per unit
for fleets operating 50 trucks or less;
(C) $3,000 or 70.0 percent of total costs per unit
for fleets operating 100 trucks or less; and
(D) $2,500 or 67.5 percent of total costs per unit
for fleets operating more than 101 trucks.
(5) Disbursement of voucher.--
(A) In general.--The Secretary shall disburse a
voucher under the program within 90 days to an eligible
entity under paragraph (1), following approval of an
application under paragraph (3), if such entity submits
the materials required under subparagraph (B).
(B) Materials required for disbursement of
voucher.--Not later than one year after the date on
which the eligible entity under paragraph (1) receives
notice under paragraph (3)(C) that the eligible entity
has been approved for a voucher, such eligible entity
shall submit to the Secretary the following--
(i) a record of payment for covered
expenses expended on the installation of the
emission reducing active technologies that are
eligible under paragraph (2);
(ii) a record of payment for the emission
reducing active technologies that are eligible
under paragraph (2);
(iii) the global positioning system
location of where such emission reducing active
technologies were installed;
(iv) the technical specifications of the
emission reducing active technologies that are
eligible under paragraph (2); and
(v) any other information determined by the
Secretary to be necessary.
(6) Report.--Not later than 3 years after the first date on
which the Secretary awards a voucher under the program, the
Secretary shall submit to the Committee on Energy and Commerce
of the House of Representatives and the Committee on Energy and
Natural Resources of the Senate a report of the number of
vouchers awarded for emission reducing active technologies.
(c) Definitions.--In this section:
(1) Covered expenditure.--The term ``covered expenditure''
means an expense that is associated with the purchase and
installation of emission reducing active technologies,
including--
(A) the cost of emission reducing active
technologies; and
(B) material and labor costs associated with the
installation of such emission reducing active
technologies.
(2) Emission reducing active technology.--The term
``emission reducing active technology'' means any physical
alterations of a Class 8 truck that can be installed as a
retrofit and that adapt automatically to control vehicle
performance factors and improve fuel efficiency, including
active aerodynamic, active rolling resistance, dynamic axle
lift control, non-APU active idle reduction, and other such
emerging improvements.
(3) Secretary.--The term ``Secretary'' means the Secretary
of Energy.
(d) Authorization of Appropriations.--There is authorized to be
appropriated to carry out this section $100,000,000 for each of fiscal
years 2022 through 2026.
<all> | STEER Act | To establish a voucher program for the purchase and installation of emission reducing technologies for Class 8 trucks, and for other purposes. | STEER Act
Supporting Trucking Efficiency and Emission Reductions Act | Rep. Davis, Rodney | R | IL |
75 | 14,163 | H.R.9509 | Labor and Employment | Apprenticeship Freedom Act
This bill eliminates the requirement for apprenticeships to register with the Department of Labor as a condition of their participation in Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act (WIOA) programs. | To amend the Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act to remove the
requirements relating to registered apprenticeships.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Apprenticeship Freedom Act''.
SEC. 2. WIOA AMENDMENTS.
(a) Career Pathway.--Section 3(7)(B) of the Workforce Innovation
and Opportunity Act (29 U.S.C. 3102(7)(B)) is amended by striking
``registered'' and all that follows, and inserting a semicolon.
(b) Identification of Eligible Providers.--Section 122(a) of the
Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act (29 U.S.C. 3152(a)) is
amended--
(1) by amending paragraph (2)(B) to read as follows:
``(B) an entity that carries out apprenticeships;
or''; and
(2) in paragraph (3), by striking ``for so long as the
corresponding program of the provider remains registered''.
(c) Youthbuild Program.--Section 171 of the Workforce Innovation
and Opportunity Act (29 U.S.C. 3226) is amended--
(1) in subsection (b)--
(A) by striking paragraph (10); and
(B) by redesignating paragraphs (11) and (12) as
paragraphs (10) and (11), respectively; and
(2) by striking ``registered'' each place it appears.
<all> | Apprenticeship Freedom Act | To amend the Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act to remove the requirements relating to registered apprenticeships. | Apprenticeship Freedom Act | Rep. Good, Bob | R | VA |
76 | 11,146 | H.R.24 | Finance and Financial Sector | Federal Reserve Transparency Act of 2021
This bill establishes requirements regarding audits of certain financial agencies performed by the Government Accountability Office (GAO).
Specifically, the bill directs the GAO to complete, within 12 months, an audit of the Federal Reserve Board and Federal Reserve banks. In addition, the bill allows the GAO to audit the Federal Reserve Board and Federal Reserve banks with respect to (1) international financial transactions; (2) deliberations, decisions, or actions on monetary policy matters; (3) transactions made under the direction of the Federal Open Market Committee; and (4) discussions or communications among Federal Reserve officers, board members, and employees regarding any of these matters. | To require a full audit of the Board of Governors of the Federal
Reserve System and the Federal reserve banks by the Comptroller General
of the United States, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Federal Reserve Transparency Act of
2021''.
SEC. 2. AUDIT REFORM AND TRANSPARENCY FOR THE BOARD OF GOVERNORS OF THE
FEDERAL RESERVE SYSTEM.
(a) In General.--Notwithstanding section 714 of title 31, United
States Code, or any other provision of law, the Comptroller General of
the United States shall complete an audit of the Board of Governors of
the Federal Reserve System and the Federal reserve banks under
subsection (b) of such section 714 within 12 months after the date of
the enactment of this Act.
(b) Report.--
(1) In general.--Not later than 90 days after the audit
required pursuant to subsection (a) is completed, the
Comptroller General--
(A) shall submit to Congress a report on such
audit; and
(B) shall make such report available to the Speaker
of the House, the majority and minority leaders of the
House of Representatives, the majority and minority
leaders of the Senate, the Chairman and Ranking Member
of the committee and each subcommittee of jurisdiction
in the House of Representatives and the Senate, and any
other Member of Congress who requests the report.
(2) Contents.--The report under paragraph (1) shall include
a detailed description of the findings and conclusion of the
Comptroller General with respect to the audit that is the
subject of the report, together with such recommendations for
legislative or administrative action as the Comptroller General
may determine to be appropriate.
(c) Repeal of Certain Limitations.--Subsection (b) of section 714
of title 31, United States Code, is amended by striking the second
sentence.
(d) Technical and Conforming Amendments.--
(1) In general.--Section 714 of title 31, United States
Code, is amended--
(A) in subsection (d)(3), by striking ``or (f)''
each place such term appears;
(B) in subsection (e), by striking ``the third
undesignated paragraph of section 13'' and inserting
``section 13(3)''; and
(C) by striking subsection (f).
(2) Federal reserve act.--Subsection (s) (relating to
``Federal Reserve Transparency and Release of Information'') of
section 11 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 248) is
amended--
(A) in paragraph (4)(A), by striking ``has the same
meaning as in section 714(f)(1)(A) of title 31, United
States Code'' and inserting ``means a program or
facility, including any special purpose vehicle or
other entity established by or on behalf of the Board
of Governors of the Federal Reserve System or a Federal
reserve bank, authorized by the Board of Governors
under section 13(3), that is not subject to audit under
section 714(e) of title 31, United States Code'';
(B) in paragraph (6), by striking ``or in section
714(f)(3)(C) of title 31, United States Code, the
information described in paragraph (1) and information
concerning the transactions described in section 714(f)
of such title,'' and inserting ``the information
described in paragraph (1)''; and
(C) in paragraph (7), by striking ``and section
13(3)(C), section 714(f)(3)(C) of title 31, United
States Code, and'' and inserting ``, section 13(3)(C),
and''.
<all> | Federal Reserve Transparency Act of 2021 | To require a full audit of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System and the Federal reserve banks by the Comptroller General of the United States, and for other purposes. | Federal Reserve Transparency Act of 2021 | Rep. Massie, Thomas | R | KY |
77 | 11,726 | H.R.8191 | Congress | Pardon Disclosure Act
This bill retroactively requires Members of Congress who request presidential pardons for themselves or on behalf of other individuals, and individuals who receive such requests, to disclose the requests to the Select Committee on Ethics of the Senate or the Committee on Ethics of the House of Representatives, as applicable. The disclosure requirements apply to requests made or received beginning on January 1, 2021. | To require a Member of Congress who makes and any individual who
receives a request from a Member of Congress for a presidential pardon
to disclose the request to the Select Committee on Ethics of the Senate
or the Committee on Ethics of the House of Representatives, and for
other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Pardon Disclosure Act''.
SEC. 2. DISCLOSURE OF PRESIDENTIAL PARDON REQUESTS TO CONGRESSIONAL
ETHICS COMMITTEES.
(a) Disclosure Requirement.--If a Member of Congress makes a
request for a presidential pardon to be granted to the Member or to any
other individual, the Member who made the request and any individual
who receives the request from the Member shall each disclose the
request to the supervising ethics committee in accordance with the
requirements under subsection (b).
(b) Deadline for Disclosure.--A Member of Congress who makes a
request described in subsection (a) or any individual who receives a
request described in subsection (a) shall each disclose such request to
the supervising ethics committee--
(1) in the case of any such request made or received after
the date of the enactment of this Act, not later than 30 days
after the date such request is made or received; and
(2) in the case of any such request made or received during
the period that begins on January 1, 2021, and ends on the date
of the enactment of this Act, not later than 30 days after the
date of the enactment of this Act.
(c) Civil Enforcement.--
(1) In general.--The Attorney General may bring a civil
action in an appropriate district court of the United States
against any person who violates, or whom the Attorney General
has reason to believe is engaging in conduct that violates,
subsection (a).
(2) Civil penalty.--
(A) In general.--If the court finds by a
preponderance of the evidence that a person violated
subsection (a), the court shall impose against the
person a civil penalty of not more than $100,000.
(B) Rule of construction.--A civil penalty under
this subsection may be in addition to any other
criminal or civil statutory, common law, or
administrative remedy available to the United States.
(d) Definitions.--In this section, the following definitions apply:
(1) Member of congress.--The term ``Member of Congress''
includes a Delegate or Resident Commissioner to the Congress.
(2) Supervising ethics committee.--The term ``supervising
ethics committee'' means--
(A) in the case of any request described in
subsection (a) with respect to a Member of the Senate,
the Select Committee on Ethics of the Senate; and
(B) in the case of any request described in
subsection (a) with respect to a Member of the House of
Representatives, the Committee on Ethics of the House
of Representatives.
SEC. 3. RULES OF THE HOUSE OF REPRESENTATIVES PRESIDENTIAL PARDON
DISCLOSURE REQUIREMENT.
Clause 2 of rule XXVI of the Rules of the House of Representatives
is amended by striking the period at the end and inserting ``, except
that Members, Delegates, and the Resident Commissioner shall also
include in each annual financial disclosure report required under such
title the disclosure of any request made by the Member, Delegate, or
Resident Commissioner for a presidential pardon to be granted to the
Member, Delegate, or Resident Commissioner or to any other
individual.''.
<all> | Pardon Disclosure Act | To require a Member of Congress who makes and any individual who receives a request from a Member of Congress for a presidential pardon to disclose the request to the Select Committee on Ethics of the Senate or the Committee on Ethics of the House of Representatives, and for other purposes. | Pardon Disclosure Act | Rep. Torres, Ritchie | D | NY |
78 | 6,056 | H.R.5753 | Health | Helping Account for Rural Medical Outpatient Needs in Oklahoma Act or the HARMON Oklahoma Act
This bill requires the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) to continue to allow Harmon Memorial Hospital in Hollis, Oklahoma, to retain its designation as a critical access hospital and to seek designation as a rural emergency hospital under Medicare after the end of the COVID-19 public health emergency, as specified in a prior letter sent to the hospital. The bill also requires the CMS to issue final regulations implementing the newly created Medicare rural emergency hospital program by November 1, 2022. | To assist in the transition of a certain hospital to a Medicare rural
emergency hospital, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Helping Account for Rural Medical
Outpatient Needs in Oklahoma Act'' or the ``HARMON Oklahoma Act''.
SEC. 2. ASSISTANCE IN THE TRANSITION OF A CERTAIN HOSPITAL TO A
MEDICARE RURAL EMERGENCY HOSPITAL.
(a) Special Rule.--In the case of a critical access hospital (as
defined in section 1861(mm) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C.
1395x(mm)) with a Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services
certification number of 371338, the following shall apply:
(1) Pursuant to the June 11, 2021, Centers for Medicare &
Medicaid Services letter sent to the critical access hospital--
(A) the Secretary of Health and Human Services
(referred to in this section as the ``Secretary'')
shall suspend the running of the twenty-four month
extension mentioned in the October 15, 2019, letter to
the hospital during the COVID-19 public health
emergency; and
(B) the hospital shall have 19.7 months after the
end of the COVID-19 public health emergency to notify
the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services of the
hospital's intent to either convert to an acute care
hospital, transition to a rural emergency hospital
under section 1861(kkk) of the Social Security Act (42
U.S.C. 1395x(kkk)) (if the hospital qualifies as such),
or terminate as a critical access hospital.
(2) Prior to the end of the 19.7 months described in
paragraph (1)(B), the Secretary shall not take an adverse
redesignation action with respect to the critical access
hospital status of the hospital as long as the hospital
continues to meet all of the requirements for designation as a
critical access hospital other than the distance requirement
under section 1820(c)(2)(B)(i) of such Act (42 U.S.C. 1395i-
4(c)(2)(B)(i)).
(3) If, prior to the end of the 19.7 months described in
paragraph (1)(B), the critical access hospital notifies the
Secretary of the hospital's intention to transition to a rural
emergency hospital, the Secretary--
(A) shall give priority to the processing of the
request for such transition; and
(B) shall not take an adverse redesignation action
with respect to the critical access hospital status of
the hospital prior to the later of--
(i) the end of the 19.7 months described in
paragraph (1)(B); or
(ii) the date the Secretary makes a final
determination with respect to such request.
(b) Timeline for Regulations.--
(1) In general.--The Secretary shall--
(A) not later than July 1, 2022, promulgate a
proposed rule to carry out the provisions of, and
amendments made by, section 125 of division CC of the
Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2021 (Public Law 116-
260); and
(B) not later than November 1, 2022, promulgate a
final rule to carry out such provisions and amendments.
(2) Additional information.--The Secretary shall ensure
that the proposed and final rules required under paragraph (1)
contain a description of the additional information that will
be required under section 1861(kkk)(4) of the Social Security
Act (42 U.S.C. 1395x(kkk)(4)).
<all> | HARMON Oklahoma Act | To assist in the transition of a certain hospital to a Medicare rural emergency hospital, and for other purposes. | HARMON Oklahoma Act
Helping Account for Rural Medical Outpatient Needs in Oklahoma Act | Rep. Lucas, Frank D. | R | OK |
79 | 7,015 | H.R.4010 | Taxation | Clean Energy Production Parity Act
This bill modifies the tax credit for investments in energy property to make qualified fuel cell property (certain fuel cell power plants) that uses an electromechanical process or includes a linear generator assembly eligible for the credit. | To amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to include fuel cells using
electromechanical processes for purposes of the energy tax credit.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Clean Energy Production Parity
Act''.
SEC. 2. INCLUDING FUEL CELLS USING ELECTROMECHANICAL PROCESSES FOR
PURPOSES OF THE ENERGY TAX CREDIT.
(a) In General.--Section 48(c)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code of
1986 is amended--
(1) in subparagraph (A)(i)--
(A) by inserting ``or electromechanical'' after
``electrochemical'', and
(B) by inserting ``(1 kilowatts in the case of a
fuel cell power plant with a linear generator
assembly)'' after ``0.5 kilowatt'', and
(2) in subparagraph (C)--
(A) by inserting ``, or linear generator
assembly,'' after ``a fuel cell stack assembly'', and
(B) by inserting ``or electromechanical'' after
``electrochemical''.
(b) Linear Generator Assembly.--Section 48(c)(1) of such Code is
amended by redesignating subparagraph (D) as subparagraph (E) and by
inserting after subparagraph (C) the following new subparagraph:
``(D) Linear generator assembly.--The term `linear
generator assembly' does not include any assembly which
contains rotating parts.''.
(c) Effective Date.--The amendments made by this section shall
apply to property placed in service after the date of the enactment of
this Act.
<all> | Clean Energy Production Parity Act | To amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to include fuel cells using electromechanical processes for purposes of the energy tax credit. | Clean Energy Production Parity Act | Rep. Panetta, Jimmy | D | CA |
80 | 7,821 | H.R.4636 | Health | Empowering Parents' Healthcare Choices Act of 2021
This bill provides a 60-day time frame within which parents with separate health insurance plans may choose which plan provides primary coverage for their newborn child. The bill limits the application of certain standard health insurance provisions that determine which plan becomes the primary coverage of a dependent child based on the order of the parents' birthdays. | To amend title XXVII of the Public Health Service Act, the Employee
Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, and the Internal Revenue Code
of 1986 to allow parental choice in the selection of primary health
insurance coverage or primary coverage under a group health plan for
certain dependent children.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Empowering Parents' Healthcare
Choices Act of 2021''.
SEC. 2. ALLOWING PARENTAL CHOICE IN THE SELECTION OF PRIMARY HEALTH
INSURANCE COVERAGE OR PRIMARY COVERAGE UNDER A GROUP
HEALTH PLAN FOR CERTAIN DEPENDENT CHILDREN.
(a) Public Health Service Act.--Part D of title XXVII of the Public
Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 300gg-111 et seq.) is amended by adding
at the end the following new section:
``SEC. 2799A-11. PARENTAL CHOICE OF PRIMARY HEALTH INSURANCE COVERAGE
OR PRIMARY COVERAGE UNDER A GROUP HEALTH PLAN FOR CERTAIN
DEPENDENT CHILDREN.
``(a) In General.--In the case of a dependent child of two
individuals where both such individuals, at the time of birth of such
child, are covered under separate policies of health insurance coverage
offered by a health insurance issuer or separate group health plans, if
both such policies of health insurance coverage or plans (as
applicable) would provide coverage of such child, such health insurance
coverage or plan (as applicable) shall provide primary coverage of such
child if both such individuals submit to the issuer of such coverage or
to such plan (as applicable), within 60 days of the birth of such child
and in a manner specified by the Secretary, a notification electing
primary coverage of such child under such health insurance coverage or
plan. Such primary coverage of such child under such health insurance
coverage or group health plan shall continue until the earlier of the
following:
``(1) A submission of a notification, in a manner specified
by the Secretary, by both such individuals to the issuer of
such health insurance coverage or plan electing to discontinue
such primary coverage for such child.
``(2) The loss of coverage under such health insurance
coverage or plan of such individual who is enrolled under such
health insurance coverage or plan.
``(b) Election of Primary Coverage With Respect to Single Coverage
or Plan.--The provisions of subsection (a) shall not apply if both
individuals described in such paragraph submit notifications for a
child with respect to multiple policies of health insurance coverage or
group health plans.''.
(b) Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974.--
(1) In general.--Subpart B of part 7 of subtitle B of title
I of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 is
amended by adding at the end the following new section:
``SEC. 726. PARENTAL CHOICE OF PRIMARY HEALTH INSURANCE COVERAGE OR
PRIMARY COVERAGE UNDER A GROUP HEALTH PLAN FOR CERTAIN
DEPENDENT CHILDREN.
``(a) In General.--In the case of a dependent child of two
individuals where both such individuals, at the time of birth of such
child, are covered under separate policies of health insurance coverage
offered by a health insurance issuer or separate group health plans, if
both such policies of health insurance coverage or plans (as
applicable) would provide coverage of such child, such group health
insurance coverage or plan (as applicable) shall provide primary
coverage of such child if both such individuals submit to the issuer of
such coverage or to such plan (as applicable), within 60 days of the
birth of such child and in a manner specified by the Secretary, a
notification electing primary coverage of such child under such group
health insurance coverage or plan. Such primary coverage of such child
under such group health insurance coverage or group health plan shall
continue until the earlier of the following:
``(1) A submission of a notification, in a manner specified
by the Secretary, by both such individuals to the issuer of
such group health insurance coverage or plan electing to
discontinue such primary coverage for such child.
``(2) The loss of coverage under such group health
insurance coverage or plan of such individual who is enrolled
under such health insurance coverage or plan.
``(b) Election of Primary Coverage With Respect to Single Coverage
or Plan.--The provisions of subsection (a) shall not apply if both
individuals described in such paragraph submit notifications for a
child with respect to multiple policies of health insurance coverage or
group health plans.''.
(2) Technical amendment.--The table of contents in section
1 of such Act is amended by inserting after the item relating
to section 725 the following new item:
``Sec. 726. Parental choice of primary health insurance coverage or
primary coverage under a group health plan
for certain dependent children.''.
(c) Internal Revenue Code of 1986.--
(1) In general.--Subchapter B of chapter 100 of the
Internal Revenue Code of 1986 is amended by adding at the end
the following new section:
``SEC. 9826. PARENTAL CHOICE OF PRIMARY HEALTH INSURANCE COVERAGE OR
PRIMARY COVERAGE UNDER A GROUP HEALTH PLAN FOR CERTAIN
DEPENDENT CHILDREN.
``(a) In General.--In the case of a dependent child of two
individuals where both such individuals, at the time of birth of such
child, are covered under separate policies of health insurance coverage
offered by a health insurance issuer or separate group health plans, if
both such policies of health insurance coverage or plans (as
applicable) would provide coverage of such child, such group health
plan shall provide primary coverage of such child if both such
individuals submit to such plan, within 60 days of the birth of such
child and in a manner specified by the Secretary, a notification
electing primary coverage of such child under such plan. Such primary
coverage of such child under such group health plan shall continue
until the earlier of the following:
``(1) A submission of a notification, in a manner specified
by the Secretary, by both such individuals to such plan
electing to discontinue such primary coverage for such child.
``(2) The loss of coverage under such plan of such
individual who is enrolled under such plan.
``(b) Election of Primary Coverage With Respect to Single Coverage
or Plan.--The provisions of subsection (a) shall not apply if both
individuals described in such paragraph submit notifications for a
child with respect to multiple policies of health insurance coverage or
group health plans.''.
(2) Technical amendment.--The table of sections for such
subchapter is amended by adding at the end the following new
item:
``Sec. 9826. Parental choice of primary health insurance coverage or
primary coverage under a group health plan
for certain dependent children.''.
(d) Effective Date.--The amendments made by this section shall
apply with respect to children born on or after January 1, 2022.
<all> | Empowering Parents’ Healthcare Choices Act of 2021 | To amend title XXVII of the Public Health Service Act, the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, and the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to allow parental choice in the selection of primary health insurance coverage or primary coverage under a group health plan for certain dependent children. | Empowering Parents’ Healthcare Choices Act of 2021 | Rep. Davids, Sharice | D | KS |
81 | 10,222 | H.R.7293 | Energy | Energy Permitting Certainty Act
This bill requires the Department of the Interior to process applications for permits to drill under a valid oil or gas lease even if there are any pending civil actions, provided that the civil actions do not directly affect or involve the application or underlying lease. | To amend the Mineral Leasing Act to require the Secretary of the
Interior to process applications for a permit to drill, and for other
purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Energy Permitting Certainty Act''.
SEC. 2. PROCESSING APPLICATIONS FOR PERMITS TO DRILL.
Section 17(p) of the Mineral Leasing Act (30 U.S.C. 226(p)) is
amended by adding at the end the following:
``(4) Effect of pending civil action on processing
applications for permits to drill.--Pursuant to the
requirements of paragraph (2), notwithstanding the existence of
any pending civil actions which do not directly affect or
involve the application or related lease, the Secretary shall
process an application for a permit to drill under a valid
existing lease, unless a United States Federal court has
determined that the lease was not issued in compliance with the
National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 et
seq.).''.
<all> | Energy Permitting Certainty Act | To amend the Mineral Leasing Act to require the Secretary of the Interior to process applications for a permit to drill, and for other purposes. | Energy Permitting Certainty Act | Rep. Herrell, Yvette | R | NM |
82 | 3,862 | S.2504 | Health | Exercise and Fitness for All Act of 2021
This bill requires the Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance Board (Access Board) to develop guidelines for exercise or fitness service providers regarding the provision of accessible exercise or fitness equipment.
The Access Board must subsequently promulgate regulations, consistent with the guidelines, requiring that exercise or fitness classes and instruction provided by fitness providers are accessible to people with disabilities. The regulations also must require that each provider make at least one employee available to assist people with disabilities with using the accessible exercise or fitness equipment. | To promote the provision of exercise or fitness equipment, and exercise
or fitness classes and instruction, that are accessible to individuals
with disabilities.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Exercise and Fitness for All Act of
2021''.
SEC. 2. FINDINGS AND PURPOSE.
(a) Findings.--Congress finds the following:
(1) Individuals with disabilities can maintain and improve
their health through appropriate physical activity.
(2) In the 2018 Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans
(referred to in this section as the ``Guidelines''), the
Department of Health and Human Services recommends that
individuals with disabilities, who are able, participate in
regular aerobic activity.
(3) The Guidelines also recommend that adults with
disabilities, who are able, do muscle strengthening activities
of moderate or high intensity on 2 or more days a week, as
these activities provide additional health benefits.
(4) The Guidelines recommend that when adults with
disabilities are not able to meet the Guidelines, they should
engage in regular physical activity according to their
abilities and avoid inactivity.
(5) Physical inactivity by adults with disabilities can
lead to increased risk for functional limitations and secondary
health conditions.
(6) Many individuals with disabilities are unable to engage
in the exercises or fitness activities recommended in the
Guidelines due to the failure of exercise or fitness service
providers to provide accessible exercise or fitness equipment.
(7) The failure to provide accessible exercise or fitness
equipment constitutes discrimination in violation of the
Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (referred to in this
section as the ``ADA'').
(b) Purpose.--The purpose of this Act is--
(1) to carry out the ADA's objectives of providing ``a
clear and comprehensive national mandate for the elimination of
discrimination'' and ``clear, strong, consistent, enforceable
standards addressing discrimination''; and
(2) specifically, to carry out those objectives by issuing
guidelines and regulations for exercise or fitness service
providers specifying the accessible exercise or fitness
equipment, and the accessible exercise or fitness classes and
instruction, necessary to ensure that individuals with
disabilities can--
(A) obtain the benefits of physical activity; and
(B) fully participate in the services offered by
exercise or fitness service providers.
SEC. 3. DEFINITIONS.
In this Act:
(1) Access board.--The term ``Access Board'' means the
Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance Board
established under section 502 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973
(29 U.S.C. 792).
(2) Accessible exercise or fitness equipment.--The term
``accessible exercise or fitness equipment''--
(A) means exercise or fitness equipment that is
accessible to, and can be independently used and
operated by, individuals with disabilities; and
(B) includes equipment that complies with--
(i) the American Society for Testing and
Materials (referred to in this section as
``ASTM'') Standard Specification for Universal
Design of Fitness Equipment for Inclusive Use
by Persons with Functional Limitations and
Impairments, ASTM F3021-17 (or any
corresponding similar ASTM standard); and
(ii) other ASTM standards with
specifications for inclusive use of specific
exercise or fitness equipment, such as bicycles
or strength equipment.
(3) Exercise or fitness equipment.--The term ``exercise or
fitness equipment'' means devices such as motorized treadmills,
stair climbers or step machines, stationary bicycles, rowing
machines, weight machines, circuit training equipment,
cardiovascular equipment, strength equipment, or other similar
equipment.
(4) Exercise or fitness service provider.--The term
``exercise or fitness service provider''--
(A) means an entity that--
(i) provides exercise or fitness equipment,
or exercise or fitness classes or instruction,
for the use of patrons; and
(ii) is considered a public accommodation
under section 301 of the Americans with
Disabilities Act of 1990 (42 U.S.C. 12181) or
is considered a public entity under section 201
of such Act (42 U.S.C. 12131); and
(B) includes a stand-alone exercise or fitness
center and an exercise or fitness center within an
entity such as a hotel, retirement community,
gymnasium, elementary or secondary school, or
institution of higher education.
(5) Individual with a disability.--The term ``individual
with a disability'' means any person with a disability as
defined in section 3 of the Americans with Disabilities Act of
1990 (42 U.S.C. 12102).
SEC. 4. EXERCISE AND FITNESS ACCESSIBILITY GUIDELINES AND REGULATIONS.
(a) Establishment of Guidelines.--Not later than 18 months after
the date of enactment of this Act, the Access Board shall develop and
publish guidelines for exercise or fitness service providers regarding
the provision of accessible exercise or fitness equipment.
(b) Contents of Guidelines.--The guidelines described in subsection
(a) shall ensure that the appropriate number of items and types of
accessible exercise or fitness equipment are provided by an exercise or
fitness service provider.
(c) Review and Amendment.--The Access Board shall periodically
review and, as appropriate, amend the guidelines, and shall issue the
resulting guidelines as revised guidelines.
(d) Regulations.--
(1) In general.--Not later than 18 months after the Access
Board issues guidelines under this section, the Department of
Justice shall issue regulations regarding the provision of
accessible exercise or fitness equipment and accessibility of
exercise or fitness classes and instruction.
(2) Equipment.--With respect to the provision of exercise
or fitness equipment, the regulations shall be consistent with
the Access Board guidelines.
(3) Exercise or fitness classes and instruction.--The
regulations shall--
(A) ensure that exercise or fitness classes and
instruction offered by the service provider are
accessible to individuals with disabilities; and
(B) ensure that the service provider makes
available at least one employee who is able to assist
individuals with disabilities in their use of
accessible exercise or fitness equipment.
(4) Considerations.--In issuing the regulations, the
Department of Justice shall take into consideration each of the
following:
(A) Whether the exercise or fitness service
provider is providing equipment, classes, or
instruction at a new or existing facility.
(B) The size of the exercise or fitness facility.
(C) The availability of closed captioning of video
programming displayed on equipment or a television
provided by the exercise or fitness service provider.
<all> | Exercise and Fitness for All Act of 2021 | A bill to promote the provision of exercise or fitness equipment, and exercise or fitness classes and instruction, that are accessible to individuals with disabilities. | Exercise and Fitness for All Act of 2021 | Sen. Duckworth, Tammy | D | IL |
83 | 3,914 | S.2046 | Social Welfare | Community-Based Response Act of 2021
This bill establishes a program to assist communities with implementing alternative emergency response models in vulnerable populations to resolve crisis situations that may not require a law enforcement response or situations in which a law enforcement response may increase the risk of harm.
Specifically, Administration for Community Living, in consultation with the Department of Housing and Urban Development and the Department of Justice, must award grants to eligible partnerships to establish or expand these models. The partnerships must consist of a unit of local or tribal government that is independent of law enforcement agencies and a nonprofit, community-based organization or consortium of such organizations. The partnerships may also include other entities, such as nonprofit or public institutions of higher education and behavioral health organizations.
A partnership may use grant funds for a variety of purposes, such as triaging 9-1-1 calls to refer certain emergencies to entities other than law enforcement. In awarding these grants, the administration must prioritize partnerships that include community-based organizations that have a record of effectively serving, and are led by members of, vulnerable populations. | To provide for a Community-Based Emergency and Non-Emergency Response
Grant Program.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Community-Based Response Act of
2021''.
SEC. 2. PURPOSES.
The purposes of this Act are--
(1) to provide an additional option beyond law enforcement
for community-based emergency and non-emergency response for
covered populations in need of help or support, in order to--
(A) target the best professional intervention to an
individual in need of help or support; and
(B) avoid escalation of a crisis situation--
(i) that may not require a response from
law enforcement; and
(ii) to which a law enforcement response
can create increased risk of harm; and
(2) establishing a grant program to provide that additional
response option by awarding funding to partnerships described
in section 5(a).
SEC. 3. DEFINITIONS.
In this Act:
(1) Community mental health center.--The term ``community
mental health center'' has the meaning given the term in
section 1861 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395x).
(2) Covered community-based organization.--The term
``covered community-based organization'' means an organization
that meets the requirements of section 5(b).
(3) Covered population.--The term ``covered population''
means--
(A) individuals who are racial or ethnic minorities
or members of an Indian tribe;
(B) immigrants, including undocumented immigrants,
immigrants who have recently entered the United States,
and refugees;
(C) individuals with limited English proficiency,
meaning their primary language for communication is not
English and communication with emergency responders may
be difficult;
(D) individuals who are age 60 or older and
determined to be likely to be--
(i) vulnerable to abuse; or
(ii) experiencing health challenges;
(E) people with disabilities, as defined in section
3 of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (42
U.S.C. 12102);
(F) people in the LGBTQIA+ community;
(G) people who are likely to face disproportionate
or discriminatory law enforcement contact;
(H) people who are or were involved in the criminal
justice system;
(I) homeless persons, as defined in section 103 of
the McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act (42 U.S.C.
11302);
(J) people facing or with a history of mental or
behavioral health crises or who need check-ins for
health, safety, or substance use disorder reasons;
(K) people experiencing family violence or domestic
violence under the laws of the jurisdiction involved,
or dating violence;
(L) victims of child abuse and children exposed to
violence;
(M) people who are likely to be engaged in or to
experience violence in the community;
(N) people with, or recovering from, a substance
use disorder;
(O) current and former foster youth;
(P) youth who are or were involved in the juvenile
justice system;
(Q) victims of conduct described in section 1591 or
2251 of title 18, United States Code;
(R) people who engage in acts defined in paragraph
(4) of section 103 of the Trafficking Victims
Protection Act of 2000 (22 U.S.C. 7102);
(S) adult survivors of sexual assault, as defined
under the laws of the jurisdiction involved;
(T) victims of trafficking, as defined in section
103 of the Trafficking Victims Protection Act of 2000;
(U) out-of-school youth; and
(V) people in an acute crisis not covered under
subparagraphs (A) through (U).
(4) Dating violence.--The term ``dating violence'' has the
meaning given the term in section 40002(a) of the Violence
Against Women Act of 1994 (34 U.S.C. 12291(a)).
(5) Immigration terms.--
(A) Immigrant.--The term ``immigrant'' means an
alien who has entered the United States.
(B) Undocumented immigrant.--The term
``undocumented immigrant'' means an alien who is
unlawfully present in the United States.
(6) Indian tribe; tribal organization.--The terms ``Indian
tribe'' and ``tribal organization'' have the meanings given the
terms in section 4 of the Indian Self-Determination and
Education Assistance Act (25 U.S.C. 5304).
(7) Institution of higher education.--The term
``institution of higher education'' means--
(A) such an institution as defined in section 101
of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1001);
and
(B) a tribally controlled college or university as
defined in section 2 of the Tribally Controlled
Colleges and Universities Assistance Act of 1978 (25
U.S.C. 1801).
(8) Out-of-school youth.--The term ``out-of-school youth''
means an individual who is--
(A) not attending any school (as defined under
State law);
(B) not younger than age 16 or older than age 24;
and
(C) one or more of the following:
(i) A young person who has dropped out of
school.
(ii) A youth who is within the age of
compulsory school attendance, but has not
attended school for at least the most recent
complete school year calendar quarter.
(iii) A recipient of a secondary school
diploma or its recognized equivalent who is a
low-income individual and is either basic
skills deficient or an English language learner
(as such 3 terms are defined in section 3 of
the Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act
(29 U.S.C. 3102)).
(iv) An individual who is subject to the
criminal justice system.
(v) An individual who experiences
homelessness, a homeless child or youth, or a
runaway.
(vi) An individual--
(I) who is in foster care, who has
aged out of the foster care system, or
who has attained 16 years of age and
left foster care for kinship
guardianship or adoption;
(II) who is a child eligible for
assistance under section 477 of the
Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 677); or
(III) who is a child in an out-of-
home placement.
(vii) An individual who is pregnant or
parenting.
(viii) An individual with a disability (as
defined in section 3 of the Workforce
Innovation and Opportunity Act (29 U.S.C.
3102)).
(ix) A low-income individual (as defined in
that section 3) who requires additional
assistance to enter or complete an educational
program or to secure or hold employment.
(9) Secretary.--The term ``Secretary'' means the Secretary
of Health and Human Services, acting through the Administrator
of the Administration for Community Living and in consultation
with the Assistant Secretary for Mental Health and Substance
Use, the Secretary of Housing and Urban Development, and the
Attorney General.
(10) Substance use disorder.--The term ``substance use
disorder'' means such a disorder within the meaning of title V
of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 290aa et seq.).
SEC. 4. ESTABLISHMENT OF GRANT PROGRAM.
The Secretary shall establish a Community-Based Emergency and Non-
Emergency Response Grant Program to improve community-based emergency
and non-emergency response for public safety and problem solving, and
to promote the safety and well-being of the populations and communities
served under the program by--
(1) identifying eligible organizations with demonstrated
capacity for emergency and non-emergency response work,
including violence interruption, community mediation, and
crisis behavioral health response, who are capable of
providing, and increasing the capacity of the localities to
provide, emergency and non-emergency response for specified
covered populations;
(2) developing a local infrastructure of systems and
resources needed to develop, implement, and sustain effective
interventions to protect the mental and physical well-being of
members of the community, prevent violence, de-escalate
volatile situations, ensure access to human services, protect
property and the environment, reduce law enforcement use of
force, and ensure the health and safety of communities, while
decreasing the sole reliance on law enforcement for emergency
and non-emergency situations;
(3) creating and strengthening formal and informal
partnerships, for such purposes as providing solutions and
committing resources to sustain and scale up successful models
of community-based emergency and non-emergency response; and
(4) providing timely evaluation to clarify the outcomes and
costs of the program, and the new interventions and service
models provided through the program, for service recipients and
law enforcement.
SEC. 5. ELIGIBLE PARTNERSHIPS.
(a) In General.--To be eligible to receive a grant under this title
Act, an entity shall be a partnership of--
(1)(A) a unit of local government (or its contractor), or
Indian tribe or tribal organization, acting through an entity
that is independent of any law enforcement agency; and
(B) a covered community-based organization; and
(2) if applicable, a nonprofit or public institution of
higher education, community mental health center, or behavioral
health organization.
(b) Community-Based Organization.--A community-based organization
referred to in subsection (a)(1) shall be a nonprofit community-based
organization, a consortium of nonprofit community-based organizations,
a national nonprofit organization acting as an intermediary for a
community-based organization, or a community-based organization that
has a fiscal sponsor that allows the organization to function as an
organization that is described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal
Revenue Code of 1986 and exempt from taxation under section 501(a) of
that Code.
SEC. 6. PLANNING GRANTS.
(a) In General.--In carrying out the Program, the Secretary shall
use not more than 10 percent of the amount appropriated under section
13(1) to make planning grants to eligible partnerships to engage, with
meaningful participation from the covered populations and covered
community-based organizations involved, in comprehensive design of a
community response plan, in order to prepare a high-quality application
for an initiation grant.
(b) Application.--To be eligible to receive a planning grant under
this section, an eligible partnership shall submit to the Secretary a
planning application at such time, in such manner, and containing such
information as the Secretary may require, including information on--
(1) the covered populations that will be consulted through
the planning process;
(2) how the partnership will engage entities that are led
by the covered populations; and
(3) how the partnership will solicit and confirm support
from covered populations and community stakeholders in the
plan.
SEC. 7. INITIATION AND CONTINUATION GRANTS.
(a) Initiation Grants.--In carrying out the Program, the Secretary
shall make initiation grants to not fewer than 40 eligible
partnerships, including not fewer than 4 eligible partnerships that
include Indian tribes or tribal organizations, of which not fewer than
2 shall be eligible partnerships led by an Indian tribe or tribal
organization, to carry out projects to meet the objectives described in
subsection (a). The Secretary shall make the grants for periods of 5
years. The Secretary shall make the grants to partnerships in
geographically diverse areas, including urban and rural communities,
and in communities with varying population sizes.
(b) Continuation Grants.--
(1) In general.--In carrying out the Program, the Secretary
shall make continuation grants to eligible partnerships who are
recipients of the initiation grants and who are determined by
the Secretary to be in good standing on completion of the grant
period for those grants, to pay for the Federal share of the
cost of carrying out projects to meet the objectives described
in subsection (a). The Secretary shall make the continuation
grants for periods of 2 years.
(2) Non-federal share.--The non-Federal share of the costs
described in this subsection shall be 25 percent. The eligible
partnership receiving such a continuation grant shall provide
the non-Federal share from State, tribal, local, or private
sources.
SEC. 8. INITIATION AND CONTINUATION GRANT APPLICATIONS.
(a) In General.--To be eligible to receive an initiation or
continuation grant under section 7 for a project, a partnership shall
submit an application (which, for a continuation grant, shall be an
update of the partnership's initiation grant application) to the
Secretary, at such time, in such manner, and containing such
information as the Secretary may require, including--
(1) information that specifies in detail--
(A) the covered populations that the partnership
will target for services under this Act;
(B) the experience of the members of the
partnership in successfully working in the community to
be served and partnering with the target populations,
including--
(i) for a partnership that includes an
Indian tribe or tribal organization, an
understanding of tribal sovereignty; and
(ii) for a partnership not described in
clause (i), the partnership's understanding of
racial equity, systems of oppression, and the
impact of structural racism on the community
and population to be served, the partnership's
commitment to promoting anti-racism, anti-bias,
and equity, dismantling such systems, and
reducing such impact, and an established record
of accomplishment in improving outcomes or
preventing, reducing, or eliminating inequities
in that community;
(C) how the grant funds will be used;
(D) the expertise of the partnership, including its
staff, in implementing the project to provide the
proposed services;
(E) how the partnership will implement or develop
practices with clear methods of evaluation, including
development of culturally informed practices, in
carrying out the project, including references to
applicable research or demonstrated practices; and
(F) the partnership's plan for gathering feedback
from service recipients about the quality of the
services, including contacts and resources, provided
through the project; and
(2) a memorandum of understanding that--
(A) identifies each partner (including each agency
of the unit of local government or Indian tribe or
tribal organization, as applicable, involved) and is
signed by a representative of each partner in the
partnership carrying out the project; and
(B) outlines--
(i) the partnership's engagement with the
community, including members of the covered
population, and the role the engagement played
in developing the project;
(ii) the financial and programmatic
commitment of each partner, and the specific
role of a law enforcement agency if involved in
a backup role;
(iii) the responsibilities of emergency
dispatch operators, dispatchers, and partners
in the national 911 system, in properly
identifying calls in the community to be served
necessitating a community-based emergency and
non-emergency response and directing those
calls to appropriate responders;
(iv) the responsibilities of information
and referral systems for essential community
services (accessed in most localities by
dialing 211) and the National Suicide
Prevention Hotline (to be accessed by dialing
988) for participating in efficiently routing
direct callers to services;
(v) the responsibilities of each partner
with respect to data collection and evaluation;
(vi) how each partner's existing (as of the
date of submission of the application) vision,
theory of change, theory of action, anti-racist
and anti-bias practice, and activities align
with those of the grant program set forth in
this Act;
(vii) the governance structure proposed for
the project, including a system for holding
partners accountable;
(viii) how the eligible partners' governing
boards or advisory boards, and emergency
responders, are representative of the community
to be served;
(ix) how a structure through which
residents of the community and grassroots
organizations will have an active role in the
eligible partnership's decision making;
(x) how the partnership anticipates that
the project involved will decrease the
responsibilities of local law enforcement,
including responsibilities related to policing,
arrests, and incarceration, and of other public
safety entities;
(xi) any voluntary, community-based mental
health services and other support services that
the partnership is committing to provide;
(xii) any State or local laws that may be
an impediment to implementation of the project;
and
(xiii) any other information the Secretary
reasonably determines to be necessary.
(b) Priority.--In making initiation and continuation grants under
section 7, the Secretary shall give priority to--
(1) eligible partnerships that include covered community-
based organizations with a documented record of effectively
serving 1 or more covered populations;
(2) eligible partnerships that include covered community-
based organizations that are led by individuals who are members
of the covered populations to be served;
(3) eligible partnerships that include a unit of local
government that commits to increasing resources for community-
based mental health services and housing, with the goals of--
(A) reducing the incarceration and death of persons
with a mental illness or an intellectual or
developmental disability; and
(B) increasing referrals of persons with a mental
illness or an intellectual or developmental disability
to voluntary, community-based mental health services
and other support services (rather than
institutionalization); and
(4) eligible partnerships that have successfully executed
planning under a planning grant.
(c) Consideration.--In reviewing applications for grants described
in section 7, the Secretary shall consider applications with innovative
proposals and clear methods of evaluation.
SEC. 9. USE OF FUNDS.
(a) In General.--An eligible partnership that receives a grant
under section 7 for a project may use the grant funds for--
(1) project planning and community engagement;
(2) project implementation;
(3) staffing and recruitment;
(4) facilities;
(5) operational costs, including costs of startup or
expansion activities, marketing, language translation, and
transportation;
(6) engagement with technical assistance providers;
(7) consulting services;
(8) training;
(9) program and project evaluation, including evaluation of
program and project efficacy, staff performance, and service
delivery;
(10) programming and service interventions that include--
(A) activities that prioritize human service
interventions, by entities other than law enforcement,
over interventions by law enforcement; or
(B) activities that include triaging emergencies,
through emergency dispatch operators, in a manner that
results in referral to a wholly nonpolice entity; and
(11) programming and service interventions that may
include--
(A) activities that include co-occurring law
enforcement and human services activities, such as
responses to calls about dating violence;
(B) activities that include followup by human
services organizations after contact by law
enforcement, such as community mediation, social
services, or behavioral health services;
(C) training for emergency dispatch operators; and
(D) training for community members, or family
members of people requiring emergency or non-emergency
response, to facilitate comprehensive and clear
communication with emergency dispatch operators to
ensure that necessary information is conveyed about
when an intervention by a nonpolice human services
organization is the most appropriate response.
(b) Funding Limitation.--None of the grant funds provided under
section 7 shall be provided to State, tribal, or local law enforcement
agencies.
SEC. 10. TECHNICAL ASSISTANCE.
The Secretary shall arrange for a national technical assistance
provider for organizations described in section 5, to provide technical
assistance support and develop and disseminate best practices for
projects carried out under this Act.
SEC. 11. ANNUAL REPORTING REQUIREMENTS.
Each recipient of a grant under section 7 for a project is required
to submit an annual report to the Secretary that details--
(1) the specific uses of the grant funds;
(2) the number of individuals contacted through the
project;
(3) the number of individuals connected with ongoing
services or resources through the project, disaggregated by
race, ethnicity, gender, sexual orientation and gender
identity, disability status, and other characteristics;
(4) the quality of the contacts, services, and resources,
as reported by the individuals contacted;
(5) any evidence of positive outcomes following the
contacts or connections;
(6) any evidence of negative outcomes that may have
occurred following the contacts or connections;
(7) the percentage of total emergency calls diverted from
law enforcement to the grant recipient;
(8) the percentage of emergency calls diverted to the grant
recipient that have been addressed;
(9) the extent to which the grant recipient is hiring or
training individuals from within the covered population, and
the recruitment, hiring, training, and retention practices for
such individuals;
(10) any related reduction in the number of calls to law
enforcement over the period of the project;
(11) any changes in the types of calls made to the 911
system, to the extent that it is practicable to report
information on such changes;
(12) any increases in the number of calls to the 211 (or
equivalent) systems for essential non-emergency community
services or calls to the 988 National Suicide Prevention
Hotline over the period of the project;
(13) any related reduction in the budget of the law
enforcement agency that has jurisdiction over the community
served by the eligible partnership over that period;
(14) any State or local laws that were an impediment to
implementation of the project; and
(15) any evidence of completed in-home, teletherapy, or in-
community responses that included counseling, crisis response,
family treatment, mediation, or other evidence-based
interventions that addressed complex needs not able to be
resolved by non-emergency calls alone.
SEC. 12. EVALUATION AND REPORT.
Not later than October 1, 2027, the Secretary shall--
(1) complete an evaluation detailing the implementation of,
outcomes of, and best practices from the grant program carried
out under this Act, including program-wide information on the
factors described in paragraphs (2) through (15) of section 11;
and
(2) submit to Congress a report containing the evaluation.
SEC. 13. AUTHORIZATION OF APPROPRIATIONS.
There is authorized to be appropriated--
(1) to carry out planning and initiation grants under this
Act, $100,000,000 for each of fiscal years 2022 through 2026;
and
(2) to carry out continuation grants under this Act,
$75,000,000 for each of fiscal years 2027 and 2028.
<all> | Community-Based Response Act of 2021 | A bill to provide for a Community-Based Emergency and Non-Emergency Response Grant Program. | Community-Based Response Act of 2021 | Sen. Van Hollen, Chris | D | MD |
84 | 10,745 | H.R.5829 | Health | COVID-19 Individual Liberty Act of 2021
This bill nullifies executive orders and otherwise limits the authority of the federal government and federally funded entities to mandate COVID-19 vaccines and other prevention measures.
Specifically, the bill nullifies two executive orders issued on September 9, 2021, which (1) mandate COVID-19 vaccines for federal employees, and (2) require federal contractors to comply with workplace safety guidance for preventing COVID-19.
In addition, the bill bars the use of federal funds for implementing or enforcing a COVID-19 vaccine mandate, including employer-based mandates. The bill also prohibits requiring, as a condition of participation in Medicare or Medicaid, that health care providers mandate COVID-19 vaccinations for their employees.
Furthermore, the federal government may not (1) issue any standardized documentation that certifies an individual's COVID-19 vaccination status to a third party, or (2) condition the provision of any service or benefit on the receipt of documentation certifying an individual's COVID-19 vaccination status or post-transmission recovery. These prohibitions apply to state, tribal, and local governments (excluding schools and institutions of higher education) as a condition of receiving federal COVID-19 relief funds.
The bill also requires the Department of Health and Human Services to publish guidelines on the extent to which natural immunity to COVID-19 prevents contracting or spreading the disease. | To prohibit federally funded COVID-19 vaccine mandates, and for other
purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``COVID-19 Individual Liberty Act of
2021''.
SEC. 2. TABLE OF CONTENTS.
The table of contents of this Act:
Sec. 1. Short title.
Sec. 2. Table of contents.
Sec. 3. Vaccine mandate for Federal contractors and subcontractors.
Sec. 4. Nullification of vaccine mandate for executive branch
employees.
Sec. 5. No Federal funding for COVID-19 vaccine mandates.
Sec. 6. Prohibition on implementation of COVID-19 vaccination mandate
under the Medicare and Medicaid programs.
Sec. 7. Guidelines on natural immunity as a suitable alternative to
being fully vaccinated.
Sec. 8. Prohibition against Federal issuance of, or discrimination
based on vaccine passports.
SEC. 3. VACCINE MANDATE FOR FEDERAL CONTRACTORS AND SUBCONTRACTORS.
(a) In General.--Executive Order 14042 (86 Fed. Reg. 50985;
relating to ensuring adequate COVID safety protocols for Federal
contractors) shall have no force or effect.
(b) Effective Date.--This section shall take effect as if enacted
on September 9, 2021.
SEC. 4. NULLIFICATION OF VACCINE MANDATE FOR EXECUTIVE BRANCH
EMPLOYEES.
(a) In General.--Executive Order 14043 (86 Fed. Reg. 50989;
relating to requiring coronavirus disease 2019 vaccination for Federal
employees) shall have no force or effect.
(b) Effective Date.--This section shall take effect as if enacted
on September 14, 2021.
SEC. 5. NO FEDERAL FUNDING FOR COVID-19 VACCINE MANDATES.
(a) In General.--No Federal funds may be used to implement or
enforce (including through promulgation of any rule) a COVID-19 vaccine
mandate.
(b) Definitions.--In this section:
(1) COVID-19 vaccine.--The term ``COVID-19 vaccine'' means
an immunization that is intended to prevent or mitigate COVID-
19.
(2) COVID-19 vaccine mandate.--The term ``COVID-19 vaccine
mandate'' means any requirement that an individual receive a
COVID-19 vaccine, including--
(A) any such requirement as a condition on becoming
or remaining a Federal employee, contractor, or
subcontractor; or
(B) any requirement that a non-Federal employer
require an employee, contractor, or subcontractor
thereof to receive a COVID-19 vaccine.
(3) Non-federal employer.--The term ``non-Federal
employer''--
(A) means any person (other than the Federal
Government) engaged in a business in or affecting
interstate commerce; and
(B) includes a State or political subdivision of a
State to the extent it is engaged in such a business.
SEC. 6. PROHIBITION ON IMPLEMENTATION OF COVID-19 VACCINATION MANDATE
UNDER THE MEDICARE AND MEDICAID PROGRAMS.
Notwithstanding any provision of title XI, XVIII, or XIX of the
Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1301 et seq., 1395 et seq., 1396 et
seq.), the Secretary of Health and Human Services may not--
(1) require a health care provider, as a condition of
participation in the Medicare or Medicaid program, to mandate
vaccination of employees against COVID-19; or
(2) otherwise penalize such a provider for such provider's
failure to so mandate such vaccination.
SEC. 7. GUIDELINES ON NATURAL IMMUNITY AS A SUITABLE ALTERNATIVE TO
BEING FULLY VACCINATED.
Not later than 90 days after the date of enactment of this Act, the
Secretary of Health and Human Services shall publish guidelines on the
extent to which natural immunity provides protection from contracting
or spreading COVID-19 that is at least equivalent to the immunity
provided by vaccination.
SEC. 8. PROHIBITION AGAINST FEDERAL ISSUANCE OF, OR DISCRIMINATION
BASED ON VACCINE PASSPORTS.
(a) Federal Government.--The Federal Government shall not--
(1) issue any vaccine passport; or
(2) discriminate against any person by requiring
documentation certifying COVID-19 vaccination, or post-
transmission recovery, as a condition on the provision of any
service or benefit.
(b) State, Tribal, and Local Governments.--
(1) Prohibition.--As a condition on receipt of any Federal
funds made available by or under any of the Acts listed in
paragraph (2), no State, Tribal, or local government shall--
(A) issue any vaccine passport; or
(B) discriminate against any person by requiring
documentation certifying COVID-19 vaccination, or post-
transmission recovery, as a condition on the provision
of any service or benefit.
(2) Specified acts.--The Acts listed in this paragraph are
the following:
(A) The Coronavirus Preparedness and Response
Supplemental Appropriations Act, 2020 (Public Law 116-
123).
(B) The Families First Coronavirus Response Act
(Public Law 116-127).
(C) The CARES Act (Public Law 116-136).
(D) The Paycheck Protection Program and Health Care
Enhancement Act (Public Law 116-139).
(E) The American Rescue Plan Act of 2021 (Public
Law 117-2).
(3) Exception.--Paragraph (1) does not apply with respect
to a school, including any kindergarten, elementary school,
secondary school, and institution of higher education.
(c) Definition.--In this section, the term ``vaccine passport''--
(1) means any standardized documentation for the purpose of
certifying an individual's COVID-19 vaccination status to a
third party; and
(2) excludes any documentation to the extent it is issued
for the purpose of health care records.
<all> | COVID–19 Individual Liberty Act of 2021 | To prohibit federally funded COVID-19 vaccine mandates, and for other purposes. | COVID–19 Individual Liberty Act of 2021 | Rep. Timmons, William R. IV | R | SC |
85 | 14,253 | H.R.5414 | Health | Ensuring Medicaid Continuity for Children in Foster Care Act of 2021
This bill allows states to receive federal Medicaid payment for services provided to foster care children in qualified residential treatment programs (i.e., programs with trauma-informed treatment models that address the needs of children with serious emotional or behavioral disorders or disturbances). | To amend title XIX of the Social Security Act to ensure that children
in foster care who are placed in a qualified residential treatment
program are eligible for Medicaid.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Ensuring Medicaid Continuity for
Children in Foster Care Act of 2021''.
SEC. 2. EXEMPTION OF CHILDREN IN FOSTER CARE WHO ARE PLACED IN A
QUALIFIED RESIDENTIAL TREATMENT PROGRAM FROM THE MEDICAID
IMD EXCLUSION.
(a) In General.--Section 1905(a)(31)(B) of the Social Security Act
(42 U.S.C. 1396d(a)(31)(B)) is amended by inserting ``and services
provided to any individual who is a child in foster care under the
responsibility of a State who has been placed in a child care
institution that is a qualified residential treatment program (as
defined in section 472(k)(4)), without regard to whether payments are
made on behalf of such child under section 472'' after ``section
1915(l)''.
(b) Effective Date.--The amendment made by subsection (a) shall
take effect on October 1, 2021, and shall apply with respect to items
and services furnished in calendar quarters beginning on or after that
date.
<all> | Ensuring Medicaid Continuity for Children in Foster Care Act of 2021 | To amend title XIX of the Social Security Act to ensure that children in foster care who are placed in a qualified residential treatment program are eligible for Medicaid. | Ensuring Medicaid Continuity for Children in Foster Care Act of 2021 | Rep. Bilirakis, Gus M. | R | FL |
86 | 9,252 | H.R.70 | Health | Securing America's Medicine Cabinet Act of 2021
This bill encourages the development and approval of advanced pharmaceutical manufacturing technologies and designates certain university research centers to assist in developing such technologies.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) must continue to evaluate and approve new drug manufacturing technologies included in an application for drug approval and expedite the development and implementation of such technologies. The FDA must designate such a technology as an advanced manufacturing technology if it is likely to (1) prevent or resolve a drug shortage, (2) maintain an adequate supply of critical medications for national emergencies, or (3) promote the adoption of innovative approaches to drug design and manufacturing.
The sponsor of such a designated technology must provide the FDA with certain related scientific evidence. After receiving this evidence, if the FDA validates the technology for a proposed use, then the sponsor may use the validated technology across multiple manufacturing product lines within the same use context without obtaining additional FDA validation.
The FDA must designate certain institutions of higher education as National Centers of Excellence in Advanced Pharmaceutical Manufacturing. Among other requirements, such centers must demonstrate the ability to provide federal agencies with technical assistance and to train a future workforce in such technologies. | To support the advanced manufacturing technologies program of the Food
and Drug Administration, to establish National Centers of Excellence in
Advanced Pharmaceutical Manufacturing, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Securing America's Medicine Cabinet
Act of 2021''.
SEC. 2. ADVANCED MANUFACTURING TECHNOLOGIES PROGRAM.
Subchapter A of chapter V of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic
Act (21 U.S.C. 351 et seq.) is amended by adding at the end the
following:
``SEC. 524B. ADVANCED MANUFACTURING TECHNOLOGIES PROGRAM.
``(a) In General.--Not later than 1 year after the date of
enactment of the Securing America's Medicine Cabinet Act of 2021, the
Secretary shall continue in effect the program to evaluate and approve
new drug manufacturing technologies that are included in an
application, or supplement to an application, for a drug under
subsection (b) or (j) of section 505 of this Act or for a biological
product submitted under subsection (a) or (k) of section 351 of the
Public Health Service Act.
``(b) Designation.--The Secretary shall designate a method of
manufacturing a drug as an advanced manufacturing technology under this
section if the drug manufacturer demonstrates that such technology is
likely to--
``(1) prevent or resolve a drug shortage;
``(2) maintain an adequate supply of critical medications
for national emergencies; or
``(3) promote the adoption of innovative approaches to drug
product design and manufacturing.
``(c) Consultation.--If the Secretary designates a method of
manufacturing as an advanced manufacturing technology under this
section, the Secretary shall take actions to expedite the development
and implementation of such method of manufacture for purposes of
approval of the application under subsection (c) or (j) of section 505
of this Act or subsection (a) or (k) of section 351 of the Public
Health Service Act, which may include, as appropriate--
``(1) holding meetings between the sponsor of the
application and appropriate Food and Drug Administration staff
throughout the development of the technology;
``(2) providing timely advice to, and interactive
communication with, the sponsor regarding the development of
the technology; and
``(3) involving senior managers and experienced staff of
the Food and Drug Administration, as appropriate, in a
collaborative, cross-disciplinary review of the method of
manufacturing.
``(d) Evaluation of an Advanced Manufacturing Technology.--
``(1) Package.--A sponsor who receives designation of an
advanced manufacturing technology under this section shall
provide the Secretary with a package of scientific evidence
supporting the implementation of the advanced manufacturing
technology in a particular context-of-use.
``(2) Evaluation.--Within 90 days of receiving the package,
the Secretary shall determine whether a designated advanced
manufacturing technology is validated for the proposed context
of use based on the scientific merit the supporting evidence
provided by the sponsor.
``(3) Effect of approval.--Upon approval, the same sponsor
may rely upon the advanced manufacturing technology for use
across multiple manufacturing product lines within the same
context-of-use without having to re-submit data to the
Secretary validating the underlying technology.
``(e) Implementation and Reporting.--
``(1) Public meeting.--The Secretary shall publish in the
Federal Register a notice of a public meeting to be held no
later than 1 year after the date of enactment of the Securing
America's Medicine Cabinet Act of 2021 to discuss and obtain
input and recommendations from stakeholders regarding the goals
and scope of, and a suitable framework and procedures and
requirements for, the program under this section.
``(2) Program guidance.--The Secretary shall--
``(A) not later than 1 year after the date of
enactment of the Securing America's Medicine Cabinet
Act of 2021, issue draft guidance regarding the goals
and implementation of the program under this section;
and
``(B) not later than 2 years after the date of
enactment of the Securing America's Medicine Cabinet
Act of 2021, issue final guidance with respect to the
implementation of such program.
``(3) Report.--The Secretary shall make available on the
internet website of the Food and Drug Administration an annual
report on the progress of the program under this section.''.
SEC. 3. NATIONAL CENTER OF EXCELLENCE IN ADVANCED PHARMACEUTICAL
MANUFACTURING.
Chapter X of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C.
391 et seq.) is amended by adding at the end the following:
``SEC. 1015. NATIONAL CENTER OF EXCELLENCE IN ADVANCED PHARMACEUTICAL
MANUFACTURING.
``(a) In General.--The Secretary shall designate institutions of
higher education as National Centers of Excellence in Advanced
Pharmaceutical Manufacturing, including continuous pharmaceutical
manufacturing.
``(b) Eligibility.--To be eligible for designation under subsection
(a) an entity shall--
``(1) be an institution of higher education;
``(2) demonstrate--
``(A) the physical and technical capacity for
research and development of advanced pharmaceutical
manufacturing;
``(B) a record of transferring scientific knowledge
to the marketplace;
``(C) scalable manufacturing knowledge, which may
be through collaborations of other institutions of
higher education, biopharmaceutical manufacturers, or
other entities;
``(D) the ability to train a future workforce for
research on and implementation of advanced
pharmaceutical manufacturing; and
``(E) the ability to support Federal agencies with
technical assistance for advanced pharmaceutical
technologies, with an emphasis on creating a secure
national pharmaceutical stockpile and the ability to
rapidly address drug shortages; and
``(3) submit an application to the Secretary at such time,
in such form, and in such manner as the Secretary may require.
``(c) Termination.--The Secretary may terminate the designation of
an entity designated under subsection (a) upon a determination that the
entity no longer meets the requirements of subsection (b).
``(d) Annual Report.--Not later than 1 year after the date on which
the first designation is made under subsection (a), and annually
thereafter, the Secretary shall submit a report to Congress on the
activities of the entities designated under such subsection.
``(e) Authorization of Appropriations.--To carry out this section,
there are authorized to be appropriated $100,000,000 for the period of
fiscal years 2022 through 2025.''.
<all> | Securing America’s Medicine Cabinet Act of 2021 | To support the advanced manufacturing technologies program of the Food and Drug Administration, to establish National Centers of Excellence in Advanced Pharmaceutical Manufacturing, and for other purposes. | Securing America’s Medicine Cabinet Act of 2021 | Rep. Buchanan, Vern | R | FL |
87 | 12,745 | H.R.6809 | Immigration | Terminating Reckless and Unnecessary Checks Known to Erode Regular Shipping Act or the TRUCKERS Act
This bill prohibits the Department of Homeland Security from imposing any COVID-19 vaccination requirement on any commercial truck driver who is a national of Canada or Mexico and seeking to temporarily enter the United States for business through a land port of entry. | To exempt commercial truck drivers from Canada or Mexico who are
seeking to temporarily enter the United States for business through a
land port of entry from any COVID-19 vaccination requirement.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLES.
This Act may be cited as the ``Terminating Reckless and Unnecessary
Checks Known to Erode Regular Shipping Act'' or the ``TRUCKERS Act''.
SEC. 2. EXEMPTION FROM COVID-19 VACCINATION REQUIREMENT.
Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the Secretary of
Homeland Security may not impose any COVID-19 vaccination requirement
on any commercial truck driver who is a national of Canada or of Mexico
and is seeking to temporarily enter the United States for business
through a land port of entry.
<all> | TRUCKERS Act | To exempt commercial truck drivers from Canada or Mexico who are seeking to temporarily enter the United States for business through a land port of entry from any COVID-19 vaccination requirement. | TRUCKERS Act
Terminating Reckless and Unnecessary Checks Known to Erode Regular Shipping Act | Rep. Gimenez, Carlos A. | R | FL |
88 | 13,662 | H.R.1568 | International Affairs | Special Drawing Rights Oversight Act of 2021
This bill imposes additional restrictions on the U.S. government's authority to vote on Special Drawing Rights (SDR) allocations at the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
(The SDR is an international reserve asset maintained by the IMF based on contributions from IMF member countries. SDRs may be exchanged between member countries and may also be exchanged for currencies.)
Under current law, U.S. representatives to the IMF may not vote for SDR allocations to the United States beyond an amount authorized by statute unless Congress authorizes such a vote. This bill further reduces the allocation amount that U.S. representatives to the IMF may vote for without congressional approval.
Furthermore, U.S. representatives to the IMF may not vote for SDR allocations to a country if the President finds that the country's government has (1) committed genocide in the last 10 years, or (2) repeatedly supported international terrorism. | To amend the Special Drawing Rights Act in order to strengthen
congressional oversight with respect to allocations of Special Drawing
Rights by the International Monetary Fund, and to prohibit such
allocations for perpetrators of genocide and state sponsors of
terrorism without congressional authorization, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Special Drawing Rights Oversight Act
of 2021''.
SEC. 2. FINDINGS.
The Congress finds as follows:
(1) The allocation of Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) through
the International Monetary Fund (IMF) creates unconditional
liquidity for IMF member countries.
(2) According to Article XVIII of the Articles of Agreement
of the IMF, allocations of SDRs ``shall seek to meet the long-
term global need'' in reserve assets.
(3) SDRs are allocated in proportion to the quotas of IMF
members, such that the G20 alone is entitled to approximately
two-thirds of a general allocation. At the same time, the Board
of Governors of the Federal Reserve System has swap line
arrangements with the central banks of eight G20 members,
including the European Central Bank, the Bank of Japan, and the
Bank of England, for the purpose of providing sufficient
liquidity.
(4) The size of SDR allocations has expanded dramatically,
rising from 9,300,000,000 SDRs in 1970-1972, to 12,100,000,000
SDRs in 1979-1981, to 204,000,000,000 SDRs in 2009, with
proposals for a new, unilateral allocation that bypasses
congressional authorization in an amount of approximately
450,000,000,000 SDRs.
(5) Under current law, the Secretary of the Treasury is
able to bypass Congress and approve an allocation of SDRs in a
manner that provides unconditional liquidity in the following
approximate amounts: $41,700,000,000 to the People's Republic
of China; $17,600,000,000 to the Russian Federation;
$4,900,000,000 to the Islamic Republic of Iran, and
$5,000,000,000 to Venezuela. In addition, current law permits
allocations in these amounts to be made in successive years
that span two basic periods.
(6) In the 98th Congress, the House of Representatives
passed the bipartisan International Recovery and Financial
Stability Act, which would have prohibited new allocations of
SDRs without congressional authorization.
SEC. 3. STRENGTHENING CONGRESSIONAL OVERSIGHT.
Section 6 of the Special Drawing Rights Act (22 U.S.C. 286q) is
amended--
(1) in subsection (a)--
(A) by striking ``each basic period'' and inserting
``any 10-year period''; and
(B) by inserting ``25 percent of'' before ``the
United States quota''; and
(2) in subsection (b)--
(A) by inserting ``, or consent to or acquiesce in
such an allocation,'' before ``without consultations'';
(B) by striking ``90'' and inserting ``180''; and
(C) by inserting ``Chairman and ranking minority
members of'' before ``the appropriate subcommittees''.
SEC. 4. PROHIBITION ON ALLOCATIONS FOR PERPETRATORS OF GENOCIDE AND
STATE SPONSORS OF TERRORISM WITHOUT CONGRESSIONAL
AUTHORIZATION.
Section 6(b) of the Special Drawing Rights Act (22 U.S.C. 286q(b))
is amended by adding at the end the following:
``(3) Unless Congress by law authorizes such action, neither the
President nor any person or agency shall on behalf of the United States
vote to allocate Special Drawing Rights under article XVIII, sections 2
and 3, of the Articles of Agreement of the Fund to a member country of
the Fund, if the President of the United States has found that the
government of the member country--
``(A) has committed genocide at any time during the 10-year
period ending with the date of the vote; or
``(B) has repeatedly provided support for acts of
international terrorism.''.
<all> | Special Drawing Rights Oversight Act of 2021 | To amend the Special Drawing Rights Act in order to strengthen congressional oversight with respect to allocations of Special Drawing Rights by the International Monetary Fund, and to prohibit such allocations for perpetrators of genocide and state sponsors of terrorism without congressional authorization, and for other purposes. | Special Drawing Rights Oversight Act of 2021 | Rep. Hill, J. French | R | AR |
89 | 10,207 | H.R.1347 | Crime and Law Enforcement | Eric Garner Excessive Use of Force Prevention Act of 2021
This bill modifies the criminal civil rights statute that prohibits the deprivation of rights under color of law.
Currently, the second prong of the prohibition bars the application of different punishments, pains, or penalties based on an individual's alien status, color, or race. This bill specifies that the application of any pressure to a person's throat or windpipe, the use of maneuvers that restrict blood or oxygen flow to the brain, or carotid artery restraints that prevent or hinder breathing or reduce intake of air (e.g., a chokehold) constitute a punishment, pain, or penalty. | To amend section 242 of title 18, United States Code, to forbid the use
of chokeholds by persons subject to that provision's prohibitions, and
for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Eric Garner Excessive Use of Force
Prevention Act of 2021''.
SEC. 2. CHOKEHOLDS AS CIVIL RIGHTS VIOLATIONS.
Section 242 of title 18, United States Code, is amended by adding
at the end the following: ``For the purposes of this section, the
application of any pressure to the throat or windpipe, use of maneuvers
that restrict blood or oxygen flow to the brain, or carotid artery
restraints which prevent or hinder breathing or reduce intake of air is
a punishment, pain, or penalty.''.
<all> | Eric Garner Excessive Use of Force Prevention Act of 2021 | To amend section 242 of title 18, United States Code, to forbid the use of chokeholds by persons subject to that provision's prohibitions, and for other purposes. | Eric Garner Excessive Use of Force Prevention Act of 2021 | Rep. Jeffries, Hakeem S. | D | NY |
90 | 13,082 | H.R.1163 | Crime and Law Enforcement | Federal Police Camera and Accountability Act
This bill establishes requirements for federal law enforcement officers to wear body cameras and for federal law enforcement agencies to install video cameras in patrol cars. | To require Federal law enforcement officers to wear body cameras, and
for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Federal Police Camera and
Accountability Act''.
SEC. 2. REQUIREMENTS FOR FEDERAL LAW ENFORCEMENT OFFICERS REGARDING THE
USE OF BODY CAMERAS.
(a) Definitions.--In this section:
(1) Minor.--The term ``minor'' means any individual under
18 years of age.
(2) Subject of the video footage.--The term ``subject of
the video footage''--
(A) means any identifiable Federal law enforcement
officer or any identifiable suspect, victim, detainee,
conversant, injured party, or other similarly situated
person who appears on the body camera recording; and
(B) does not include people who only incidentally
appear on the recording.
(3) Video footage.--The term ``video footage'' means any
images or audio recorded by a body camera.
(4) Facial recognition or other biometric surveillance.--
The term ``facial recognition or other biometric surveillance''
means an automated or semiautomated process that captures or
analyzes biometric data of an individual to identify or assist
in identifying an individual or an automated or semiautomated
process that generates, or assists in generating, surveillance
information about an individual based on biometric data.
(b) Requirement To Wear Body Camera.--
(1) In general.--Federal law enforcement officers shall
wear a body camera.
(2) Requirement for body camera.--A body camera required
under paragraph (1) shall--
(A) have a field of view at least as broad as the
officer's vision; and
(B) be worn in a manner that maximizes the camera's
ability to capture video footage of the officer's
activities.
(c) Requirement To Activate.--
(1) In general.--Both the video and audio recording
functions of the body camera shall be activated whenever a
Federal law enforcement officer is responding to a call for
service or at the initiation of any other law enforcement or
investigative stop (as such term is defined in section 3)
between a Federal law enforcement officer and a member of the
public, except that when an immediate threat to the officer's
life or safety makes activating the camera impossible or
dangerous, the officer shall activate the camera at the first
reasonable opportunity to do so.
(2) Allowable deactivation.--The body camera shall not be
deactivated until the stop has fully concluded and the Federal
law enforcement officer leaves the scene.
(d) Notification of Subject of Recording.--A Federal law
enforcement officer who is wearing a body camera shall notify any
subject of the recording that he or she is being recorded by a body
camera as close to the inception of the stop as is reasonably possible.
(e) Requirements.--Notwithstanding subsection (c), the following
shall apply to the use of a body camera:
(1) Prior to entering a private residence without a warrant
or in non-exigent circumstances, a Federal law enforcement
officer shall ask the occupant if the occupant wants the
officer to discontinue use of the officer's body camera. If the
occupant responds affirmatively, the Federal law enforcement
officer shall immediately discontinue use of the body camera.
(2) When interacting with an apparent crime victim, a
Federal law enforcement officer shall, as soon as practicable,
ask the apparent crime victim if the apparent crime victim
wants the officer to discontinue use of the officer's body
camera. If the apparent crime victim responds affirmatively,
the Federal law enforcement officer shall immediately
discontinue use of the body camera.
(3) When interacting with a person seeking to anonymously
report a crime or assist in an ongoing law enforcement
investigation, a Federal law enforcement officer shall, as soon
as practicable, ask the person seeking to remain anonymous, if
the person seeking to remain anonymous wants the officer to
discontinue use of the officer's body camera. If the person
seeking to remain anonymous responds affirmatively, the Federal
law enforcement officer shall immediately discontinue use of
the body camera.
(f) Recording of Offers To Discontinue Use of Body Camera.--Each
offer of a Federal law enforcement officer to discontinue the use of a
body camera made pursuant to subsection (e), and the responses thereto,
shall be recorded by the body camera prior to discontinuing use of the
body camera.
(g) Limitations on Use of Body Camera.--Body cameras shall not be
used to gather intelligence information based on First Amendment
protected speech, associations, or religion, or to record activity that
is unrelated to a response to a call for service or a law enforcement
or investigative stop between a law enforcement officer and a member of
the public, and shall not be equipped with or employ any facial
recognition or other biometric surveillance technologies.
(h) Exceptions.--Federal law enforcement officers--
(1) shall not be required to use body cameras during
investigative or enforcement stops with the public in the case
that--
(A) recording would risk the safety of a
confidential informant, citizen informant, or
undercover officer;
(B) recording would pose a serious risk to national
security; or
(C) the officer is a military police officer, a
member of the United States Army Criminal Investigation
Command, or a protective detail assigned to a Federal
or foreign official while performing his or her duties;
and
(2) shall not activate a body camera while on the grounds
of any public, private, or parochial elementary or secondary
school, except when responding to an imminent threat to life or
health.
(i) Retention of Footage.--
(1) In general.--Body camera video footage shall be
retained by the law enforcement agency that employs the officer
whose camera captured the footage, or an authorized agent
thereof, for 6 months after the date it was recorded, after
which time such footage shall be permanently deleted.
(2) Right to inspect.--During the 6-month retention period
described in paragraph (1), the following persons shall have
the right to inspect the body camera footage:
(A) Any person who is a subject of body camera
video footage, and their designated legal counsel.
(B) A parent or legal guardian of a minor subject
of body camera video footage, and their designated
legal counsel.
(C) The spouse, next of kin, or legally authorized
designee of a deceased subject of body camera video
footage, and their designated legal counsel.
(D) A Federal law enforcement officer whose body
camera recorded the video footage, and their designated
legal counsel, subject to the limitations and
restrictions in this part.
(E) The superior officer of a Federal law
enforcement officer whose body camera recorded the
video footage, subject to the limitations and
restrictions in this part.
(F) Any defense counsel who claims, pursuant to a
written affidavit, to have a reasonable basis for
believing a video may contain evidence that exculpates
a client.
(3) Limitation.--The right to inspect subject to subsection
(j)(1) shall not include the right to possess a copy of the
body camera video footage, unless the release of the body
camera footage is otherwise authorized by this part or by
another applicable law. When a body camera fails to capture
some or all of the audio or video of an incident due to
malfunction, displacement of camera, or any other cause, any
audio or video footage that is captured shall be treated the
same as any other body camera audio or video footage under this
Act.
(j) Additional Retention Requirements.--Notwithstanding the
retention and deletion requirements in subsection (i), the following
shall apply to body camera video footage under this Act:
(1) Body camera video footage shall be automatically
retained for not less than 3 years if the video footage
captures an interaction or event involving--
(A) any use of force; or
(B) a stop about which a complaint has been
registered by a subject of the video footage.
(2) Body camera video footage shall be retained for not
less than 3 years if a longer retention period is voluntarily
requested by--
(A) the Federal law enforcement officer whose body
camera recorded the video footage, if that officer
reasonably asserts the video footage has evidentiary or
exculpatory value in an ongoing investigation;
(B) any Federal law enforcement officer who is a
subject of the video footage, if that officer
reasonably asserts the video footage has evidentiary or
exculpatory value;
(C) any superior officer of a Federal law
enforcement officer whose body camera recorded the
video footage or who is a subject of the video footage,
if that superior officer reasonably asserts the video
footage has evidentiary or exculpatory value;
(D) any Federal law enforcement officer, if the
video footage is being retained solely and exclusively
for police training purposes;
(E) any member of the public who is a subject of
the video footage;
(F) any parent or legal guardian of a minor who is
a subject of the video footage; or
(G) a deceased subject's spouse, next of kin, or
legally authorized designee.
(k) Public Review.--For purposes of subparagraphs (E), (F), and (G)
of subsection (j)(2), any member of the public who is a subject of
video footage, the parent or legal guardian of a minor who is a subject
of the video footage, or a deceased subject's next of kin or legally
authorized designee, shall be permitted to review the specific video
footage in question in order to make a determination as to whether they
will voluntarily request it be subjected to a minimum 3-year retention
period.
(l) Disclosure.--
(1) In general.--Except as provided in paragraph (2), all
video footage of an interaction or event captured by a body
camera, if that interaction or event is identified with
reasonable specificity and requested by a member of the public,
shall be provided to the person or entity making the request in
accordance with the procedures for requesting and providing
government records set forth in the section 552a of title 5,
United States Code.
(2) Exceptions.--The following categories of video footage
shall not be released to the public in the absence of express
written permission from the non-law enforcement subjects of the
video footage:
(A) Video footage not subject to a minimum 3-year
retention period pursuant to subsection (j).
(B) Video footage that is subject to a minimum 3-
year retention period solely and exclusively pursuant
to paragraph (1)(B) or (2) of subsection (j).
(3) Priority of requests.--Notwithstanding any time periods
established for acknowledging and responding to records
requests in section 552a of title 5, United States Code,
responses to requests for video footage that is subject to a
minimum 3-year retention period pursuant to subsection
(j)(1)(A), where a subject of the video footage is recorded
being killed, shot by a firearm, or grievously injured, shall
be prioritized and, if approved, the requested video footage
shall be provided as expeditiously as possible, but in no
circumstances later than 5 days following receipt of the
request.
(4) Use of redaction technology.--
(A) In general.--Whenever doing so is necessary to
protect personal privacy, the right to a fair trial,
the identity of a confidential source or crime victim,
or the life or physical safety of any person appearing
in video footage, redaction technology may be used to
obscure the face and other personally identifying
characteristics of that person, including the tone of
the person's voice, provided the redaction does not
interfere with a viewer's ability to fully, completely,
and accurately comprehend the events captured on the
video footage.
(B) Requirements.--The following requirements shall
apply to redactions under subparagraph (A):
(i) When redaction is performed on video
footage pursuant to this paragraph, an
unedited, original version of the video footage
shall be retained pursuant to the requirements
of subsections (i) and (j).
(ii) Except pursuant to the rules for the
redaction of video footage set forth in this
subsection or where it is otherwise expressly
authorized by this Act, no other editing or
alteration of video footage, including a
reduction of the video footage's resolution,
shall be permitted.
(m) Prohibited Withholding of Footage.--Body camera video footage
may not be withheld from the public on the basis that it is an
investigatory record or was compiled for law enforcement purposes where
any person under investigation or whose conduct is under review is a
police officer or other law enforcement employee and the video footage
relates to that person's conduct in their official capacity.
(n) Admissibility.--Any video footage retained beyond 6 months
solely and exclusively pursuant to subsection (j)(2)(D) shall not be
admissible as evidence in any criminal or civil legal or administrative
proceeding.
(o) Confidentiality.--No government agency or official, or law
enforcement agency, officer, or official may publicly disclose,
release, or share body camera video footage unless--
(1) doing so is expressly authorized pursuant to this Act
or another applicable law; or
(2) the video footage is subject to public release pursuant
to subsection (l), and not exempted from public release
pursuant to subsection (l)(1).
(p) Limitation on Federal Law Enforcement Officer Viewing of Body
Camera Footage.--No Federal law enforcement officer shall review or
receive an accounting of any body camera video footage that is subject
to a minimum 3-year retention period pursuant to subsection (j)(1)
prior to completing any required initial reports, statements, and
interviews regarding the recorded event, unless doing so is necessary,
while in the field, to address an immediate threat to life or safety.
(q) Additional Limitations.--Video footage may not be--
(1) in the case of footage that is not subject to a minimum
3-year retention period, viewed by any superior officer of a
Federal law enforcement officer whose body camera recorded the
footage absent a specific allegation of misconduct; or
(2) divulged or used by any law enforcement agency for any
commercial or other non-law enforcement purpose.
(r) Third-Party Maintenance of Footage.--Where a law enforcement
agency authorizes a third party to act as its agent in maintaining body
camera footage, the agent shall not be permitted to independently
access, view, or alter any video footage, except to delete videos as
required by law or agency retention policies.
(s) Enforcement.--
(1) In general.--If any Federal law enforcement officer, or
any employee or agent of a Federal law enforcement agency fails
to adhere to the recording or retention requirements contained
in this Act, intentionally interferes with a body camera's
ability to accurately capture video footage, or otherwise
manipulates the video footage captured by a body camera during
or after its operation--
(A) appropriate disciplinary action shall be taken
against the individual officer, employee, or agent;
(B) a rebuttable evidentiary presumption shall be
adopted in favor of a criminal defendant who reasonably
asserts that exculpatory evidence was destroyed or not
captured; and
(C) a rebuttable evidentiary presumption shall be
adopted on behalf of a civil plaintiff suing the
Government, a Federal law enforcement agency, or a
Federal law enforcement officer for damages based on
misconduct who reasonably asserts that evidence
supporting their claim was destroyed or not captured.
(2) Proof compliance was impossible.--The disciplinary
action requirement and rebuttable presumptions described in
paragraph (1) may be overcome by contrary evidence or proof of
exigent circumstances that made compliance impossible.
(t) Use of Force Investigations.--In the case that a Federal law
enforcement officer equipped with a body camera is involved in, a
witness to, or within viewable sight range of either the use of force
by another law enforcement officer that results in a death, the use of
force by another law enforcement officer, during which the discharge of
a firearm results in an injury, or the conduct of another law
enforcement officer that becomes the subject of a criminal
investigation--
(1) the law enforcement agency that employs the law
enforcement officer, or the agency or department conducting the
related criminal investigation, as appropriate, shall promptly
take possession of the body camera, and shall maintain such
camera, and any data on such camera, in accordance with the
applicable rules governing the preservation of evidence;
(2) a copy of the data on such body camera shall be made in
accordance with prevailing forensic standards for data
collection and reproduction; and
(3) such copied data shall be made available to the public
in accordance with subsection (l).
(u) Limitation on Use of Footage as Evidence.--Any body camera
video footage recorded by a Federal law enforcement officer that
violates this Act or any other applicable law may not be offered as
evidence by any government entity, agency, department, prosecutorial
office, or any other subdivision thereof in any criminal or civil
action or proceeding against any member of the public.
(v) Publication of Agency Policies.--Any Federal law enforcement
agency policy or other guidance regarding body cameras, their use, or
the video footage therefrom that is adopted by a Federal agency or
department, shall be made publicly available on that agency's website.
(w) Rule of Construction.--Nothing in this Act shall be construed
to preempt any laws governing the maintenance, production, and
destruction of evidence in criminal investigations and prosecutions.
SEC. 3. PATROL VEHICLES WITH IN-CAR VIDEO RECORDING CAMERAS.
(a) Definitions.--In this section:
(1) Audio recording.--The term ``audio recording'' means
the recorded conversation between a Federal law enforcement
officer and a second party.
(2) Emergency lights.--The term ``emergency lights'' means
oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights on patrol vehicles.
(3) Enforcement or investigative stop.--The term
``enforcement or investigative stop'' means an action by a
Federal law enforcement officer in relation to enforcement and
investigation duties, including traffic stops, pedestrian
stops, abandoned vehicle contacts, motorist assists, commercial
motor vehicle stops, roadside safety checks, requests for
identification, or responses to requests for emergency
assistance.
(4) In-car video camera.--The term ``in-car video camera''
means a video camera located in a patrol vehicle.
(5) In-car video camera recording equipment.--The term
``in-car video camera recording equipment'' means a video
camera recording system located in a patrol vehicle consisting
of a camera assembly, recording mechanism, and an in-car video
recording medium.
(6) Recording.--The term ``recording'' means the process of
capturing data or information stored on a recording medium as
required under this section.
(7) Recording medium.--The term ``recording medium'' means
any recording medium for the retention and playback of recorded
audio and video including VHS, DVD, hard drive, solid state,
digital, or flash memory technology.
(8) Wireless microphone.--The term ``wireless microphone''
means a device worn by a Federal law enforcement officer or any
other equipment used to record conversations between the
officer and a second party and transmitted to the recording
equipment.
(b) Requirements.--
(1) In general.--Each Federal law enforcement agency shall
install in-car video camera recording equipment in all patrol
vehicles with a recording medium capable of recording for a
period of 10 hours or more and capable of making audio
recordings with the assistance of a wireless microphone.
(2) Recording equipment requirements.--In-car video camera
recording equipment with a recording medium capable of
recording for a period of 10 hours or more shall record
activities--
(A) whenever a patrol vehicle is assigned to patrol
duty;
(B) outside a patrol vehicle whenever--
(i) a Federal law enforcement officer
assigned that patrol vehicle is conducting an
enforcement or investigative stop;
(ii) patrol vehicle emergency lights are
activated or would otherwise be activated if
not for the need to conceal the presence of law
enforcement; or
(iii) an officer reasonably believes
recording may assist with prosecution, enhance
safety, or for any other lawful purpose; and
(C) inside the vehicle when transporting an
arrestee or when an officer reasonably believes
recording may assist with prosecution, enhance safety,
or for any other lawful purpose.
(3) Requirements for recording.--
(A) In general.--A Federal law enforcement officer
shall begin recording for an enforcement or
investigative stop when the officer determines an
enforcement stop is necessary and shall continue until
the enforcement action has been completed and the
subject of the enforcement or investigative stop or the
officer has left the scene.
(B) Activation with lights.--A Federal law
enforcement officer shall begin recording when patrol
vehicle emergency lights are activated or when they
would otherwise be activated if not for the need to
conceal the presence of law enforcement, and shall
continue until the reason for the activation ceases to
exist, regardless of whether the emergency lights are
no longer activated.
(C) Permissible recording.--A Federal law
enforcement officer may begin recording if the officer
reasonably believes recording may assist with
prosecution, enhance safety, or for any other lawful
purpose; and shall continue until the reason for
recording ceases to exist.
(4) Enforcement or investigative stops.--A Federal law
enforcement officer shall record any enforcement or
investigative stop. Audio recording shall terminate upon
release of the violator and prior to initiating a separate
criminal investigation.
(c) Retention of Recordings.--Recordings made on in-car video
camera recording medium shall be retained for a storage period of at
least 90 days. Under no circumstances shall any recording made on in-
car video camera recording medium be altered or erased prior to the
expiration of the designated storage period. Upon completion of the
storage period, the recording medium may be erased and reissued for
operational use unless otherwise ordered or if designated for
evidentiary or training purposes.
(d) Accessibility of Recordings.--Audio or video recordings made
pursuant to this section shall be available under the applicable
provisions of section 552a of title 5, United States Code. Only
recorded portions of the audio recording or video recording medium
applicable to the request will be available for inspection or copying.
(e) Maintenance Required.--The agency shall ensure proper care and
maintenance of in-car video camera recording equipment and recording
medium. An officer operating a patrol vehicle must immediately document
and notify the appropriate person of any technical difficulties,
failures, or problems with the in-car video camera recording equipment
or recording medium. Upon receiving notice, every reasonable effort
shall be made to correct and repair any of the in-car video camera
recording equipment or recording medium and determine if it is in the
public interest to permit the use of the patrol vehicle.
SEC. 4. FACIAL RECOGNITION TECHNOLOGY.
No camera or recording device authorized or required to be used
under this Act may employ facial recognition or other biometric
surveillance technology. ``Used'' for purposes of this prohibition
includes the use of a facial recognition or other biometric
surveillance system in real-time or on a recording, or making a request
or entering into an agreement for another law enforcement agency or
other third party to use a facial recognition or other biometric
surveillance system on behalf of the requesting officer or agency.
SEC. 5. GAO STUDY.
Not later than 18 months after the date of enactment of this Act,
the Comptroller General of the United States shall conduct a study on
Federal law enforcement officer training, vehicle pursuits, use of
force, and interaction with citizens, and submit a report on such study
to--
(1) the Committees on the Judiciary of the House of
Representatives and of the Senate;
(2) the Committee on Oversight and Reform of the House of
Representatives; and
(3) the Committee on Homeland Security and Governmental
Affairs of the Senate.
SEC. 6. REGULATIONS.
Not later than 6 months after the date of the enactment of this
Act, the Attorney General shall issue such final regulations as are
necessary to carry out this Act.
SEC. 7. RULE OF CONSTRUCTION.
Nothing in this Act shall be construed to impose any requirement on
a Federal law enforcement officer outside of the course of carrying out
that officer's duty.
<all> | Federal Police Camera and Accountability Act | To require Federal law enforcement officers to wear body cameras, and for other purposes. | Federal Police Camera and Accountability Act | Del. Norton, Eleanor Holmes | D | DC |
91 | 748 | S.3995 | Foreign Trade and International Finance | This bill modifies the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States to give imports of basketballs permanent duty-free treatment. | To amend the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States to provide
for permanent duty-free treatment on imports of basketballs.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. PERMANENT DUTY-FREE TREATMENT ON IMPORTS OF BASKETBALLS.
(a) In General.--Chapter 95 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of
the United States is amended by inserting in numerical sequence the
following new subheading, with the article description having the same
degree of indentation as the article description for subheading
9506.62.40:
`` 9506.62.70 Basketballs........ Free ................... 30% ''
.
(b) Conforming Amendments.--(1) Chapter 95 of the Harmonized Tariff
Schedule of the United States, as amended by subsection (a), is further
amended by redesignating subheading 9506.62.80 as subheading
9506.62.81.
(2) Subchapter II of chapter 99 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule
of the United States is amended by striking headings 9902.17.75,
9902.17.76, and 9902.17.77.
(3) U.S. Note 20(s)(i) to subchapter III of chapter 99 of the
Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States is amended by striking
``9506.62.80'' and by inserting ``9506.62.70'' and ``9506.62.81'' in
appropriate sequence.
(c) Effective Date.--The amendment made by subsection (a) applies
to articles entered, or withdrawn from warehouse for consumption, on or
after the 15th day after the date of the enactment of this Act.
<all> | A bill to amend the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States to provide for permanent duty-free treatment on imports of basketballs. | A bill to amend the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States to provide for permanent duty-free treatment on imports of basketballs. | Official Titles - Senate
Official Title as Introduced
A bill to amend the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States to provide for permanent duty-free treatment on imports of basketballs. | Sen. Paul, Rand | R | KY |
92 | 4,795 | S.2892 | Economics and Public Finance | Stop the Shutdowns Transferring Unnecessary Pain and Inflicting Damage In The coming Years Act
This bill provides continuing appropriations to certain federal agencies to prevent a government shutdown if an appropriations bill for the agency has not been enacted before the fiscal year begins and continuing appropriations are not in effect.
The bill excludes agencies within or under the legislative branch or the Executive Office of the President, which would continue to be subject to a government shutdown due to a lapse in appropriations. | To provide for continuing appropriations in the event of a lapse in
appropriations under the normal appropriations process, other than for
the legislative branch and the Executive Office of the President.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Stop the Shutdowns Transferring
Unnecessary Pain and Inflicting Damage In The coming Years Act''.
SEC. 2. AUTOMATIC CONTINUING APPROPRIATIONS.
(a) In General.--Chapter 13 of title 31, United States Code, is
amended by adding at the end the following:
``Sec. 1311. Automatic continuing appropriations
``(a) In this section, the term `excluded account' means an
appropriation account--
``(1) for any agency, office, or other entity in or under
the legislative branch; or
``(2) for any agency, office, or other entity in or under
the Executive Office of the President.
``(b)(1)(A) If an appropriation Act for a fiscal year with respect
to the account for a program, project, or activity has not been enacted
and continuing appropriations are not in effect during any period
during such fiscal year with respect to the program, project, or
activity, there are appropriated such sums as may be necessary to
continue, at the rate for operations specified in subparagraph (B), the
program, project, or activity if--
``(i) the program, project, or activity is not funded under
an excluded account; and
``(ii) funds were provided for the program, project, or
activity during the preceding fiscal year.
``(B) The rate for operations specified in this subparagraph with
respect to a program, project, or activity--
``(i) is the rate for operations for the preceding fiscal
year for the program, project, or activity--
``(I) provided in the corresponding appropriation
Act for such preceding fiscal year; or
``(II) if the corresponding appropriation bill for
such preceding fiscal year was not enacted, provided in
the law providing continuing appropriations for such
preceding fiscal year; or
``(ii) if the corresponding appropriation bill and a law
providing continuing appropriations for such preceding fiscal
year were not enacted, is the rate for operations for the
preceding fiscal year for the program, project, or activity
provided under this section for such preceding fiscal year, as
increased by the percentage increase, if any, in the gross
domestic product for the calendar year ending during such
preceding fiscal year as compared to the gross domestic product
for the calendar year before such calendar year.
``(2) Appropriations and funds made available, and authority
granted, for any fiscal year pursuant to this section for a program,
project, or activity shall be available for the period beginning with
the first day of any lapse in appropriations during such fiscal year
and ending with the date on which the applicable regular appropriation
bill for such fiscal year is enacted (whether or not such law provides
appropriations for such program, project, or activity) or a law making
continuing appropriations for the program, project, or activity is
enacted, as the case may be.
``(c) An appropriation or funds made available, or authority
granted, for a program, project, or activity for any fiscal year
pursuant to this section shall be subject to the terms and conditions
imposed with respect to the appropriation made or funds made available
for the preceding fiscal year, or authority granted for such program,
project, or activity under current law.
``(d) Expenditures made for a program, project, or activity for any
fiscal year pursuant to this section shall be charged to the applicable
appropriation, fund, or authorization whenever a regular appropriation
Act, or a law making continuing appropriations until the end of such
fiscal year, for such program, project, or activity is enacted.
``(e) This section shall not apply to a program, project, or
activity during a fiscal year if any other provision of law (other than
an authorization of appropriations)--
``(1) makes an appropriation, makes funds available, or
grants authority for such program, project, or activity to
continue for such period; or
``(2) specifically provides that no appropriation shall be
made, no funds shall be made available, or no authority shall
be granted for such program, project, or activity to continue
for such period.''.
(b) Clerical Amendment.--The table of sections for chapter 13 of
title 31, United States Code, is amended by adding at the end the
following:
``1311. Automatic continuing appropriations.''.
<all> | Stop the Shutdowns Transferring Unnecessary Pain and Inflicting Damage In The coming Years Act | A bill to provide for continuing appropriations in the event of a lapse in appropriations under the normal appropriations process, other than for the legislative branch and the Executive Office of the President. | Stop the Shutdowns Transferring Unnecessary Pain and Inflicting Damage In The coming Years Act | Sen. Warner, Mark R. | D | VA |
93 | 15,026 | H.R.7937 | Environmental Protection | Revitalize, Enhance, and Nurture in Expanded Ways Our Abandoned Mine Lands Act or the RENEW Our Abandoned Mine Lands Act
This bill authorizes grants for states and Indian tribes to carry out reclamation projects on mining sites if there is a shortfall between the actual cost of reclamation and the value of any performance bonds forfeited by coal mining operators. The bill also phases out certain cost-sharing requirements for existing grants that support the development of state and tribal programs for regulating surface mining and reclamation.
Current law requires mining operators to reclaim land affected by their operations and demonstrate, through a performance bond, that they have adequate financial resources to carry out the reclamation. If the operator fails to complete the reclamation, the bond is forfeited to the state or tribal regulatory authority to cover reclamation costs. | To direct the Secretary of the Interior, acting through the Office of
Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement, to establish a program to
facilitate coal mine reclamation and award grants to certain States and
Indian Tribes to carry out coal mine reclamation, and for other
purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Revitalize, Enhance, and Nurture in
Expanded Ways Our Abandoned Mine Lands Act'' or the ``RENEW Our
Abandoned Mine Lands Act''.
SEC. 2. AMENDMENTS TO THE SURFACE MINING CONTROL AND RECLAMATION ACT.
(a) Coal Mine Reclamation Program.--Title V of the Surface Mining
Control and Reclamation Act of 1977 (30 U.S.C. 1251 et seq.) is amended
by adding at the end the following:
``SEC. 530. OSMRE COAL MINE RECLAMATION PROGRAM.
``(a) Establishment.--Not later than 1 year after the date of the
enactment of this Act, the Secretary shall establish a program--
``(1) to help ensure the Office of Surface Mining
Reclamation and Enforcement has sufficient funds to carry out
covered reclamation projects; and
``(2) to award grants to States and Indian tribes to carry
out covered reclamation projects.
``(b) Grant Program.--
``(1) In general.--The Secretary may award grants under
this section to States and Indian tribes to carry out covered
reclamation projects.
``(2) Priority.--In awarding grants under this section, the
Secretary shall allocate grant funds based on need.
``(3) Additional criteria.--To be eligible for a grant
under this section--
``(A) a State or Indian tribe shall maintain State
bonding requirements approved under section 503 that
are not less stringent than the bonding requirements of
such State on the date of enactment of this section;
``(B) if the Secretary determines appropriate, a
State or Indian tribe shall address deficiencies in its
approved alternative bonding system on permitted coal
mines;
``(C) an Indian tribe shall have an approved
regulatory program pursuant to this title and section
710;
``(D) a State or Indian tribe shall demonstrate--
``(i) the use of all available legal
remedies to the extent practicable to recover
reclamation costs from responsible persons
liable under this Act, including corporate
parents, owners, and executives;
``(ii) with respect to the use of such
grant funds, requirements for--
``(I) active coal mines within its
jurisdiction to reclaim surface areas
as contemporaneously as practicable
with surface coal mining operations
pursuant to the purposes of this Act;
``(II) coal mine reclamation within
its jurisdiction to be carried out
according to approved reclamation
plans;
``(III) compliance with the Clean
Water Act (33 U.S.C. 1251 et seq.); and
``(IV) payments of wages not less
than those prevailing on similar
projects in the locality, for all
laborers and mechanics employed by
contractors or subcontractors in the
performance of construction,
alteration, or repair work on a project
assisted in whole or in part by funding
made available under this section, as
determined by the Secretary of Labor in
accordance with subchapter IV of
chapter 31 of title 40, United States
Code (commonly referred to as the
``Davis-Bacon Act'');
``(iii) the aggregation of reclamation
projects when practicable to improve economies
of scale; and
``(iv) active facilitation of community
engagement in the design and oversight of
reclamation projects; and
``(E) meet such additional requirements as the
Secretary determines appropriate.
``(4) Application.--
``(A) Annual requirement.--The Secretary shall
require, from each State or Indian tribe applying for
grant funds under this section, an application for each
fiscal year.
``(B) Projected shortfall.--Each application shall
include the following information:
``(i) For a State applicant, the projected
annual shortfall in funding for reclamation
with respect to all coal mines where the State
forfeited a reclamation bond.
``(ii) For an Indian tribe applicant, the
projected annual shortfall in funding for
reclamation with respect to all coal mines
where the Indian tribe forfeited a reclamation
bond.
``(c) Authorization of Appropriations.--
``(1) In general.--In addition to amounts otherwise
available, there is authorized to be appropriated to the
Secretary $385,000,000 for each of fiscal years 2023 through
2032 to carry out this section.
``(2) Administrative costs.--Of the amounts made available
under this section, the Secretary may use $1,000,000 each
fiscal year for the costs of administering this section.
``(d) Definitions.--In this section:
``(1) Covered reclamation project.--The term `covered
reclamation project'--
``(A) means a coal mine reclamation project on a
site where a performance bond was forfeited and found
to be insufficient; and
``(B) includes reclamation projects--
``(i) involving lands or waters mined for
coal under a permit under this Act that were
subject to permit revocation and bond
forfeiture pursuant to section 800.50 of title
30, Code of Federal Regulations, (or its
equivalent in an approved State or Tribal
program); and
``(ii) where there is a shortfall between
the actual cost of reclamation, including long-
term water treatment, and the value of any
forfeited bonding instrument.
``(2) Secretary.--The term `Secretary' means the Secretary
of the Interior, acting through the Office of Surface Mining
Reclamation and Enforcement.
``(e) Termination.--The program established under subsection (a)
shall terminate on September 30, 2032.''.
(b) Grants to the States.--Section 705(a) of the Surface Mining
Control and Reclamation Act of 1977 (30 U.S.C. 1295(a)) is amended to
read as follows:
``(a) The Secretary is authorized to make annual grants to any
State for the purpose of assisting such State in developing,
administering, and enforcing State programs under this Act. Except as
provided in subsection (c)--
``(1) through fiscal year 2022, such grants shall not
exceed 80 percent of the total costs incurred during the first
year, 60 percent of total costs incurred during the second
year, and 50 percent of the total costs incurred during each
year thereafter;
``(2) for fiscal year 2023 and 2024, such grants shall not
exceed 75 percent of the total costs incurred during each year;
and
``(3) for fiscal year 2025 and thereafter, such grants
shall not exceed 100 percent of the total costs incurred during
each year.''.
(c) Clerical Amendment.--The table of contents for the Surface
Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977 (30 U.S.C. 1201 et seq.) is
amended by inserting after the item relating to section 529 the
following:
``Sec. 530. OSMRE coal mine reclamation program.''.
<all> | RENEW Our Abandoned Mine Lands Act | To direct the Secretary of the Interior, acting through the Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement, to establish a program to facilitate coal mine reclamation and award grants to certain States and Indian Tribes to carry out coal mine reclamation, and for other purposes. | RENEW Our Abandoned Mine Lands Act
Revitalize, Enhance, and Nurture in Expanded Ways Our Abandoned Mine Lands Act | Rep. Lamb, Conor | D | PA |
94 | 367 | S.4396 | Armed Forces and National Security | Access to Healthcare for Reservists Act
This bill requires the Department of Defense (DOD) to study the feasibility of expanding eligibility for TRICARE Reserve Select and the TRICARE dental program to include all members of the Selected Reserve of the Ready Reserve of a reserve component of the Armed Forces, their dependents, and their non-dependent children under the age of 26. The study must also assess potential cost effects, changes in out-of-pocket costs to beneficiaries, and effects on other federal programs.
DOD must contract with a federally funded research and development center that is qualified and appropriate to conduct the study.
Additionally, DOD must brief Congress on the methodology and approach of the study and submit a report on the results. | To require the Secretary of Defense to conduct a study on providing
benefits under TRICARE Reserve Select and the TRICARE dental program to
members of the Selected Reserve and their dependents.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Access to Healthcare for Reservists
Act''.
SEC. 2. STUDY ON PROVIDING BENEFITS UNDER TRICARE RESERVE SELECT AND
TRICARE DENTAL PROGRAM TO MEMBERS OF THE SELECTED RESERVE
AND THEIR DEPENDENTS.
(a) Study.--The Secretary of Defense shall conduct a study on the
feasibility, potential cost effects to the budget of the Department of
Defense, changes in out-of-pocket costs to beneficiaries, and effects
on other Federal programs of expanding eligibility for TRICARE Reserve
Select and the TRICARE dental program to include all members of the
Selected Reserve of the Ready Reserve of a reserve component of the
Armed Forces, their dependents, and their non-dependent children under
the age of 26.
(b) Specifications.--In conducting the study under subsection (a),
the Secretary shall include an assessment of the following:
(1) Cost-shifting to the Department of Defense to support
the expansion of TRICARE Reserve Select and the TRICARE dental
program from--
(A) health benefit plans under chapter 89 of title
5, United States Code;
(B) employer-sponsored health insurance;
(C) private health insurance;
(D) insurance under a State health care exchange;
and
(E) the Medicaid program under title XIX of the
Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1396 et seq.).
(2) New costs for the Department of Defense to enroll in
TRICARE Reserve Select and the TRICARE dental program members
of the Selected Reserve of the Ready Reserve of a reserve
component of the Armed Forces who were previously uninsured.
(3) The resources needed to implement TRICARE Reserve
Select and the TRICARE dental program for all such members,
their dependents, and their non-dependent children under the
age of 26.
(4) Anticipated cost-savings or cost-avoidance of the
expansion of TRICARE Reserve Select and the TRICARE dental
program with regard to increased training days performed in
support of mass medical events during battle assemblies of the
reserve components, including an assessment of the impact of
such expansion on--
(A) medical readiness;
(B) overall deployability rates;
(C) deployability timelines;
(D) fallout rates at mobilization sites;
(E) cross-leveling of members of the reserve
components to backfill medical fallouts at mobilization
sites; and
(F) any other readiness metrics affected by such
expansion.
(5) Any impact of such expansion on recruitment and
retention of members of the Ready Reserve of the reserve
components of the Armed Forces.
(6) Any changes to out-of-pocket costs for such members and
their dependents resulting from such expansion.
(7) Anticipated cost-savings or cost-avoidance in contracts
that implement the Reserve Health Readiness Program of the
Department of Defense.
(c) Determination of Cost Effects.--In studying the potential cost
effects to the budget of the Department of Defense under subsection
(a), the Secretary of Defense shall study the cost effects for the
following scenarios of expanded eligibility for TRICARE Reserve Select
and the TRICARE dental program:
(1) Premium free for members of the Selected Reserve of the
Ready Reserve of a reserve component of the Armed Forces, their
dependents, and their non-dependent children under the age of
26.
(2) Premium free for such members and subsidized premiums
for such dependents and non-dependent children.
(3) Subsidized premiums for such members, dependents, and
non-dependent children.
(d) Use of a Federally Funded Research and Development Center.--The
Secretary shall contract with a federally funded research and
development center that is qualified and appropriate to conduct the
study required under subsection (a).
(e) Briefing; Report.--
(1) Briefing.--Not later than one year after the date of
the enactment of this Act, the Secretary shall provide to the
Committee on Armed Services of the Senate and the Committee on
Armed Services of the House of Representatives a briefing on
the methodology and approach of the study required under
subsection (a).
(2) Report.--Not later than two years after the date of the
enactment of this Act, the Secretary shall submit to the
Committee on Armed Services of the Senate and the Committee on
Armed Services of the House of Representatives a report on the
results of the study required under subsection (a).
(f) Definitions.--In this section:
(1) TRICARE dental program.--The term ``TRICARE dental
program'' means dental benefits under section 1076a of title
10, United States Code.
(2) TRICARE reserve select.--The term ``TRICARE Reserve
Select'' means health benefits under section 1076d of such
title.
<all> | Access to Healthcare for Reservists Act | A bill to require the Secretary of Defense to conduct a study on providing benefits under TRICARE Reserve Select and the TRICARE dental program to members of the Selected Reserve and their dependents | Access to Healthcare for Reservists Act | Sen. Duckworth, Tammy | D | IL |
95 | 1,754 | S.514 | Congress | This bill requires the Joint Committee on the Library to obtain, and the Architect of the Capitol to permanently install in the U.S. Capitol or on the U.S. Capitol Grounds, a monument honoring Associate Justice of the Supreme Court Ruth Bader Ginsburg. | To obtain and direct the placement in the Capitol or on the Capitol
Grounds of a monument to honor Associate Justice of the Supreme Court
of the United States Ruth Bader Ginsburg.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. FINDINGS.
Congress finds the following:
(1) Ruth Bader Ginsburg was born in 1933 in Brooklyn, New
York, and grew up in a low-income, working-class neighborhood.
(2) Ginsburg graduated from Cornell University in 1954,
finishing first in her class.
(3) Ginsburg enrolled at Harvard Law School in 1956,
entering into a class of 552 men and only 8 other women.
(4) As a law student, Ginsburg became the first female
member of the prestigious legal journal, the Harvard Law
Review. She also cared for her husband, Martin Ginsburg, who
had been diagnosed with cancer, and their young daughter.
(5) Ginsburg finished her legal education at Columbia Law
School, where she graduated first in her class in 1959.
(6) Ginsburg taught at Rutgers University Law School from
1963 to 1972 and at Columbia Law School from 1972 to 1980,
where she became the school's first female tenured professor.
(7) During the 1970s, Ginsburg served as the director of
the Women's Rights Project of the American Civil Liberties
Union. In this position, she led the fight against gender
discrimination and successfully argued 6 landmark cases before
the Supreme Court of the United States (in this section
referred to as the ``Supreme Court'').
(8) Ginsburg won 5 cases on gender discrimination before
the Supreme Court, including the case Weinberger v. Wiesenfeld,
which involved a portion of the Social Security Act that
favored women over men, because the Act granted certain
benefits to widows, but not widowers.
(9) In 1980, President Jimmy Carter appointed Ginsburg to
the United States Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia
Circuit.
(10) In 1993, President Bill Clinton appointed Ginsburg to
the Supreme Court to fill the seat vacated by Associate Justice
Byron White.
(11) On August 3, 1993, the Senate confirmed Ginsburg's
nomination to the Supreme Court by a 96 to 3 vote.
(12) Ginsburg became the second female justice to serve on
the Supreme Court as well as the first Jewish female justice to
serve on the Supreme Court.
(13) As a justice, Ginsburg presented a strong voice in
favor of gender equality, voting rights, the rights of workers,
and the separation of church and state.
(14) In 1996, Ginsburg wrote the Supreme Court's landmark
decision in United States v. Virginia, which held that the
State-supported Virginia Military Institute could not refuse to
admit women.
(15) Despite her reputation for restrained writing,
Ginsburg gathered considerable attention for her dissenting
opinion in Bush v. Gore by subtly concluding her decision with
the words, ``I dissent'', a significant departure from the
traditional ``respectfully dissent''.
(16) Ginsburg famously dissented in Ledbetter v. Goodyear
Tire & Rubber Co., where the plaintiff, a female worker being
paid significantly less than males with her same
qualifications, sued under title VII of the Civil Rights Act of
1964 (42 U.S.C. 2000e et seq.), but was denied relief under a
statute of limitation issue. Ginsburg broke with tradition and
wrote a highly colloquial version of her dissent to read from
the bench. In her dissent, she also called for Congress to undo
this improper interpretation of the law.
(17) Ginsburg's impactful dissent in Ledbetter v. Goodyear
Tire & Rubber Co. led to the successful passage of the Lilly
Ledbetter Fair Pay Act of 2009 (Public Law 111-2; 123 Stat. 5),
which was the first piece of legislation signed by President
Barack Obama.
(18) In 2013, when the Supreme Court ruled in a 5-4
decision in Shelby County v. Holder to gut the Voting Rights
Act of 1965 (52 U.S.C. 10301 et seq.), Ginsburg wrote,
``Throwing out preclearance when it has worked and is
continuing to work to stop discriminatory changes is like
throwing away your umbrella in a rainstorm because you are not
getting wet.''.
(19) Until the 2018 term, Ginsburg had not missed a day of
oral arguments, not even when she was undergoing chemotherapy
for pancreatic cancer, after surgery for colon cancer, or the
day after her husband passed away in 2010.
SEC. 2. MONUMENT HONORING JUSTICE RUTH BADER GINSBURG.
(a) Obtaining of Monument.--
(1) In general.--Not later than 2 years after the date of
the enactment of this Act, and in consultation with the
Committee on House Administration of the House of
Representatives and the Committee on Rules and Administration
of the Senate, the Joint Committee on the Library shall enter
into an agreement to obtain a monument honoring Associate
Justice of the Supreme Court of the United States Ruth Bader
Ginsburg under such terms and conditions as the Joint Committee
considers appropriate, consistent with applicable law.
(2) Consideration.--In selecting an artist to make the
monument obtained under paragraph (1), the Joint Committee on
the Library shall make the announcement available to and
consider artists from underrepresented demographic groups.
(b) Installation.--The Architect of the Capitol, under the
direction of the Joint Committee on the Library, shall permanently
install the monument obtained under subsection (a) in a prominent
location in the Capitol or on the Capitol Grounds, as described in
section 5102 of title 40, United States Code.
(c) Authorization of Appropriations.--There are authorized to be
appropriated such sums as are necessary to carry out this Act. Amounts
appropriated pursuant to this subsection shall remain available until
expended.
<all> | A bill to obtain and direct the placement in the Capitol or on the Capitol Grounds of a monument to honor Associate Justice of the Supreme Court of the United States Ruth Bader Ginsburg. | A bill to obtain and direct the placement in the Capitol or on the Capitol Grounds of a monument to honor Associate Justice of the Supreme Court of the United States Ruth Bader Ginsburg. | Official Titles - Senate
Official Title as Introduced
A bill to obtain and direct the placement in the Capitol or on the Capitol Grounds of a monument to honor Associate Justice of the Supreme Court of the United States Ruth Bader Ginsburg. | Sen. Klobuchar, Amy | D | MN |
96 | 1,084 | S.1224 | Public Lands and Natural Resources | This bill redesignates the America's Agricultural Heritage Partnership in Iowa as the Silos & Smokestacks National Heritage Area.
The bill extends through FY2031 the authority of the Department of Agriculture to provide grants or other assistance for the heritage area.
The bill increases the total amount that may be appropriated for the heritage area. | To reauthorize, and increase the total funding cap for, the America's
Agricultural Heritage Partnership, to redesignate the America's
Agricultural Heritage Partnership as the ``Silos & Smokestacks National
Heritage Area'', and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Protecting the Silos & Smokestacks
National Heritage Area Act''.
SEC. 2. REAUTHORIZATION OF AMERICA'S AGRICULTURAL HERITAGE PARTNERSHIP.
(a) Reauthorization.--Section 707 of division II of the Omnibus
Parks and Public Lands Management Act of 1996 (54 U.S.C. 320101 note;
Public Law 104-333; 110 Stat. 4267; 127 Stat. 420; 128 Stat. 3801) is
amended by striking ``2021'' and inserting ``2031''.
(b) Increased Total Funding Cap.--Section 708(a) of division II of
the Omnibus Parks and Public Lands Management Act of 1996 (54 U.S.C.
320101 note; Public Law 104-333; 110 Stat. 4267; 122 Stat. 824; 134
Stat. 1505) is amended, in the second sentence, by striking
``$17,000,000'' and inserting ``$23,000,000''.
SEC. 3. REDESIGNATION OF HERITAGE AREA.
(a) Redesignation.--The America's Agricultural Heritage Partnership
established by section 703 of division II of the Omnibus Parks and
Public Lands Management Act of 1996 (Public Law 104-333; 110 Stat.
4266) shall be known and designated as the ``Silos & Smokestacks
National Heritage Area''.
(b) References.--Any reference in a law, map, regulation, document,
paper, or other record of the United States to the heritage area
referred to in subsection (a) shall be deemed to be a reference to the
``Silos & Smokestacks National Heritage Area''.
<all> | Protecting the Silos & Smokestacks National Heritage Area Act | A bill to reauthorize, and increase the total funding cap for, the America's Agricultural Heritage Partnership, to redesignate the America's Agricultural Heritage Partnership as the "Silos & Smokestacks National Heritage Area", and for other purposes. | Protecting the Silos & Smokestacks National Heritage Area Act | Sen. Ernst, Joni | R | IA |
97 | 2,043 | S.3073 | Health | Equal Health Care for All Act
This bill prohibits discrimination in health care based on race, religion, and other characteristics. It also revises reporting requirements, adds equity-related measures to certain Medicare programs, and makes other changes to reduce health disparities.
To enforce the prohibition, the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) must establish an administrative process to resolve complaints about inequitable health care. HHS must investigate these complaints and mediate agreements to resolve issues. In the event of noncompliance with a mediated agreement, an aggrieved individual may bring a civil action.
Health care providers must also report data in formats that allow disaggregation by demographic factors. HHS must issue proposed regulations to carry out this requirement within 90 days.
Additionally, the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) must include measures related to equitable health care in the Medicare value-based purchasing program for hospitals. This program provides incentive payments based on quality of care. The CMS may also exclude providers that furnish inequitable health care from its programs.
In addition, the bill establishes the Federal Health Equity Commission to monitor implementation of the bill and establishes a grant program for hospitals to promote equitable health care. | To prohibit discrimination in health care and require the provision of
equitable health care, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Equal Health Care for All Act''.
SEC. 2. FINDINGS.
Congress finds the following:
(1) In 1966, Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr., said ``Of all the
forms of inequality, injustice in health care is the most
shocking and inhuman because it often results in physical
death.''.
(2) Inequity in health care remains a persistent and
devastating reality for many communities, and, in particular,
communities of color.
(3) The provision of inequitable health care has complex
causes, many stemming from systemic inequality in access to
health care, housing, nutrition, economic opportunity,
education, and other factors.
(4) Health care outcomes for Black communities in
particular lag far behind those of the population as a whole.
(5) Dr. Anthony Fauci, Director of the National Institute
of Allergy and Infectious Diseases, said on April 7, 2020, the
coronavirus outbreak is ``shining a bright light'' on
``unacceptable'' health disparities in the Black community.
(6) A contributing factor in health disparities is explicit
and implicit bias in the delivery of health care, resulting in
inferior care and poorer outcomes for some patients on the
basis of factors that include race, national origin, sex
(including sexual orientation or gender identity), disability,
age, and religion.
(7) The National Academy of Medicine (formerly known as the
``Institute of Medicine'') issued a report in 2002 titled
``Unequal Treatment'', finding that racial and ethnic
minorities receive lower-quality health care than Whites do,
even when insurance status, income, age, and severity of
condition is comparable.
(8) Just as Congress has sought to eliminate bias, both
explicit and implicit, in employment, housing, and other parts
of our society, the elimination of bias and the legacy of
structural racism in health care is of paramount importance.
SEC. 3. DATA COLLECTION AND REPORTING.
(a) Required Reporting.--
(1) In general.--The Secretary of Health and Human
Services, in consultation with the Director for Civil Rights
and Health Equity, the Director of the National Institutes of
Health, the Administrator of the Centers for Medicare &
Medicaid Services, the Director of the Agency for Healthcare
Research and Quality, the Deputy Assistant Secretary for
Minority Health, and the Director of the Centers for Disease
Control and Prevention, shall by regulation require all health
care providers and facilities that are required under other
provisions of law to report data on specific health outcomes to
the Department of Health and Human Services in aggregate form,
to disaggregate such data by demographic characteristics,
including by race, national origin, sex (including sexual
orientation and gender identity), disability, and age, as well
as any other factor that the Secretary of Health and Human
Services determines would be useful for determining a pattern
of provision of inequitable health care.
(2) Proposed regulations.--Not later than 90 days after the
date of enactment of this Act, the Secretary of Health and
Human Services shall issue proposed regulations to carry out
paragraph (1).
(b) Repository.--The Secretary of Health and Human Services shall--
(1) not later than 1 year after the date of enactment of
this Act, establish a repository of the disaggregated data
reported pursuant to subsection (a);
(2) subject to paragraph (3), make the data in such
repository publicly available; and
(3) ensure that such repository does not contain any data
that is individually identifiable.
SEC. 4. REQUIRING EQUITABLE HEALTH CARE IN THE HOSPITAL VALUE-BASED
PURCHASING PROGRAM.
(a) Equitable Health Care as Value Measurement.--Section
1886(b)(3)(B)(viii) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C.
1395ww(b)(3)(B)(viii)) is amended by adding at the end the following
new subclause:
``(XIII)(aa) Effective for payments beginning with fiscal year
2024, in expanding the number of measures under subclause (III), the
Secretary shall adopt measures that relate to equitable health care
furnished by hospitals in inpatient settings.
``(bb) In carrying out this subclause, the Secretary shall solicit
input and recommendations from individuals and groups representing
communities of color and other protected classes and ensure measures
adopted pursuant to this subclause account for social determinants of
health, as defined in section 7(e)(10) of the Equal Health Care for All
Act.
``(cc) For purposes of this subclause, the term `equitable health
care' refers to the principle that high-quality care should be provided
to all individuals and health care treatment and services should not
vary on account of the real or perceived race, national origin, sex
(including sexual orientation and gender identity), disability, or age
of an individual, as well as any other factor that the Secretary
determines would be useful for determining a pattern of provision of
inequitable health care.''.
(b) Inclusion of Equitable Health Care Measures.--Section
1886(o)(2)(B) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395ww(o)(2)(B)) is
amended by adding at the end the following new clause:
``(iv) Inclusion of equitable health care
measures.--Beginning in fiscal year 2024,
measures selected under subparagraph (A) shall
include the equitable health care measures
described in subsection
(b)(3)(B)(viii)(XIII).''.
SEC. 5. PROVISION OF INEQUITABLE HEALTH CARE AS A BASIS FOR PERMISSIVE
EXCLUSION FROM MEDICARE AND STATE HEALTH CARE PROGRAMS.
Section 1128(b) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1320a-7(b))
is amended by adding at the end the following new paragraph:
``(18) Provision of inequitable health care.--
``(A) In general.--Subject to subparagraph (B), any
health care provider that the Secretary determines has
engaged in a pattern of providing inequitable health
care (as defined in section 7(e)(7) of the Equal Health
Care for All Act) on the basis of race, national
origin, sex (including sexual orientation and gender
identity), disability, or age of an individual.
``(B) Exception.--For purposes of carrying out
subparagraph (A), the Secretary shall not exclude any
health care provider from participation in the Medicare
program under title XVIII of the Social Security Act or
the Medicaid program under title XIX of such Act if the
exclusion of such health care provider would result in
increased difficulty in access to health care services
for underserved or low-income communities.''.
SEC. 6. OFFICE FOR CIVIL RIGHTS AND HEALTH EQUITY OF THE DEPARTMENT OF
HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES.
(a) Name of Office.--Beginning on the date of enactment of this
Act, the Office for Civil Rights of the Department of Health and Human
Services shall be known as the ``Office for Civil Rights and Health
Equity'' of the Department of Health and Human Services. Any reference
to the Office for Civil Rights of the Department of Health and Human
Services in any law, regulation, map, document, record, or other paper
of the United States shall be deemed to be a reference to the Office
for Civil Rights and Health Equity.
(b) Head of Office.--The head of the Office for Civil Rights and
Health Equity shall be the Director for Civil Rights and Health Equity,
to be appointed by the President. Any reference to the Director of the
Office for Civil Rights of the Department of Health and Human Services
in any law, regulation, map, document, record, or other paper of the
United States shall be deemed to be a reference to the Director for
Civil Rights and Health Equity.
SEC. 7. PROHIBITING DISCRIMINATION IN HEALTH CARE.
(a) Prohibiting Discrimination.--
(1) In general.--No health care provider may, on the basis,
in whole or in part, of race, sex (including sexual orientation
and gender identity), disability, age, or religion, subject an
individual to the provision of inequitable health care.
(2) Notice of patient rights.--The Secretary shall provide
to each patient a notice of a patient's rights under this
section.
(b) Administrative Complaint and Conciliation Process.--
(1) Complaints and answers.--
(A) In general.--An aggrieved person may, not later
than 1 year after an alleged violation of subsection
(a) has occurred or concluded, file a complaint with
the Director alleging inequitable provision of health
care by a provider described in subsection (a).
(B) Complaint.--A complaint submitted pursuant to
subparagraph (A) shall be in writing and shall contain
such information and be in such form as the Director
requires.
(C) Oath or affirmation.--The complaint and any
answer made under this subsection shall be made under
oath or affirmation, and may be reasonably and fairly
modified at any time.
(2) Response to complaints.--
(A) In general.--Upon the filing of a complaint
under this subsection, the following procedures shall
apply:
(i) Complainant notice.--The Director shall
serve notice upon the complainant acknowledging
receipt of such filing and advising the
complainant of the time limits and procedures
provided under this section.
(ii) Respondent notice.--The Director
shall, not later than 30 days after receipt of
such filing--
(I) serve on the respondent a
notice of the complaint, together with
a copy of the original complaint; and
(II) advise the respondent of the
procedural rights and obligations of
respondents under this section.
(iii) Answer.--The respondent may file, not
later than 60 days after receipt of the notice
from the Director, an answer to such complaint.
(iv) Investigative duties.--The Director
shall--
(I) make an investigation of the
alleged inequitable provision of health
care; and
(II) complete such investigation
within 180 days (unless it is
impracticable to complete such
investigation within 180 days) after
the filing of the complaint.
(B) Investigations.--
(i) Pattern or practice.--In the course of
investigating the complaint, the Director may
seek records of care provided to patients other
than the complainant if necessary to
demonstrate or disprove an allegation of
inequitable provision of health care or to
determine whether there is a pattern or
practice of such care.
(ii) Accounting for social determinants of
health.--In investigating the complaint and
reaching a determination on the validity of the
complaint, the Director shall account for
social determinants of health and the effect of
such social determinants on health care
outcomes.
(iii) Inability to complete
investigation.--If the Director is unable to
complete (or finds it is impracticable to
complete) the investigation within 180 days
after the filing of the complaint (or, if the
Secretary takes further action under paragraph
(6)(B) with respect to a complaint, within 180
days after the commencement of such further
action), the Director shall notify the
complainant and respondent in writing of the
reasons involved.
(iv) Report to state licensing
authorities.--On concluding each investigation
under this subparagraph, the Director shall
provide to the State licensing authorities that
were notified under subparagraph (A),
information specifying the results of the
investigation.
(C) Report.--
(i) Final report.--On completing each
investigation under this paragraph, the
Director shall prepare a final investigative
report.
(ii) Modification of report.--A final
report under this subparagraph may be modified
if additional evidence is later discovered.
(3) Conciliation.--
(A) In general.--During the period beginning on the
date on which a complaint is filed under this
subsection and ending on the date of final disposition
of such complaint (including during an investigation
under paragraph (2)(B)), the Director shall, to the
extent feasible, engage in conciliation with respect to
such complaint.
(B) Conciliation agreement.--A conciliation
agreement arising out of such conciliation shall be an
agreement between the respondent and the complainant,
and shall be subject to approval by the Director.
(C) Rights protected.--The Director shall approve a
conciliation agreement only if the agreement protects
the rights of the complainant and other persons
similarly situated.
(D) Publicly available agreement.--
(i) In general.--Subject to clause (ii),
the Secretary shall make available to the
public a copy of a conciliation agreement
entered into pursuant to this subsection unless
the complainant and respondent otherwise agree,
and the Secretary determines, that disclosure
is not required to further the purposes of this
subsection.
(ii) Limitation.--A conciliation agreement
that is made available to the public pursuant
to clause (i) may not disclose individually
identifiable health information.
(4) Failure to comply with conciliation agreement.--
Whenever the Director has reasonable cause to believe that a
respondent has breached a conciliation agreement, the Director
shall refer the matter to the Attorney General to consider
filing a civil action to enforce such agreement.
(5) Written consent for disclosure of information.--Nothing
said or done in the course of conciliation under this
subsection may be made public, or used as evidence in a
subsequent proceeding under this subsection, without the
written consent of the parties to the conciliation.
(6) Prompt judicial action.--
(A) In general.--If the Director determines at any
time following the filing of a complaint under this
subsection that prompt judicial action is necessary to
carry out the purposes of this subsection, the Director
may recommend that the Attorney General promptly
commence a civil action under subsection (d).
(B) Immediate suit.--If the Director determines at
any time following the filing of a complaint under this
subsection that the public interest would be served by
allowing the complainant to bring a civil action under
subsection (c) in a State or Federal court immediately,
the Director shall certify that the administrative
process has concluded and that the complainant may file
such a suit immediately.
(7) Annual report.--Not later than 1 year after the date of
enactment of this Act, and annually thereafter, the Director
shall make publicly available a report detailing the activities
of the Office for Civil Rights and Health Equity under this
subsection, including--
(A) the number of complaints filed and the basis on
which the complaints were filed;
(B) the number of investigations undertaken as a
result of such complaints; and
(C) the disposition of all such investigations.
(c) Enforcement by Private Persons.--
(1) In general.--
(A) Civil action.--
(i) In suit.--A complainant under
subsection (b) may commence a civil action to
obtain appropriate relief with respect to an
alleged violation of subsection (a), or for
breach of a conciliation agreement under
subsection (b), in an appropriate district
court of the United States or State court--
(I) not sooner than the earliest
of--
(aa) the date a
conciliation agreement is
reached under subsection (b);
(bb) the date of a final
disposition of a complaint
under subsection (b); or
(cc) 180 days after the
first day of the alleged
violation; and
(II) not later than 2 years after
the final day of the alleged violation.
(ii) Statute of limitations.--The
computation of such 2-year period shall not
include any time during which an administrative
proceeding (including investigation or
conciliation) under subsection (b) was pending
with respect to a complaint under such
subsection.
(B) Barring suit.--If the Director has obtained a
conciliation agreement under subsection (b) regarding
an alleged violation of subsection (a), no action may
be filed under this paragraph by the complainant
involved with respect to the alleged violation except
for the purpose of enforcing the terms of such an
agreement.
(2) Relief which may be granted.--
(A) In general.--In a civil action under paragraph
(1), if the court finds that a violation of subsection
(a) or breach of a conciliation agreement has occurred,
the court may award to the plaintiff actual and
punitive damages, and may grant as relief, as the court
determines to be appropriate, any permanent or
temporary injunction, temporary restraining order, or
other order (including an order enjoining the defendant
from engaging in a practice violating subsection (a) or
ordering such affirmative action as may be
appropriate).
(B) Fees and costs.--In a civil action under
paragraph (1), the court, in its discretion, may allow
the prevailing party, other than the United States, a
reasonable attorney's fee and costs. The United States
shall be liable for such fees and costs to the same
extent as a private person.
(3) Intervention by attorney general.--Upon timely
application, the Attorney General may intervene in a civil
action under paragraph (1), if the Attorney General certifies
that the case is of general public importance.
(d) Enforcement by the Attorney General.--
(1) Commencement of actions.--
(A) Pattern or practice cases.--The Attorney
General may commence a civil action in any appropriate
district court of the United States if the Attorney
General has reasonable cause to believe that any health
care provider covered by subsection (a)--
(i) is engaged in a pattern or practice
that violates such subsection; or
(ii) is engaged in a violation of such
subsection that raises an issue of significant
public importance.
(B) Cases by referral.--The Director may determine,
based on a pattern of complaints, a pattern of
violations, a review of data reported by a health care
provider covered by subsection (a), or any other means,
that there is reasonable cause to believe a health care
provider is engaged in a pattern or practice that
violates subsection (a). If the Director makes such a
determination, the Director shall refer the related
findings to the Attorney General. If the Attorney
General finds that such reasonable cause exists, the
Attorney General may commence a civil action in any
appropriate district court of the United States.
(2) Enforcement of subpoenas.--The Attorney General, on
behalf of the Director, or another party at whose request a
subpoena is issued under this subsection, may enforce such
subpoena in appropriate proceedings in the district court of
the United States for the district in which the person to whom
the subpoena was addressed resides, was served, or transacts
business.
(3) Relief which may be granted in civil actions.--
(A) In general.--In a civil action under paragraph
(1), the court--
(i) may award such preventive relief,
including a permanent or temporary injunction,
temporary restraining order, or other order
against the person responsible for a violation
of subsection (a) as is necessary to assure the
full enjoyment of the rights granted by this
subsection;
(ii) may award such other relief as the
court determines to be appropriate, including
monetary damages, to aggrieved persons; and
(iii) may, to vindicate the public
interest, assess punitive damages against the
respondent--
(I) in an amount not exceeding
$500,000, for a first violation; and
(II) in an amount not exceeding
$1,000,000, for any subsequent
violation.
(B) Fees and costs.--In a civil action under this
subsection, the court, in its discretion, may allow the
prevailing party, other than the United States, a
reasonable attorney's fee and costs. The United States
shall be liable for such fees and costs to the extent
provided by section 2412 of title 28, United States
Code.
(4) Intervention in civil actions.--Upon timely
application, any person may intervene in a civil action
commenced by the Attorney General under paragraphs (1) and (2)
if the action involves an alleged violation of subsection (a)
with respect to which such person is an aggrieved person
(including a person who is a complainant under subsection (b))
or a conciliation agreement to which such person is a party.
(e) Definitions.--In this section:
(1) Aggrieved person.--The term ``aggrieved person''
means--
(A) a person who believes that the person was or
will be injured in violation of subsection (a); or
(B) the personal representative or estate of a
deceased person who was injured in violation of
subsection (a).
(2) Director.--The term ``Director'' refers to the Director
for Civil Rights and Health Equity of the Department of Health
and Human Services.
(3) Disability.--The term ``disability'' has the meaning
given such term in section 3 of the Americans with Disabilities
Act of 1990 (42 U.S.C. 12102).
(4) Conciliation.--The term ``conciliation'' means the
attempted resolution of issues raised by a complaint, or by the
investigation of such complaint, through informal negotiations
involving the complainant, the respondent, and the Secretary.
(5) Conciliation agreement.--The term ``conciliation
agreement'' means a written agreement setting forth the
resolution of the issues in conciliation.
(6) Individually identifiable health information.--The term
``individually identifiable health information'' means any
information, including demographic information collected from
an individual--
(A) that is created or received by a health care
provider covered by subsection (a), health plan,
employer, or health care clearinghouse;
(B) that relates to the past, present, or future
physical or mental health or condition of, the
provision of health care to, or the past, present, or
future payment for the provision of health care to, the
individual; and
(C)(i) that identifies the individual; or
(ii) with respect to which there is a reasonable
basis to believe that the information can be used to
identify the individual.
(7) Provision of inequitable health care.--The term
``provision of inequitable health care'' means the provision of
any health care service, by a health care provider in a manner
that--
(A) fails to meet a high-quality care standard,
meaning the health care provider fails to--
(i) avoid harm to patients as a result of
the health services that are intended to help
the patient;
(ii) provide health services based on
scientific knowledge to all and to all patients
who benefit;
(iii) refrain from providing services to
patients not likely to benefit;
(iv) provide care that is responsive to
patient preferences, needs, and values; and
(v) avoids waits or delays in care; and
(B) is discriminatory in intent or effect based at
least in part on a basis specified in subsection (a).
(8) Respondent.--The term ``respondent'' means the person
or other entity accused in a complaint of a violation of
subsection (a).
(9) Secretary.--The term ``Secretary'' means the Secretary
of Health and Human Services.
(10) Social determinants of health.--The term ``social
determinants of health'' means conditions in the environments
in which individuals live, work, attend school, and worship,
that affect a wide range of health, functioning, and quality-
of-life outcomes and risks.
(f) Rule of Construction.--Nothing in this section shall be
construed as repealing or limiting the effect of title VI of the Civil
Rights Act of 1964 (42 U.S.C. 2000b et seq.), section 1557 of the
Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (42 U.S.C. 18116), section
504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 794), or the Age
Discrimination Act of 1975 (42 U.S.C. 6101 et seq.).
SEC. 8. FEDERAL HEALTH EQUITY COMMISSION.
(a) Establishment of Commission.--
(1) In general.--There is established the Federal Health
Equity Commission (in this section referred to as the
``Commission'').
(2) Membership.--
(A) In general.--The Commission shall be composed
of--
(i) 8 voting members appointed under
subparagraph (B); and
(ii) the nonvoting, ex officio members
listed in subparagraph (C).
(B) Voting members.--Not more than 4 of the members
described in subparagraph (A)(i) shall at any one time
be of the same political party. Such members shall have
recognized expertise in and personal experience with
racial and ethnic health inequities, health care needs
of vulnerable and marginalized populations, and health
equity as a vehicle for improving health status and
health outcomes. Such members shall be appointed to the
Commission as follows:
(i) 4 members of the Commission shall be
appointed by the President.
(ii) 2 members of the Commission shall be
appointed by the President pro tempore of the
Senate, upon the recommendations of the
majority leader and the minority leader of the
Senate. Each member appointed to the Commission
under this clause shall be appointed from a
different political party.
(iii) 2 members of the Commission shall be
appointed by the Speaker of the House of
Representatives upon the recommendations of the
majority leader and the minority leader of the
House of Representatives. Each member appointed
to the Commission under this clause shall be
appointed from a different political party.
(C) Ex officio member.--The Commission shall have
the following nonvoting, ex officio members:
(i) The Director for Civil Rights and
Health Equity of the Department of Health and
Human Services.
(ii) The Deputy Assistant Secretary for
Minority Health of the Department of Health and
Human Services.
(iii) The Director of the National
Institute on Minority Health and Health
Disparities.
(iv) The Chairperson of the Advisory
Committee on Minority Health established under
section 1707(c) of the Public Health Service
Act (42 U.S.C. 300u-6(c)).
(3) Terms.--The term of office of each member appointed
under paragraph (2)(B) of the Commission shall be 6 years.
(4) Chairperson; vice chairperson.--
(A) Chairperson.--The President shall, with the
concurrence of a majority of the members of the
Commission appointed under paragraph (2)(B), designate
a Chairperson from among the members of the Commission
appointed under such paragraph.
(B) Vice chairperson.--
(i) Designation.--The Speaker of the House
of Representatives shall, in consultation with
the majority leaders and the minority leaders
of the Senate and the House of Representatives
and with the concurrence of a majority of the
members of the Commission appointed under
paragraph (2)(B), designate a Vice Chairperson
from among the members of the Commission
appointed under such paragraph. The Vice
Chairperson may not be a member of the same
political party as the Chairperson.
(ii) Duty.--The Vice Chairperson shall act
in place of the Chairperson in the absence of
the Chairperson.
(5) Removal of members.--The President may remove a member
of the Commission only for neglect of duty or malfeasance in
office.
(6) Quorum.--A majority of members of the Commission
appointed under paragraph (2)(B) shall constitute a quorum of
the Commission, but a lesser number of members may hold
hearings.
(b) Duties of the Commission.--
(1) In general.--The Commission shall--
(A) monitor and report on the implementation of
this Act; and
(B) investigate, monitor, and report on progress
towards health equity and the elimination of health
disparities.
(2) Annual report.--The Commission shall--
(A) submit to the President and Congress at least
one report annually on health equity and health
disparities; and
(B) include in such report--
(i) a description of actions taken by the
Department of Health and Human Services and any
other Federal agency related to health equity
or health disparities; and
(ii) recommendations on ensuring equitable
health care and eliminating health disparities.
(c) Powers.--
(1) Hearings.--
(A) In general.--The Commission or, at the
direction of the Commission, any subcommittee or member
of the Commission, may, for the purpose of carrying out
this section, as the Commission or the subcommittee or
member considers advisable--
(i) hold such hearings, meet and act at
such times and places, take such testimony,
receive such evidence, and administer such
oaths; and
(ii) require, by subpoena or otherwise, the
attendance and testimony of such witnesses and
the production of such books, records,
correspondence, memoranda, papers, documents,
tapes, and materials.
(B) Limitation on hearings.--The Commission may
hold a hearing under subparagraph (A)(i) only if the
hearing is approved--
(i) by a majority of the members of the
Commission appointed under subsection
(a)(2)(B); or
(ii) by a majority of such members present
at a meeting when a quorum is present.
(2) Issuance and enforcement of subpoenas.--
(A) Issuance.--A subpoena issued under paragraph
(1) shall--
(i) bear the signature of the Chairperson
of the Commission; and
(ii) be served by any person or class of
persons designated by the Chairperson for that
purpose.
(B) Enforcement.--In the case of contumacy or
failure to obey a subpoena issued under paragraph (1),
the United States district court for the district in
which the subpoenaed person resides, is served, or may
be found may issue an order requiring the person to
appear at any designated place to testify or to produce
documentary or other evidence.
(C) Noncompliance.--Any failure to obey the order
of the court may be punished by the court as a contempt
of court.
(3) Witness allowances and fees.--
(A) In general.--Section 1821 of title 28, United
States Code, shall apply to a witness requested or
subpoenaed to appear at a hearing of the Commission.
(B) Expenses.--The per diem and mileage allowances
for a witness shall be paid from funds available to pay
the expenses of the Commission.
(4) Postal services.--The Commission may use the United
States mails in the same manner and under the same conditions
as other agencies of the Federal Government.
(5) Gifts.--The Commission may accept, use, and dispose of
gifts or donations of services or property.
(d) Administrative Provisions.--
(1) Staff.--
(A) Director.--There shall be a full-time staff
director for the Commission who shall--
(i) serve as the administrative head of the
Commission; and
(ii) be appointed by the Chairperson with
the concurrence of the Vice Chairperson.
(B) Other personnel.--The Commission may--
(i) appoint such other personnel as it
considers advisable, subject to the provisions
of title 5, United States Code, governing
appointments in the competitive service, and
the provisions of chapter 51 and subchapter III
of chapter 53 of that title relating to
classification and General Schedule pay rates;
and
(ii) may procure temporary and intermittent
services under section 3109(b) of title 5,
United States Code, at rates for individuals
not in excess of the daily equivalent paid for
positions at the maximum rate for GS-15 of the
General Schedule under section 5332 of title 5,
United States Code.
(2) Compensation of members.--
(A) Non-federal employees.--Each member of the
Commission who is not an officer or employee of the
Federal Government shall be compensated at a rate equal
to the daily equivalent of the annual rate of basic pay
prescribed for level IV of the Executive Schedule under
section 5315 of title 5, United States Code, for each
day (including travel time) during which the member is
engaged in the performance of the duties of the
Commission.
(B) Federal employees.--Each member of the
Commission who is an officer or employee of the Federal
Government shall serve without compensation in addition
to the compensation received for the services of the
member as an office or employee of the Federal
Government.
(C) Travel expenses.--A member of the Commission
shall be allowed travel expenses, including per diem in
lieu of subsistence, at rates authorized for an
employee of an agency under subchapter I of chapter 57
of title 5, United States Code, while away from the
home or regular place of business of the member in the
performance of the duties of the Commission.
(3) Cooperation.--The Commission may secure directly from
any Federal department or agency such information as the
Commission considers necessary to carry out this Act. Upon
request of the Chairman of the Commission, the head of such
department or agency shall furnish such information to the
Commission.
(e) Permanent Commission.--Section 14 of the Federal Advisory
Committee Act (5 U.S.C. App.) shall not apply to the Commission.
(f) Authorization of Appropriations.--There are authorized to be
appropriated for fiscal year 2022 and each fiscal year thereafter such
sums as may be necessary to carry out the duties of the Commission.
SEC. 9. GRANTS FOR HOSPITALS TO PROMOTE EQUITABLE HEALTH CARE AND
OUTCOMES.
(a) In General.--Not later than 180 days after the date of the
enactment of this Act, the Secretary of Health and Human Services (in
this section referred to as the ``Secretary'') shall award grants to
hospitals to promote equitable health care treatment and services, and
reduce disparities in care and outcomes.
(b) Consultation.--In establishing the criteria for grants under
this section and evaluating applications for such grants, the Secretary
shall consult with the Director for Civil Rights and Health Equity of
the Department of Health and Human Services.
(c) Use of Funds.--A hospital shall use funds received from a grant
under this section to establish or expand programs to provide equitable
health care to all patients and to ensure equitable health care
outcomes. Such uses may include--
(1) providing explicit and implicit bias training to
medical providers and staff;
(2) providing translation or interpretation services for
patients;
(3) recruiting and training a diverse workforce;
(4) tracking data related to care and outcomes; and
(5) training on cultural sensitivity.
(d) Priority.--In awarding grants under this section, the Secretary
shall give priority to hospitals that have received disproportionate
share hospital payments under section 1886(r) of the Social Security
Act (42 U.S.C. 1395ww(r)) or section 1923 of such Act (42 U.S.C. 1396r-
4) with respect to fiscal year 2021.
(e) Supplement, Not Supplant.--Grants awarded under this section
shall be used to supplement, not supplant, any nongovernment efforts,
or other Federal, State, or local funds provided to a recipient.
(f) Equitable Health Care Defined.--The term ``equitable health
care'' has the meaning given such term in section
1886(b)(3)(B)(viii)(XIII)(cc) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C.
1395ww(b)(3)(B)(viii)(XIII)(cc)), as added by section 4(a).
(g) Authorization of Appropriations.--To carry out this section,
there are authorized to be appropriated such sums as may be necessary
for each of fiscal years 2022 through 2027.
<all> | Equal Health Care for All Act | A bill to prohibit discrimination in health care and require the provision of equitable health care, and for other purposes. | Equal Health Care for All Act | Sen. Padilla, Alex | D | CA |
98 | 11,572 | H.R.6434 | Public Lands and Natural Resources | Japanese American World War II History Network Act
This bill directs the Department of the Interior to establish the Japanese American World War II History Network within the National Park Service.
In carrying out the network, Interior shall | To direct the Secretary of the Interior to establish, within the
National Park Service, the Japanese American World War II History
Network, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Japanese American World War II
History Network Act''.
SEC. 2. JAPANESE AMERICAN WORLD WAR II HISTORY NETWORK.
(a) Establishment.--The Secretary of the Interior (hereinafter
referred to as the ``Secretary'') shall establish, within the National
Park Service, a program to be known as the ``Japanese American World
War II History Network'' (hereinafter referred to as the ``Network'').
(b) Duties of Secretary.--In carrying out the Network, the
Secretary shall--
(1) review studies and reports to complement and not
duplicate studies of Japanese American World War II history and
Japanese American experiences during World War II, including
studies related to relocation centers and confinement sites,
that are underway or completed;
(2) produce and disseminate appropriate educational
materials, such as handbooks, maps, interpretive guides, or
electronic information relating to Japanese American World War
II history and Japanese American experiences during the war,
including relocation centers and confinement sites;
(3) enter into appropriate cooperative agreements and
memoranda of understanding to provide technical assistance
under subsection (c); and
(4)(A) create and adopt an official, uniform symbol or
device for the Network; and
(B) issue regulations for the use of the symbol or device
adopted under subparagraph (A).
(c) Elements.--The Network shall encompass the following elements:
(1) All units and programs of the National Park Service
that are determined by the Secretary to relate to Japanese
American World War II history and Japanese American experiences
during the war, including relocation centers and confinement
sites.
(2) With the consent of the property owner, other Federal,
State, local, Tribal, and privately owned properties that--
(A) relate to Japanese American World War II
history and Japanese experiences during the war,
including relocation centers and confinement sites;
(B) have a verifiable connection to Japanese
American World War II history and Japanese experiences
during the war, including relocation and confinement
sites; and
(C) are included in, or determined by the Secretary
to be eligible for inclusion in, the National Register
of Historic Places.
(3) Other governmental and nongovernmental facilities and
programs of an educational, research, or interpretive nature
that are directly related to Japanese American World War II
history and the experiences of Japanese Americans during the
war, including relocation centers and confinement sites.
SEC. 3. COOPERATIVE AGREEMENTS AND MEMORANDA OF UNDERSTANDING.
To achieve the purposes of this Act and to ensure effective
coordination of the Federal and non-Federal elements of the Network
described in section 2(c) with units of the National Park System and
programs of the National Park Service, including the Japanese American
Confinement Sites Program, the Secretary may enter into cooperative
agreements and memoranda of understanding with, and provide technical
assistance to the heads of other Federal agencies, States, units of
local government, Tribes, regional governmental bodies, and private
entities.
SEC. 4. SUNSET.
The authority of the Secretary under this Act shall expire 7 years
after the date of the enactment of this Act.
Calendar No. 514
117th CONGRESS
2d Session
H. R. 6434
[Report No. 117-172]
_______________________________________________________________________ | Japanese American World War II History Network Act | To direct the Secretary of the Interior to establish, within the National Park Service, the Japanese American World War II History Network, and for other purposes. | Japanese American World War II History Network Act
Japanese American World War II History Network Act
Japanese American World War II History Network Act
Japanese American World War II History Network Act | Rep. Obernolte, Jay | R | CA |
99 | 5,766 | H.R.1771 | Armed Forces and National Security | Defending Veterans' Second Amendment Rights Act
This bill prohibits the Department of Veterans Affairs from transmitting personally identifiable information of veterans or their beneficiaries to the national instant criminal background check system utilized by licensed importers or dealers of firearms solely on the basis that a veteran has a service-connected disability. | To prohibit the Secretary of Veterans Affairs from transmitting certain
information to the Department of Justice for use by the national
instant criminal background check system.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Defending Veterans' Second Amendment
Rights Act''.
SEC. 2. PROHIBITION ON SECRETARY OF VETERANS AFFAIRS TRANSMITTAL OF
CERTAIN INFORMATION TO THE DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE FOR USE
BY THE NATIONAL INSTANT CRIMINAL BACKGROUND CHECK SYSTEM.
The Secretary of Veterans Affairs may not transmit to any entity in
the Department of Justice, for use by the national instant criminal
background check system established under section 103 of the Brady
Handgun Violence Prevention Act, personally identifiable information on
veterans and other beneficiaries, solely on the basis of a
determination by the Secretary under chapter 11 of title 38, United
States Code, that a person has a service-connected disability.
<all> | Defending Veterans’ Second Amendment Rights Act | To prohibit the Secretary of Veterans Affairs from transmitting certain information to the Department of Justice for use by the national instant criminal background check system. | Defending Veterans’ Second Amendment Rights Act | Rep. Roy, Chip | R | TX |