Question: what category was hurricane charley when it hit florida

Answer: 4

"Hurricane Charley"
Hurricane Charley Hurricane Charley was the first of four individual hurricanes to impact or strike Florida during 2004, along with Frances, Ivan and Jeanne, as well as one of the strongest hurricanes ever to strike the United States. It was the third named storm, the second hurricane, and the second major hurricane of the 2004 Atlantic hurricane season. Charley lasted from August 9 to 15, and at its peak intensity it attained winds, making it a strong Category 4 hurricane on the Saffir-Simpson Hurricane Scale. It made landfall in Southwest Florida at maximum strength, making it the strongest hurricane to


Question: what category was hurricane charley when it hit florida

Answer: 4

"U.S. Route 17"
bypass Charleston and the weight restrictions of the former bridges. On August 13, 2004, Hurricane Charley made landfall just before 4:00 p.m. local time near the southern terminus of US 17. Incredibly, Charley would either hit or threaten to hit the entire route of US 17, devastating almost the entire route in Florida, at least from Punta Gorda to well north of Orlando (when Charley followed the route of Interstate 4 out to sea). The Georgia stretch of US 17 was not hit, but was under a hurricane warning. When Charley made landfall again in South Carolina, its trail all


Question: what category was hurricane charley when it hit florida

Answer: 4

"Sanibel, Florida"
so years it takes a significant hit, and about every 40 years a major one. Most of these have affected Sanibel. On August 13, 2004, Sanibel Island was hit hard by Hurricane Charley, a category four hurricane with winds. It was the strongest to hit Southwest Florida since Hurricane Donna in September 1960. While much of the native vegetation survived, the non-indigenous Australian Pines suffered serious damage, blocking nearly every road. Wildlife officials also reported that the nests of birds and sea turtles were destroyed. The Sanibel Lighthouse survived with little damage, the Sanibel Causeway suffered relatively minor damage except


Question: what category was hurricane charley when it hit florida

Answer: 4

"Punta Gorda, Florida"
Punta Gorda, Florida Punta Gorda (; ) is a city in Charlotte County, Florida, United States. As of the 2010 census the city had a population of 16,641. It is the county seat of Charlotte County and the only incorporated municipality in the county. Punta Gorda is the principal city of the Punta Gorda, Florida Metropolitan Statistical Area and is also in the Sarasota-Bradenton-Punta Gorda Combined Statistical Area. Punta Gorda was the scene of massive destruction after Charley, a Category 4 hurricane, came through the city on August 13, 2004. Charley was the strongest tropical system to hit Florida since


Question: what category was hurricane charley when it hit florida

Answer: 4

"Polk County, Florida"
with more than 500,000 residents, Polk County would be the most economically impacted (as a percentage of GDP) by climate change by the end of the twenty-first century. The eyes of 12 hurricanes have passed through the county at hurricane strength in recorded history, including Hurricane Irma (2017, category 1), Hurricane Jeanne (2004, category 1), Hurricane Charley (2004, category 2), Hurricane Donna (1960, category 2), Hurricane King (1950, category 1), the 1949 Florida hurricane (category 2), the 1945 Homestead hurricane (category 1), the 1933 Treasure Coast hurricane (category 1), the 1928 Okeechobee hurricane (category 2), Hurricane Four of the 1894


Question: what category was hurricane charley when it hit florida

Answer: 4

"Effects of Hurricane Charley in Jamaica"
the depression intensified into a tropical storm and was given the name Charley after entering the eastern Caribbean Sea. Quickly tracking northwest, the small storm intensified. Late on August 11, as Charley traveled south of Jamaica, it attained hurricane intensity, with winds reaching 75 mph (120 km/h). Over the following days, the storm curved northeast and impacted western Cuba as a Category 3 hurricane before striking Florida as an intense Category 4 hurricane with winds up to 150 mph (240 km/h) on August 13. The weakened Charley rapidly tracked northeast before dissipating on August 15 near Long Island, New York.


Question: what category was hurricane charley when it hit florida

Answer: 4

"Port Charlotte, Florida"
was severely impacted by Hurricane Charley on August 13, 2004. The hurricane, predicted to hit Tampa as a Category 2 hurricane, took a last-minute right hand turn and intensified into a Category 4 storm as it made landfall near Charlotte Harbor and caused severe damage in the city of Punta Gorda and in the Port Charlotte area. The storm's maximum sustained winds destroyed almost half of the homes in the county and caused heavy ecological damage to sensitive wetlands in the area. Port Charlotte is located at the north end of the Charlotte Harbor Estuary, northwest of the city of


Question: what category was hurricane charley when it hit florida

Answer: 4

"Effects of Hurricane Charley in North Carolina"
Effects of Hurricane Charley in North Carolina The effects of Hurricane Charley in North Carolina were minor to moderate and included $25 million (2004 USD) in damage. Hurricane Charley lasted from August 9 to August 15, 2004, and at peak intensity it attained 150 miles per hour (240 km/h) winds, making it a strong Category 4 hurricane on the Saffir-Simpson Hurricane Scale. The storm made landfall in southwestern Florida at maximum strength, and moved northward, parallel to the U.S. East Coast before moving ashore on northeastern South Carolina. The storm caused flooding in seven counties within the state as a


Question: what category was hurricane charley when it hit florida

Answer: 4

"Hurricane Charley"
and rounded the southwest portion of the subtropical ridge, becoming a major hurricane—a storm classified as a Category 3 hurricane or higher—just before making landfall on southern Cuba. Charley came ashore near Punta Cayamas with maximum sustained winds of and gusts of up to , at about 0430 UTC on August 13. It weakened while crossing the island, passing about west of downtown Havana before weakening to . After crossing Cuba near Menelao Mora, Hurricane Charley accelerated to the north-northeast, toward the southwest coast of Florida in response to the approach of an unseasonal mid-tropospheric trough. Charley passed over the


Question: what category was hurricane charley when it hit florida

Answer: 4

"U.S. Route 17 in Florida"
River near Sanford, which was built in 1933 along with this segment of US 17, was replaced with the current four-lane Bill Benedict Bridge. The swing span of the original bridge has been preserved and now serves as a pier next to the current bridge. On August 13, 2004, Hurricane Charley made landfall just before 4:00 p.m. local time near the southern terminus of US 17. Incredibly, Charley would either hit or threaten to hit the entire route of US 17, devastating almost the entire route in Florida, at least from Punta Gorda to well north of Orlando (when Charley


Question: what category was hurricane charley when it hit florida

Answer: 4

"Hurricane Irma"
particularly in the northeastern Caribbean and the Florida Keys. It was also the most intense hurricane to strike the continental United States since Katrina in 2005, the first major hurricane to make landfall in Florida since Wilma in the same year, and the first Category 4 hurricane to strike the state since Charley in 2004. Irma developed from a tropical wave near Cape Verde on August 30. Favorable conditions allowed Irma to rapidly intensify into a Category 3 hurricane on the Saffir–Simpson wind scale by late on August 31. However, the storm's intensity fluctuated between Categories 2 and 3 for


Question: what category was hurricane charley when it hit florida

Answer: 4

"Effects of Hurricane Charley in Jamaica"
in Florida as a strong Category 4. The storm eventually dissipated on August 15. As Charley approached Jamaica, officials issued tropical storm watches and warnings before issuing a hurricane watch. Two cruise ships were diverted from docking in Jamaica, affecting 5,700 passengers. Numerous shelters were set up across the island; however, relatively few people sought refuge in them. Although it was only a Category 1 hurricane, Charley caused significant damage in southern Jamaica. Saint Elizabeth Parish sustained the worst damage. About 750 farmers reported damage, and at one point, flooding isolated 30 families. The only fatality in Jamaica occurred after


Question: what category was hurricane charley when it hit florida

Answer: 4

"Meteorological history of Hurricane Irma"
Irma the first Category 4 hurricane to strike Florida since Hurricane Charley in 2004. In addition, Irma's landfall in the Florida Keys marked the first time on record two Category 4 hurricanes made landfall in the continental U.S. within the same season – with Hurricane Harvey having made landfall at roughly the same intensity in Texas just over two weeks prior. Increasing wind shear and land interaction caused the satellite appearance of the storm to become ragged later that day, and Irma weakened to Category 3 intensity before making its seventh and final landfall at 19:30 UTC in Marco Island,


Question: what category was hurricane charley when it hit florida

Answer: 4

"2004 Atlantic hurricane season"
Nicole and Tropical Storm Otto had no effect on land while tropical cyclones. There are four notable storms: Hurricane Charley, that made landfall in Florida as a Category 4 hurricane on the Saffir–Simpson hurricane wind scale (SSHWS), causing $16 billion in damage in the United States alone. Later in August, Hurricane Frances struck the Bahamas and Florida, causing at least 49 deaths and $10.1 billion in damage. The costliest and most intense storm was Hurricane Ivan. It was a Category 5 hurricane that devastated multiple countries adjacent to the Caribbean Sea, before entering the Gulf of Mexico and causing catastrophic


Question: what category was hurricane charley when it hit florida

Answer: 4

"Polk County, Florida"
season (category 1), and Hurricane Three of the 1871 season, and Hurricane Eight of the 1859 season (category 1). Additionally, four storms were downgraded from hurricane strength at a location outside the county to tropical storm force at some point within the county and, given the hours between National Hurricane Center updates (modern era) or earlier estimates, it is not clear whether these brought hurricane-force sustained winds to Polk County: Hurricane Frances (2004), Hurricane Erin (1995) Hurricane Two of the 1939 season, and the 1910 Cuba hurricane (category 1). Numerous tropical storms have passed through the county. Hurricane Charley in


Question: what category was hurricane charley when it hit florida

Answer: 4

"Effects of Hurricane Charley in Jamaica"
of flooding. Effects of Hurricane Charley in Jamaica The effects of Hurricane Charley in Jamaica included one fatality and at least $1 million in damages. Forming out of a tropical wave on August 9, 2004, Charley quickly tracked through the eastern Caribbean Sea and attained tropical storm status on August 10. While passing south of Jamaica on August 11, the storm was upgraded to a Category 1 hurricane. During its passage of Jamaica, Charley had maximum winds of 75 mph (120 km/h), a low-end Category 1 hurricane. Turning north, the storm impacted western Cuba as a Category 3 storm before


Question: what category was hurricane charley when it hit florida

Answer: 4

"Effects of Hurricane Charley in Jamaica"
Effects of Hurricane Charley in Jamaica The effects of Hurricane Charley in Jamaica included one fatality and at least $1 million in damages. Forming out of a tropical wave on August 9, 2004, Charley quickly tracked through the eastern Caribbean Sea and attained tropical storm status on August 10. While passing south of Jamaica on August 11, the storm was upgraded to a Category 1 hurricane. During its passage of Jamaica, Charley had maximum winds of 75 mph (120 km/h), a low-end Category 1 hurricane. Turning north, the storm impacted western Cuba as a Category 3 storm before making landfall


Question: what category was hurricane charley when it hit florida

Answer: 4

"Charlotte County, Florida"
of King George III. Punta Gorda is the only incorporated city in Charlotte County. On August 13, 2004 Charlotte County was devastated when Hurricane Charley came ashore near Port Charlotte as a Category 4 hurricane. Historic places in Charlotte County include the Old Charlotte County Courthouse as well as those on the List of Registered Historic Places in Charlotte County. According to the U.S. Census Bureau, the county has a total area of , of which is land and (20.7%) is water. Charlotte Harbor Estuary is an important natural preserve and one of the most productive in Florida. As of


Question: what category was hurricane charley when it hit florida

Answer: 4

"Saffir–Simpson scale"
scale became operational on May 15, 2010. The scale excludes flood ranges, storm surge estimations, rainfall, and location, which means a Category 2 hurricane that hits a major city will likely do far more cumulative damage than a Category 5 hurricane that hits a rural area. The agency cited various hurricanes as reasons for removing the ""scientifically inaccurate"" information, including Hurricane Katrina (2005) and Hurricane Ike (2008), which both had stronger than estimated storm surges, and Hurricane Charley (2004), which had weaker than estimated storm surge. Since being removed from the Saffir–Simpson hurricane wind scale, storm surge predicting and modeling


Question: what category was hurricane charley when it hit florida

Answer: 4

"Palm Coast, Florida"
line, southwest to the Bunnell city limits, and southeast to touch the city of Flagler Beach. Interstate 95 crosses Palm Coast from north to south, with access from Exit 293 (Matanzas Woods Parkway), Exit 289 (Palm Coast Parkway), and Exit 284 (Florida State Road 100). U.S. Route 1 runs parallel to I-95 through the western side of Palm Coast, leading into Bunnell. The area around Palm Coast last saw a direct hit from a tropical cyclone in 2004 when Hurricane Charley passed directly over the area. Since 1851 when hurricane tracking data began, 33 hurricanes and tropical storms have directly


Question: where in the bible is the book of revelation

Answer: in the New Testament

"Revelation 12"
a meaning; it is not 'a surprise ending with itself', but a signal to arrest attention, and possessing significance; there is 'an idea concealed behind it'."" New King James Version The word rendered ""dragon"" - , ""drakōn"" - occurs, in the New Testament, only in the Book of Revelation, where it is uniformly rendered as here: ""dragon"". King James Version King James Version New King James Version King James Version Revelation 12 Revelation 12 is the twelfth chapter of the Book of Revelation or the Apocalypse of John in the New Testament of the Christian Bible. The book is traditionally


Question: where in the bible is the book of revelation

Answer: last book

"Poor Man's Bible"
he/she is a sinful being and as such will be brought to trial on the Day of Judgement. This Day of Judgement is described by the last book of the Bible, known as the ""Revelation of St John"" or the Book of Revelation in which John describes many scenes, including the dreadful Apocalypse and a vision of the Lord seated on a throne borne up by four ""Heavenly Beasts"" - a winged lion, a winged man, a winged bull and an eagle, as also described in the book of Ezekiel. This Revelation is often depicted, with or without the Judgement


Question: where in the bible is the book of revelation

Answer: in the New Testament

"Revelation 19"
Revelation 19 Revelation 19 is the nineteenth chapter of the Book of Revelation or the Apocalypse of John in the New Testament of the Christian Bible. The book is traditionally attributed to John the Apostle, but the precise identity of the author remains a point of academic debate. In this chapter, heaven exults over the fall of Babylon the Great. The New King James Version organises this chapter as follows: In the Jerusalem Bible, verses 1 to 10 conclude the section in chapters 17 and 18 dealing with the Punishment of Babylon, and verses 11 to 21 concern ""the first


Question: where in the bible is the book of revelation

Answer: in the New Testament

"Revelation 2"
so seduced, that they did everything they desired them, which was just the number of those that were slain, . New King James Version New King James Version The Jerusalem Bible suggests that Jezebel was a ""self-styled prophetess of the Nicolaitan sect"". Theologian John Gill writes: Revelation 2 Revelation 2 is the second chapter of the Book of Revelation or the Apocalypse of John in the New Testament of the Christian Bible. The book is traditionally attributed to John the Apostle, but the precise identity of the author remains a point of academic debate. This chapter is divided into 29


Question: where in the bible is the book of revelation

Answer: last book

Patmos
fortification wall and towers. Patmos is mentioned in the Book of Revelation, the last book of the Christian Bible. The book's introduction states that its author, John, was on Patmos when he was given (and recorded) a vision from Jesus. Early Christian tradition identified this writer John of Patmos as John the Apostle. As such, Patmos is a destination for Christian pilgrimage. Visitors can see the cave where John is said to have received his Revelation (the Cave of the Apocalypse), and several monasteries on the island are dedicated to Saint John. After the death of John of Patmos, possibly


Question: where in the bible is the book of revelation

Answer: in the New Testament

"Revelation 18"
Revelation 18 Revelation 18 is the eighteenth chapter of the Book of Revelation or the Apocalypse of John in the New Testament of the Christian Bible. The book is traditionally attributed to John the Apostle, but the precise identity of the author remains a point of academic debate. This chapter describes the fall of Babylon the Great. The New King James Version organises this chapter as follows: New King James Version ""Another angel, one of several angels distinguished from each other within the Book of Revelation: see on Revelation 10:1. In , ""the Earth shone with the glory of the


Question: where in the bible is the book of revelation

Answer: in the New Testament

"Revelation 5"
Revelation 5 Revelation 5 is the fifth chapter of the Book of Revelation or the Apocalypse of John in the New Testament of the Christian Bible. The book is traditionally attributed to John the Apostle, but the precise identity of the author remains a point of academic debate. The New King James Version organises this chapter as follows: New King James Version The sealed scroll or book (, ""bibliov"") is introduced, which will be unsealed step by step in chapter 6 and finally opened with the breach of the seventh seal in . ""The idea of the book in which


Question: where in the bible is the book of revelation

Answer: in the New Testament

"Revelation 17"
in no way to be conjectured which of the vial-angels it was"". The words ""to me"" do not appear in Codex Alexandrinus or in the Vulgate translation. New King James Version The King James Version and New King James Version include the word 'mystery' within her title, but in many other English translations the word is descriptive of the name: ""a name that has a secret meaning"" (Good News Bible). New King James Version Revelation 17 Revelation 17 is the seventeenth chapter of the Book of Revelation or the Apocalypse of John in the New Testament of the Christian Bible.


Question: where in the bible is the book of revelation

Answer: in the New Testament

"Thou shalt not take the name of the Lord thy God in vain"
pronouncing the name of God at all, resulting in the replacement of the Tetragrammaton by ""Adonai"" (literally ""my lords"" – see Adonai) in pronunciation. In the Hebrew Bible itself, the commandment is directed against abuse of the name of God, not against any use; there are numerous examples in the Hebrew Bible and a few in the New Testament where God's name is called upon in oaths to tell the truth or to support the truth of the statement being sworn to, and the books of Daniel and Revelation include instances where an angel sent by God invokes the name


Question: who played skeletor in the movie masters of the universe

Answer: Frank Langella

"Evil Warriors (Masters of The Universe)"
Filmation's previous series ""Flash Gordon""), Campbell Lane in the 1990s series, and by Brian Dobson in the 2002 series. In the 1980s live-action movie, Skeletor is portrayed by Frank Langella. Panthor is Skeletor's evil feline companion, a giant purple panther who serves as an evil counterpart to Battle Cat. Beast Man makes his debut in Mattel's very first illustrated books as a follower of Skeletor. As the toyline expanded, he stayed at Skeletor's side. Beast Man is a mandrill-like humanoid with orange and red fur, who can telepathically summon wild creatures of Eternia to aid Skeletor's schemes. He was frequently


Question: who played skeletor in the movie masters of the universe

Answer: Frank Langella

"Masters of the Universe: The Movie"
Masters of the Universe: The Movie Masters of the Universe: The Movie is an action-adventure game developed by Gremlin Graphics, and published in 1987. It is based on the American film ""Masters of the Universe"" (1987), directed by Gary Goddard. The film and the game are part of the Masters of the Universe media franchise. A promotional photo of Dolph Lundgren as He-Man and Frank Langella as Skeletor illustrates the video game packaging. The MSX version of the game is titled Masters of the Universe. Two other Masters of the Universe video games were published in the same year: """"


Question: who played skeletor in the movie masters of the universe

Answer: Frank Langella

"Masters of the Universe: The Movie"
and """". Masters of the Universe: The Movie Masters of the Universe: The Movie is an action-adventure game developed by Gremlin Graphics, and published in 1987. It is based on the American film ""Masters of the Universe"" (1987), directed by Gary Goddard. The film and the game are part of the Masters of the Universe media franchise. A promotional photo of Dolph Lundgren as He-Man and Frank Langella as Skeletor illustrates the video game packaging. The MSX version of the game is titled Masters of the Universe. Two other Masters of the Universe video games were published in the same


Question: when was the first mad max movie release

Answer: 1979

"Max Rockatansky"
Film"" ranked him #75 in their Top 100 Movie Characters of All Time. Max Rockatansky Max Rockatansky is the title character and protagonist of the post-apocalyptic action films from the ""Mad Max"" franchise, which spans 1979 to 2015. He appears in the films ""Mad Max"", ""Mad Max 2"", ""Mad Max Beyond Thunderdome"", and """". Created by director George Miller and producer Byron Kennedy, the character was played by actor Mel Gibson in the first three films, and by Tom Hardy in the fourth. In ""Mad Max"", Max Rockatansky is a Main Force Patrol officer tasked with maintaining law and order


Question: when was the first mad max movie release

Answer: 1979

"Mad Max"
Bernard Herrmann–type score and hired May after hearing his work for ""Patrick"" (1978). ""With the little budget that we had we went ahead and did it, and spent a lot of time on it,"" said May. ""George was marvelous to work with; he had a lot of ideas about what he wanted although he wasn’t a musician."" A soundtrack album was released in 1980 by Varèse Sarabande. ""Mad Max"" was first released in Australia through Roadshow Film Distributors (now Village Roadshow Pictures) in 1979. The movie was sold overseas for $1.8 million, with American International Pictures releasing in the United


Question: when was the first mad max movie release

Answer: 1979

"Mad Max (soundtrack)"
He later added, ""Far more narratively structured than the two scores that followed in the ""Mad Max Trilogy"", but no less violent, ballsy, headlong and rubber-burning, this is a classic thriller score from an era that was the change."" Additional music featured in ""Mad Max"": Mad Max (soundtrack) Mad Max (Original Motion Picture Soundtrack) is a soundtrack album for the 1979 film, ""Mad Max"", composed by Brian May. It was released on vinyl in the United States in 1980 by Varèse Sarabande, followed by a CD release on 26 October 1993. Composer Brian May first got in contact with director


Question: when was the first mad max movie release

Answer: 1979

"Mad Max (soundtrack)"
Mad Max (soundtrack) Mad Max (Original Motion Picture Soundtrack) is a soundtrack album for the 1979 film, ""Mad Max"", composed by Brian May. It was released on vinyl in the United States in 1980 by Varèse Sarabande, followed by a CD release on 26 October 1993. Composer Brian May first got in contact with director George Miller and producer Byron Kennedy after director Richard Franklin played the two May's score for his then-upcoming film ""Patrick"" (1978). Because the score resembled the work of Bernard Herrmann, May ultimately won the assignment of composing music for ""Mad Max"". ""The sort of score


Question: when was the first mad max movie release

Answer: 1979

"Mad Max (franchise)"
Mad Max (franchise) Mad Max is an Australian dystopian action media franchise created by George Miller and Byron Kennedy. It began in 1979 with ""Mad Max"", and was followed by three films: ""Mad Max 2"" (1981), ""Mad Max Beyond Thunderdome"" (1985) and """" (2015). Mel Gibson starred in the first three films and Tom Hardy took over as Max in the fourth film. The series follows the adventures of Max Rockatansky, a police officer in a future Australia which is experiencing societal collapse due to war and critical resource shortages. When his wife and child are murdered by a vicious


Question: when was the first mad max movie release

Answer: 1979

"Mad Max: Fury Road"
Max: Fury Road"" is a remarkable and glorious motion picture, not just one of the great action movies of our time but also a great and timely film, period."" Alonso Duralde of ""TheWrap"" wrote, ""In the same way that the original 1979 ""Mad Max"" was the ""Citizen Kane"" of gut-bucket Australian exploitation cinema, ""Mad Max: Fury Road"" may well be the ""Götterdämmerung"" of drive-in movies. It has its roots in the Western and the post-apocalyptic road-rage action saga [...], where Miller dares anyone else to follow in his tire treads."" IGN reviewer Scott Collura gave the film 9.2 out of


Question: the cast of don't tell mom the babysitter's dead

Answer: Joanna Cassidy

"Don't Tell Mom the Babysitter's Dead"
is currently in the works. As of December 2017, further details are unknown. Don't Tell Mom the Babysitter's Dead Don't Tell Mom the Babysitter's Dead is a 1991 American coming-of-age story comedy film directed by Stephen Herek and starring Christina Applegate, Joanna Cassidy, Josh Charles, and David Duchovny. The plot focuses on seventeen-year-old Sue Ellen Crandell, whose mother leaves for a two-month summer vacation in Australia, putting all five siblings in the care of an evil tyrannical elderly babysitter. When the babysitter suddenly dies in her sleep, Sue Ellen assumes the role as head of the household to prevent her


Question: the cast of don't tell mom the babysitter's dead

Answer: Joanna Cassidy

"Don't Tell Mom the Babysitter's Dead"
Don't Tell Mom the Babysitter's Dead Don't Tell Mom the Babysitter's Dead is a 1991 American coming-of-age story comedy film directed by Stephen Herek and starring Christina Applegate, Joanna Cassidy, Josh Charles, and David Duchovny. The plot focuses on seventeen-year-old Sue Ellen Crandell, whose mother leaves for a two-month summer vacation in Australia, putting all five siblings in the care of an evil tyrannical elderly babysitter. When the babysitter suddenly dies in her sleep, Sue Ellen assumes the role as head of the household to prevent her mother from returning home early. She fakes a resume to get a job


Question: the cast of don't tell mom the babysitter's dead

Answer: Christopher Pettiet

"Christopher Pettiet"
Christopher Pettiet Christopher Lee Pettiet often referred to as Chris Pettiet (February 12, 1976 – April 12, 2000) was an American television and film actor best known for his role as Jesse James in the Western TV series ""The Young Riders"" and as Zach Crandell in the cult comedy film ""Don't Tell Mom the Babysitter's Dead"" (1991). Pettiet began his career as a child actor making appearances in television series such as ""seaQuest DSV"", """", ""L.A. Law"", ""Empty Nest"", ""Picket Fences"" and ""Undressed"". In 1991 he played Christina Applegate's younger brother in the comedy film ""Don't Tell Mom the Babysitter's


Question: the cast of don't tell mom the babysitter's dead

Answer: Danielle Harris

"Danielle Harris"
show ""In Living Color"". Harris' next major role was in the 1991 comedy film ""Don't Tell Mom the Babysitter's Dead"", as Melissa Crandell, with the story revolving around five siblings whose mother goes to Australia for two months, only to have her children's babysitter die. The young protagonists choose not to tell their mother and attempt to live on their own. The film has a 31% approval rate on Rotten Tomatoes. Harris had a guest role in the 1991 series ""Eerie, Indiana"", portraying a character who receives a heart transplant then begins to act like the heart's original owner. She


Question: the cast of don't tell mom the babysitter's dead

Answer: Concetta Tomei

"Concetta Tomei"
sitcom ""Wings"" titled ""The Late Mrs. Biggins"" where she played the former wife of Roy Biggins, and she also had the role of Mom in the cult film ""Don't Tell Mom the Babysitter's Dead"". She starred in the 1992 miniseries ""The Burden of Proof"". In 2005, Tomei guest appeared in an episode of ""The King of Queens"". One year later, in 2006, she returned to Off-Broadway with an acclaimed performance in Sarah Ruhl's ""The Clean House"". In 2007 she appeared opposite Kevin Kline and Jennifer Garner in the Broadway production of """". From 1997-2011, Tomei played guest roles on TV


Question: the cast of don't tell mom the babysitter's dead

Answer: Christina Applegate

"Christina Applegate"
Christina Applegate Christina Applegate (born November 25, 1971) is an American actress and dancer. As an adolescent actress, she started playing the role of Kelly Bundy on the Fox sitcom ""Married... with Children"" (1987–97). In her adult years, Applegate established a film and television career, winning an Emmy Award and earning Tony and Golden Globe nominations. Applegate has had major roles in several films, including ""Don't Tell Mom the Babysitter's Dead"" (1991), ""The Big Hit"" (1998), ""The Sweetest Thing"" (2002), ""Grand Theft Parsons"" (2003), """" (2004) and its sequel """" (2013), ""Hall Pass"" (2011), ""Vacation"" (2015), and ""Bad Moms"" (2016).


Question: the cast of don't tell mom the babysitter's dead

Answer: Josh Charles

"Josh Charles"
began his career performing comedy at the age of nine. As a teenager, he spent several summers at Stagedoor Manor Performing Arts Center in New York, and attended the Baltimore School for the Arts. Charles's film debut was in fellow Baltimore native John Waters' ""Hairspray"" in 1988. The following year, he starred alongside Robin Williams and Ethan Hawke in the Oscar-winning ""Dead Poets Society"". Subsequent film roles have included ""Don't Tell Mom the Babysitter's Dead"", ""Threesome"", ""Pie in the Sky"", ""Muppets from Space"", ""S.W.A.T"", ""Four Brothers"", ""After.Life"", ""Crossing the Bridge"", and ""Brief Interviews with Hideous Men"". On television, Charles played


Question: the cast of don't tell mom the babysitter's dead

Answer: John Getz

"John Getz"
and ""Private Practice"". Getz also appeared in ""The Fly"" (1986) and ""The Fly II"" (1989) as Stathis Borans, a science magazine editor who pays a heavy price for his curiosity. Also in 1989, he played a Marine Corps Major in ""Born on the Fourth of July"". In 1991, Getz appeared as the unpleasant boyfriend of professional women in ""Don't Tell Mom the Babysitter's Dead"" and ""Curly Sue"". In 1990, Getz appeared as a crime boss in the Charlie Sheen and Emilio Estevez spoof ""Men At Work"". In 1994, he appeared in the film ""Playmaker"", starring Colin Firth and Jennifer Rubin.


Question: the cast of don't tell mom the babysitter's dead

Answer: Joanna Cassidy

"Don't Tell Mom the Babysitter's Dead"
to Mrs. Sturak by their mother with their summer money is empty; she had it on her when they delivered her body to the funeral home. With no money to pay the family's bills, Sue Ellen finds work at a fast food restaurant called Clown Dog. Despite a budding relationship with her co-worker named Bryan, she quits because of the obnoxious manager. Sue Ellen then forges a résumé under the guise of a young fashion designer and applies at General Apparel West (GAW), hoping to secure a job as a receptionist. However, Rose Lindsey (Joanna Cassidy), a company executive, finds


Question: the cast of don't tell mom the babysitter's dead

Answer: Christina Applegate

"Christina Applegate"
on the series, Applegate was seen in ""Dance Till Dawn"" (1988, NBC) and in ""Streets"" (1990), in which a teenage drug addict is stalked by a psychotic police officer. Applegate guest-starred in ""21 Jump Street"" (1988) and ""Top of the Heap"" (1991, as Kelly Bundy), and hosted ""Saturday Night Live"" (May 8, 1993, and October 13, 2012) and ""MADtv"" (1996). The character of Sue Ellen Crandell in the black comedy feature ""Don't Tell Mom the Babysitter's Dead"" (1991) was Applegate's first starring role in a mainstream film, playing a rebellious teenager who is forced to take care of siblings after


Question: the cast of don't tell mom the babysitter's dead

Answer: Joanna Cassidy

"Joanna Cassidy"
Joanna Cassidy Joanna Cassidy (born August 2, 1945) is an American actress. She is best known for her roles as the replicant Zhora Salome in Ridley Scott's film ""Blade Runner"" (1982) and Dolores in ""Who Framed Roger Rabbit"" (1988). She has won a Golden Globe Award, was nominated for three Emmy Awards and also was nominated for a Saturn Award and Screen Actors Guild Awards. Cassidy also has starred in films such as ""Under Fire"", ""The Fourth Protocol"", ""The Package"", ""Where the Heart Is"", ""Don't Tell Mom the Babysitter's Dead"", ""Vampire in Brooklyn"" and ""Ghosts of Mars"". From 2001 to


Question: the cast of don't tell mom the babysitter's dead

Answer: Joanna Cassidy

"Joanna Cassidy"
Heart Is"" (1990) and ""Don't Tell Mom the Babysitter's Dead"" (1991). In 1993, she co-starred with Dudley Moore on the sitcom ""Dudley"", but the series only lasted for six episodes. She played the ex-wife of James Garner's lead character in the television movie, ""The Rockford Files: I Still Love L.A."" (1994). Other screen credits from this era include ""Barbarians at the Gate"" (1993), the miniseries adaptation of Stephen King's ""The Tommyknockers"" (1993), and Wes Craven's ""Vampire in Brooklyn"" (1995). Cassidy also provided the voice of Inspector Maggie Sawyer on The WB series """", and had recurring guest roles on television


Question: the cast of don't tell mom the babysitter's dead

Answer: Jayne Brook

"Jayne Brook"
director John Terlesky. They have two daughters, Alexandra Sophia and Annaliese Marie. Her first acting role was in the film """" in 1987. During the late 1980s, she worked for a while in Great Britain, appearing in ""The Old Boy Network"", a single season ITV comedy series about three ex-spies who set up as private investigators after the end of the Cold War. Brook went on to appear in numerous film and television roles, first as Carolyn in the 1991 film ""Don't Tell Mom the Babysitter's Dead"", a starring role in the spring 1993 ABC network version of ""Sirens"", a


Question: what does the adrenal gland produce that is necessary for the sympathetic nervous system to function

Answer: epinephrine

"Adrenal medulla"
Adrenal medulla The adrenal medulla () is part of the adrenal gland. It is located at the center of the gland, being surrounded by the adrenal cortex. It is the innermost part of the adrenal gland, consisting of cells that secrete epinephrine (adrenaline), norepinephrine (noradrenaline), and a small amount of dopamine in response to stimulation by sympathetic preganglionic neurons. The adrenal medulla consists of irregularly shaped cells grouped around blood vessels. These cells are intimately connected with the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system (ANS). In fact, these adrenal medullary cells are modified postganglionic neurons, and preganglionic autonomic nerve


Question: what does the adrenal gland produce that is necessary for the sympathetic nervous system to function

Answer: epinephrine

"Autonomic nervous system"
and digest"" response, promotes calming of the nerves return to regular function, and enhancing digestion. Functions of nerves within the parasympathetic nervous system include: The enteric nervous system is the intrinsic nervous system of the gastrointestinal system. It has been described as ""the Second Brain of the Human Body"". Its functions include: At the effector organs, sympathetic ganglionic neurons release noradrenaline (norepinephrine), along with other cotransmitters such as ATP, to act on adrenergic receptors, with the exception of the sweat glands and the adrenal medulla: A full table is found at Table of neurotransmitter actions in the ANS. Caffeine is


Question: what does the adrenal gland produce that is necessary for the sympathetic nervous system to function

Answer: epinephrine

Norepinephrine
can either be broken down by monoamine oxidase or repackaged into vesicles by VMAT, making it available for future release. Norepinephrine is the main neurotransmitter used by the sympathetic nervous system, which consists of about two dozen sympathetic chain ganglia located next to the spinal cord, plus a set of prevertebral ganglia located in the chest and abdomen. These sympathetic ganglia are connected to numerous organs, including the eyes, salivary glands, heart, lungs, liver, gallbladder, stomach, intestines, kidneys, urinary bladder, reproductive organs, muscles, skin, and adrenal glands. Sympathetic activation of the adrenal glands causes the part called the adrenal medulla


Question: what does the adrenal gland produce that is necessary for the sympathetic nervous system to function

Answer: epinephrine

"Adrenal gland"
catecholamines adrenaline and noradrenaline, released by the medulla. Approximately 20% noradrenaline (norepinephrine) and 80% adrenaline (epinephrine) are secreted here. The adrenal medulla is driven by the sympathetic nervous system via preganglionic fibers originating in the thoracic spinal cord, from vertebrae T5–T11. Because it is innervated by preganglionic nerve fibers, the adrenal medulla can be considered as a specialized sympathetic ganglion. Unlike other sympathetic ganglia, however, the adrenal medulla lacks distinct synapses and releases its secretions directly into the blood. The adrenal glands have one of the greatest blood supply rates per gram of tissue of any organ: up to 60


Question: what does the adrenal gland produce that is necessary for the sympathetic nervous system to function

Answer: epinephrine

"Adrenal tumor"
anatomically at the center of each adrenal gland, and is composed of neuroendocrine (chromaffin) cells which produce and release epinephrine (adrenaline) into the bloodstream in response to activation of the sympathetic nervous system. Neuroblastoma and pheochromocytoma are the two most important tumors which arise from the adrenal medulla. Both tumors may also arise from extra-adrenal sites, specifically, in the paraganglia of the sympathetic chain. Neuroblastoma is an aggressive cancer of immature neuroblastic cells (precursors of neurons), and is one of the most common pediatric cancers, with a median age at diagnosis of two years. Adrenal neuroblastoma typically presents with a


Question: what does the adrenal gland produce that is necessary for the sympathetic nervous system to function

Answer: epinephrine

"Muscarinic acetylcholine receptor"
form the principal receptors on the innervated tissue. Very few parts of the sympathetic system use cholinergic receptors. In sweat glands the receptors are of the ""muscarinic"" type. The sympathetic nervous system also has some preganglionic nerves terminating at the chromaffin cells in the adrenal medulla, which secrete epinephrine and norepinephrine into the bloodstream. Some believe that chromaffin cells are modified postganglionic CNS fibers. In the adrenal medulla, acetylcholine is used as a neurotransmitter, and the receptor is of the ""nicotinic"" type. The somatic nervous system uses a nicotinic receptor to acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors are


Question: what does the adrenal gland produce that is necessary for the sympathetic nervous system to function

Answer: epinephrine

Arteriole
to an increase in flow rate. Arterioles receive autonomic nervous system innervation and respond to various circulating hormones in order to regulate their diameter. Retinal vessels lack a functional sympathetic innervation. Further local responses to stretch, carbon dioxide, pH, and oxygen also influence arteriolar tone. Generally, norepinephrine and epinephrine (hormones produced by sympathetic nerves and the adrenal gland medulla) are vasoconstrictive acting on alpha 1-adrenergic receptors. However, the arterioles of skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle, and pulmonary circulation vasodilate in response to these hormones when they act on beta-adrenergic receptors. Generally, stretch and high oxygen tension increase tone, and carbon dioxide


Question: what does the adrenal gland produce that is necessary for the sympathetic nervous system to function

Answer: epinephrine

"Sympathoadrenal system"
a single unit to activate an organism’s “fight or flight” response. This “sympathoadrenal discharge” causes an increase in heart rate, cardiac output, blood pressure, and glucose levels. These sympathoadrenal functions show the combined responses of the central nervous system on a multitude of external stimuli. The two main chemical messengers of the sympathoadrenal system are norepinephrine and epinephrine (also called noradrenaline and adrenaline respectively). These chemicals are created by the adrenal glands after receiving neuronal signals from the sympathetic nervous system. The different physiological affects of these chemicals depend on the particular tissue that it innervates. As part of the


Question: what does the adrenal gland produce that is necessary for the sympathetic nervous system to function

Answer: epinephrine

"Sympathetic nervous system"
epinephrine (adrenaline). The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for up- and down-regulating many homeostatic mechanisms in living organisms. Fibers from the SNS innervate tissues in almost every organ system, providing at least some regulation of functions as diverse as pupil diameter, gut motility, and urinary system output and function. It is perhaps best known for mediating the neuronal and hormonal stress response commonly known as the ""fight-or-flight response"". This response is also known as ""sympatho-adrenal response"" of the body, as the preganglionic sympathetic fibers that end in the adrenal medulla (but also all other sympathetic fibers) secrete acetylcholine, which activates


Question: what does the adrenal gland produce that is necessary for the sympathetic nervous system to function

Answer: epinephrine

"Sympathetic nervous system"
the digestive tract, and the kidneys. This occurs as a result of activation of alpha-1 adrenergic receptors by norepinephrine released by post-ganglionic sympathetic neurons. These receptors exist throughout the vasculature of the body but are inhibited and counterbalanced by beta-2 adrenergic receptors (stimulated by epinephrine release from the adrenal glands) in the skeletal muscles, the heart, the lungs, and the brain during a sympathoadrenal response. The net effect of this is a shunting of blood away from the organs not necessary to the immediate survival of the organism and an increase in blood flow to those organs involved in intense


Question: what does the adrenal gland produce that is necessary for the sympathetic nervous system to function

Answer: epinephrine

"Fight-or-flight response"
is followed by activation of the pituitary gland and secretion of the hormone ACTH. The adrenal gland is activated almost simultaneously, via the sympathetic nervous system, and releases the hormone epinephrine. The release of chemical messengers results in the production of the hormone cortisol, which increases blood pressure, blood sugar, and suppresses the immune system. The initial response and subsequent reactions are triggered in an effort to create a boost of energy. This boost of energy is activated by epinephrine binding to liver cells and the subsequent production of glucose. Additionally, the circulation of cortisol functions to turn fatty acids


Question: what does the adrenal gland produce that is necessary for the sympathetic nervous system to function

Answer: epinephrine

Adrenaline
below the detection limit in the blood stream. The adrenal glands contribute about 7% of circulating norepinephrine, most of which is a spill over from neurotransmission with little activity as a hormone. Pharmacological doses of epinephrine stimulate α, α, β, β, and β adrenoceptors of the sympathetic nervous system. Sympathetic nerve receptors are classified as adrenergic, based on their responsiveness to adrenaline. The term ""adrenergic"" is often misinterpreted in that the main sympathetic neurotransmitter is norepinephrine (noradrenaline), rather than epinephrine, as discovered by Ulf von Euler in 1946. Epinephrine does have a β adrenoceptor-mediated effect on metabolism and the airway,


Question: what does the adrenal gland produce that is necessary for the sympathetic nervous system to function

Answer: epinephrine

"Adrenal medulla"
compensation by the autonomous nervous system, except in episodes of hypoglycemia where glycogenolysis cannot be stimulated by circulating epinephrine . In dopamine beta hydroxylase deficiency, the entire body cannot efficiently produce epinephrine and norepinephrine from dopamine, this results in severe dysautonomia but most crucially due to autonomous nervous system failure which requires epinephrine and norepinephrine as neurotransmitters, dopamine being used in this pathology as an inadequate substitute. Adrenal medulla The adrenal medulla () is part of the adrenal gland. It is located at the center of the gland, being surrounded by the adrenal cortex. It is the innermost part of


Question: where do the greasers live in the outsiders

Answer: Tulsa, Oklahoma

"The Outsiders (film)"
behalf of her seventh and eighth grade students about adapting ""The Outsiders"". When Coppola read the book, he was moved not only to adapt and direct it, but to follow it the next year by adapting Hinton's novel ""Rumble Fish"". The latter film's cast also included Matt Dillon, Diane Lane, and Glenn Withrow. The film was shot on location in Tulsa, Oklahoma. Coppola filmed ""The Outsiders"" and ""Rumble Fish"" back-to-back in 1982—a newspaper, used to show a story about the three greasers saving the kids in ""The Outsiders"", includes a real story from 1982 regarding the death of a man


Question: where do the greasers live in the outsiders

Answer: Tulsa, Oklahoma

"The Outsiders (novel)"
The Outsiders (novel) The Outsiders is a coming-of-age novel by S. E. Hinton, first published in 1967 by Viking Press. Hinton was 15 when she started writing the novel but did most of the work when she was 16 and a junior in high school. Hinton was 18 when the book was published. The book details the conflict between two rival gangs divided by their socioeconomic status: the working-class ""greasers"" and the upper-class ""Socs"" (pronounced —short for ""Socials""). The story is told in first-person perspective by teenaged protagonist Ponyboy Curtis. The story in the book takes place in Tulsa, Oklahoma,


Question: where do the greasers live in the outsiders

Answer: Tulsa, Oklahoma

"S. E. Hinton bibliography"
S. E. Hinton bibliography Susan Eloise Hinton (better known as S. E. Hinton) is an American author who is best known for writing young adult fiction. ""The Outsiders"" was Hinton's first published book in 1967; Hinton wrote the book at the age of seventeen. Hinton based the characters, the Greasers and the Socs, off of teenage gangs and alienated youth in her hometown of Tulsa, Oklahoma during the 1960s. ""The Outsiders"" has sold over fourteen million copies since it was published. In 1983, ""The Outsiders"" became a movie, and was later released onto DVD. After experiencing a writer's block and


Question: where do the greasers live in the outsiders

Answer: Tulsa, Oklahoma

"S. E. Hinton bibliography"
awards from 21 nominations. S. E. Hinton bibliography Susan Eloise Hinton (better known as S. E. Hinton) is an American author who is best known for writing young adult fiction. ""The Outsiders"" was Hinton's first published book in 1967; Hinton wrote the book at the age of seventeen. Hinton based the characters, the Greasers and the Socs, off of teenage gangs and alienated youth in her hometown of Tulsa, Oklahoma during the 1960s. ""The Outsiders"" has sold over fourteen million copies since it was published. In 1983, ""The Outsiders"" became a movie, and was later released onto DVD. After experiencing


Question: what is the most fundamental unit of life according to the cell theory

Answer: cells

"Cell theory"
the previous theory of spontaneous generation. After reading letters by Leeuwenhoek, Hooke was the first to confirm his observations that were thought to be unlikely by other contemporaries. The cells in animal tissues were observed after plants were because the tissues were so fragile and susceptible to tearing, it was difficult for such thin slices to be prepared for studying. Biologists believed that there was a fundamental unit to life, but were unsure what this was. It would not be until over a hundred years later that this fundamental unit was connected to cellular structure and existence of cells in


Question: what is the most fundamental unit of life according to the cell theory

Answer: cells

"Cell theory"
many debates about cells began amongst scientists. Most of these debates involved the nature of cellular regeneration, and the idea of cells as a fundamental unit of life. Cell theory was eventually formulated in 1839. This is usually credited to Matthias Schleiden and Theodor Schwann. However, many other scientists like Rudolf Virchow contributed to the theory. It was an important step in the movement away from spontaneous generation. The three tenets to the cell theory are as described below: The first of these tenets is disputed, as non-cellular entities such as viruses are sometimes considered life-forms. The discovery of the


Question: what is the most fundamental unit of life according to the cell theory

Answer: cells

"History of biology"
of biologists pointed to the central importance of the cell. In 1838 and 1839, Schleiden and Schwann began promoting the ideas that (1) the basic unit of organisms is the cell and (2) that individual cells have all the characteristics of life, though they opposed the idea that (3) all cells come from the division of other cells. Thanks to the work of Robert Remak and Rudolf Virchow, however, by the 1860s most biologists accepted all three tenets of what came to be known as cell theory. Cell theory led biologists to re-envision individual organisms as interdependent assemblages of individual


Question: what is the most fundamental unit of life according to the cell theory

Answer: cells

Biology
essentially completed in 2003, with further analysis still being published. The Human Genome Project was the first step in a globalized effort to incorporate accumulated knowledge of biology into a functional, molecular definition of the human body and the bodies of other organisms. Cell theory states that the cell is the fundamental unit of life, that all living things are composed of one or more cells, and that all cells arise from pre-existing cells through cell division. In multicellular organisms, every cell in the organism's body derives ultimately from a single cell in a fertilized egg. The cell is also


Question: what is the most fundamental unit of life according to the cell theory

Answer: cells

Biology
impact on biological thinking. In the early 19th century, a number of biologists pointed to the central importance of the cell. Then, in 1838, Schleiden and Schwann began promoting the now universal ideas that (1) the basic unit of organisms is the cell and (2) that individual cells have all the characteristics of life, although they opposed the idea that (3) all cells come from the division of other cells. Thanks to the work of Robert Remak and Rudolf Virchow, however, by the 1860s most biologists accepted all three tenets of what came to be known as cell theory. Meanwhile,


Question: what is the most fundamental unit of life according to the cell theory

Answer: cells

"History of zoology through 1859"
and Schwann began promoting the ideas that (1) the basic unit of organisms is the cell and (2) that individual cells have all the characteristics of life, though they opposed the idea that (3) all cells come from the division of other cells. Thanks to the work of Robert Remak and Rudolf Virchow, however, by the 1860s most biologists accepted all three tenets of what came to be known as cell theory. Up through the 19th century, the scope of zoology was largely divided between physiology, which investigated questions of form and function, and natural history, which was concerned with


Question: what is the most fundamental unit of life according to the cell theory

Answer: cells

"Cell (biology)"
contain more than 10 trillion (10) cells. Most plant and animal cells are visible only under a microscope, with dimensions between 1 and 100 micrometres. Cells were discovered by Robert Hooke in 1665, who named them for their resemblance to cells inhabited by Christian monks in a monastery. Cell theory, first developed in 1839 by Matthias Jakob Schleiden and Theodor Schwann, states that all organisms are composed of one or more cells, that cells are the fundamental unit of structure and function in all living organisms, and that all cells come from pre-existing cells. Cells emerged on Earth at least


Question: what is the most fundamental unit of life according to the cell theory

Answer: cells

"Cell theory"
is no longer accepted with modern cell theory. In 1839, Theodor Schwann states that along with plants, animals are composed of cells or the product of cells in their structures. This was a major advancement in the field of biology since little was known about animal structure up to this point compared to plants. From these conclusions about plants and animals, two of the three tenets of cell theory were postulated. 1. All living organisms are composed of one or more cells 2. The cell is the most basic unit of life Schleiden's theory of free cell formation through crystallization


Question: what is the most fundamental unit of life according to the cell theory

Answer: cells

"John Goodsir"
and structure of cellular life and organisation. He concluded that all living organisms are formed of microscopic units, cells. Goodsir was not alone in postulating such a concept and the theory that cells form the basic structure of tissues in all plants and animals has been attributed to Matthius Schleiden and to Theodor Schwann. Goodsir posed and then answered the questions ‘What is a cell with its walls, contents, nucleus and nucleolus? How is a cell formed? How do cells multiply?’ The theory which he developed from these studies was original and won the extravagant praise of Rudolf Virchow (1821–1902),


Question: what is the most fundamental unit of life according to the cell theory

Answer: cells

"Plus construction"
Plus construction In mathematics, the plus construction is a method for simplifying the fundamental group of a space without changing its homology and cohomology groups. It was introduced by , and was used by Daniel Quillen to define algebraic K-theory. Given a perfect normal subgroup of the fundamental group of a connected CW complex formula_1, attach two-cells along loops in formula_1 whose images in the fundamental group generate the subgroup. This operation generally changes the homology of the space, but these changes can be reversed by the addition of three-cells. The most common application of the plus construction is in


Question: what is the most fundamental unit of life according to the cell theory

Answer: cells

"Plus construction"
formula_3, formula_22. Plus construction In mathematics, the plus construction is a method for simplifying the fundamental group of a space without changing its homology and cohomology groups. It was introduced by , and was used by Daniel Quillen to define algebraic K-theory. Given a perfect normal subgroup of the fundamental group of a connected CW complex formula_1, attach two-cells along loops in formula_1 whose images in the fundamental group generate the subgroup. This operation generally changes the homology of the space, but these changes can be reversed by the addition of three-cells. The most common application of the plus construction


Question: what is the most fundamental unit of life according to the cell theory

Answer: cells

"Evolution of cells"
Evolution of cells Evolution of cells refers to the evolutionary origin and subsequent evolutionary development of cells. Cells first emerged at least 3.8 billion years ago. The origin of cells was the most important step in the evolutionary theory of life on Earth. The birth of the cell marked the passage from pre-biotic chemistry to partitioned units resembling modern cells. The final transition to living entities that fulfill all the definitions of modern cells depended on the ability to evolve effectively by natural selection. This transition has been called the Darwinian transition. If life is viewed from the point of


Question: what is the most fundamental unit of life according to the cell theory

Answer: cells

"Discrete Morse theory"
the boundary of formula_42 to its paired cell formula_43 is a unit in the underlying ring of formula_1. For instance, over the integers formula_45, the only allowed values are formula_46. This technical requirement is guaranteed, for instance, when one assumes that formula_1 is a regular CW complex over formula_45. The fundamental result of discrete Morse theory establishes that the CW complex formula_1 is isomorphic on the level of homology to a new complex formula_32 consisting of only the critical cells. The paired cells in formula_33 and formula_34 describe ""gradient paths"" between adjacent critical cells which can be used to obtain


Question: what is the most fundamental unit of life according to the cell theory

Answer: cells

"Cell theory"
animals or plants. This conclusion was not made until Henri Dutrochet. Besides stating “the cell is the fundamental element of organization”, Dutrochet also claimed that cells were not just a structural unit, but also a physiological unit. In 1804, Karl Rudolphi and J.H.F. Link were awarded the prize for ""solving the problem of the nature of cells"", meaning they were the first to prove that cells had independent cell walls by the Königliche Societät der Wissenschaft (Royal Society of Science), Göttingen. Before, it had been thought that cells shared walls and the fluid passed between them this way. Credit for


Question: when did toyota start making cars in the us

Answer: by the early 1980s

Toyota
Nissan Motor Co. and Honda Motor Co. began building plants in the US by the early 1980s. Toyota received its first Japanese Quality Control Award at the start of the 1980s and began participating in a wide variety of motorsports. Due to the 1973 oil crisis, consumers in the lucrative US market began turning to making small cars with better fuel economy. American car manufacturers had considered small economy cars to be an entry-level product, and their small vehicles employed a low level of quality to keep the price low. Conservative Toyota held on to rear-wheel-drive designs for longer than


Question: the art and science of making objects from clay is called

Answer: Ceramic art

"Ceramic art"
and decorate the art ware. Products from a pottery are sometimes referred to as ""art pottery"". In a one-person pottery studio, ceramists or potters produce studio pottery. The word ""ceramics"" comes from the Greek ""keramikos"" (κεραμικος), meaning ""pottery"", which in turn comes from ""keramos"" (κεραμος) meaning ""potter's clay"". Most traditional ceramic products were made from clay (or clay mixed with other materials), shaped and subjected to heat, and tableware and decorative ceramics are generally still made this way. In modern ceramic engineering usage, ceramics is the art and science of making objects from inorganic, non-metallic materials by the action of


Question: the art and science of making objects from clay is called

Answer: Ceramic

"Steven Kemenyffy"
""The Complete Book of Pottery Making"". Radnor, Pa: Chilton Book Co, 1976. Moore College of Art Gallery. ""Clay Things: East Coast Invitational."" Philadelphia: Moore College, 1974. Nigrosh, Leon I. ""Low Fire Other Ways to Work in Clay"". Worcester, Mass: Davis Publications, 1980. Nigrosh, Leon I. ""Sculpting Clay"". Worcester, Mass: Davis Publications, 1992. Nordness, Lee. ""Objects: USA"". New York: Viking Press, 1970. Peterson, Susan. ""The Craft and Art of Clay"". Englewood Cliffs, NJ: Prentice Hall, 1992. Piepenburg, Robert E. ""Raku Pottery"". New York: Macmillan, 1972. Rossiter, Sarah. ""The Quest for the Glowing Glaze."" ""Ceramics Monthly"", v. 52 no. 6, 2004. Scott,


Question: the art and science of making objects from clay is called

Answer: Ceramic

"Julia Galloway"
Artist and Objects, and The Ceramic Continuum, Archie Bray Foundation. Julia’s work is included in the collections of the Renwick Gallery, Smithsonian Museum, Washington DC, The Huntington Museum of Art, Huntington, WV, Archie Bray Foundation, Helena, MT, The Clay Art Center, Port Chester, NY, The Art Gallery of Nova Scotia, Halifax, Nova Scotia, Canada, and the University of Arkansas, Fayetteville. Galloway’s work is intended to be functional, yet also beautiful. To Galloway, beauty is as valid as function, and she delights in making pottery that is “joyous to use and decorates” our living spaces with “character and elegance.” The objects


Question: when was the last time michigan basketball won the championship

Answer: 1989

"2018 NCAA Division I Men's Basketball Championship Game"
2018 NCAA Division I Men's Basketball Championship Game The 2018 NCAA Division I Men's Basketball Championship Game was the final game of the single-elimination tournament to determine the men's National Collegiate Athletic Association (NCAA) Division I college basketball national champion for the 2017–18 season. The game was played on April 2, 2018, at the Alamodome in San Antonio, Texas, between the Michigan Wolverines and the Villanova Wildcats. Michigan last won the NCAA championship in 1989, while Villanova won the championship in 2016. Villanova defeated Michigan, 79–62. Donte DiVincenzo, a reserve player, scored 31 points for Villanova, and was named the


Question: when was the last time michigan basketball won the championship

Answer: 1989

"2018 NCAA Division I Men's Basketball Championship Game"
180 countries. In Canada, the game aired on TSN. Radio coverage in the United States was provided by Westwood One. 2018 NCAA Division I Men's Basketball Championship Game The 2018 NCAA Division I Men's Basketball Championship Game was the final game of the single-elimination tournament to determine the men's National Collegiate Athletic Association (NCAA) Division I college basketball national champion for the 2017–18 season. The game was played on April 2, 2018, at the Alamodome in San Antonio, Texas, between the Michigan Wolverines and the Villanova Wildcats. Michigan last won the NCAA championship in 1989, while Villanova won the championship


Question: when was the last time michigan basketball won the championship

Answer: 1989

"2018 NCAA Division I Men's Basketball Championship Game"
NCAA Basketball Tournament Most Outstanding Player. The Michigan Wolverines last won the NCAA Tournament in 1989. Their most recent appearance in the championship game was in 2013. At one point unranked in the AP Poll, Michigan won their final 14 games before the title game to end the 2017–18 regular season with a 28–7 win-loss record after winning the 2018 Big Ten Conference Men's Basketball Tournament. They earned the No. 3 seed in the West Regional. Michigan defeated the No. 14 Montana Grizzlies in the first round by a score of 61–47. They then reached the Sweet 16 by defeating


Question: when was the last time michigan basketball won the championship

Answer: 1989

"Panionios G.S.S."
division. It was runner-up of the championship one more time, in 1971 and also it has won two football cups in 1979 and 1998. Furthermore, Panionios has important presence in basketball and the last years in water polo. Panionios Basketball team has won a Greek cup in 1989 and one time was a runner-up of the championship (1987). The team has a steady presence in the first division finishing many times in the top four of the championship. The Panionios basketball women team has won a championship in 2007. The last years, Panionios has a successful team in water polo.


Question: when was the last time michigan basketball won the championship

Answer: 1989

"1989 NCAA Division I Men's Basketball Championship Game"
to cut the Seton Hall lead to 79-78. After a defensive stop, Gerald Greene fouled Rumeal Robinson with three seconds left in overtime. Robinson made both free throws and after Seton Hall's last-second shot came up short, Michigan won its first national championship. 1989 NCAA Division I Men's Basketball Championship Game The 1989 NCAA Division I Men's Basketball Championship Game was the final round of the 1989 NCAA Division I Men's Basketball Tournament and determined the national champion for the 1988–89 NCAA Division I men's basketball season The 1989 National Title Game was played on April 3, 1989 at the


Question: which state is the richest state in nigeria

Answer: Lagos State

"Chukwudi Onuamadike"
Chukwudi Onuamadike Chukwudi Dumeme Onuamadike, popularly known as Evans, is a Nigerian alleged kidnapper. Onuamadike is a native of Nnewi, Anambra State. He is sometimes referred to as ""The Billionaire Kidnapper"" because the Nigeria Police Force (NPF) believe he is one the richest criminals in the kidnapping business in Nigeria. The Inspector General of Police Special Intelligence Response Team (IRT) of the Nigeria police force also described as a very smart, crafty, and intelligent kidnapper having evaded arrest for four years even though he was on a most wanted list in three states (Lagos State, Edo State, and Anambra State).


Question: which state is the richest state in nigeria

Answer: Lagos State

"The Apostolic Church Nigeria"
ministry in 1969. LAWNA Territory which was a unification of those four Areas in 1970 has today grown into 79 Areas across the country; and seven missionary fields overseas. The Territory covers 27 states out of the 36 states of The Federal Republic of Nigeria. In 2011, the church founded Samuel Adegboyega University, a tertiary institution located in Ogwa, Edo State, Nigeria and named after LAWNA's first territorial chairman Samuel Adegboyega. The National Convention is a biannual gathering of all The Apostolic Church members at the National Temple, Lagos State, Nigeria. The Apostolic Church Nigeria The Apostolic Church Nigeria is


Question: who was the oldest man elected president of usa

Answer: Donald Trump

"Dwight D. Eisenhower"
Nixon providing the majority vote). Eisenhower was the last president born in the 19th century, and at age 62, was the oldest man elected President since James Buchanan in 1856 (President Truman stood at 64 in 1948 as the incumbent president, having succeeded to the Presidency in 1945 upon the death of Franklin Roosevelt). Eisenhower was the only general to serve as President in the 20th century and was the most recent President to have never held elected office prior to the Presidency until Donald Trump, who never held public office nor served in the military; the other Presidents who


Question: who was the oldest man elected president of usa

Answer: Ronald Reagan

"2008 United States presidential election"
by pointing out in ads and at numerous campaign rallies that McCain had claimed in an interview that he voted with Bush 90% of the time, and congressional voting records supported this for the years Bush was in office. Similar to Senator Bob Dole's 1996 presidential campaign, one of the more widely leveled charges against McCain was the issue of his age—he turned 72 in August and there was widespread concern about the idea of electing a man who would be 80 years old if he completed two full terms in office (the oldest president, Ronald Reagan, had been a


Question: who was the oldest man elected president of usa

Answer: Ronald Reagan

"Electoral history of Ronald Reagan"
belief in individual freedom, brought changes domestically, both to the U.S. economy and expanded military, and contributed to the end of the Cold War. Termed the Reagan Revolution, his presidency would reinvigorate American morale, reinvigorate the American economy and reduce American reliance upon government. In addition to this, Reagan was the oldest person ever elected to the presidency, at the age of 69 on the date of his first presidential election victory in 1980. He was surpassed in 2016 by Donald Trump as the oldest person first elected to the presidency, but Reagan currently remains the oldest person ever elected


Question: what is the name of the muslim dress

Answer: hijab

"Islamic feminism"
threatened. Muslim women should be able to define dress codes for themselves and what they deem to be morally right. In her book ""Muslim Fashion: Contemporary Style Cultures"", London College of Fashion Cultural Studies professor Reina Lewis states that the evolution of mainstream hijab fashion serves as an outlet for Muslim women to demonstrate creativity and individuality in their development of a personal style that adheres to the code of dressing modestly. This gives Muslim women, particularly those of younger generations, the personal decision to wear the hijab is an opportunity to express their contemporary ideas on Muslim femininity. Not


Question: what is the name of the muslim dress

Answer: hijab

"Women in the Arab world"
Tunisian dress as a symbol of national identity. Islamic feminism counters both sorts of externally imposed dress codes. Religious views differ on what is considered the proper hijab. This explains the variation in Islamic attire according to geographic location. ""Arab"" and ""Muslim"" are often used interchangeably. The conflation of these two identities ignores the diverse religious beliefs of Arab people and also overlooks Muslims who are not Arabs. It, ""also erases the historic and vast ethnic communities who are neither Arab nor Muslim but who live amid and interact with a majority of Arabs or Muslims."" This generalization, ""enables the


Question: what is the name of the muslim dress

Answer: hijab

"Islamic feminism"
been working on developing women-friendly forms of MPL. (See, for example, the Canadian Council of Muslim Women for argument based on the Qur'an and not on what they call medieval male consensus.) Other Islamic feminists, particularly some in Muslim minority contexts which are democratic states, argue that MPL should not be reformed but should be rejected and that Muslim women should seek redress, instead, from the civil laws of those states. Another issue that concerns Muslim women is the dress code expected of them. Islam requires both men and women to dress modestly; this concept is known as ""hijab"" and


Question: what is the name of the muslim dress

Answer: hijab

"Islamic dress in Europe"
or ""niqab""; some apply to any clothing with an Islamic religious symbolism such as the ""khimar"", a type of headscarf. The issue has different names in different countries, and ""the veil"" or """"hijab"""" may be used as general terms for the debate, representing more than just the veil itself, or the concept of modesty embodied in ""hijab"". Although the Balkans and Eastern Europe have indigenous Muslim populations, most Muslims in western Europe are members of immigrant communities. The issue of Islamic dress is linked with issues of immigration and the position of Islam in western society. In November 2006, European


Question: what is the name of the muslim dress

Answer: hijab

"Women in Islam"
laughing."" 3. Superficiality. The rise of the ḥijāb in the late twentieth and early twenty-first centuries has been criticised as ""reverse objectification"", whereby women are primarily judged by what they wear as opposed to their broader conduct as human beings, despite their ostensibly modest dress. The Singaporean writer Sya Taha has expressed this as follows: ""In any commercial magazine targeted at Muslim women, compare the number of pages dedicated to hijab styling or makeup with sport, art, music, humanitarian work or science...In contrast, Muslim women that do not wear hijab are often framed as though they must justify and reconcile


Question: what is the name of the muslim dress

Answer: hijab

Chinawal
blouse and salwar. The tradition of wearing mangalsutra remains, but the fashion of kunku has largely been replaced with bindi. The dress of Muslim men is much like the dress of Hindu men, and can not be differentiated unless Muslims wear taqiyah and sherwani, and keep a beard. The dress of Muslim women is the hijab. The Indian breads bhakri and poli are the villagers' main staple foods. Along with these breads, various types of bhaji are eaten. At weddings, festivals and special occasions, varan-poli (or varan-batti) and vangyachi bhaji (curry made of eggplant) are typically favored, while baigan bharta,


Question: what is the name of the muslim dress

Answer: hijab

Burkini
of a spandex and polyester mix. Other companies that make body-covering suits include Splashgear (California), Acquagym (Brazil), Haşema (Turkey), Nike, and Speedo. Suits such as the Nike “Swift Suit” may be more body-hugging, designed to maximize aerodynamics, rather than address issues of modesty. In addition to modesty, full-body swimsuits offer protection from the sun, and in some cases, enhanced athletic performance. They satisfy real needs for populations that include both Muslim and non-Muslim women. The design of the burkini is intended to be in accord with Islamic traditions of modest dress (hijab). However, what constitutes proper attire for women is


Question: what is the name of the muslim dress

Answer: hijab

Headscarf
by observant Muslim women and girls, and required by law for women and girls in certain Muslim countries (Saudi Arabia for example). The Muslim religious dress varies, and various cultures include ""burqa"", ""chador"", ""niqab"", ""dupatta"", or other types of ""hijab"". The religion prescribes modest behaviour or dress in general, and in particular the headscarf worn by Muslim women and girls. Young Sikhs often wear a cloth wrapping to cover their hair, before moving on to the turban. Older Sikhs may wear them as an under-turban. Practical reasons include protection from bad weather and protection against industrial contamination, for example in


Question: what is the democracy of the united states

Answer: federal republic

"Representative democracy"
Representative democracy Representative democracy (also indirect democracy, representative government or psephocracy) is a type of democracy founded on the principle of elected officials representing a group of people, as opposed to direct democracy. Nearly all modern Western-style democracies are types of representative democracies; for example, the United Kingdom is a constitutional monarchy, France is a unitary state, and the United States is a federal republic. It is an element of both the parliamentary and the presidential systems of government and is typically used in a lower chamber such as the House of Commons of the United Kingdom, Lok Sabha of


Question: who is the voice of the other mother in coraline

Answer: Teri Hatcher

"Teri Hatcher"
as Coraline's mother Mel Jones, who constantly shows Coraline ""tough love,"" both in the 2009 hit film ""Coraline"", which received critical acclaim. In 2010, Hatcher made a return to the Superman franchise, with a special guest role in the final season of ""Smallville"" as Ella Lane, the mother of Erica Durance's Lois Lane. The episode continued a tradition of former Lois Lane actresses portraying the character's mother many years later. Noel Neill appeared as Lois' mother in the 1978 film ""Superman: The Movie"", and Phyllis Coates made a similar appearance on ""Lois & Clark"". A report in November 2010 suggested


Question: who won the 7 man elimination chamber match

Answer: Roman Reigns

"Elimination Chamber (2018)"
Chamber match, the first event to include a women's Elimination Chamber match, and the first Raw-exclusive pay-per-view since the 2016 reintroduction of the brand extension to not feature any cruiserweight division matches. Six matches were contested at the event, including one on the pre-show. In the main event, Roman Reigns won the first-ever seven-man Elimination Chamber match to become the number one contender against Brock Lesnar for the Universal Championship at WrestleMania 34. On the undercard, Alexa Bliss retained the Raw Women's Championship in the first-ever women's Elimination Chamber match, and Asuka defeated Nia Jax to extend her undefeated streak


Question: when did the royal mint move to wales

Answer: the 1960s

"Royal Mint Court"
the 1960s little of the original mint remained apart from the Smirke building and gatehouses. The Royal Mint was based at the site until 1967, when it began moving to its current site in Llantrisant, Wales. Minting ceased at Royal Mint Court in 1975. Two new office buildings were constructed on the site in the 1980s. Designed by Sheppard Robson, they were subsequently known as Murray House and Dexter House. This brought the site's total office space to 460,000 square feet. After the Mint vacated the Murray House building on the site it was used as commercial offices by Barclays


Question: when did the royal mint move to wales

Answer: the 1960s.

"Royal Mint"
was historically part of a series of mints that became centralised to produce coins for the Kingdom of England, all of Great Britain and eventually most of the British Empire. The original London mint from which the Royal Mint is the successor, was established in 886 AD and operated within the Tower of London for approximately 800 years before moving to what is now called Royal Mint Court where it remained until the 1960s. As Britain followed the rest of the world in decimalising its currency, the Mint moved from London to a new plant in Llantrisant, Wales where it


Question: when did the royal mint move to wales

Answer: 1968

"Royal Mint"
plant for striking. This first phase of the mint was officially opened on 17 December 1968 by the royal attendance of Queen Elizabeth II, Prince Philip and their son Prince Charles. Originally there were fears that the Royal family would face protests because of the Investiture of Prince Charles as the Prince of Wales; however, such protests failed to materialise. The second phase of construction began in 1973 and included the addition of a means to mint coins from virgin metals completing the full minting process. Upon completion the final cost for the land, buildings and plant came to £8


Question: who sold out jesus for 30 pieces of silver

Answer: Judas Iscariot

"Thirty pieces of silver"
Thirty pieces of silver Thirty pieces of silver was the price for which Judas Iscariot betrayed Jesus, according to an account in the Gospel of Matthew 26:15 in the New Testament. Before the Last Supper, Judas is said to have gone to the chief priests and agreed to hand over Jesus in exchange for 30 silver coins, and to have attempted to return the money afterwards, filled with remorse. The Gospel of Matthew claims that the subsequent purchase of the Potter's field was fulfilment, by Jesus, of a prophecy of Zechariah. The image has often been used in artwork depicting


Question: who sold out jesus for 30 pieces of silver

Answer: Judas Iscariot

"Thirty pieces of silver"
the Passion of Christ. The phrase is used in literature and common speech to refer to people ""selling out"", compromising a trust, friendship, or loyalty for personal gain. According to the Gospel of Matthew, Judas Iscariot was a disciple of Jesus. Before the Last Supper, Judas went to the chief priests and agreed to hand over Jesus in exchange for 30 silver coins. Jesus was then arrested in Gethsemane, where Judas revealed Jesus' identity to the soldiers by giving him a kiss. According to Chapter 27 of Matthew's gospel, Judas was filled with remorse and returned the money to the


Question: who sold out jesus for 30 pieces of silver

Answer: Judas Iscariot

"Thirty pieces of silver"
bid me fetch thee thirty shillings?"" The story ""Treasure Trove"" by F. Tennyson Jesse relates the rediscovery in modern times of the thirty pieces of silver and how they drive men to kill in varied forms including murder, manslaughter, homicide, euthanasia and suicide. Thirty pieces of silver Thirty pieces of silver was the price for which Judas Iscariot betrayed Jesus, according to an account in the Gospel of Matthew 26:15 in the New Testament. Before the Last Supper, Judas is said to have gone to the chief priests and agreed to hand over Jesus in exchange for 30 silver coins,


Question: who sold out jesus for 30 pieces of silver

Answer: Judas Iscariot

"The Curse of the Thirty Denarii"
a Christian congregation in Greece, named Nicodemus, would have met Judas Iscariot, who failed so his suicide mentioned in the Bible. On the death of the betrayer of Jesus, he sent one of his followers buried it with his 30 pieces of silver to silver in a place unknown to all. However, one of taxpayers affected by the curse of God would have been preserved in a reliquary in lead, crossing the centuries until its discovery in the chapel. At that time, the two men are being targeted by a sniper, but they come out unscathed. The Inspector Kamantis tells


Question: who sold out jesus for 30 pieces of silver

Answer: Judas Iscariot

Akeldama
Bible (CEB), New Revised Standard Version (NRSV) and Orthodox Jewish Bible (OJB), whilst the Complete Jewish Bible (CJB) uses ""Hakel-D'ma"". The Jerusalem Bible has ""Hakeldama"" but uses the English translation ""Bloody Acre"" in place of ""Field of Blood"", which is otherwise consistently used as the English translation. Christian tradition connects the place with Judas Iscariot, who betrayed Jesus for 30 pieces of silver. According to the Acts of the Apostles () Judas ""acquired a field with the reward of his unjust deed, and falling headfirst he burst open in the middle and all his intestines gushed out. This became known


Question: who sold out jesus for 30 pieces of silver

Answer: Judas Iscariot

"The Passion of the Christ"
blood and drips to the ground while a serpent emerges from Satan's guise. Jesus hears his disciples call for him, and rebukes Satan by crushing the snake's head. Judas Iscariot, another of Jesus' disciples, having received a bribe of 30 pieces of silver, leads a group of temple guards to the forest and betrays Jesus' identity. As the guards arrest Jesus, a fight erupts wherein Peter draws his dagger and slashes the ear of Malchus, one of the guards and a servant of the high priest Caiaphas. Jesus heals Malchus' injury while reprimanding Peter. As the disciples flee, the guards


Question: who sold out jesus for 30 pieces of silver

Answer: Judas Iscariot

"Good Friday"
and ""Hoher Freitag"" (""High Friday, Holy Friday""). In the Nordic countries it is called ""The Long Friday"". In Greek, Polish and Hungarian, Good Friday is generally referred to as ""Great Friday"" (""Μεγάλη Περασκευή"", ""Wielki Piątek"", ""Nagypéntek""). According to the accounts in the Gospels, the royal soldiers, guided by Jesus' disciple Judas Iscariot, arrested Jesus in the Garden of Gethsemane. Judas received money (30 pieces of silver) () for betraying Jesus and told the guards that whomever he kisses is the one they are to arrest. Following his arrest, Jesus was taken to the house of Annas, the father-in-law of the


Question: who sold out jesus for 30 pieces of silver

Answer: Judas Iscariot

"Color of the Cross"
Judas Iscariot (Johann John Jean), one of Jesus' followers, betrays him for a payment of 30 pieces of silver by revealing his hiding place from the Romans to Caiphas. Against the wishes of his fellow members in not involving the Romans into the matter, Caiphas recruits a group of Roman soldiers led by Horatius (David Gianopoulos), to capture Jesus. Earlier, Jesus along with his disciples left the Jewish guest home to seek refuge in the Garden of Gethsemane within the mountains of Judea. Following his capture with the aid of Judas, Horatius leads Jesus away to a presumed trial before


Question: who sold out jesus for 30 pieces of silver

Answer: Judas Iscariot

"Bargain of Judas"
Bargain of Judas The Bargain of Judas is a biblical episode related to the life of Jesus which is recorded in all three Synoptic Gospels, , and . It relates how Judas Iscariot made a bargain with the Jewish chief priests to betray Jesus. The Gospel of Matthew specifies that Judas received thirty pieces of silver: Then one of the Twelve — the one called Judas Iscariot — went to the chief priests and asked, ""What are you willing to give me if I hand him over to you?"" So they counted out for him thirty silver coins. From then


Question: who sold out jesus for 30 pieces of silver

Answer: Judas Iscariot

"Roc (mythology)"
king to complete the Temple. This piece of wood also is said to have transformed the Queen of Sheba's foot from that of a goat to that of a human. The piece of wood that the rukh brought was therefore given an honored place in the Temple and decorated with silver rings. According to tradition, these silver rings were given to Judas Iscariot as payment for betraying Jesus; the piece of wood became Jesus's cross. The roc appears in several different film adaptations of the adventures of the hero Sinbad, most notably in the film ""The 7th Voyage of Sinbad""


Question: who sold out jesus for 30 pieces of silver

Answer: Judas Iscariot

"The Librarian: Curse of the Judas Chalice"
the town, and the two quickly form a romantic attachment. The following day, Flynn goes to a local barbershop and has a brief discussion with Judson, who has appeared in New Orleans to fill him in on the unfolding conspiracy and provide answers about the previous night's attack. The Judas Chalice is the sacrilegious vampire version of the Holy Grail, formed from the 30 pieces of silver given to Judas Iscariot after he betrayed Jesus Christ. Revealing that vampires exist, Judson advises Flynn to intercept the chalice before Sergei Kubichek and his men do. In doing so, he also gives


Question: who sold out jesus for 30 pieces of silver

Answer: Judas Iscariot

"Judas Iscariot"
the words of eternal life,"" but Jesus observed then that although Judas was one of the twelve whom he had chosen, he was ""a devil."" Matthew directly states that Judas betrayed Jesus for a bribe of ""thirty pieces of silver"" by identifying him with a kiss – ""the kiss of Judas"" – to arresting soldiers of the High Priest Caiaphas, who then turned Jesus over to Pontius Pilate's soldiers. Mark's Gospel states that the chief priests were looking for a way to arrest Jesus. They decided not to do so during the feast [of the Passover], since they were afraid


Question: who sold out jesus for 30 pieces of silver

Answer: Judas Iscariot

"Rothschild loans to the Holy See"
Pope's feet. The Rothschilds are assuredly nobler than their ancestor Judas Iscariot. He sold Christ for 30 small pieces of silver: the Rothschilds would buy Him, if He were for sale."" Another prominent example, is the mention of the loan in a sonnet of Giuseppe Gioachino Belli, ""Er motivio de li guai"". While Belli found the Rothschilds highly objectionable, for him the Pope was even worse as a weak man who had ""sold both Rome and the State"" and was thus no longer worthy of wearing the Papal robes. Pope Gregory XVI appointed Cardinal Antonio Tosti as the new Papal


Question: who has the most big ten championships in football

Answer: Michigan

"2015 Big Ten Football Championship Game"
2015 Big Ten Football Championship Game The 2015 Big Ten Football Championship Game was a college football game that was played on December 5, 2015 at Lucas Oil Stadium in Indianapolis, Indiana. It was the fifth annual Big Ten Football Championship Game and it determined the 2015 champion of the Big Ten Conference. The game featured the Michigan State Spartans, co–champions of the East Division, and the Iowa Hawkeyes, champions of the West Division. Michigan State defeated Iowa 16–13 to win its second Big Ten Championship in three years. The 2015 Championship Game was the fifth in the Big Ten's


Question: who has the most big ten championships in football

Answer: Michigan

"2015 Big Ten Football Championship Game"
season in 93 years. 2015 Big Ten Football Championship Game The 2015 Big Ten Football Championship Game was a college football game that was played on December 5, 2015 at Lucas Oil Stadium in Indianapolis, Indiana. It was the fifth annual Big Ten Football Championship Game and it determined the 2015 champion of the Big Ten Conference. The game featured the Michigan State Spartans, co–champions of the East Division, and the Iowa Hawkeyes, champions of the West Division. Michigan State defeated Iowa 16–13 to win its second Big Ten Championship in three years. The 2015 Championship Game was the fifth


Question: who has the most big ten championships in football

Answer: Michigan

"2018 Big Ten Football Championship Game"
No. 20 Wisconsin, and No. 21 Iowa); they clinched their first-ever Big Ten Championship berth with their win against Iowa. With the regular season finale remaining, the Wildcats have a record of 8–4, 8–1 in Big Ten play. The Ohio State Buckeyes represented the Big Ten East Division in the game. Ohio State secured the spot with a 62–39 win over fourth-ranked Michigan. 2018 Big Ten Football Championship Game The 2018 Big Ten Football Championship Game was played on December 1, 2018 at Lucas Oil Stadium in Indianapolis, Indiana. The eighth annual Big Ten Football Championship Game, it determined the


Question: who has the most big ten championships in football

Answer: Michigan

"Michigan Wolverines football"
other seasons: 1879, 1880, 1884, 1885, 1886, 1887, 1898, 1910, 1922, 1930, 1973, 1992. The following is a list of Michigan's 42 conference championships as of 2017. † Co-champions Since 2011, Big Ten has moved to divisions to ultimately decide who would play for the conference championship. The divisions were known as Legends and Leaders from 2011 to 2013. In 2014, the divisions were realigned geographically into East and West. Michigan competes in the Big Ten East. Michigan has shared one division title. Twenty-six Heisman Trophy candidates have played at Michigan, Three have won the award: Michigan Most Valuable Player


Question: who has the most big ten championships in football

Answer: Michigan

"2013 Big Ten Football Championship Game"
2013 Big Ten Football Championship Game The 2013 Big Ten Football Championship Game was a college football game that was played on December 7, 2013 at Lucas Oil Stadium in Indianapolis, Indiana. It was the third annual Big Ten Football Championship Game, and determined the 2013 champion of the Big Ten Conference (B1G). The game featured the Leaders Division champion Ohio State Buckeyes against the Legends Division champion Michigan State Spartans. Michigan State defeated Ohio State 34–24, to win the Big Ten Championship, and represent the conference in the 100th Rose Bowl game on January 1, 2014. The upset loss


Question: who has the most big ten championships in football

Answer: Michigan

"Michigan State Spartans men's basketball"
(NIT) five times. Their combined record is 6–6. Michigan State has won 14 Big Ten regular-season championships, the seventh-most in Big Ten history. Michigan State has won five Big Ten Tournament championships since its inception in 1998, the most championships in the Big Ten. The Spartans have appeared in six championship games, only losing the 2015 championship to Wisconsin. Michigan State has appeared in the quarterfinals of every Big Ten Tournament. ""<nowiki>*</nowiki>"" Michigan State only has losing records against three Big Ten teams. Spartans formerly or currently in the NBA include: Tom Izzo's teams have worn many different styles of


Question: who has the most big ten championships in football

Answer: Michigan

"2018 Big Ten Football Championship Game"
2018 Big Ten Football Championship Game The 2018 Big Ten Football Championship Game was played on December 1, 2018 at Lucas Oil Stadium in Indianapolis, Indiana. The eighth annual Big Ten Football Championship Game, it determined the 2018 champion of the Big Ten Conference. The 2018 Championship Game was the eighth in the Big Ten's 123-year history and the fifth to feature the conference's East and West alignment. After starting 1–3 with losses to Duke, Akron, and No. 14 Michigan, the Wildcats rebounded to win six of their next seven, including three wins over ranked teams (No. 20 Michigan State,


Question: who has the most big ten championships in football

Answer: Michigan

"Illinois–Michigan football series"
Illinois–Michigan football series The Illinois–Michigan football series is an American college football series between the Illinois Fighting Illini and Michigan Wolverines. The series dates back to 1898 and features two long-time Big Ten members, with Illinois claiming five national championships, 15 Big Ten Conference titles, and 24 consensus All-Americans, and Michigan claiming 11 national championships, 42 Big Ten titles, and 81 consensus All-Americans. Michigan leads the series 70–23–2. For Illinois, Michigan is its third-most played opponent, trailing only Northwestern (108 games) and Ohio State (101 games). For Michigan, Illinois is its fourth-most played opponent, behind Ohio State (111 games), Michigan


Question: who has the most big ten championships in football

Answer: Michigan

"1930 Big Ten Conference football season"
of four consecutive Michigan teams to win or tie for the Big Ten championship, losing only one game from 1930 to 1933. The 1930 Northwestern Wildcats football team, under head coach Dick Hanley, compiled a 7–1 record, tied with Michigan for the Big Ten championship, and was ranked No. 4 in the Dickinson System. End Frank Baker was a consensus first-team All-American. Guard Wade Woodworth and fullback Lafayette Russell also received first-team All-American honors from multiple selectors. Ohio State end Wes Fesler won the ""Chicago Tribune"" Silver Football trophy as the most valuable player in the Big Ten and was


Question: who has the most big ten championships in football

Answer: Michigan

"2015 Big Ten Football Championship Game"
120-year history, and the second to feature the conference's East and West division alignment. Iowa made its first appearance in the conference championship game, while Michigan State made its third appearance (L in 2011, W in 2013). To date, this game holds the Big Ten Football Championship Game attendance record. Iowa came into the Big Ten Championship Game with a 12-0 record and a #4 ranking in the AP Poll. The Hawkeyes were led by junior QB C.J. Beathard and 2015 Big Ten Defensive Back of the Year, junior CB Desmond King, who tied the school record and led the


Question: who has the most big ten championships in football

Answer: Michigan

"2011 Big Ten Football Championship Game"
2011 Big Ten Football Championship Game The 2011 Big Ten Football Championship Game was a college football game. It was played on December 3, 2011, at Lucas Oil Stadium in Indianapolis, Indiana, to determine the 2011 champion of the Big Ten Conference. The Wisconsin Badgers of the Leaders Division beat the Michigan State Spartans of the Legends Division by a score of 42–39. By winning the game, Wisconsin earned a berth in the 2012 Rose Bowl. The game was the first football championship game ever played in the Big Ten's 115-year history. The game was played in prime time and


Question: a synonym for the content component of communication is

Answer: information

"Enterprise content management"
multiple users, even when those users are working on the same content item. They make use of knowledge based on skills, resources and background data for joint information processing. Administration components, such as virtual whiteboards for brainstorming, appointment scheduling, and project management systems, communications application such as video conferencing, etc., may be included. Collaborative ECM may also integrate information from other applications, permitting joint information processing. The scope of Enterprise content management integrates Web content management systems. WCM as ECM component is used to present information already existing and managed in the ECM repository. However, information presented via Web technologies—on


Question: a synonym for the content component of communication is

Answer: information

Infocommunications
The convergence process is triggered by the huge scale development of digital technology. Digital technology has unified, Internet technology radically reshaped telecommunications, integrated information processing and content management functions. The term ""infocommunications"" is also used in politics in a wider sense as a shorter form of information and communication(s) technology (ICT). The terms info-com(s) and info-communications (with a hyphen) are also used to express the integration of the information technology (IT) and (tele)communication sectors, or simply to interpret the abbreviation ICT. The term ""Information and Communication(s) Technology (ICT)"" has been defined as an extended synonym for information technology (IT) to