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503
2,020
80
An 8-year-old boy consults for the appearance of pubic hair at the base of the penis for the last 12 months. The testicle has not increased in volume and the penis has not increased in size. There is no increase in growth rate in the last year. The bone age is one year older than the chronological age. What is the most likely diagnosis?
In the male, the onset of puberty is considered normal from the age of 9 years, therefore in this case it is a premature puberty. The onset of puberty is defined as an increase in testicular volume (greater than or equal to 4cc); by specifying that the testicular size has not increased, we can rule out options 1 and 2. The excessive secretion of androgens produced by an adrenal tumor would cause a greater amount of hair and an increase in penile size, which our patient does not present. Therefore, the correct option is early adrenarche.
PEDIATRICS
{ "1": "Central precocious puberty.", "2": "Peripheral precocious puberty.", "3": "Early adrenarche.", "4": "Adrenal tumor.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 321, 542 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 60, 96 ] ], "text": "The excessive secretion of androgens produced by an adrenal tumor would cause a greater amount of hair and an increase in penile size, which our patient does not present. Therefore, the correct option is early adrenarche." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 321, 542 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 60, 96 ] ], "text": "The excessive secretion of androgens produced by an adrenal tumor would cause a greater amount of hair and an increase in penile size, which our patient does not present. Therefore, the correct option is early adrenarche." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 321, 542 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 60, 96 ] ], "text": "The excessive secretion of androgens produced by an adrenal tumor would cause a greater amount of hair and an increase in penile size, which our patient does not present. Therefore, the correct option is early adrenarche." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
300
2,016
106
A 32-year-old man from Cameroon consults for fever cough and left hemithorax pain of 1 month's evolution. He took amoxicillin-clavulanic acid for 1 week without improvement of symptoms. A blood test showed a white blood cell count of 8000/microL and a hemoglobin of 12.8 g/dL. Chest X-ray showed a loculated left pleural effusion occupying one third of the hemithorax. A thoracentesis shows a yellowish fluid with the following features: red blood cells 2000/uL, leukocytes 2500/uL, with 90% lymphocytes, protein 4.9 g/dL, lactate dehydrogenase 550 U/L, glucose 67 mg/dL, and absence of malignant cells on cytology. Which of the following tests would be most useful in diagnosing the cause of the pleural effusion?
The determination of ADA, in the presence of a pneumonia of long evolution that does not improve with antibiotic treatment, with an effusion with abundant leukocytes and lymphocytic predominance, in which the presence of neoplasia is ruled out, with values higher than 70 UI/L, should lead us to have a high degree of suspicion about tuberculous etiology and send the pleural fluid to microbiology for tuberculosis study.
INFECTIOUS DISEASES
{ "1": "A thoracic computed tomography (CT) scan.", "2": "Pleural fluid pH measurement.", "3": "Measurement of adenosine deaminase in pleural fluid.", "4": "Tuberculin test.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 421 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 67 ] ], "text": "The determination of ADA, in the presence of a pneumonia of long evolution that does not improve with antibiotic treatment, with an effusion with abundant leukocytes and lymphocytic predominance, in which the presence of neoplasia is ruled out, with values higher than 70 UI/L, should lead us to have a high degree of suspicion about tuberculous etiology and send the pleural fluid to microbiology for tuberculosis study." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
434
2,018
119
A 38-year-old woman of veterinary profession, in charge of monitoring wild animals and assisting in the delivery of domestic livestock. She starts with a high fever with chills, headache, myalgia and non-productive cough that she interprets as a flu-like process. She presented with chest pain. Chest X-ray showed bilateral pulmonary infiltrates in lower fields. A serologic test was performed with elevated antibody titers against phase I antigens. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
Acute infection by Coxiella burnetii manifested in this case by Pneumonia. Coxiella infection is not transmitted by ticks. The contact can be with high probability at the time of delivery of an infected farm animal, in which the bacterium is disseminated in aerosols. The treatment of choice is with doxycycline in the acute phase (if meningitis is present, quinolones are preferred due to penetration of the blood-brain barrier). The combination of doxycycline plus hicroxychloroquine can be used, but for chronic Q fever (which is where elevation of antibodies against phase I antigens is observed and carries a higher risk of mortality).
INFECTIOUS DISEASES AND MICROBIOLOGY
{ "1": "The way of transmission of this entity is by ticks.", "2": "Both doxycycline and hydroxychloroquine are effective in treating acute forms of this disease.", "3": "In its acute form it also presents, generally, elevation of antibodies against phase I antigens.", "4": "Mortality in acute forms is almost nonexistent.", "5": null }
4
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 75, 122 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 11, 18 ] ], "text": "Coxiella infection is not transmitted by ticks." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 431, 640 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 68, 101 ] ], "text": "The combination of doxycycline plus hicroxychloroquine can be used, but for chronic Q fever (which is where elevation of antibodies against phase I antigens is observed and carries a higher risk of mortality)." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
563
2,022
175
A 62-year-old patient who consults because of close contact in recent weeks with a person with active tuberculosis. Mantoux test is positive (12 mm). His history includes treatment with oral anticoagulants (acenocoumarol) for a deep vein thrombosis a few months ago. He does not report fever or cough and is asymptomatic. Chest X-ray is normal. Which of the following treatments is the most advisable?
As of 2018, there are four dosing schedules for treatment of latent TB infection recommended by the CDC using isoniazid (INH), rifapentine (RPT) or rifampin (RIF). All treatments are effective. Health care providers should prescribe the shorter treatments, which are more convenient, whenever possible. The shortest combination would be Isoniazid + Rifapentine for three months or Rifampicin for four months. However, the fact that he is taking acenocoumarol means that the indication for this patient is Isoniazid for 9 months, since there is interaction between the rifamycin derivatives (rifapentine and rifampicin).
PREVENTIVE MEDICINE
{ "1": "Isoniazid, for nine months.", "2": "Rifampicin, for four months.", "3": "Isoniazid and rifampicin, for three months.", "4": "Isoniazid and rifapentine, for three months.", "5": null }
4
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
89
2,012
57
A 64-year-old man consults for right calf pain when climbing hills and stairs and when walking on level ground for a prolonged period of time. He reports that the pain becomes so intense with exertion that he is forced to stand up, which causes the pain to improve in a matter of minutes. As personal history, the patient is a smoker of 20 cigarettes a day, diabetic on metformin and hypertensive. On examination, there is good peripheral perfusion of the right foot, but the patient has a decreased pedal pulse. Which of the following complementary tests should be ordered initially for the diagnosis and assessment of the severity of the patient's disease?
Although the diagnosis of peripheral arteriopathy is fundamentally clinical (in this patient the picture is very typical), we can objectively assess the severity of the disease with the use of bloodless techniques. The most important is the ankle-brachial index. Therefore, answer 2 is correct. Imaging techniques (arteriography, angioCT or angioMRI) are used when surgical repair of arterial occlusion is considered.
CARDIOLOGY AND VASCULAR SURGERY
{ "1": "Arteriography of lower extremities.", "2": "Ankle-brachial index.", "3": "Computerized axial tomography with vascular reconstruction of lower extremities.", "4": "Tape stress test.", "5": "Magnetic resonance imaging." }
2
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 295, 417 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 44, 60 ] ], "text": "Imaging techniques (arteriography, angioCT or angioMRI) are used when surgical repair of arterial occlusion is considered." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 123, 262 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 17, 39 ] ], "text": "we can objectively assess the severity of the disease with the use of bloodless techniques. The most important is the ankle-brachial index." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
586
2,022
75
A 30-year-old woman requesting a contraceptive method. She has a history of an emergency cesarean section 7 months ago, giving birth to a 3,550 g baby girl. She is exclusively breastfeeding. Point out the correct statement:
Given her circumstances and taking into account that she is exclusively breastfeeding, the best thing to do would be to prescribe only gestagens.
OBSTETRICS AND GYNECOLOGY
{ "1": "Explain to her that, if she is amenorrheic, she does not require another contraceptive method since breastfeeding is sufficient as a contraceptive method.", "2": "He informed her that the levonogestrel IUD is contraindicated because she had a cesarean section less than a year ago.", "3": "He explains that she could use a gestagen-only hormonal method.", "4": "She is offered combined hormonal contraception.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 145 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 23 ] ], "text": "Given her circumstances and taking into account that she is exclusively breastfeeding, the best thing to do would be to prescribe only gestagens." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
461
2,018
148
A 59-year-old woman with recent onset of epileptic seizures comes to the emergency department. On examination she presents left pyramidal signs and papillary edema. A brain MRI shows a right hemispheric mass with edema, midline deviation and signs of tentorial herniation. She reports that for the past week she has been suffering from headache that has been progressing in intensity. Which of the following features associated with headache seems most likely for this patient?
It is a headache in the context of papilledema. In this case the papilledema is due to increased intracranial pressure due to a tumor. The headache due to increased intracranial pressure is of positional type (it increases with Valsalva maneuvers and when bending down), so option 2 is not correct. In addition, it is predominantly morning (option 1 is correct) because in the morning intracranial pressure naturally rises. Migraine-type headaches may be associated with photophobia or sonophobia (answers 3 and 4). But this headache is not a migraine headache.
OPHTHALMOLOGY (ECTOPIC)
{ "1": "Morning predominance.", "2": "It does not change with effort.", "3": "Photophobia.", "4": "Sonophobia.", "5": null }
1
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 299, 423 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 50, 68 ] ], "text": "In addition, it is predominantly morning (option 1 is correct) because in the morning intracranial pressure naturally rises." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 135, 298 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 24, 50 ] ], "text": "The headache due to increased intracranial pressure is of positional type (it increases with Valsalva maneuvers and when bending down), so option 2 is not correct." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 424, 561 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 68, 89 ] ], "text": "Migraine-type headaches may be associated with photophobia or sonophobia (answers 3 and 4). But this headache is not a migraine headache." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 424, 561 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 68, 89 ] ], "text": "Migraine-type headaches may be associated with photophobia or sonophobia (answers 3 and 4). But this headache is not a migraine headache." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
547
2,022
125
A 23-year-old male diagnosed with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome who comes to the emergency department for palpitations. The ECG shows an irregular wide QRS tachycardia, with a heart rate of 205 bpm, compatible with pre-excited atrial fibrillation. Which of the following drugs do you consider appropriate to stop the tachycardia:
Procainamide. The treatment of choice for Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is cardioversion with direct current. Heart rate slowing drugs, commonly used in atrial fibrillation, are ineffective, and digoxin and non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (e.g., verapamil, diltiazem) are contraindicated because they may increase the ventricular rate and cause ventricular fibrillation. If cardioversion is not possible, drugs that prolong the refractory period of accessory connection should be used. IV procainamide or amiodarone is preferred, but any class Ia, Ic or III antiarrhythmic drug can be used.
CARDIOLOGY
{ "1": "Verapamil.", "2": "Digoxin.", "3": "Adenosine.", "4": "Procainamide.", "5": null }
4
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 196, 384 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 25, 47 ] ], "text": "digoxin and non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (e.g., verapamil, diltiazem) are contraindicated because they may increase the ventricular rate and cause ventricular fibrillation." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 196, 384 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 25, 47 ] ], "text": "digoxin and non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (e.g., verapamil, diltiazem) are contraindicated because they may increase the ventricular rate and cause ventricular fibrillation." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 111, 191 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 13, 24 ] ], "text": "Heart rate slowing drugs, commonly used in atrial fibrillation, are ineffective," }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 385, 543 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 47, 70 ] ], "text": "If cardioversion is not possible, drugs that prolong the refractory period of accessory connection should be used. IV procainamide or amiodarone is preferred," }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
193
2,013
161
In a 3-month-old infant all the clinical manifestations outlined below would make it necessary to rule out cystic fibrosis, EXCEPT:
Dehydration may be due to diarrhea of other etiologies. I have doubts about answer 3 since it does not specify which secretions are involved. We have to understand that the growth of Pseudomona aeruginosa is in the culture of bronchial secretions. Because clearly the indication to perform a sweat chlorine (to rule out FQP) are the HIPOnatremic dehydrations and not the hypernatremic ones as the answer says.
PEDIATRICS
{ "1": "Delayed meconium evacuation.", "2": "Salty taste of the skin.", "3": "Isolation of secretions of Pseudomonas aeruginosa.", "4": "Deterioration/detention of the weight curve.", "5": "Hypernatremic dehydration." }
5
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 256, 409 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 42, 67 ] ], "text": "clearly the indication to perform a sweat chlorine (to rule out FQP) are the HIPOnatremic dehydrations and not the hypernatremic ones as the answer says." } }
431
2,018
116
A 38-year-old man comes to the emergency department with fever above 39ºC and deterioration of consciousness after a trip to Equatorial Guinea without antimalarial prophylaxis. Laboratory tests showed creatinine 3.4 mg/dL, AST 764 UlL, ALT 678 UlL. The laboratory reports the visualization of Plasmodium falciparum in the blood with a parasitemia level of 6%. What treatment would you initiate at this time?
In severe cases of Plasmodium infection, the greatest risk of mortality occurs in the first 24 hours of clinical presentation, so treatment should be started immediately. Treatment with parenteral or intramuscular artesunate is more indicated in severe Plasmodium infection, both in adults and children and in pregnant women.
INFECTIOUS DISEASES AND MICROBIOLOGY
{ "1": "Mefloquine orally.", "2": "Intravenous artesunate.", "3": "Doxycycline orally.", "4": "Oral quinine sulfate.", "5": null }
2
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 325 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 48 ] ], "text": "In severe cases of Plasmodium infection, the greatest risk of mortality occurs in the first 24 hours of clinical presentation, so treatment should be started immediately. Treatment with parenteral or intramuscular artesunate is more indicated in severe Plasmodium infection, both in adults and children and in pregnant women." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
569
2,022
152
24-year-old male presenting with dysmorphic microhematuria, proteinuria of 3 g/24 h, eGFR (CKD-EPI) 85 ml/min and sensorineural hearing loss. He reports that his maternal grandmother required dialysis at 70 years of age and both his mother and younger sister have isolated microhematuria. Which of the following diseases is more likely?
Textbook case, little to add. Microhematuria, proteinuria and sensorineural hearing loss in a young male with a family history of women with hematuria = Alport syndrome.
NEPHROLOGY
{ "1": "Alport syndrome.", "2": "IgA nephropathy.", "3": "Fabry disease.", "4": "Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease.", "5": null }
1
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 30, 169 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 5, 26 ] ], "text": "Microhematuria, proteinuria and sensorineural hearing loss in a young male with a family history of women with hematuria = Alport syndrome." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
501
2,020
76
A 5-year-old boy diagnosed with chronic renal failure. He comes to the emergency department with vomiting, malaise, and palpitations. An electrocardiogram was performed with T-wave elevation and blood tests showed potassium levels of 5.9 mEq/L. Immediate administration of calcium gluconate is decided. What is the purpose of this treatment?
Calcium gluconate has no effect on blood potassium levels (therefore options 1, 2 and 3 are ruled out). Its function is to decrease the excitability of cardiac myocytes to decrease the likelihood of developing heart rhythm disorders.
PEDIATRICS
{ "1": "Encourage the displacement of potassium from the plasma space to the intracellular space.", "2": "Chelate circulating potassium to favor its hepatic elimination.", "3": "Chelate circulating potassium to favor its renal elimination.", "4": "Antagonize the action of potassium on the myocardial cell membrane.", "5": null }
4
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 103 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 18 ] ], "text": "Calcium gluconate has no effect on blood potassium levels (therefore options 1, 2 and 3 are ruled out)." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 103 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 18 ] ], "text": "Calcium gluconate has no effect on blood potassium levels (therefore options 1, 2 and 3 are ruled out)." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 103 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 18 ] ], "text": "Calcium gluconate has no effect on blood potassium levels (therefore options 1, 2 and 3 are ruled out)." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 104, 233 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 18, 37 ] ], "text": "Its function is to decrease the excitability of cardiac myocytes to decrease the likelihood of developing heart rhythm disorders." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
242
2,014
111
A 50-year-old man with chronic bronchitis is admitted for pneumonia with positive blood culture for Streptococcus pneumoniae, with an MIC to penicillin of 0.0125 mg/l. Treatment was started with penicillin 2 million every 4h. On the fifth day, she still has a fever of 38ºC. Which of the following decisions do you think is correct?
The patient is a man with pneumonia with isolated germ in blood culture and antibiogram. According to the data provided, it is a pneumococcus sensitive to penicillin (MIC < 0.125), so treatment is started with penicillin at high doses every 4 h, despite which the fever persists. If we analyze the case carefully, the treatment should be effective since the germ is totally sensitive to the drug and the dosage is adequate (so that high concentrations of the drug should be maintained at all times, remember that the efficacy of beta-lactams is time-dependent and the antibiotic concentrations in blood should be above the MIC permanently to achieve effectiveness and avoid the production of resistance). In such a case, what could be happening, probably, although the antibiotic is the right one, it is not reaching the infectious focus adequately because an empyema has probably occurred. We should rule out the existence of an empyema and drain it while continuing with the antibiotic treatment. If the dosage had not been adequate and the presence of drug resistance was possible, one option could have been to treat with ceftriaxone at high doses, since we should remember that streptococcus does not produce beta-lactamase and beta-lactam resistance is produced by another mechanism (using amoxicillin-clavulanate would not provide us with anything). With quinolone we do not increase the spectrum and it is evident that the poor evolution of the patient is not only a problem of time.
INFECTIOUS DISEASES
{ "1": "I would change the treatment to ceftriaxone because of its greater efficacy.", "2": "I would add a quinolone to the treatment.", "3": "I would switch to amoxicillin/clavulanic acid.", "4": "It would rule out the presence of pleural empyema.", "5": "I would continue with the same treatment, assuming it is simply a timing issue." }
4
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 999, 1228 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 162, 199 ] ], "text": "If the dosage had not been adequate and the presence of drug resistance was possible, one option could have been to treat with ceftriaxone at high doses, since we should remember that streptococcus does not produce beta-lactamase" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 1357, 1491 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 215, 241 ] ], "text": "With quinolone we do not increase the spectrum and it is evident that the poor evolution of the patient is not only a problem of time." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 1233, 1356 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 200, 215 ] ], "text": "beta-lactam resistance is produced by another mechanism (using amoxicillin-clavulanate would not provide us with anything)." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 756, 998 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 123, 162 ] ], "text": "although the antibiotic is the right one, it is not reaching the infectious focus adequately because an empyema has probably occurred. We should rule out the existence of an empyema and drain it while continuing with the antibiotic treatment." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
487
2,020
68
What genetic and reproductive counseling would you indicate to a 30-year-old woman who consults because she is a carrier of a premutation in the FMR1 gene, responsible for Fragile X syndrome, and who wishes to have offspring. Point out the correct answer:
Another classic MIR, asked in 2019 and in 2017, fragile X syndrome. Also, on the same concept as question 44, the phenomenon of genetic anticipation. Triplet expansion diseases, such as this one, can have the anticipation phenomenon whereby females with premutations (between 55-200 repeats) can have children with full mutations (more than 200 repeats of the triplet) and more obvious, more severe and/or earlier clinical, in both males and females (Fragile X syndrome, early ovarian failure, tremor/ataxia associated with Fragile X).
GENETICS
{ "1": "All her male children will be carriers and, therefore, will manifest the disease.", "2": "There is a phenomenon of genetic anticipation, so their offspring will present more severe and earlier symptoms.", "3": "Preimplantation genetic diagnosis for sex selection of embryos by fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) is the best option for healthy offspring.", "4": "50% of her daughters will be carriers, but will not present clinical manifestations of the disease.", "5": null }
2
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 150, 535 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 25, 81 ] ], "text": "Triplet expansion diseases, such as this one, can have the anticipation phenomenon whereby females with premutations (between 55-200 repeats) can have children with full mutations (more than 200 repeats of the triplet) and more obvious, more severe and/or earlier clinical, in both males and females (Fragile X syndrome, early ovarian failure, tremor/ataxia associated with Fragile X)." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
364
2,016
176
A 78-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes treated with oral antidiabetics, hypertension treated with beta-blockers and ACE inhibitors, and NYHA grade 1 congestive heart failure with LVEF of 48%, and currently asymptomatic. Functional status: ECOG 0. History of 2 years of evolution of small lumps in the neck. Biopsy of cervical adenopathy: follicular lymphoma grade 2. Extension study: Hb 12 g/dL, Leukocytes 6,900/microL (Neutrophils 60%, Lymphocytes 27%, Monocytes 6%, Eosinophils 4%, Basophils 4%), Platelets 220,000/microL. MO: infiltrate by follicular lymphoma. Creatinine 1.5 mg/dL, LDH 235 U/L, Beta2 microglobulin 2.1 microg/mL. CT: lymphadenopathies less than 3 cm in cervical, axillary, retroperitoneal, iliac and inguinal territories; liver and spleen are normal. Which of the following treatments is the most appropriate?
There may be debate about whether to start Rituximab with another cytostatic drug or in monotherapy, but given the lack of survival benefit with early initiation of treatment, the NCCN guidelines recommend waiting and seeing, unless GELF criteria are met to initiate treatment: GELF criteria (Follicular Lymphoma Study Group): - Involvement of ≥3 nodal areas, each with a diameter ≥ 3 cm. - Any nodal or extranodal mass with a diameter ≥ 7 cm. - B symptoms. - Splenomegaly. - Pleural effusion or ascites. - Cytopenias (leukocytes < 1.0 x 109 / L and/or platelets < 100 x 109 / L). - Leukemia (> 5.0 x 109 /L of malignant cells).
HEMATOLOGY
{ "1": "Rituximab-CHOP (Cyclophosphamide, Adriamycin, Vincristine, Prednisone).", "2": "Rituximab-CVP (Cyclophosphamide, Vincristine, Prednisone).", "3": "Do not treat and monitor (wait and see).", "4": "Rituxirnab-Bendamustine.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 225 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 35 ] ], "text": "There may be debate about whether to start Rituximab with another cytostatic drug or in monotherapy, but given the lack of survival benefit with early initiation of treatment, the NCCN guidelines recommend waiting and seeing," }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 225 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 35 ] ], "text": "There may be debate about whether to start Rituximab with another cytostatic drug or in monotherapy, but given the lack of survival benefit with early initiation of treatment, the NCCN guidelines recommend waiting and seeing," }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 225 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 35 ] ], "text": "There may be debate about whether to start Rituximab with another cytostatic drug or in monotherapy, but given the lack of survival benefit with early initiation of treatment, the NCCN guidelines recommend waiting and seeing," }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 225 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 35 ] ], "text": "There may be debate about whether to start Rituximab with another cytostatic drug or in monotherapy, but given the lack of survival benefit with early initiation of treatment, the NCCN guidelines recommend waiting and seeing," }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
90
2,012
32
A 35-year-old woman is diagnosed with colon cancer located in the hepatic angle. She has a family history of colon cancer in her mother, an aunt at the age of 45 and a grandfather. The most accepted surgical intervention is:
The statement with the family history indicates that this is a case of hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (Lynch syndrome). The age and right location data lead us to answer 4: total colectomy with ileorectal anastomosis. If a conventional right hemicolectomy type surgery is performed, the chances of recurrence are higher than 30%. Excision of the rectum is not necessary prophylactically.
GENERAL SURGERY
{ "1": "Right hemicolectomy.", "2": "Extended right hemicolectomy.", "3": "Subtotal colectomy.", "4": "Total colectomy with ileorectal anatomosis.", "5": "Total colectomy with ileoanal anatomy." }
4
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 131, 228 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 19, 35 ] ], "text": "The age and right location data lead us to answer 4: total colectomy with ileorectal anastomosis." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
528
2,021
134
53-year-old woman with a personal history of obesity and migraine. Her blood pressure has been taken repeatedly at the doctor's and nurse's office, presenting figures below 140/90 mmHg. However, an approved blood pressure measuring device has been purchased and she has been taught how to use it correctly. He comes in showing blood pressure recordings taken at home over several weeks with values above 140/90 mmHg. Mark the correct answer:
The patient described is the definition of masked HT, normal figures in consultation and elevated on AMPA or ABPM (option 2 correct). It is not secondary HT because no study has been done to confirm it (option 1 incorrect). It is not isolated HT because the elevated figures are maintained for several weeks (option 3 incorrect). It is not refractory HT because it has not yet been treated (option 4 incorrect).
NEPHROLOGY
{ "1": "She has secondary hypertension.", "2": "Presents masked arterial hypertension.", "3": "Presents isolated clinical hypertension.", "4": "Presents refractory arterial hypertension.", "5": null }
2
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 134, 223 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 22, 39 ] ], "text": "It is not secondary HT because no study has been done to confirm it (option 1 incorrect)." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 133 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 22 ] ], "text": "The patient described is the definition of masked HT, normal figures in consultation and elevated on AMPA or ABPM (option 2 correct)." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 224, 329 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 39, 56 ] ], "text": "It is not isolated HT because the elevated figures are maintained for several weeks (option 3 incorrect)." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 330, 411 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 56, 71 ] ], "text": "It is not refractory HT because it has not yet been treated (option 4 incorrect)." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
583
2,022
70
A 43-year-old woman with a levonorgestrel intrauterine device who consults for lack of rest at night with the appearance of heat and palpitations. In the analytical analysis highlights free T4 10.5 pmol/L (9-19), thyrotropin 2.1 mIU/L (0.30-5.00), FSH 95.6 IU/L (1.38-16.7), LH 21 IU/L (2.4-9.3), estradiol < 0.07 nmol/L (0.07 - 1.14). What is the most appropriate treatment?
The hormonal profile we are told is in menopausal range (FSH >20; estradiol <5) and the patient has systemic vasomotor symptoms. Therefore, it would be more appropriate to administer systemic estrogens. To compensate, she already has a local uterine progestin (levonorgestrel IUD).
OBSTETRICS AND GYNECOLOGY
{ "1": "Benzodiazepines.", "2": "Vaginal estrogens.", "3": "Oral estrogens and progestogens in continuous regimen.", "4": "Transdermal estrogens in a continuous regimen.", "5": null }
4
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 202 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 31 ] ], "text": "The hormonal profile we are told is in menopausal range (FSH >20; estradiol <5) and the patient has systemic vasomotor symptoms. Therefore, it would be more appropriate to administer systemic estrogens." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
195
2,013
163
A 15-month-old boy, who during dinner, after eating a bite of tortilla, suddenly presented with facial reddening predominantly perioral, habonous lesions on the trunk and extremities and cough. On arrival at the center, the patient was conscious and, in addition to what was described above, the following were observed: suprasternal twitching, abundant watery rhinorrhea, bilateral hypoventilation without wheezing and capillary refill of less than 2 seconds. Of the following statements, indicate the CORRECT answer:
She is describing egg anaphylaxis, a potentially fatal condition. The treatment of choice is intramuscular adrenaline, and effectively, without wasting too much time. The first thing is INTRAMUSCULAR adrenaline NOW! The venous route, corticosteroids, antihistamines, etc. will come later.
PEDIATRICS
{ "1": "The priority is to cannulate a venous line.", "2": "Intramuscular methylprednisolone is the treatment of choice.", "3": "It is a picture of urticaria associated with asthma, and should be treated with antihistamines and inhaled bronchodilators.", "4": "Parents should be advised to transfer to a hospital emergency department.", "5": "Intramuscular adrenaline should be administered without further delay." }
5
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 167, 288 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 23, 39 ] ], "text": "The first thing is INTRAMUSCULAR adrenaline NOW! The venous route, corticosteroids, antihistamines, etc. will come later." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 167, 288 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 23, 39 ] ], "text": "The first thing is INTRAMUSCULAR adrenaline NOW! The venous route, corticosteroids, antihistamines, etc. will come later." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 167, 288 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 23, 39 ] ], "text": "The first thing is INTRAMUSCULAR adrenaline NOW! The venous route, corticosteroids, antihistamines, etc. will come later." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 167, 288 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 23, 39 ] ], "text": "The first thing is INTRAMUSCULAR adrenaline NOW! The venous route, corticosteroids, antihistamines, etc. will come later." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 166 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 23 ] ], "text": "She is describing egg anaphylaxis, a potentially fatal condition. The treatment of choice is intramuscular adrenaline, and effectively, without wasting too much time." } }
84
2,012
49
A 75-year-old man, hypertensive and dyslipidemic with a history of heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction (EF < 30%). He comes to our office for worsening of his usual dyspnea in recent weeks. His systolic blood pressure is 160/95 mmHg with a heart rate of 65 bpm. In the physical examination no crackles were heard and his jugular venous pressure was normal. He provides a creatinine determination that is 3.7 mg/dL with ions within normal. Which of the following drugs is the most appropriate to improve the prognosis of his heart failure?
In a patient with multiple CVRF with concomitant heart and renal failure (presumably of multiple etiology: renal hypoperfusion, arteriosclerosis...), we must be very careful when using diuretics and ACEI/ARA-II, since we can worsen renal function and/or increase potassium levels (among diuretics, spironolactone and eplerenone are "potassium-sparing"). Therefore, in this case we will use bisoprolol.
CARDIOLOGY AND VASCULAR SURGERY
{ "1": "Enalapril.", "2": "Losartan.", "3": "Spironolactone.", "4": "Bisoprolol.", "5": "Eplerenone." }
4
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 353 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 46 ] ], "text": "In a patient with multiple CVRF with concomitant heart and renal failure (presumably of multiple etiology: renal hypoperfusion, arteriosclerosis...), we must be very careful when using diuretics and ACEI/ARA-II, since we can worsen renal function and/or increase potassium levels (among diuretics, spironolactone and eplerenone are \"potassium-sparing\")." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 353 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 46 ] ], "text": "In a patient with multiple CVRF with concomitant heart and renal failure (presumably of multiple etiology: renal hypoperfusion, arteriosclerosis...), we must be very careful when using diuretics and ACEI/ARA-II, since we can worsen renal function and/or increase potassium levels (among diuretics, spironolactone and eplerenone are \"potassium-sparing\")." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 353 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 46 ] ], "text": "In a patient with multiple CVRF with concomitant heart and renal failure (presumably of multiple etiology: renal hypoperfusion, arteriosclerosis...), we must be very careful when using diuretics and ACEI/ARA-II, since we can worsen renal function and/or increase potassium levels (among diuretics, spironolactone and eplerenone are \"potassium-sparing\")." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 353 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 46 ] ], "text": "In a patient with multiple CVRF with concomitant heart and renal failure (presumably of multiple etiology: renal hypoperfusion, arteriosclerosis...), we must be very careful when using diuretics and ACEI/ARA-II, since we can worsen renal function and/or increase potassium levels (among diuretics, spironolactone and eplerenone are \"potassium-sparing\")." } }
427
2,018
95
A 45-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with confusional symptoms accompanied by dysphonia. On examination she has a palpable neck mass and a blood test shows plasma calcium levels of 15 mg/dL (normal up to 10.2 mg/dL). Given these findings, which of the following diagnoses should be suspected?
Palpable mass in the neck: suspect thyroid/parathyroid pathology. It is associated with hypercalcemia, therefore, the option of medullary thyroid cancer is ruled out (it does not affect the level of calcemia). To think of MEN type I we should associate other pathologies (pituitary, pancreatic or duodenal tumors). The presence of a calcemia higher than 13mgr/dl, together with dysphonia, indicates a malignant tumor (higher calcemia level and infiltration), therefore we opt for option 1.
ENDOCRINOLOGY
{ "1": "Parathyroid carcinoma.", "2": "Medullary thyroid carcinoma.", "3": "MEN type I.", "4": "Parathyroid adenoma.", "5": null }
1
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 315, 489 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 47, 73 ] ], "text": "The presence of a calcemia higher than 13mgr/dl, together with dysphonia, indicates a malignant tumor (higher calcemia level and infiltration), therefore we opt for option 1." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 66, 209 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 8, 31 ] ], "text": "It is associated with hypercalcemia, therefore, the option of medullary thyroid cancer is ruled out (it does not affect the level of calcemia)." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 210, 314 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 31, 47 ] ], "text": "To think of MEN type I we should associate other pathologies (pituitary, pancreatic or duodenal tumors)." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
462
2,018
151
A 13-year-old boy presents with subacute headache and diplopia. Neurologic examination shows vertical gaze palsy and MRI shows a contrast-enhancing lesion in the pineal region obstructing the aqueduct of Sylvian. The most likely diagnosis is:
Diplopia is usually caused by acute or secondary strabismus. Vertical gaze palsy is due to a midbrain lesion. In this case the MRI already places the origin of the symptoms in the pineal gland. The most frequent tumor in this region is the germ cell tumor (answer 3).
OPHTHALMOLOGY (ECTOPIC)
{ "1": "Glioblastoma.", "2": "Medulloblastoma.", "3": "Germ cell tumor.", "4": "Meningioma.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 110, 267 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 18, 48 ] ], "text": "In this case the MRI already places the origin of the symptoms in the pineal gland. The most frequent tumor in this region is the germ cell tumor (answer 3)." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
557
2,022
168
58-year-old male, obese, asymptomatic, moderate drinker, who presents a first baseline blood glucose of 153 mg/d with negative glycosuria. In the following weeks he has had two other baseline blood glucose readings of 118 and 136 mg/dl. Which of the following is the most appropriate approach to confirm the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus:
Diagnostic Criteria for DM according to ISPAD 2018 *Classic symptoms of diabetes with blood glucose > 200mgr/dl or: * Fasting glycemia ≥ 126mgr/dl (fasting at least 8h) or * Glycemia at 2h SOG ≥ 200mgr/dl (on 2 occasions) or * HbA1C ≥ 6.5%.
ENDOCRINOLOGY
{ "1": "Practice a blood glucose curve with 75 g of glucose.", "2": "Already meets diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus.", "3": "Request a determination of basal insulinemia or C-peptide.", "4": "Request a determination of glycosylated hemoglobin.", "5": null }
2
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 240 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 43 ] ], "text": "Diagnostic Criteria for DM according to ISPAD 2018 *Classic symptoms of diabetes with blood glucose > 200mgr/dl or: * Fasting glycemia ≥ 126mgr/dl (fasting at least 8h) or * Glycemia at 2h SOG ≥ 200mgr/dl (on 2 occasions) or * HbA1C ≥ 6.5%." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
35
2,011
68
A 56-year-old patient with no personal or family history of interest is studied because he has been having difficulty walking with his right leg for six months. He reports no other symptoms. The examination shows a 4/5 weakness for dorsal flexion and eversion of the foot and 4/5 for flexion and inversion of the foot, with increased muscle reflexes and Babinski present, the rest being normal. The syndromic diagnosis would be:
Answer 1 incorrect: It does not explain pyramidalism. Answer 2 correct: A nonspecific answer, but probably the correct answer. Answer 3 incorrect: We would lack data to think of a Brown Sequard hemimedullary syndrome. It would explain the pyramidalism, but we would be missing data suggestive of this picture such as a contralateral hypoesthesia. Incorrect answer 4: It could explain the difficulty in dorsiflexion and plantar flexion of the foot, but not the pyramidalism. Incorrect answer 5: In a similar way to the previous one, it could explain part of the clinical picture, but not the pyramidalism.
NEUROLOGY AND NEUROSURGERY
{ "1": "Mononeuropathy of the right common peroneal nerve.", "2": "Focal involvement of the first motor neuron and probably of the second.", "3": "Right hemimedullary involvement (Brown-Sequard).", "4": "Multiple mononeuropathy with involvement of the common peroneal and right posterior tibial nerve.", "5": "Right lumbar plexopathy." }
2
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 20, 53 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 3, 8 ] ], "text": "It does not explain pyramidalism." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 147, 346 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 22, 54 ] ], "text": "We would lack data to think of a Brown Sequard hemimedullary syndrome. It would explain the pyramidalism, but we would be missing data suggestive of this picture such as a contralateral hypoesthesia." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 367, 473 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 57, 74 ] ], "text": "It could explain the difficulty in dorsiflexion and plantar flexion of the foot, but not the pyramidalism." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 494, 604 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 77, 97 ] ], "text": "In a similar way to the previous one, it could explain part of the clinical picture, but not the pyramidalism." } }
271
2,016
170
An 80-year-old man comes to your office for evaluation of a scheduled cholecystectomy by laparoscopy. He has a history of arterial hypertension under treatment for 10 years. He denies heart or pulmonary disease. She has no chest pain. She has an active life and goes daily to the gym where she alternates swimming and walking on the treadmill for at least one hour. Usual treatment: nebivolol 5 mg every 24 hours and hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg daily. Physical examination: weight 73 kgs; height 179 cm; blood pressure 138/80 mmHg; heart rate 60 beats/minute. No murmurs are auscultated Which of the following is the most appropriate preoperative approach?
This is a completely gratuitous question, from a healthier gentleman than me who is going to undergo low-risk surgery on a scheduled basis. The answer is obviously 4. Had there been a fifth option it would have been that nothing needs to be done, which might have generated some doubt in the student, but since the question does not exist it is a piece of candy. Although there are many protocols on preoperative procedures, almost as many as there are hospitals, the question makes it easy by putting a very old patient, 80 years old. The age range from which it is considered mandatory to request an ECG varies between 45, 50, 60 or even some say 70 years. For example: > 50 years: always, except if a previous ECG is available < 50 years: only if there is known or suspected heart disease (CVRF), severe DM, hyperthyroidism or severe COPD.
ANESTHESIOLOGY AND CRITICAL CARE
{ "1": "Perform a stress test.", "2": "Perform echocardiography", "3": "Perform a thallium and dipyridamole scan.", "4": "Perform electrocardiogram.", "5": null }
4
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 363, 658 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 66, 119 ] ], "text": "Although there are many protocols on preoperative procedures, almost as many as there are hospitals, the question makes it easy by putting a very old patient, 80 years old. The age range from which it is considered mandatory to request an ECG varies between 45, 50, 60 or even some say 70 years." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
306
2,016
207
A 34-year-old patient playing tennis is hit by a tennis ball in the left orbit. On examination he presents significant palpebral hematoma, hyposphagmia, diplopia to the upper vision with limitation of the upper version of the eyeball. What would you suspect?
The statement describes diplopia to superior vision with limitation of upper eyeball extension. As the mechanical function of the left inferior rectus is compromised, it would not allow to complete the supraduccion movement generating vertical diplopia, this plus the traumatic antecedent allows to suspect a fracture of the orbital floor with muscular entrapment of the inferior rectus. Fracture of the roof is much less frequent and the entrapment of the superior rectus would cause limitation for infraduction.
OPHTHALMOLOGY
{ "1": "Fracture of the inferior wall of the floor of the orbit with entrapment of the inferior rectus muscle.", "2": "Zygomatic arch fracture.", "3": "Fracture of the superior wall of the orbit with entrapment of the superior rectus muscle.", "4": "Dentoalveolar fracture.", "5": null }
1
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 96, 387 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 13, 57 ] ], "text": "As the mechanical function of the left inferior rectus is compromised, it would not allow to complete the supraduccion movement generating vertical diplopia, this plus the traumatic antecedent allows to suspect a fracture of the orbital floor with muscular entrapment of the inferior rectus." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 388, 513 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 57, 77 ] ], "text": "Fracture of the roof is much less frequent and the entrapment of the superior rectus would cause limitation for infraduction." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
328
2,016
83
A 49-year-old man who consults for severe polyuria and polydipsia and unintentional weight loss of 10 kg and is diagnosed with diabetes mellitus due to a plasma blood glucose of 322 mg/dL and a glycosylated hemoglobin of 9.8%. His physician gave him dietary recommendations, the convenience of physical exercise, and he started treatment with metformin 850 mg/12 hours and glimepiride 6 mg/day. In the following weeks the glycemic controls are progressively reduced. At 4 months glycemia is 94 mg/dL and HbA1c is 5.9%. The patient complains of frequent episodes of dizziness, epigastric pain, blurred vision, sweating and tremor, which improve with food and occur mainly in the late morning and late afternoon. What modification would you propose in his treatment?
Discontinue sulfonylurea because of Risk of hypoglycemia.
ENDOCRINOLOGY
{ "1": "Review dietary carbohydrate distribution.", "2": "Discontinue metformin.", "3": "Discontinue sulfonylurea.", "4": "Substitute metformin with a DPP4 inhibitor.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 57 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 7 ] ], "text": "Discontinue sulfonylurea because of Risk of hypoglycemia." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
223
2,014
62
In a 60-year-old diabetic patient with stable angina secondary to ischemic heart disease due to subtotal obstruction in the middle third of the anterior descending coronary artery, what treatment would you propose?
Stable angina in diabetics: this question is a nod to the BARI-2D study (NEJM 2009), which showed that medical management was not inferior to revascularization (in fact, the new guidelines reflect the trend that not all coronary stenosis should be systematically opened). Answer 1 is along these lines, although I miss statins, ACE inhibitors and antiplatelet agents, and I have too many vasodilators (nitrates are class IIb, if my memory serves me correctly). 2 is absurd: sitting down to avoid angina? That's like cutting down the forest to prevent fires. 3 to 5 are about revascularization: since it is a single vessel and not a proximal LAD, revascularization would have to be percutaneous, so we discard 3. Between 4 and 5, the fifth is more complete: not only would it be necessary to dilate, but also to implant a stent. So the doubt would be between 1 and 5. Applying the general rules of response in the MIR, if two options are similar except in one detail, the correct one is one of these, so we would mark 5 (and this is what would be done in any hospital nowadays: a suboccluded artery is dilated directly). On the other hand, and although 1 is incomplete, I suppose the author wanted to be clever and show that he has read the latest articles. Conclusion: I would mark 5... but I would not be surprised if it was 1.
CARDIOLOGY
{ "1": "Medical with vasodilators and beta-blockers to avoid angina.", "2": "Expectorant with rigorous rest, since decreasing myocardial oxygen demand should decrease angina.", "3": "Surgical revascularization of the ischemic myocardium by means of a left mammary artery bypass distal to the lesion in the diseased coronary artery.", "4": "Dilatation of the coronary artery lesion by therapeutic catheterization.", "5": "Therapeutic catheterization to dilate the lesion of the diseased artery and implantation of a stent in the dilated area." }
5
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 867, 1119 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 149, 196 ] ], "text": "Applying the general rules of response in the MIR, if two options are similar except in one detail, the correct one is one of these, so we would mark 5 (and this is what would be done in any hospital nowadays: a suboccluded artery is dilated directly)." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 461, 503 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 73, 81 ] ], "text": "2 is absurd: sitting down to avoid angina?" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 594, 711 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 96, 117 ] ], "text": "since it is a single vessel and not a proximal LAD, revascularization would have to be percutaneous, so we discard 3." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 712, 827 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 117, 140 ] ], "text": "Between 4 and 5, the fifth is more complete: not only would it be necessary to dilate, but also to implant a stent." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 867, 1119 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 149, 196 ] ], "text": "Applying the general rules of response in the MIR, if two options are similar except in one detail, the correct one is one of these, so we would mark 5 (and this is what would be done in any hospital nowadays: a suboccluded artery is dilated directly)." } }
468
2,020
122
A 70-year-old man consults for non-radiating lumbar pain of 1 week's duration, of progressive intensity, accompanied by marked limitation of spinal mobility and febrile fever. The lumbar spine X-ray shows no alterations. What diagnosis should we rule out first and with what technique?
We suspect spondylodiscitis - the febrile fever and the limitation of mobility of the spine with the acute course give the key -, and the indicated test is the MRI. "The most demonstrative test is magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), which is positive even in the first 2 weeks of the picture, which facilitates early diagnosis, with a sensitivity of 90%". Vertebral crushing would be seen in the simple X-ray, as well as vertebral ankylosing hyperostosis and many metastases. In addition, there is no data in the history pointing to bone metastases (oncologic history, weight loss etc).
ORTHOPEDIC SURGERY AND TRAUMATOLOGY
{ "1": "Vertebral crush with computed tomography (CT).", "2": "Bone metastases with technetium bone scan.", "3": "Vertebral ankylosing hyperostosis with dorsolumbar spine x-ray.", "4": "Pyogenic spondylodiscitis with magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).", "5": null }
4
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 354, 473 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 60, 78 ] ], "text": "Vertebral crushing would be seen in the simple X-ray, as well as vertebral ankylosing hyperostosis and many metastases." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 487, 584 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 80, 96 ] ], "text": "there is no data in the history pointing to bone metastases (oncologic history, weight loss etc)." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 354, 473 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 60, 78 ] ], "text": "Vertebral crushing would be seen in the simple X-ray, as well as vertebral ankylosing hyperostosis and many metastases." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 164 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 30 ] ], "text": "We suspect spondylodiscitis - the febrile fever and the limitation of mobility of the spine with the acute course give the key -, and the indicated test is the MRI." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
96
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60-year-old male patient who refers 10 days ago the appearance of blistering lesions on dorsum of hands after sun exposure. The picture is accompanied by skin fragility. Histopathologically there is a subepidermal blister with PAS+ deposits in and around the superficial dermal vessels. The most plausible diagnosis is:
Porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT) is the most common porphyria and can present with three major clinical forms: familial, sporadic and toxic. Clinically, it is characterized by marked skin fragility with the appearance of erosions, vesicles and blisters after minimal trauma. The most frequent sites are the back of the hands and the face, i.e. the areas of greatest photoexposure. Clinically, the most important differential diagnosis should be established with pseudoporphyria or phototoxic bullous dermatitis, in which the blisters and cutaneous erosions are produced by photosensitivity, induced by drugs such as tetracyclines, sulfonamides, etc. However, unlike porphyria, porphyrin levels in serum, feces and urine are normal. The histopathological differential diagnosis should be established with those diseases showing dermal hyaline deposits, such as: hyalinosis cutis, in which unlike porphyria, PAS-positive hyaline deposits are extensive and massively occupy the deep dermis and subcutaneous cellular tissue; Milium colloid in which hyaline material, usually PAS negative expands the papillary dermis, forming characteristic clefts and fissures; and lipoid proteinosis, in which the material is deposited throughout the dermis, has a distribution not only perivascular but more extensive than in porphyria, and usually affects sweat glands.
DERMATOLOGY, VENEREOLOGY AND PLASTIC SURGERY
{ "1": "Familial benign pemphigus.", "2": "Pemphigoid.", "3": "Porphyria cutanea tarda.", "4": "Pemphigus vulgaris.", "5": "Scalded skin syndrome." }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 377 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 59 ] ], "text": "Porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT) is the most common porphyria and can present with three major clinical forms: familial, sporadic and toxic. Clinically, it is characterized by marked skin fragility with the appearance of erosions, vesicles and blisters after minimal trauma. The most frequent sites are the back of the hands and the face, i.e. the areas of greatest photoexposure." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
603
2,022
112
A 61-year-old woman, administrative, with a history of overweight, hypertension, dyslipidemia and metabolic syndrome, who consults for pain in both buttocks, left trochanteric region, lateral aspect of the left thigh up to the knee and left leg up to the middle third. The pain appears when the lower limb is lifted with the knee extended, but is relieved when the knee is flexed. What is the first clinical suspicion?
The most common symptomatology of a patient with coxarthrosis includes: hip pain that limits ambulation, nocturnal discomfort and even at rest, hip stiffness and locking. Coxo-femoral osteoarthrosis presents with a negative Lasegue test. Wrong answer 2. Low back pain of a neuropathic nature usually presents with unilateral and distributed radiculopathy according to dermatomes. The recognized risk factors are most frequently: women, obesity, smoking and sedentary lifestyle or situations of prolonged sitting. The lumbosciatica is usually referred to the buttock, posterior aspect of the thighs and even inguinal. The clinical case describes the Lasegue maneuver or test; a provocation test that evidences radicular irritation in the lumbosacral region (Answer 3 correct). Claudication due to canal stenosis typically presents with pain that worsens with trunk extension (walking, standing) and is relieved with flexion (sitting, sleeping in the fetal position...) Wrong answer 4.
TRAUMATOLOGY
{ "1": "Gouty arthritis of the left hip.", "2": "Left coxofemoral arthrosis.", "3": "Radiated low back pain / lumbosciatica.", "4": "Claudication due to canal stenosis.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 171, 253 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 25, 36 ] ], "text": "Coxo-femoral osteoarthrosis presents with a negative Lasegue test. Wrong answer 2." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 617, 775 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 87, 110 ] ], "text": "The clinical case describes the Lasegue maneuver or test; a provocation test that evidences radicular irritation in the lumbosacral region (Answer 3 correct)." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 776, 983 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 110, 140 ] ], "text": "Claudication due to canal stenosis typically presents with pain that worsens with trunk extension (walking, standing) and is relieved with flexion (sitting, sleeping in the fetal position...) Wrong answer 4." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
574
2,022
100
An 80-year-old woman with a history of arterial hypertension and diabetes mellitus who suddenly presents with language impairment. On arrival at the hospital, an unknown atrial fibrillation is observed, and on examination she presents fluent speech with a tendency to slurred speech, poor language comprehension, inability to repeat and dysnomia. Semiologically she presents a picture compatible with:
It is a semiology question that helps us to remember the types of aphasia. The following aspects should be taken into account: language emission (fluent, non-fluent, non-emission), comprehension (yes or no), repetition (yes or no) and nomination. Wernicke's aphasia or sensitive aphasia has a fluent language, does not understand, does not repeat and does not nominate, just like the patient in the question. Sensory transcortical aphasia differs from sensory aphasia in that patients are able to repeat. Conduction aphasia differs from sensory aphasia in that comprehension is preserved, all else being equal. Finally, in broca's aphasia the language is non-fluent, comprehension is preserved, it does not repeat and does not nominate.
NEUROLOGY
{ "1": "Broca's aphasia.", "2": "Conduction aphasia.", "3": "Sensitive transcortical aphasia.", "4": "Wernicke's aphasia.", "5": null }
4
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 611, 736 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 92, 111 ] ], "text": "Finally, in broca's aphasia the language is non-fluent, comprehension is preserved, it does not repeat and does not nominate." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 505, 610 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 77, 92 ] ], "text": "Conduction aphasia differs from sensory aphasia in that comprehension is preserved, all else being equal." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 409, 504 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 63, 77 ] ], "text": "Sensory transcortical aphasia differs from sensory aphasia in that patients are able to repeat." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 247, 408 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 37, 63 ] ], "text": "Wernicke's aphasia or sensitive aphasia has a fluent language, does not understand, does not repeat and does not nominate, just like the patient in the question." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
67
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111
A 45-year-old male patient with a history of uric lithiasis and repeated expulsive nephritic colic for the past 25 years comes to the emergency room reporting palpitations and severe right lumbar pain for the past 2 hours. Urinalysis shows a pH of 5.5 and leukocyturia without proteinuria. The electrocardiogram confirms a previously unknown AF. Blood biochemistry shows a Creat of 0.9, Ca of 11 and LDH of 950. What is the most useful diagnostic maneuver to perform?
In principle, what you tell us does not fit with a nephritic colic. The urine is normal (without hematuria, caused by the lithiasis as it progresses), the Creat is normal (it can rise up to 1.9 in nephritic colic). The increase in LDH is non-specific and can be found in hepatic parenchymal lesions, AMI or pulmonary embolism, as well as in many other less frequent cases (tumors, myopathies, etc.). In this case, we have an important risk factor for embolism, which is atrial fibrillation, which, in addition, being a 45-year-old male, with no previous history, does not seem to respond to an underlying structural heart disease together with right lumbar pain, which could correspond to irritation of the pleura at the level of the right lumbar spine. Spiral CT with contrast has acquired great value in the diagnosis of PTE, due to its rapidity and good sensitivity, higher than 83-92% in most studies, and according to some it can reach 100% for central thrombi, located in main, lobar or segmental pulmonary arteries. Its specificity is greater than 90%. Nodes can produce false positives. It can also provide an alternative diagnosis in case PTE is not confirmed, so it would be a very useful test. Doppler ultrasound would be the most useful test to diagnose the source of the emboli, so it could also be a valid answer depending on what they mean by "useful". It is a noninvasive technique that has demonstrated its good sensitivity and specificity in the diagnosis of DVT compared to phlebography. It also allows the diagnosis of other pathologies that could justify the patient's symptoms. Its limitations are the assessment of infrapopliteal thrombi and, in many cases, in patients who are not thin, of the iliac and cava veins.
ANESTHESIOLOGY, CRITICAL CARE AND EMERGENCY MEDICINE
{ "1": "Plain abdominal x-ray.", "2": "Intravenous urography.", "3": "Spiral CT with contrast.", "4": "Abdominal ultrasound.", "5": "Doppler ultrasound." }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 754, 1059 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 127, 178 ] ], "text": "Spiral CT with contrast has acquired great value in the diagnosis of PTE, due to its rapidity and good sensitivity, higher than 83-92% in most studies, and according to some it can reach 100% for central thrombi, located in main, lobar or segmental pulmonary arteries. Its specificity is greater than 90%." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
77
2,012
31
A 17-year-old boy with Crohn's disease with colonic involvement of 2 years of evolution, in maintenance treatment with azathioprine, consults for the appearance since 5 days ago of purplish-red, hot, painful, bilateral subcutaneous nodules of pretibial location, associated with an increase in the number of stools and abdominal pain. The most appropriate approach in this case is:
It appears that the patient has erythema nodosum lesions associated with a flare of his disease, which is common. Treatment of the disease and its control usually improves the cutaneous lesions. The lesions should not be biopsied.
DIGESTIVE SYSTEM
{ "1": "Recommend relative rest and warm cloths on both legs and add antidepressant treatment.", "2": "Biopsy skin areas away from the injured areas and prescribe opioid analgesics at the beginning.", "3": "Biopsy skin areas away from the injured areas and prescribe opioid analgesics at the beginning.", "4": "Suspect bilateral lower extremity ischemia of drug origin.", "5": "Adjustment of the treatment of the disease." }
5
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 230 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 37 ] ], "text": "It appears that the patient has erythema nodosum lesions associated with a flare of his disease, which is common. Treatment of the disease and its control usually improves the cutaneous lesions. The lesions should not be biopsied." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 230 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 37 ] ], "text": "It appears that the patient has erythema nodosum lesions associated with a flare of his disease, which is common. Treatment of the disease and its control usually improves the cutaneous lesions. The lesions should not be biopsied." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 230 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 37 ] ], "text": "It appears that the patient has erythema nodosum lesions associated with a flare of his disease, which is common. Treatment of the disease and its control usually improves the cutaneous lesions. The lesions should not be biopsied." } }
440
2,018
97
A 24-year-old woman consults for lower abdominal pain of two weeks of evolution that has worsened with the last sexual intercourse. She reports having a recent partner with whom she only occasionally uses a condom. On examination, she was in fair general condition. Temperature 38.6ºC, leukocytes 16,000/uL (85% neutrophils); CRP 30 mg/L. Speculum examination shows abundant abnormal vaginal discharge and painful cervical mobilization. Indicate the FALSE answer:
Pelvic inflammatory disease is suspected, given the patient's symptoms. According to the 2006 SEGO protocol for Pelvic Inflammatory Disease, answer 2 is the false answer and, therefore, the one that should be marked. This is because hysterosalpingography can spread the infection to the pelvic and abdominal cavity. The rest of the answers are correct.
GYNECOLOGY AND OBSTETRICS
{ "1": "We would start antibiotic treatment as soon as we suspect the diagnosis.", "2": "We would indicate as a preferential complementary test a hysterosalpingography for tubal assessment.", "3": "Delay in diagnosis and treatment increases the occurrence of sequelae.", "4": "The presence of abscess would be a criterion for hospitalization.", "5": null }
2
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 141, 315 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 19, 47 ] ], "text": "answer 2 is the false answer and, therefore, the one that should be marked. This is because hysterosalpingography can spread the infection to the pelvic and abdominal cavity." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
203
2,013
47
55-year-old woman, operated on for appendicitis 24 years ago, who comes in because while previously well, she has started with repeated vomiting after breakfast, about 12 hours ago, associated with abdominal distention. She presented a diarrhea stool a few hours after the onset of the symptoms. Examination revealed abdominal distension, tympanism and increased bowel sounds, but no peritoneal irritation. Laboratory tests showed no abnormalities. The abdominal X-ray showed dilatation of the small bowel loops, without gas in the rectal ampulla. Regarding this case it is true that:
This is a typical description of a picture of intestinal obstruction due to bridging or adhesions due to previous surgery. The correct answer is 5 and not 1 because most of these situations resolve spontaneously with conservative treatment.
GENERAL SURGERY
{ "1": "This is a picture of intestinal flange obstruction requiring emergency laparotomy.", "2": "Most likely we are facing a case of obstruction at the level of the large intestine.", "3": "The fact that the patient presented a diarrheal stool allows us to exclude the diagnosis of intestinal obstruction. Further imaging studies are necessary to ensure a diagnosis.", "4": "We should indicate the practice of a decompressive colonoscopy.", "5": "Initial management should be conservative, with serum therapy, nasogastric aspiration and periodic clinical, analytical and radiographic monitoring." }
5
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 240 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 38 ] ], "text": "This is a typical description of a picture of intestinal obstruction due to bridging or adhesions due to previous surgery. The correct answer is 5 and not 1 because most of these situations resolve spontaneously with conservative treatment." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 240 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 38 ] ], "text": "This is a typical description of a picture of intestinal obstruction due to bridging or adhesions due to previous surgery. The correct answer is 5 and not 1 because most of these situations resolve spontaneously with conservative treatment." } }
158
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133
Obese 12-year-old boy (87 kg). He has been complaining of mechanical pain in the right thigh and knee for 4 months. Clinical examination reveals a 1 cm discrepancy in the length of the lower extremities and an attitude of the right lower extremity in external rotation with loss of internal rotation. We should suspect that he presents:
We are presented with an adolescent patient who is overweight with pain in the thigh and knee, a length discrepancy of 1 cm and the limb in external rotation. This picture should automatically lead us to mark epiphysiolysis capitis femoris (proximal femoral epiphysiolysis, the fact of reading it in Latin nomina is a bit of a misunderstanding but it should not mislead us). We should think of this one because it is the most frequent and possible (correct answer 2). The other options are not impossible but they are less frequent and they would not ask us this if they wanted us to choose another option. If they were sequelae of hip dysplasia, it would not have this 4-month onset and the age of onset would be earlier. Complications of dysplasia are dislocations and subluxations that may require surgery and avascular necrosis of the head (false answer 5). Perthes disease occurs in younger children (4-9 years) with episodes of limping and pain in the hip and knee (false answer 4). In a child the most typical would be a fracture at the level of the physis, not at the level of the femoral neck, so we discard 3. For us to consider this option we would have to have been presented with a bone cyst, something that would justify a weakness in the femoral neck area. As for juvenile chronic arthritis, it is a rheumatoid option surrounded by trauma options. They do not speak to us of rheumatologic factors in an analytical analysis, nor of a polyarticular picture. Perhaps we could think about this one because they talk about pain in the right knee, but this picture that they present us is limited to the right lower limb, they do not talk about other joints or fever or other accompanying systemic symptoms, so it is not an option to evaluate, especially with the other options presented to us that would be more likely in view of the picture presented to us (option 1 false). In addition, the knee pain in this case refers to a referred pain of the hip, without involvement of the knee.
TRAUMATOLOGY AND ORTHOPEDICS
{ "1": "Juvenile chronic arthritis.", "2": "Epiphysiolysis capitis femoris.", "3": "Fracture of the femoral neck due to overload.", "4": "Perthes disease.", "5": "Sequelae of developmental dysplasia of the hip." }
2
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 1471, 1885 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 258, 334 ] ], "text": "Perhaps we could think about this one because they talk about pain in the right knee, but this picture that they present us is limited to the right lower limb, they do not talk about other joints or fever or other accompanying systemic symptoms, so it is not an option to evaluate, especially with the other options presented to us that would be more likely in view of the picture presented to us (option 1 false)." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 375, 467 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 63, 80 ] ], "text": "We should think of this one because it is the most frequent and possible (correct answer 2)." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 989, 1119 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 170, 198 ] ], "text": "In a child the most typical would be a fracture at the level of the physis, not at the level of the femoral neck, so we discard 3." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 862, 988 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 148, 170 ] ], "text": "Perthes disease occurs in younger children (4-9 years) with episodes of limping and pain in the hip and knee (false answer 4)." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 723, 861 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 128, 148 ] ], "text": "Complications of dysplasia are dislocations and subluxations that may require surgery and avascular necrosis of the head (false answer 5)." } }
46
2,011
155
A 1-year-old boy whose mother has just been diagnosed with bacilliferous pulmonary tuberculosis, having started correct treatment. The child is asymptomatic with a normal examination, negative tuberculin test (PT) and normal chest Rx. What would be the attitude to adopt in the child?
The correct answer is 5. The mother should be isolated for the first 2-4 weeks of treatment, after which she would no longer be contagious. If the result of the repeat PT is still negative, the child should not be tested again. If it is positive, the X-ray (or pulmonary CT in younger children) should be repeated.
PEDIATRICS
{ "1": "Only separate him from the mother until her treatment is completed (at least 6 months).", "2": "Perform a high-resolution CT scan of the lung, and if normal, repeat PT at 8-12 weeks.", "3": "Chemoprophylaxis with isoniazid (INH) until the mother's smear test is negative.", "4": "Chemoprophylaxis with INH 6-9 months. New PT and chest X-ray at the end of treatment, to decide whether or not to conclude treatment.", "5": "Chemoprophylaxis with INH, 8-12 weeks. Repeat PT. If negative, stop treatment. If positive, perform chest X-ray to decide whether or not there is disease." }
5
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 25, 314 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 5, 57 ] ], "text": "The mother should be isolated for the first 2-4 weeks of treatment, after which she would no longer be contagious. If the result of the repeat PT is still negative, the child should not be tested again. If it is positive, the X-ray (or pulmonary CT in younger children) should be repeated." } }
593
2,022
146
A 40-year-old woman, with no personal or family history of interest, presents several days of watery diarrhea, very abundant, accompanied by loss of 10 kg of weight, flushing and facial reddening, together with lipothymias and colicky abdominal pain, with hypokalemia in the laboratory data. An abdominal ultrasound shows a mass of 1.5 cm in diameter in the pancreatic tail. Among the following, your primary diagnostic suspicion is:
Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP). VIPoma-diarrhea. The 3.
ONCOLOGY
{ "1": "Insulinoma.", "2": "PPoma.", "3": "VIPoma.", "4": "Glucagonoma.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 60 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 7 ] ], "text": "Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP). VIPoma-diarrhea. The 3." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
395
2,016
136
A 41-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with three days of swelling and pain in the right knee, with functional impotence and fever Two weeks earlier he had had a self-limited diarrhea. On examination there is joint effusion, so we proceed to perform an arthrocentesis and obtain 50 cc of cloudy liquid, with decreased viscosity and the following analytical parameters: leukocytes 40. 000/microL (85% of neutrophils), glucose 40 mg/dL, absence of crystals, Gram stain: no microorganisms are observed. Which of the following statements about this patient is WRONG:
A gram negative stain never rules out the presence of infection.
TRAUMATOLOGY AND ORTHOPEDICS
{ "1": "Treatment with cloxacillin and ceftriaxone should be initiated pending the result of the fluid culture.", "2": "It is advisable to perform daily arthrocentesis to relieve symptoms and prevent joint destruction.", "3": "If the culture is negative, it is likely to be reactive arthritis.", "4": "Negative Gram stain rules out septic arthritis.", "5": null }
4
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 64 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 11 ] ], "text": "A gram negative stain never rules out the presence of infection." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
424
2,018
91
A 27-year-old woman consults for secondary amenorrhea of one year of evolution. She has no iatrogenic history. Analytically, the estradiol concentration is below normal and the prolactin value is 12 ng/mL. Indicate which of the following examinations would you request as a first step to try to identify the origin of the disorder:
Young woman with secondary amenorrhea, with no history of interest. Prolactin values are normal (values above 20ngr/ml are considered hyperprolectinemia), thus ruling out hyperprolactinemia as the cause of amenorrhea. They tell us that the estrogen level is low. In this case we should suspect early ovarian failure. For its diagnosis we will ask for a basal FSH (in cases of premature ovarian failure it would be elevated).
ENDOCRINOLOGY
{ "1": "Hypothalamohypophyseal MRI.", "2": "Karyotype.", "3": "Basal FSH.", "4": "Chorionic gonadotropin stimulation.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 218, 424 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 29, 67 ] ], "text": "They tell us that the estrogen level is low. In this case we should suspect early ovarian failure. For its diagnosis we will ask for a basal FSH (in cases of premature ovarian failure it would be elevated)." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
169
2,013
87
A 70-year-old woman, hypertensive and diabetic, who has worked as a sales clerk all her life. She consults for an internal malleolar lesion in the right leg with intense pain throughout the day that worsens at night. On examination, there are uncomplicated varicose cords in both extremities and normal femoral and popliteal pulses with absence of distal pulses. What examination should we perform first?
At least for me, as a family physician, I usually start with the least invasive and most cost-effective tests, and in the case described, an ischemic problem in the lower limbs is the ankle-brachial index.
CARDIOLOGY AND CARDIOVASCULAR SURGERY
{ "1": "Venous echo-Doppler of lower limbs.", "2": "Angioresonance of lower limbs.", "3": "Arteriography.", "4": "Ankle-brachial index.", "5": "AngioCT." }
4
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 40, 205 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 8, 35 ] ], "text": "I usually start with the least invasive and most cost-effective tests, and in the case described, an ischemic problem in the lower limbs is the ankle-brachial index." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
95
2,012
170
A 60-year-old male patient who reported 10 days ago the appearance of blistering lesions on the dorsum of the hands after sun exposure. The picture is accompanied by skin fragility. Histopathologically there is a subepidermal blister with PAS+ deposits in and around the superficial dermal vessels. The most plausible diagnosis is:
The fact of being a photoinduced picture, the histology and the age make the diagnosis of PCT more probable (3). The rest of the answers do not fit with the clinical picture or the histology.
DERMATOLOGY, VENEREOLOGY AND PLASTIC SURGERY
{ "1": "Familial benign pemphigus.", "2": "Pemphigoid.", "3": "Porphyria cutanea tarda.", "4": "Pemphigus vulgaris.", "5": "Scalded skin syndrome." }
3
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 113, 191 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 20, 35 ] ], "text": "The rest of the answers do not fit with the clinical picture or the histology." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 113, 191 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 20, 35 ] ], "text": "The rest of the answers do not fit with the clinical picture or the histology." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 112 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 20 ] ], "text": "The fact of being a photoinduced picture, the histology and the age make the diagnosis of PCT more probable (3)." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 113, 191 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 20, 35 ] ], "text": "The rest of the answers do not fit with the clinical picture or the histology." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 113, 191 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 20, 35 ] ], "text": "The rest of the answers do not fit with the clinical picture or the histology." } }
537
2,021
1
44-year-old patient with a rapidly growing lesion (16x8x12 cm) involving the soft tissues of the proximal third of the right thigh. He reports that he has started to notice the mass, which has a hard consistency and is adhered to deep planes, in the last 6 months. Previously, she had been a regular athlete and had even finished a marathon. On examination, collateral circulation was observed, but no right inguinal lymph nodes were palpable. After biopsy it was confirmed to be a high-grade undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma, which in the imaging studies was found proximal to the lesser trochanter. The extension CT scan is negative. What would be the therapeutic approach?
In resection margins, we have: intralesional → marginal (option 3) → Extended → Radical (options 1 and 4). This is a high-grade tumor, in which extended resection including tumor-free margins is indicated. Radical amputation surgery has not been shown to improve survival being reserved for selected cases (invasion of neurovascular structures, pathologic fracture...). Therefore, we discard both option 1 and 4; option 3 is also discarded, because it is a smaller margin than the extended one; by elimination we are left with option 2.
TRAUMATOLOGY
{ "1": "Hip disarticulation.", "2": "Treatment with ifosfamide and tamoxifen for 6 cycles prior to resection surgery to reduce the size of the lesion.", "3": "Marginal surgery removing the pseudocapsule that these tumors usually form in response to their rapid growth.", "4": "Modified right hemipelvectomy.", "5": null }
2
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 206, 412 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 32, 61 ] ], "text": "Radical amputation surgery has not been shown to improve survival being reserved for selected cases (invasion of neurovascular structures, pathologic fracture...). Therefore, we discard both option 1 and 4;" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 413, 494 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 61, 76 ] ], "text": "option 3 is also discarded, because it is a smaller margin than the extended one;" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 206, 412 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 32, 61 ] ], "text": "Radical amputation surgery has not been shown to improve survival being reserved for selected cases (invasion of neurovascular structures, pathologic fracture...). Therefore, we discard both option 1 and 4;" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
363
2,016
97
A 35-year-old patient who, due to hematemesis due to ulcus, receives a transfusion of 2 packed red blood cells. 5-10 minutes after starting the transfusion, she begins with fever, chills, hypotension and pain in the lumbar region. What would be the most likely diagnosis?
Acute hemolytic transfusion reactions can occur within minutes. Clinically they are characterized by chills, fever, urticaria, tachycardia, nausea and vomiting, lumbar pain, hemorrhage due to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)..... We are told of a patient who, within minutes of starting a transfusion, presented with an acute and very serious condition (with shock). Such an acute and severe situation only fits option 4.
HEMATOLOGY
{ "1": "Bacterial contamination of the blood.", "2": "Febrile reaction secondary to transfusion.", "3": "Febrile reaction due to plasma contaminating red blood cells.", "4": "Hemolytic transfusion reaction.", "5": null }
4
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 242, 433 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 29, 62 ] ], "text": "We are told of a patient who, within minutes of starting a transfusion, presented with an acute and very serious condition (with shock). Such an acute and severe situation only fits option 4." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
339
2,016
33
67-year-old woman diagnosed with an infiltrating ductal carcinoma of the breast and no family history of neoplasia. What additional studies should be performed on the tumor for its clinical-therapeutic implications?
All breast carcinomas should be accompanied by the study of hormone receptors and HER-2 for the prognostic implications of the tumor, as well as the adequacy of the treatment of the same, since depending on the result will apply some drugs or others. The study of relatives and the BCRA gene is not indicated since she does not have a family history of neoplasia.
GYNECOLOGY AND OBSTETRICS
{ "1": "Complete phenotypic study by flow cytometry.", "2": "Study of hormone receptors and HER2.", "3": "Study of hormone receptors, e-cadherin and study of first-degree relatives.", "4": "BRCA 1-2 study and study of first-degree relatives.", "5": null }
2
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 187 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 32 ] ], "text": "All breast carcinomas should be accompanied by the study of hormone receptors and HER-2 for the prognostic implications of the tumor, as well as the adequacy of the treatment of the same," }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 251, 363 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 43, 64 ] ], "text": "The study of relatives and the BCRA gene is not indicated since she does not have a family history of neoplasia." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 251, 363 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 43, 64 ] ], "text": "The study of relatives and the BCRA gene is not indicated since she does not have a family history of neoplasia." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
144
2,012
142
A 13-year-old girl consults us for weight loss, asthenia, secondary amenorrhea and constipation. Examination revealed a temperature of 35ºC, weight below the 3rd percentile, bradycardia and orthostatic hypotension. Laboratory tests showed anemia with mild leukopenia, cholesterol of 230 mg/dL and on the electrocardiogram a flattened T wave with ST-segment elevation and prolonged QTc. What process would you suspect and what would you do next?
The correct answer is 1. The symptoms and signs described are the biological findings associated with anorexia nervosa. The ECG disturbances are derived from electrolyte disturbances.
PEDIATRICS
{ "1": "Suspect anorexia nervosa and inquire about intake, body image, etc.", "2": "Suspect hypothyroidism and request TSH and thyroid hormones.", "3": "Suspect cardiomyopathy and request echocardiography.", "4": "I would suspect celiac disease and request anti-transglutaminase IgA antibodies.", "5": "Suspect panhypopituitarism and request a cranial CT scan." }
1
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 25, 119 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 5, 18 ] ], "text": "The symptoms and signs described are the biological findings associated with anorexia nervosa." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
356
2,016
166
A pregnant woman, 10 weeks pregnant, comes to the emergency room with a blood pressure of 160/105 mmHg. She is in good general condition, with only mild headache, which is the reason for taking her blood pressure. After 4 hours of rest she presented with a blood pressure of 150/95mmHg. A complete blood count is normal and proteinuria is negative. What type of hypertension does she have?
Chronic hypertension. This is hypertension that is detected before pregnancy or before the 20th week of pregnancy and/or persists at 12 weeks postpartum.
GYNECOLOGY AND OBSTETRICS
{ "1": "Moderate pre-eclampsia.", "2": "Pregnancy-induced hypertension.", "3": "Chronic hypertension.", "4": "Eclampsia.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 22, 153 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 2, 23 ] ], "text": "This is hypertension that is detected before pregnancy or before the 20th week of pregnancy and/or persists at 12 weeks postpartum." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
495
2,020
64
65-year-old woman with no comorbidities, undergoing left breast-conserving surgery with selective sentinel lymph node biopsy. The pathological anatomy of the specimen shows an infiltrating ductal carcinoma grade III of 11 mm, two negative sentinel nodes, estrogen receptors: 0%, progesterone receptors: 0%, Ki 67: 70%, HER2: negative. The extension study is negative. Adjuvant treatment would be:
Typical question, conservative surgery implies radiate, for sure. High grade, and no hormone receptors or her2 (the dreaded triple negative). I was there when there were no taxanes or herceptin and I was in the trials that showed that more and more are being cured, unfortunately still not all. That is why today, anthracyclines (does not suffer from heart) and taxanes before RT. My specialty is beautiful, and will be more so in the coming years.
MEDICAL ONCOLOGY
{ "1": "Chemotherapy based on anthracyclines and taxanes, radiotherapy and trastuzumab.", "2": "Chemotherapy based on anthracyclines and taxanes, radiotherapy and tamoxifen.", "3": "Chemotherapy based on anthracyclines and taxanes, and radiotherapy.", "4": "Chemotherapy based on anthracyclines and taxanes, radiotherapy and aromatase inhibitors, since it is postmenopausal.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 307, 380 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 52, 63 ] ], "text": "today, anthracyclines (does not suffer from heart) and taxanes before RT." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
355
2,016
166
A pregnant woman, 10 weeks pregnant, comes to the emergency room with a blood pressure of 160/105 mmHg. She is in good general condition, with only mild headache, which is the reason for taking her blood pressure. After 4 hours of rest she presented with a blood pressure of 150/95mmHg. A complete blood count is normal and proteinuria is negative. What type of hypertension is present?
The correct answer is 3. The SEGO in its 2006 protocol "Hypertensive disorders of pregnancy" refers that this is chronic hypertension, although diagnosed in pregnancy. This is because it has been diagnosed at 10 weeks of gestation. Above 20 weeks' gestation, we would be talking about preeclampsia (if HT + proteinuria or uterine artery pulsatility index above the 95th percentile), pregnancy-induced hypertension (only HT) or eclampsia (a form of severe preeclampsia).
GYNECOLOGY AND OBSTETRICS
{ "1": "Moderate preeclampsia.", "2": "Pregnancy-induced hypertension.", "3": "Chronic hypertension.", "4": "Eclampsia.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 232, 469 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 37, 71 ] ], "text": "Above 20 weeks' gestation, we would be talking about preeclampsia (if HT + proteinuria or uterine artery pulsatility index above the 95th percentile), pregnancy-induced hypertension (only HT) or eclampsia (a form of severe preeclampsia)." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 232, 469 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 37, 71 ] ], "text": "Above 20 weeks' gestation, we would be talking about preeclampsia (if HT + proteinuria or uterine artery pulsatility index above the 95th percentile), pregnancy-induced hypertension (only HT) or eclampsia (a form of severe preeclampsia)." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 25, 231 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 5, 37 ] ], "text": "The SEGO in its 2006 protocol \"Hypertensive disorders of pregnancy\" refers that this is chronic hypertension, although diagnosed in pregnancy. This is because it has been diagnosed at 10 weeks of gestation." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 232, 469 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 37, 71 ] ], "text": "Above 20 weeks' gestation, we would be talking about preeclampsia (if HT + proteinuria or uterine artery pulsatility index above the 95th percentile), pregnancy-induced hypertension (only HT) or eclampsia (a form of severe preeclampsia)." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
94
2,012
31
A 17-year-old boy with Crohn's disease with colonic involvement of 2 years of evolution, in maintenance treatment with azathioprine, consults for the appearance for 5 days of subcutaneous red purplish, hot, painful, bilateral, pretibial localization nodules, associated with an increase in the number of stools and abdominal pain. The most appropriate approach in this case is:
The patient's presenting picture is presumably erythema nodosum. About 10% of cases of erythema nodosum are associated with inflammatory bowel disease, both ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease. As mentioned, in most cases, erythema nodosum has a self-limited course. When associated with inflammatory bowel disease, erythema nodosum usually resolves with treatment of the intestinal flare, and recurs with disease recurrences. Local measures include elevation of the legs and bed rest. In particularly severe cases, oral administration of potassium iodide has been shown to be helpful. Although the use of aspirin and other NSAIDs is effective for erythema nodosum, their use in patients with inflammatory bowel disease should be limited, as they may worsen the intestinal picture, the usefulness of antidepressants in this picture has not been described, so answer nº1 would not be correct.
DERMATOLOGY, VENEREOLOGY AND PLASTIC SURGERY
{ "1": "Recommend relative rest and warm cloths on both legs and add antidepressant treatment.", "2": "Biopsy areas of skin away from the injured areas and prescribe opioid analgesics for entry.", "3": "Suspect the existence of a malignant intestinal tumor lesion as a trigger of the cutaneous process.", "4": "Suspect bilateral lower extremity ischemia of drug-induced origin.", "5": "Adjustment of bowel disease treatment." }
5
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 589, 894 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 84, 133 ] ], "text": "Although the use of aspirin and other NSAIDs is effective for erythema nodosum, their use in patients with inflammatory bowel disease should be limited, as they may worsen the intestinal picture, the usefulness of antidepressants in this picture has not been described, so answer nº1 would not be correct." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 270, 429 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 38, 59 ] ], "text": "When associated with inflammatory bowel disease, erythema nodosum usually resolves with treatment of the intestinal flare, and recurs with disease recurrences." } }
39
2,011
134
60-year-old woman, diagnosed with breast cancer treated with surgery and radiotherapy 10 years ago. Currently with metastases in the dorsal spine and sacroiliac joint, for which she has received monthly treatment with i.v. zoledronic acid for the last two years. The patient presented spontaneous bone exposure at the level of the mandibular bone of approximately 2 cm. There are no signs of acute infection and the gum around the bone exposure is strictly normal. The mandibular CT scan shows an area of bone sclerosis. What would be the diagnosis?
This one has been difficult for me, we are going to rule it out. 1 cannot be, because there would be infectious signs. Answer 2 is possible because bisphosphonates create mandibular necrosis. 3 seems unlikely to me because the radiotherapy that the patient received would be oriented on the breast and not on the mandible. I rule out number 4, as it is not a case of dental root involvement. 5 is possible; after all, the patient already has bone metastases. So, I hesitate between 2 and 5, which one to choose? I am certainly not sure what a bone sclerosis means on a CT scan, but a bone metastasis would be more destructive than sclerotizing. On the other hand, using reverse psychology, what did the questioner want me to know? That bisphosphonates can create mandibular necrosis? Or that a woman with several bone metastases can have a metastasis also in the mandible? The latter seems too simple, and would make me lean more towards 2, but it's not clear to me. Be that as it may, between two possible answers you have to always answer, and between 2 and 5, you have to check 2, which is more likely.
OTORHINOLARYNGOLOGY AND MAXILLOFACIAL SURGERY
{ "1": "Odontogenic abscess.", "2": "Osteonecrosis due to bisphosphonates.", "3": "Osteoradionecrosis.", "4": "Dental root included.", "5": "Metastasis of breast carcinoma." }
2
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 64, 118 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 13, 23 ] ], "text": "out. 1 cannot be, because there would be infectious signs." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 577, 644 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 105, 116 ] ], "text": "scan, but a bone metastasis would be more destructive than sclerotizing." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 192, 322 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 32, 55 ] ], "text": "3 seems unlikely to me because the radiotherapy that the patient received would be oriented on the breast and not on the mandible." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 323, 458 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 55, 81 ] ], "text": "I rule out number 4, as it is not a case of dental root involvement. 5 is possible; after all, the patient already has bone metastases." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 577, 644 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 105, 116 ] ], "text": "scan, but a bone metastasis would be more destructive than sclerotizing." } }
252
2,014
83
What disease would we suspect in a young patient with a frequent history of dysphagia to solids and liquids with repeated food impactions, without symptoms of heartburn and in whom oral endoscopy shows multiple concentric esophageal rings with normal mucosa (trachealized appearance)?
The endoscopic appearance of trachealized esophagus is very typical of eosinophilic esophagitis, which presents with dysphagia and repeated food impactions.
DIGESTIVE SYSTEM
{ "1": "Herpetic esophagitis.", "2": "Eosinophilic esophagitis.", "3": "Candidiasis esophagitis.", "4": "Cytomegalovirus esophagitis.", "5": "Adenocarcinoma of the esophagus." }
2
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 156 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 20 ] ], "text": "The endoscopic appearance of trachealized esophagus is very typical of eosinophilic esophagitis, which presents with dysphagia and repeated food impactions." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
57
2,011
77
In a 42-year-old obese woman, cortisol levels in blood, urine and saliva are determined and in all the determinations they are elevated. After performing the nocturnal suppression test with dexamethasone, cortisol levels in blood remain elevated, so ACTH independent Cushing's syndrome is suspected, what additional test would you request to confirm the diagnosis at this time?
Anyway, I think that the clinical case is poorly stated, since before doing the CT scan, ACTH should be measured and, once ACTH is suppressed, the CT scan should be done. But since the question is "what would you do to confirm the diagnosis of suspected ACTH independent Cushing's syndrome", the answer is CT.
ENDOCRINOLOGY
{ "1": "A petrosal sinus catheterization.", "2": "A gammagraphy with labeled somatostatin (Octreoscan).", "3": "A scan with Sesta-MIBI.", "4": "An abdominal ultrasound.", "5": "An adrenal CT scan." }
5
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
595
2,022
88
A 23-month-old boy presenting with fever, hypotension, repeated vomiting, meningeal signs, petechiae, and ecchymosis. The CBC shows 25,000 leukocytes (75% neutrophils, 10% white blood cells) and 12,000 platelets/microL, and the coagulation study shows a prothrombin activity of 35%. Which option is NOT appropriate for management?
Patient with suspected meningococcal sepsis. Stabilization with fluids (hypotension) according to ABCDE is essential. Blood culture can be obtained together with the initial blood test. Early initiation of antibiotic therapy (cefotaxime) is essential. However, in an unstable patient such as ours, a lumbar puncture is not indicated.
PEDIATRICS
{ "1": "Intravenous cefotaxime administration.", "2": "Lumbar puncture.", "3": "Collection of blood culture.", "4": "Intravenous fluids.", "5": null }
2
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 186, 251 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 25, 33 ] ], "text": "Early initiation of antibiotic therapy (cefotaxime) is essential." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 252, 333 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 33, 47 ] ], "text": "However, in an unstable patient such as ours, a lumbar puncture is not indicated." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 118, 185 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 14, 25 ] ], "text": "Blood culture can be obtained together with the initial blood test." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 117 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 14 ] ], "text": "Patient with suspected meningococcal sepsis. Stabilization with fluids (hypotension) according to ABCDE is essential." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
98
2,012
171
The patient presents since 2 weeks ago a pruritic eruption consisting of multiple polygonal erythematous-violaceous papules, with flattened surface, preferentially located on the anterior aspect of the wrists, pretibial area and lumbar area. She also presents whitish reticulated lesions in the jugal mucosa. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Lichen planus is a very common dermatosis of unknown etiology characterized by the appearance of pruritic polygonal papules, with a purplish color and shiny surface, preferentially located in the distal areas of the extremities. Characteristically these papules show a symmetrical distribution and are preferentially located on the anterior aspect of the wrists (Figure 1) and ankles. Oral mucosal involvement is very frequent, and approximately 75% of patients with lichen planus show an asymptomatic whitish reticulation affecting the jugal or lingual mucosa.
DERMATOLOGY, VENEREOLOGY AND PLASTIC SURGERY
{ "1": "Pityriasis versicolor.", "2": "Mycosis fungoides.", "3": "Psoriasis in drops.", "4": "Pityriasis rosea of Gibert.", "5": "Lichen planus." }
5
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 384 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 56 ] ], "text": "Lichen planus is a very common dermatosis of unknown etiology characterized by the appearance of pruritic polygonal papules, with a purplish color and shiny surface, preferentially located in the distal areas of the extremities. Characteristically these papules show a symmetrical distribution and are preferentially located on the anterior aspect of the wrists (Figure 1) and ankles." } }
118
2,012
117
A 14-year-old asymptomatic boy whose father has just been diagnosed with pulmonary TB undergoes a Mantoux test, with a negative result. What is the appropriate course of action?
In young contacts, chemoprophylaxis should be started even if the mantoux test is negative and repeated after 2-3 months to decide whether to continue treatment for 6 months (if it turns positive) or to stop it.
INFECTOLOGY
{ "1": "Reassure her that she is not at risk.", "2": "Chest X-ray.", "3": "Start chemoprophylaxis and repeat skin test after 3 months.", "4": "Repeat skin test at one month.", "5": "A sputum study should be performed before starting chemoprophylaxis with Isoniazid for 1 year." }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 211 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 36 ] ], "text": "In young contacts, chemoprophylaxis should be started even if the mantoux test is negative and repeated after 2-3 months to decide whether to continue treatment for 6 months (if it turns positive) or to stop it." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
388
2,016
233
A 13-year-old boy presents to the pediatrics office with a feeling of heartburn during and after meals and occasional dysphagia, which increases with the ingestion of solid foods such as meat. In the family history, his mother is diagnosed with hiatal hernia. In the personal history she refers to allergy to pollens, mites and latex. Physical examination shows no significant findings except for eczematous lesions in the popliteal and antecubital hollows. Which of the following complementary tests would you NOT perform according to the most probable diagnoses?
We are being presented with a case of eosinophilic esophagitis (adolescent male, with heartburn and dysphagia, and a history of atopic dermatitis). Of all the tests proposed to us, the least indicated in this case would be option 3.
PEDIATRICS
{ "1": "Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy.", "2": "Esophageal pHmetry of 24 hours.", "3": "Carbon 13 breath test for Helicobacter pylori.", "4": "Esophago-gastro-duodenal barium study.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 232 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 39 ] ], "text": "We are being presented with a case of eosinophilic esophagitis (adolescent male, with heartburn and dysphagia, and a history of atopic dermatitis). Of all the tests proposed to us, the least indicated in this case would be option 3." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
421
2,018
78
A 52-year-old man was referred to the gastroenterology department for hematochezia, tenesmus and reduction of stool diameter. A series of tests were performed and a diagnosis of adenocarcinoma of the sigma without distant metastasis was made. The patient underwent surgery and was referred to the medical oncology department for evaluation of complementary chemotherapy treatment. Which of the following is a poor prognostic factor after surgical resection and should be taken into account when planning chemotherapy treatment?
On this occasion, we are asked about which factors have the greatest influence in order to carry out adjuvant chemotherapy in colorectal cancer. In order to do so, we must know which are the poor prognostic factors in this pathology where obstruction or intestinal perforation due to the lesion, invasion of adjacent organs, elevation of tumor markers such as CEA and the histology of the neoplasm stand out. Among these, less importance is given to the size of the lesion than to its degree of invasion of the intestinal wall or other adjacent structures, a criterion that must be taken into account for staging by TNM or Astler-Coller classification, which guide the indication of adjuvant treatment after the surgical approach.
GENERAL SURGERY
{ "1": "The presence of anemia at diagnosis.", "2": "The existence of a family history of colorectal cancer.", "3": "The size of the primary lesion and histological differentiation.", "4": "Perforation or adhesion of the tumor to adjacent organs.", "5": null }
4
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 422, 472 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 70, 80 ] ], "text": "less importance is given to the size of the lesion" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 18, 295 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 3, 49 ] ], "text": "we are asked about which factors have the greatest influence in order to carry out adjuvant chemotherapy in colorectal cancer. In order to do so, we must know which are the poor prognostic factors in this pathology where obstruction or intestinal perforation due to the lesion," }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
500
2,020
45
15-year-old female presenting with delayed menarche and short stature. She does not have intellectual disability. Which of the following genetic tests would be routinely used for the diagnosis of this patient:
In a woman with delayed puberty and short stature we should always think about and rule out Turner syndrome, whose diagnosis is made by karyotyping (45X0).
PEDIATRICS
{ "1": "Massive sequencing (NGS).", "2": "FISH.", "3": "DNA and/or RNA microarrays.", "4": "Karyotype.", "5": null }
4
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 155 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 26 ] ], "text": "In a woman with delayed puberty and short stature we should always think about and rule out Turner syndrome, whose diagnosis is made by karyotyping (45X0)." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
611
2,022
116
95-year-old woman living in a nursing home, independent for her basic activities of daily living, goes out to the garden for walks. She has a history of hypertension, dyslipidemia, osteoporosis and mild cognitive impairment. She suffers a fall when getting up at night to go to the bathroom. X-ray shows a displaced subcapital fracture of the right hip. What is the recommended treatment?
We are told of a case of a 95-year-old patient with a displaced intracapsular (subcapital) hip fracture. In this case, the surgical options may be the use of cannulated screws or hip arthroplasty. Cannulated screws are reserved for cases of non-displaced fractures (Wrong answer 2) so the most indicated option would be arthroplasty, in this case hemiarthroplasty (Correct answer 1). Trochanteric pins are reserved for extracapsular fractures (Wrong answer 2) and conservative treatment is only considered in patients with very low functional demand or surgical contraindication (Wrong answer 4).
TRAUMATOLOGY
{ "1": "Hip hemiarthroplasty.", "2": "Trochanteric nail fixation.", "3": "Fixation with cannulated screws.", "4": "Conservative: bed-chair life.", "5": null }
1
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 197, 383 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 33, 60 ] ], "text": "Cannulated screws are reserved for cases of non-displaced fractures (Wrong answer 2) so the most indicated option would be arthroplasty, in this case hemiarthroplasty (Correct answer 1)." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 197, 459 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 33, 70 ] ], "text": "Cannulated screws are reserved for cases of non-displaced fractures (Wrong answer 2) so the most indicated option would be arthroplasty, in this case hemiarthroplasty (Correct answer 1). Trochanteric pins are reserved for extracapsular fractures (Wrong answer 2)" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 464, 596 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 71, 89 ] ], "text": "conservative treatment is only considered in patients with very low functional demand or surgical contraindication (Wrong answer 4)." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
542
2,022
38
A 25-year-old woman with a history of allergic bronchial asthma due to sensitization to grass pollens and atopic dermatitis. She suddenly presents hypotension, tachycardia, urticaria and bronchospasm after ingesting peanuts and is transferred to the emergency department. What would be the order of drugs to be administered and what laboratory test could be requested for further evaluation?
The patient is suffering from anaphylactic shock secondary to peanut ingestion. The treatment of anaphylaxis and anaphylactic shock of first choice is intramuscular adrenaline 1mg/ml (dose 0.01 mg/kg, in adults 0.5 mg maximum). Followed by symptomatic treatment to stabilize the airway with 100% high flow O2, ensure large caliber venous access, fluid replacement and continuous monitoring (HR, BP, SatO2 , diuresis). As adjuvant treatment, an inhaled bronchodilator such as SABA, intramuscular dexchlorpheniramine or corticosteroids such as hydrocortisone IV or methylprednisolone IV can be administered. Adrenaline can be repeated at the same doses every 5 minutes a maximum of 3 times and if after 15 minutes there is no response, IV adrenaline infusion should be started, Glucagon (if treatment with beta-blockers), Atropine (if prolonged bradycardia) or Vasopressors (if refractory hypotension). The laboratory marker that should be requested if anaphylaxis is suspected is serum tryptase in the first hour for a basal determination and another at 4-6 hours to observe its elevation curve. It is not an emergency marker but it is very useful for future allergological study.
ALLERGOLOGY
{ "1": "Intramuscular adrenaline, followed by an inhaled bronchodilator of the SABA type and intramuscular dexchlorpheniramine. Then request serum tryptase.", "2": "An inhaled SABA-type bronchodilator, followed by intramuscular dexchlorpheniramine and intramuscular adrenaline. Then order serum tryptase.", "3": "Intramuscular dexchlorpheniramine, followed by an inhaled bronchodilator of the SABA type and intramuscular adrenaline. Then request eosinophil cationic protein.", "4": "Intramuscular adrenaline, followed by an inhaled bronchodilator of the SABA type and intramuscular dexchlorpheniramine. Then request eosinophil cationic protein.", "5": null }
1
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 901, 1094 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 129, 161 ] ], "text": "The laboratory marker that should be requested if anaphylaxis is suspected is serum tryptase in the first hour for a basal determination and another at 4-6 hours to observe its elevation curve." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 901, 1094 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 129, 161 ] ], "text": "The laboratory marker that should be requested if anaphylaxis is suspected is serum tryptase in the first hour for a basal determination and another at 4-6 hours to observe its elevation curve." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
79
2,012
36
Which of the following clinical data, recorded during the clinical history taking of a patient with diarrhea of more than 4 weeks of evolution, can be found in people without organic pathology:
Although mucus is usually more frightening in the consultation, it falls within the Rome II criteria for the diagnosis of Irritable Bowel Syndrome. All the rest are typical signs of organicity, although I think the question is poorly phrased, since any of these data (especially age) can be found in patients who in the end have nothing, what happens is that in these cases we must always look for organicity.
DIGESTIVE SYSTEM
{ "1": "Weight loss with or without rectorrhagia.", "2": "Persistence of diarrhea during the night.", "3": "Onset of symptoms after age 50.", "4": "Presence of dermatitis and/or arthritis during the examination.", "5": "Expulsion of mucus in more than 25% of defecations." }
5
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 148, 193 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 23, 31 ] ], "text": "All the rest are typical signs of organicity," }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 148, 193 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 23, 31 ] ], "text": "All the rest are typical signs of organicity," }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 148, 193 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 23, 31 ] ], "text": "All the rest are typical signs of organicity," }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 148, 193 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 23, 31 ] ], "text": "All the rest are typical signs of organicity," }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 147 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 23 ] ], "text": "Although mucus is usually more frightening in the consultation, it falls within the Rome II criteria for the diagnosis of Irritable Bowel Syndrome." } }
524
2,021
54
An 86-year-old woman in whom nonvalvular atrial fibrillation has been detected. She has a CHADS2 score of 3 points. In the literature, similar patients on warfarin therapy have a stroke risk of 2.2% vs. 5.2% in patients without warfarin. What would be the number needed to treat (NNT) to prevent an emboligenic stroke with anticoagulation therapy:
On average, if 100 patients like this woman are treated with warfarin, the number of strokes is reduced by 3 (from 5.2 untreated to 3.2 treated). Therefore, if you treat 33.3 patients like this woman with warfarin, you reduce the number of strokes by 1: the NNT is 33.3.
STATISTICS
{ "1": "3", "2": "19,2.", "3": "33,3.", "4": "49,5.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 270 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 49 ] ], "text": "On average, if 100 patients like this woman are treated with warfarin, the number of strokes is reduced by 3 (from 5.2 untreated to 3.2 treated). Therefore, if you treat 33.3 patients like this woman with warfarin, you reduce the number of strokes by 1: the NNT is 33.3." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
319
2,016
141
A 20-year-old boy consults for lumbosacral pain of inflammatory rhythm of 4 months of evolution. Also bilateral thalalgia and morning stiffness for 1 hour. In the last 2 months, onset of diarrhea with loss of 4 kg of weight. What is the most correct diagnostic approach?
The clinical picture is typical of spondyloarthritis, and together with the digestive symptoms it is probably associated with inflammatory bowel disease.
RHEUMATOLOGY
{ "1": "Given the patient's age, he most likely suffers from non-specific low back pain and tendonitis in the feet. If the diarrhea persists, a digestive study would be performed.", "2": "I would perform a digestive study to rule out tumor pathology. The lumbar pain may be due to visceral pathology.", "3": "The clinical picture is very suggestive of spondyloarthritis. Inflammatory bowel disease should be ruled out.", "4": "I would request a lumbar MRI to rule out disc herniation and if diarrhea persists, a digestive study.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 153 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 21 ] ], "text": "The clinical picture is typical of spondyloarthritis, and together with the digestive symptoms it is probably associated with inflammatory bowel disease." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
400
2,016
147
A 13-year-old boy presents dorsal pain of several months of evolution, only on standing and walking, what diagnosis should we consider?
The pain is of mechanical characteristics, and the most frequent cause of mechanical back pain in adolescents is mechanical overload. There is no data in the statement to suggest any of the other etiologies.
TRAUMATOLOGY AND ORTHOPEDICS
{ "1": "Scheuermann's disease.", "2": "Thoracic scoliosis.", "3": "Malignant tumor of the vertebral body.", "4": "It is a mechanical overload.", "5": null }
4
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 134, 207 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 20, 34 ] ], "text": "There is no data in the statement to suggest any of the other etiologies." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 134, 207 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 20, 34 ] ], "text": "There is no data in the statement to suggest any of the other etiologies." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 134, 207 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 20, 34 ] ], "text": "There is no data in the statement to suggest any of the other etiologies." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 133 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 20 ] ], "text": "The pain is of mechanical characteristics, and the most frequent cause of mechanical back pain in adolescents is mechanical overload." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
196
2,013
164
A 4-year-old boy consulted for the appearance over the last three days of skin lesions on the legs and buttocks. His parents reported that his pediatrician had diagnosed an upper respiratory tract infection 10 days earlier. In the last 12 hours she presented intense colicky abdominal pain and had two diarrheal stools. Afebrile. No weight loss. On examination she has numerous petechiae and palpable purpuric lesions predominantly on the buttocks and lower extremities. Good general condition although she has intense abdominal pain. Abdominal palpation is difficult to assess due to diffuse pain. No visceromegaly. No other findings of interest on examination. Which of the following data does NOT support your diagnostic suspicion?
You are describing a Schönlein-Henoch purpura which is a vasculitic phenomenon, so the lesions are not due to plateletopenia. Scrotal edema (sometimes even torsion of Morgani's capsid of the testis) is not exceptional in males with S. Schönlein-Henoch.
PEDIATRICS
{ "1": "Knee and ankle arthritis.", "2": "Hematuria.", "3": "Plateletopenia.", "4": "Fecal occult blood.", "5": "Scrotal edema." }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 252 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 38 ] ], "text": "You are describing a Schönlein-Henoch purpura which is a vasculitic phenomenon, so the lesions are not due to plateletopenia. Scrotal edema (sometimes even torsion of Morgani's capsid of the testis) is not exceptional in males with S. Schönlein-Henoch." } }
509
2,021
150
83-year-old male who consults for a recurrent picture of abdominal pain in the left iliac fossa, accompanied by diarrhea of up to 6 stools per day without pathological products, of 10-15 days of evolution. No fever or general condition was reported. A recent blood test showed no leukocytosis and a negative fecal occult blood test. On examination there is mild pain on palpation of the left iliac fossa without peritoneal irritation. He had a colonoscopy three years ago in which diverticula were reported along the entire colon, more numerous in the left colon, with no other associated lesions. Which of the following would be the best approach to follow?
They refer to a concept that has emerged relatively recently and is not present in all clinical guidelines as uncomplicated symptomatic diverticular disease. In these cases, the therapeutic trial with rifaximin is recommended, being the true number 1. The absence of acute phase reactants in the CBC suggests that she does not have acute diverticulitis at the time of consultation that would lead us to request an imaging test to rule it out.
DIGESTIVE
{ "1": "Empirical treatment with antibiotics.", "2": "Request a preferential colonoscopy.", "3": "Request urgent abdominal ultrasound.", "4": "Refer to surgery to evaluate sigmoidectomy.", "5": null }
1
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 251 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 38 ] ], "text": "They refer to a concept that has emerged relatively recently and is not present in all clinical guidelines as uncomplicated symptomatic diverticular disease. In these cases, the therapeutic trial with rifaximin is recommended, being the true number 1." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 252, 442 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 38, 73 ] ], "text": "The absence of acute phase reactants in the CBC suggests that she does not have acute diverticulitis at the time of consultation that would lead us to request an imaging test to rule it out." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 252, 442 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 38, 73 ] ], "text": "The absence of acute phase reactants in the CBC suggests that she does not have acute diverticulitis at the time of consultation that would lead us to request an imaging test to rule it out." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
549
2,022
128
75-year-old woman with a history of heart failure with an ejection fraction of 25% who comes for a check-up, being stable in NYHA functional class III. She has an implanted cardioverter defibrillator. Current medication consists of lisinopril, carvedilol and spironolactone at maximum tolerated doses. On physical examination he has BP 118/74 mmHg, HR 78 bpm. On cardiac auscultation a third tone is detected, pulmonary auscultation is normal and there is no edema. Which of the following is the most appropriate step in his management?
Discontinue lisinopril and initiate sacubitril/valsartan.
CARDIOLOGY
{ "1": "Add sacubitril/valsartan.", "2": "Add ivabradine.", "3": "Discontinue lisinopril and start sacubitril/valsartan.", "4": "Discontinue carvedilol and start ivabradine.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 57 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 5 ] ], "text": "Discontinue lisinopril and initiate sacubitril/valsartan." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
221
2,014
48
A 20-year-old man with ataxia, headaches and solid-cystic mass in the right cerebellar hemisphere underwent surgery and a lesion was resected, histologically showing cells with long thin cytoplasmic processes, fascicular and microcystic pattern, numerous vessels and Rosenthal's fibers. The most probable anatomopathologic diagnosis is:
A question that does not seem to have a second intention, as there are no confusing elements. The statement concisely summarizes the description of pilocytic astrocytoma. The Rosenthal fibers may confuse us as they are not very specific, and make us think, for example, of pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma in which they can also be found, but the cell morphology described (long and thin cytoplasmic processes, which are the ones that give the name "pilocytic") keeps us the first option as the correct one. We can find a good description of the entity, explaining what distinguishes it from other glial tumors in Practical Surgical Neuropathology. A Diagnostic Approach. A. Perry, D.J. Brat. p82-88. Churchill Livingstone Elsevier. 2010. (Philadephia).
ANATOMIC PATHOLOGY
{ "1": "Pilocytic astrocytoma.", "2": "Pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma.", "3": "Central neurocytoma.", "4": "Liponeurocytoma.", "5": "Prion disease." }
1
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 171, 504 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 26, 82 ] ], "text": "The Rosenthal fibers may confuse us as they are not very specific, and make us think, for example, of pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma in which they can also be found, but the cell morphology described (long and thin cytoplasmic processes, which are the ones that give the name \"pilocytic\") keeps us the first option as the correct one." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 171, 504 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 26, 82 ] ], "text": "The Rosenthal fibers may confuse us as they are not very specific, and make us think, for example, of pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma in which they can also be found, but the cell morphology described (long and thin cytoplasmic processes, which are the ones that give the name \"pilocytic\") keeps us the first option as the correct one." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
606
2,022
113
35-year-old male, letter carrier, with no history of interest, who comes to the emergency department for acute cervical pain of 24 hours of evolution, without previous trauma, which radiates to the left arm up to the hand and is accompanied by paresthesia in the radial border of the forearm. She presents no objectifiable loss of strength, preserves neck mobility although it is painful and contracture of the paravertebral musculature is appreciated. The first attitude will be:
Correct answer 1. 75% of patients with radiculopathy improve with non-surgical treatment, this being the treatment of choice in the initial stages. Magnetic resonance imaging is of choice in certain "red flags": fever, weight loss, nocturnal pain, persistence of symptoms despite conservative treatment and loss of strength (incorrect answer 3).
TRAUMATOLOGY
{ "1": "Conservative treatment with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, local heat and relative rest.", "2": "Urgent call to the neurosurgeon for surgical evaluation.", "3": "Preferential request for MRI and electromyogram.", "4": "Preferential referral to traumatology outpatients.", "5": null }
1
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 147 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 22 ] ], "text": "Correct answer 1. 75% of patients with radiculopathy improve with non-surgical treatment, this being the treatment of choice in the initial stages." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 148, 345 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 22, 50 ] ], "text": "Magnetic resonance imaging is of choice in certain \"red flags\": fever, weight loss, nocturnal pain, persistence of symptoms despite conservative treatment and loss of strength (incorrect answer 3)." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
436
2,018
223
A 35-year-old Bolivian woman, 3 months pregnant, who has been living in Spain for 10 years with her partner, who is Spanish and has never traveled to Latin America. The woman has two other children with her partner, born in Spain, and a brother who lives in Bolivia and another in Spain. During her pregnancy she has been diagnosed with Trypanosoma cruzi infection. Which of the following is WRONG?
The sexual route is not a means of transmission of Trypanosoma cruzi. In our environment, since the transmitting vector is not found, the most important means of transmission is the vertical route from mother to child. The woman was already infected by the parasite when she arrived in Spain, it may be correct to suggest that her siblings have a T. cruzi serology test because of the risk that her mother may have transmitted the infection vertically to all her siblings. Likewise, having had two pregnancies in these years of stay in Spain, it should be suggested that her children also be tested for the probable vertical transmission.
INFECTIOUS DISEASES AND MICROBIOLOGY
{ "1": "Recommend that their children have a T. cruzi serology because of the risk of transplacental transmission.", "2": "Inform the patient of the risk of T. cruzi transmission and the attitude to be taken during pregnancy, delivery and postpartum.", "3": "Recommend that her husband have T. cruzi serology because of the risk of having sexually transmitted the disease to her.", "4": "Recommend that her siblings have T. cruzi serology because of the risk of vectorial transmission.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 483, 638 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 82, 108 ] ], "text": "having had two pregnancies in these years of stay in Spain, it should be suggested that her children also be tested for the probable vertical transmission." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 69 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 12 ] ], "text": "The sexual route is not a means of transmission of Trypanosoma cruzi." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 219, 472 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 36, 81 ] ], "text": "The woman was already infected by the parasite when she arrived in Spain, it may be correct to suggest that her siblings have a T. cruzi serology test because of the risk that her mother may have transmitted the infection vertically to all her siblings." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
220
2,014
126
A 42-year-old man came to consultation for edema. Initial tests showed the presence of proteinuria of more than 10 grams/24 hours. Which of the following measures is NOT indicated in the treatment of this patient?
The patient in the case presents a nephrotic syndrome, so far so good. As for the diet, to reduce edema in these patients, it is recommended that it be low-protein and low-salt, so options 1 and 3 would be true. ACE inhibitors are also administered as primary treatment for nephrotic syndrome, since they decrease urinary protein excretion, as do ARA II and loop diuretics, so options 2 and 5 would also be correct. Therefore, simply by discarding, we are left with option 4 as false, and therefore, the correct answer. Moreover, it should stand out from the beginning as the option to be marked, since precisely one of the causes of nephrotic syndrome is the intake of NSAIDs, so how could they be indicated in the treatment?
NEPHROLOGY
{ "1": "Low-protein diet.", "2": "Administration of loop diuretics.", "3": "Restriction of salt in the diet.", "4": "Administration of NSAIDs.", "5": "Administration of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors." }
4
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 88, 211 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 17, 40 ] ], "text": "to reduce edema in these patients, it is recommended that it be low-protein and low-salt, so options 1 and 3 would be true." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 212, 415 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 40, 73 ] ], "text": "ACE inhibitors are also administered as primary treatment for nephrotic syndrome, since they decrease urinary protein excretion, as do ARA II and loop diuretics, so options 2 and 5 would also be correct." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 88, 211 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 17, 40 ] ], "text": "to reduce edema in these patients, it is recommended that it be low-protein and low-salt, so options 1 and 3 would be true." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 597, 677 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 104, 118 ] ], "text": "since precisely one of the causes of nephrotic syndrome is the intake of NSAIDs," }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 212, 415 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 40, 73 ] ], "text": "ACE inhibitors are also administered as primary treatment for nephrotic syndrome, since they decrease urinary protein excretion, as do ARA II and loop diuretics, so options 2 and 5 would also be correct." } }
483
2,020
174
A 22-year-old woman presents with sudden cardiac arrest with a rhythm that is considered amenable to defibrillation. Chest compressions and ventilations are being performed, a defibrillator shock has been delivered, and a peripheral venous line has been cannulated. Which of the following would be correct next:
Controversial question, since amiodarone (the dose is correct, 300mg), is administered after the third shock, and not after the first defibrillation, which is what we are told in the statement. Although, be careful, that is what the guidelines say. I am sure that more than one of us has administered amiodarone as soon as we have had venous access available in the event of a shockable rhythm. The other options are incorrect.
CRITICAL CARE
{ "1": "Administration of 150 mg of intravenous amiodarone.", "2": "Administration of 300 mg of intravenous amiodarone.", "3": "Administration of 1 mg of intravenous atropine.", "4": "Administer 2 mg of intravenous atropine.", "5": null }
2
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 30, 70 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 3, 9 ] ], "text": "amiodarone (the dose is correct, 300mg)," }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
113
2,012
93
A 35-year-old healthy woman consults for asthenia. The CBC shows microcytic and hypochromic anemia (hemoglobin 7 g/dL, mean corpuscular volume 68 fl, mean corpuscular hemoglobin 24 pg) with an elevated red cell distribution amplitude (ADE 20%), decreased reticulocytes (0.3%, 30000/l absolute), decreased hemoglobin content in reticulocytes (17 pg) and discrete thrombocytosis (500000 platelets). With the CBC data, what would be your diagnostic suspicion even without having the patient's biochemistry?
With the data we are given, the first thing that comes to mind is that it is an arregenerative anemia, since the bone marrow has not responded with an exaltation of erythropoiesis; in this way we have already eliminated the options that speak of regenerative anemia. The next thing that orients us towards the cause is that it is microcytic and hypochromic, which is characteristic of iron deficiency anemia, since folic deficiency gives rise to megaloblastic anemia and active hemorrhage does not give microcytosis or hypochromia, but normocytosis and normochromia. We are almost inclined to answer 5, central arregenerative anemia due to iron deficiency...but there remains answer 1, "thalassemic trait", which makes us uncomfortable and makes us doubt if we are not going for the apparently easy thing...until we remember that in thalassemia the ADE is normal. Definitely, this girl of childbearing age has iron deficiency anemia, something quite common. Those who have doubts can consult "Hematology. Manual básico razonado" by Jesús San Miguel.
HEMATOLOGY
{ "1": "Thalassemic trait.", "2": "Central anemia, arregenerative, due to folic acid deficiency.", "3": "Peripheral, regenerative, hemolytic anemia.", "4": "Peripheral anemia, regenerative, due to acute active hemorrhage.", "5": "Central anemia, arregenerative, due to iron deficiency." }
5
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 830, 863 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 131, 137 ] ], "text": "in thalassemia the ADE is normal." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 109, 266 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 21, 46 ] ], "text": "the bone marrow has not responded with an exaltation of erythropoiesis; in this way we have already eliminated the options that speak of regenerative anemia." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 109, 266 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 21, 46 ] ], "text": "the bone marrow has not responded with an exaltation of erythropoiesis; in this way we have already eliminated the options that speak of regenerative anemia." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 287, 566 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 50, 90 ] ], "text": "orients us towards the cause is that it is microcytic and hypochromic, which is characteristic of iron deficiency anemia, since folic deficiency gives rise to megaloblastic anemia and active hemorrhage does not give microcytosis or hypochromia, but normocytosis and normochromia." } }
59
2,011
51
A 47-year-old male patient who consults the emergency department for sudden loss of consciousness Which of the following has a higher diagnostic yield?
Obviously, it is the only answer that encompasses all the causes of sudden loss of consciousness and that allows us to somehow filter the diagnosis.
ANESTHESIOLOGY AND CRITICAL CARE
{ "1": "Clinical history.", "2": "Electrocardiogram.", "3": "Holter recording.", "4": "EEG.", "5": "Cranial CT scan." }
1
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 148 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 25 ] ], "text": "Obviously, it is the only answer that encompasses all the causes of sudden loss of consciousness and that allows us to somehow filter the diagnosis." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
412
2,018
54
Elizabeth has three sons and one daughter (Mary), all of whom are healthy. A brother and a maternal uncle of Isabel died of Duchenne disease: an X-linked recessive disease. At present, Maria wants to become pregnant and wants to know the risk of transmitting the disease to her offspring. With the data collected, what is the probability that Maria is a carrier of Duchenne disease?
The maternal grandmother carried the mutation in one copy of the gene on an X chromosome (we are not told that she had the disease, but a son of hers, Isabel's maternal uncle, did have the disease). Isabel's mother continues to carry it, since one of Isabel's brothers has suffered from the disease but not her father. Thus, Isabel has a 50% chance of having inherited the mutated gene from her mother (as her children are all healthy, we are not sure if she is a carrier), and therefore her daughter has a 25% chance of having inherited the mutated gene from her grandmother.
BIOSTATISTICS
{ "1": "2/3.", "2": "1/2.", "3": "1/4.", "4": "Less than 1/4.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 576 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 104 ] ], "text": "The maternal grandmother carried the mutation in one copy of the gene on an X chromosome (we are not told that she had the disease, but a son of hers, Isabel's maternal uncle, did have the disease). Isabel's mother continues to carry it, since one of Isabel's brothers has suffered from the disease but not her father. Thus, Isabel has a 50% chance of having inherited the mutated gene from her mother (as her children are all healthy, we are not sure if she is a carrier), and therefore her daughter has a 25% chance of having inherited the mutated gene from her grandmother." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
347
2,016
159
69-year-old woman who comes to your office referring genital bleeding of several months of evolution. She denies hormone replacement therapy and anticoagulation. She provides normal cervicovaginal cytology. General and genital physical examination without findings of interest. BMI of 38kg/m2. Indicate the most correct attitude:
Endometrial biopsy. Peri- or menopause: - Due to the high prevalence of organic pathology during this period it is necessary to systematically perform endometrial biopsy (Cornier or Hysteroscopy).
GYNECOLOGY AND OBSTETRICS
{ "1": "Prescribe cyclic progesterone.", "2": "Endometrial biopsy.", "3": "Random biopsies of the cervix.", "4": "Hormonal assessment with FSH, LH and estradiol.", "5": null }
2
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 20, 196 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 2, 28 ] ], "text": "Peri- or menopause: - Due to the high prevalence of organic pathology during this period it is necessary to systematically perform endometrial biopsy (Cornier or Hysteroscopy)." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
325
2,016
56
A 54-year-old patient is admitted for thermometric fever of 38°C in the previous five days and dyspnea at rest (NYHA lV) that appeared 6 hours before coming to the hospital. Examination in the emergency room was compatible with heart failure and the ECG showed complete atrioventricular block with an escape ventricular rate of 45 bpm. Signs of heart failure are refractory to medical treatment and transesophageal echocardiography shows an aortic valve with an effective regurgitant orifice of 0.5 cm2. Serial cultures are positive for Streptococcus gallolyticus. Indicate the best course of action:
The correct answer is 1, since the indications for cardiac surgery include the appearance of heart failure or new conduction disorders, and in this case it presents both.
CRITICAL, PALLIATIVE AND EMERGENCY CARE
{ "1": "Cardiac surgery for aortic valve replacement by mechanical prosthesis with antibiotic therapy according to antibiogram.", "2": "Antibiotic therapy according to antibiogram and implantation of intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation and transient pacemaker for up to 3 weeks, after which a permanent pacemaker will be implanted.", "3": "Implantation of transient pacemaker, antibiotic therapy according to antibiogram and percutaneous implantation of aortic valve prosthesis.", "4": "Urgent implantation of definitive pacemaker with antibiotic therapy according to antibiogram for 6 weeks.", "5": null }
1
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 31, 170 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 6, 28 ] ], "text": "the indications for cardiac surgery include the appearance of heart failure or new conduction disorders, and in this case it presents both." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
335
2,016
175
An 88-year-old man comes for consultation because he has fallen 3 times in the last 6 months. None of the falls was accompanied by dizziness or syncope. One fall occurred while he was walking in the garden. His medical history includes hypertension without postural changes in blood pressure, gout, osteoarthritis, and depression. She takes 5 medications regularly. Which of the following is most likely to contribute to falls in this patient?
Paroxetine; complicated question since both hydrochlorothiazide and lisinopril can also produce falls in the elderly, but they would generally be accompanied by dizziness.
PHARMACOLOGY
{ "1": "Allopurinol.", "2": "Hydrochlorothiazide.", "3": "Lisinopril.", "4": "Paroxetine.", "5": null }
4
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 39, 171 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 4, 23 ] ], "text": "both hydrochlorothiazide and lisinopril can also produce falls in the elderly, but they would generally be accompanied by dizziness." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 39, 171 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 4, 23 ] ], "text": "both hydrochlorothiazide and lisinopril can also produce falls in the elderly, but they would generally be accompanied by dizziness." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 39, 171 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 4, 23 ] ], "text": "both hydrochlorothiazide and lisinopril can also produce falls in the elderly, but they would generally be accompanied by dizziness." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
19
2,011
109
A 32-year-old woman has traveled to Cuba from where she arrived three days ago. The day after her return, she goes to her family doctor for high fever, intense arthromyalgia and headache that had started before the return trip and he prescribes her paracetamol. Three days later and with no improvement, he presented in the morning with a generalized pruritic maculo-papular rash, which was more intense on the lower limbs where it developed into petechiae, for which he went to the emergency department. There is no relevant data in the EC except platelets 75000/mm3 (htco 36%, leukocytes 4100 79% neutrophils). What is the most likely diagnosis?
In this case I believe that the correct answer is 5. The 1 should not be because although the clinical picture is suggestive, it does not present lymphocytosis. It does not seem to be an allergic exanthema from the clinical picture. And certainly she does not have symptoms or clinical signs compatible with malaria or typhoid fever. What points to dengue, in addition to the clinical signs, is the plateletopenia.
INFECTIOUS DISEASES
{ "1": "Infectious mononucleosis.", "2": "Allergic exanthema.", "3": "P. falciparum malaria.", "4": "Typhoid fever.", "5": "Dengue fever." }
5
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 233, 291 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 41, 51 ] ], "text": "And certainly she does not have symptoms or clinical signs" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 237, 332 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 42, 57 ] ], "text": "certainly she does not have symptoms or clinical signs compatible with malaria or typhoid fever." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 237, 332 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 42, 57 ] ], "text": "certainly she does not have symptoms or clinical signs compatible with malaria or typhoid fever." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 53, 159 ], [ 334, 414 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 11, 28 ], [ 57, 70 ] ], "text": "The 1 should not be because although the clinical picture is suggestive, it does not present lymphocytosis. What points to dengue, in addition to the clinical signs, is the plateletopenia." } }
401
2,016
147
A 13-year-old boy presents dorsal pain of several months of evolution, only when standing and walking, what diagnosis should we consider?
A malignant tumor would also hurt at rest. As for Scheuermann and scoliosis, we should be given some physical data because the patient presents with a specific examination that would give us the diagnosis.
TRAUMATOLOGY AND ORTHOPEDICS
{ "1": "Scheuermann's disease.", "2": "Thoracic scoliosis.", "3": "Malignant tumor of the vertebral body.", "4": "It is a mechanical overload.", "5": null }
4
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 43, 205 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 8, 34 ] ], "text": "As for Scheuermann and scoliosis, we should be given some physical data because the patient presents with a specific examination that would give us the diagnosis." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 43, 205 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 8, 34 ] ], "text": "As for Scheuermann and scoliosis, we should be given some physical data because the patient presents with a specific examination that would give us the diagnosis." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 42 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 8 ] ], "text": "A malignant tumor would also hurt at rest." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
607
2,022
115
A 27-year-old male, a regular athlete, complains of pain in the right leg after continuous running. He has visited a physiotherapist on several occasions and has been diagnosed with an overload in the calf muscles. Several months have passed, he has not improved and refers intense pain after physical activity that subsides with rest in the following hours of exercise. What test can help in the diagnosis?
Clinical suspicion of chronic compartment syndrome (CCS). The diagnosis is made by obtaining compartment pressures at rest, during exercise and post-exercise.
TRAUMATOLOGY
{ "1": "Positron emission tomography with 18 FDG.", "2": "Determination of posterior compartment pressure immediately after activity.", "3": "Doppler ultrasound to rule out a circulatory disorder of the lower extremity.", "4": "Magnetic resonance spectroscopy.", "5": null }
2
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 158 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 21 ] ], "text": "Clinical suspicion of chronic compartment syndrome (CCS). The diagnosis is made by obtaining compartment pressures at rest, during exercise and post-exercise." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
453
2,018
150
A 25-year-old man consults for tremor. Examination reveals dysarthria and dystonia. He has a family history of psychiatric illness and movement disorders. Which diagnostic test do you consider most accurate?
If they are talking about a young man 20-30 years old, with tremor and dystonia, whether or not he has a family history, and especially if one of the options tells me about copper in urine, they are telling me to think of Wilson's disease. I do not think of juvenile Parkinson's, nor an epileptic clinic. So the correct answer is 4.
NEUROLOGY
{ "1": "DATS CAN.", "2": "Nerve conduction study.", "3": "Electroencephalogram.", "4": "Copper in urine of 24.", "5": null }
4
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 332 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 62 ] ], "text": "If they are talking about a young man 20-30 years old, with tremor and dystonia, whether or not he has a family history, and especially if one of the options tells me about copper in urine, they are telling me to think of Wilson's disease. I do not think of juvenile Parkinson's, nor an epileptic clinic. So the correct answer is 4." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 332 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 62 ] ], "text": "If they are talking about a young man 20-30 years old, with tremor and dystonia, whether or not he has a family history, and especially if one of the options tells me about copper in urine, they are telling me to think of Wilson's disease. I do not think of juvenile Parkinson's, nor an epileptic clinic. So the correct answer is 4." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 332 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 62 ] ], "text": "If they are talking about a young man 20-30 years old, with tremor and dystonia, whether or not he has a family history, and especially if one of the options tells me about copper in urine, they are telling me to think of Wilson's disease. I do not think of juvenile Parkinson's, nor an epileptic clinic. So the correct answer is 4." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
529
2,021
166
An 18-year-old patient consulted for edema. A complete blood test showed proteinuria of 8 g/day without microhematuria, hypoalbuminemia and hypercholesterolemia with normal renal function. He was empirically administered corticosteroids. After one month, the clinical picture has completely disappeared. What is your diagnostic hypothesis?
We describe a young patient with criteria of nephrotic syndrome with excellent response to corticosteroids. Without biopsy, the clinical presentation and evolution suggest a nephropathy with minimal changes, which usually presents with normal or slightly altered renal function together with nephrotic syndrome, and which in 85-90% of cases resolves with steroid treatment. The age is the only data that is a bit shaky, since although it is the most frequent cause of idiopathic nephrotic syndrome in children and adolescents, it is usually recommended to perform a biopsy prior to treatment in those older than 16 years, in any case it does not admit much discussion.
NEPHROLOGY
{ "1": "Amyloidosis.", "2": "IgA nephropathy or Berger's disease.", "3": "Alport syndrome.", "4": "Nephropathy with minimal changes.", "5": null }
4
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 311 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 42 ] ], "text": "We describe a young patient with criteria of nephrotic syndrome with excellent response to corticosteroids. Without biopsy, the clinical presentation and evolution suggest a nephropathy with minimal changes, which usually presents with normal or slightly altered renal function together with nephrotic syndrome," }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
258
2,014
96
A 62-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus of 10 years of evolution is treated with metformin and sitagliptin. He does little physical exercise and follows an adequate diet. In the last 6 months he has lost weight and has more asthenia. Her glycemic controls have deteriorated from baseline blood glucose levels of 110-140 mg/dL to 170-200 mg/dL, as well as her glycosylated hemoglobin which has gone from 7.1 to 8.5%. The most appropriate therapeutic measure to be taken is:
To associate a basal insulin dose to the treatment. Expected question on a very important subject: diabetes and its treatment. Patient poorly controlled with metformin and sitagliptin with discrete cardinal symptoms (weight loss, asthenia). The best option is insulin to control cardinal symptoms and decrease HbA1c to < 7%.
ENDOCRINOLOGY
{ "1": "Increase dietary protein and long-chain carbohydrate intake to improve asthenia and weight loss.", "2": "To associate a basal insulin dose to the treatment.", "3": "Associate with ascarbose treatment.", "4": "Substitute sitagliptin for pioglitazone.", "5": "Substitute metformin for glimepiride." }
2
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 127, 324 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 20, 49 ] ], "text": "Patient poorly controlled with metformin and sitagliptin with discrete cardinal symptoms (weight loss, asthenia). The best option is insulin to control cardinal symptoms and decrease HbA1c to < 7%." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
375
2,016
128
A 45-year-old patient under study for possible meningitis, with fever, headache and vomiting of 2 days of evolution. A brain MRI and lumbar puncture were performed. Twenty hours later, on getting up to go to the bathroom, he complains of severe headache, very marked when he sits up but disappears when he lies down. She no longer has fever or vomiting. What is most likely the origin of this headache?
The picture they describe of intense headache with orthostatism that disappears when lying down, although it is true that the most typical presentation is between the first 24-48 hours and in this case it is somewhat earlier. Even so, the rest of the answers are improbable: the first cannot be because we have not been told what the initial headache was like; the third, although it could be due to the time of onset (as I said a little earlier than expected), the reality is that the headache with orthostasis is so typical that it would be the most probable cause; the last one could not be either because SAH does not follow this pattern in relation to orthostasis.
NEUROLOGY
{ "1": "Meningitis remains the fundamental cause of her headache, as it is the same type of headache as at the onset of symptoms.", "2": "It is a post lumbar puncture headache.", "3": "It is necessary to look for a different cause to this headache, because it is not typical of post-lumbar puncture syndrome or meningitis.", "4": "Most likely it was not a viral meningitis, but a subarachnoid hemorrhage. For this reason, the initial headache disappears almost completely when lying down.", "5": null }
2
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 275, 360 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 46, 62 ] ], "text": "the first cannot be because we have not been told what the initial headache was like;" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 96 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 14 ] ], "text": "The picture they describe of intense headache with orthostatism that disappears when lying down," }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 361, 567 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 62, 101 ] ], "text": "the third, although it could be due to the time of onset (as I said a little earlier than expected), the reality is that the headache with orthostasis is so typical that it would be the most probable cause;" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 568, 669 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 101, 119 ] ], "text": "the last one could not be either because SAH does not follow this pattern in relation to orthostasis." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
352
2,016
161
A 27-year-old woman referred to the gynecology office for evaluation referring dyspareunia for about 8 months, along with dyschezia and occasional rectorrhagia coinciding with menstruation for 3-4 months. She also reports dysmenorrhea for years, which she controls well with ibuprofen. She has been trying to get pregnant for 16 months without success. In the gynecological examination she only shows pain when pressing on the posterior vaginal fornix. Which test do you consider would allow you to reach a diagnosis of certainty of her pathology?
The correct answer is 2. We are facing a suspicion of endometriosis, due to the symptoms and signs given in the statement. We are asked for a diagnosis of certainty, and the Gold Standard for the diagnosis of this disease is diagnostic laparoscopy.
GYNECOLOGY AND OBSTETRICS
{ "1": "Transvaginal ultrasound.", "2": "Diagnostic laparoscopy.", "3": "Magnetic resonance imaging.", "4": "Colonoscopy.", "5": null }
2
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 25, 248 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 5, 43 ] ], "text": "We are facing a suspicion of endometriosis, due to the symptoms and signs given in the statement. We are asked for a diagnosis of certainty, and the Gold Standard for the diagnosis of this disease is diagnostic laparoscopy." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
575
2,022
102
A 29-year-old woman with a history of febrile seizures and a heavy smoker. She consults for frequent, stereotyped episodes that begin with an ascending epigastric sensation and an unpleasant odor, followed by disconnection from the environment. Family members who are with her observe that she makes sucking movements and repeated opening and closing movements of the left hand. After two minutes the movements subside, but she has difficulty responding appropriately and only partially remembers what happened. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
The clinical case makes a textbook description of a medial temporal seizure. The aura of ascending epigastric sensation and olfactory alteration and the subsequent description of the seizure with alteration of the level of consciousness (disconnection from the environment) with oral and manual automatisms. The current classification is the 2017 ILAE classification that would describe this seizure as focal seizure with altered level of consciousness, but in the MIR they still use the old terminology (complex is what altered level of consciousness was called).
NEUROLOGY
{ "1": "Complex focal temporal lobe seizures.", "2": "Transient ischemic attacks in right carotid territory.", "3": "Simple focal motor seizures.", "4": "Episodes of transient global amnesia.", "5": null }
1
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 308, 564 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 44, 84 ] ], "text": "The current classification is the 2017 ILAE classification that would describe this seizure as focal seizure with altered level of consciousness, but in the MIR they still use the old terminology (complex is what altered level of consciousness was called)." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
278
2,016
31
A 20-year-old woman with a 15 cm solid-cystic ovarian tumor detected by ultrasound after presenting with non-specific abdominal symptoms. In the anatomopathological study of the corresponding specimen, teeth, hairs, areas of intestinal epithelium, areas of squamous epithelium (15%) and bronchial epithelium, as well as neuroectodermal and embryonic elements are found in several of the histological preparations. In reference to this case, point out the correct diagnosis:
After reading the question and the possible answers, we have two tumor and two non-tumor options. At no time are atypical cellular features mentioned, so we can safely rule out tumor lesions, leaving doubts between answers 2 and 3. In this case, we would have to opt for IMMATURE TERATOMA, mentioning the presence of embryonic remains.
PATHOLOGICAL ANATOMY
{ "1": "Teratocarcinoma.", "2": "Immature teratoma.", "3": "Mature cystic teratoma.", "4": "Dysgerminoma.", "5": null }
2
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 98, 191 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 16, 32 ] ], "text": "At no time are atypical cellular features mentioned, so we can safely rule out tumor lesions," }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 246, 335 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 42, 56 ] ], "text": "we would have to opt for IMMATURE TERATOMA, mentioning the presence of embryonic remains." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 246, 335 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 42, 56 ] ], "text": "we would have to opt for IMMATURE TERATOMA, mentioning the presence of embryonic remains." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 98, 191 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 16, 32 ] ], "text": "At no time are atypical cellular features mentioned, so we can safely rule out tumor lesions," }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
225
2,014
64
An 82-year-old patient presents with sudden and frequent dizziness, without prodromes, of short duration and which subsides spontaneously, without ever presenting syncope. Physical examination and baseline electrocardiogram are normal. In an ambulatory electrocardiogram recording during 24 hours, short phases of absence of P waves prior to QRS with an escape rhythm of the atrioventricular junction with narrow QRS at 40 bpm and a wave at the beginning of the ST segment corresponding to a retrograde P were detected in the vigil period. No asystole periods longer than 3 seconds are detected. Given this you would say:
What are these findings in the Holter? If the sinus node fails, the AV node takes over and stimulates the ventricle. In 10% of people there is retrograde conduction, so that beat generated in the AVN stimulates both ventricles and atria, giving a retrograde P as reported in the study. In this sense, no problem. Likewise, there are also no pauses longer than 3 seconds that could cause cardiogenic syncope (which, in fact, he has never suffered). Option 1 is ruled out: it is not a complete AVB. Option 2 cannot be answered either: to exclude, what is said to exclude... It is like never/always. Option 3 does not make much sense: we could suspend those that impair conduction (beta-blockers, calcium antagonists), but drugs that facilitate, as long as we do not give him a perfusion of atropine to take home... In option 4, stating that he has sinoatrial block is a bit of a rap: without an electrophysiological study it cannot be said, he does not necessarily have SA block, and this alone would not indicate the implantation of a pacemaker. So, finally, I would check option 5.
CARDIOLOGY
{ "1": "The patient has a third-degree AVB and requires pacemaker implantation.", "2": "The absence of periods of asystole >3 seconds excludes a cardiac cause of dizziness.", "3": "Drug treatment to increase conduction in the AV node would be indicated.", "4": "The patient presents sinus dysfunction with sinoatrial block and requires pacemaker implantation due to symptoms.", "5": "The alterations detected in the ambulatory electrocardiogram are typical of patients of this age and there is no indication for therapeutic intervention." }
5
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 448, 496 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 77, 88 ] ], "text": "Option 1 is ruled out: it is not a complete AVB." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 497, 596 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 88, 105 ] ], "text": "Option 2 cannot be answered either: to exclude, what is said to exclude... It is like never/always." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 597, 812 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 105, 141 ] ], "text": "Option 3 does not make much sense: we could suspend those that impair conduction (beta-blockers, calcium antagonists), but drugs that facilitate, as long as we do not give him a perfusion of atropine to take home..." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 813, 1044 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 141, 182 ] ], "text": "In option 4, stating that he has sinoatrial block is a bit of a rap: without an electrophysiological study it cannot be said, he does not necessarily have SA block, and this alone would not indicate the implantation of a pacemaker." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
370
2,016
125
A former smoker patient, previously diagnosed with COPD comes in for a checkup. The physical examination reveals digital hypokratism of recent onset. What is the most acceptable explanation for this finding in the clinical context described?
In a digital hypokratitis of recent onset in a smoking patient, the first option to rule out is bronchopulmonary carcinoma. Other pathologies can also occur but not so suddenly.
PULMONOLOGY AND THORACIC SURGERY
{ "1": "Pulmonary carcinoma.", "2": "Bronchiectasis.", "3": "Pulmonary fibrosis.", "4": "Cyanotic heart disease.", "5": null }
1
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 123 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 20 ] ], "text": "In a digital hypokratitis of recent onset in a smoking patient, the first option to rule out is bronchopulmonary carcinoma." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 124, 177 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 20, 29 ] ], "text": "Other pathologies can also occur but not so suddenly." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 124, 177 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 20, 29 ] ], "text": "Other pathologies can also occur but not so suddenly." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 124, 177 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 20, 29 ] ], "text": "Other pathologies can also occur but not so suddenly." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
332
2,016
88
In a routine workup of a 59-year-old woman, a smoker of 20 cigarettes/day for 25 years, hypercalcemia of 11.3 mg/dL with a phosphorus of 3.4 mg/dL is detected. It would NOT be efficient at the outset:
Urinary hydroxyproline: Urinary hydroxyproline excretion reflects the degradation of bone collagen, but is also influenced by the metabolism of other tissues (cartilage, skin) and by the absorption of products rich in collagen, such as meat or gelatins. Due to its diverse tissue origin and metabolic pattern, it correlates poorly with bone resorption.
ENDOCRINOLOGY
{ "1": "Determine serum PTH levels.", "2": "Determine serum vitamin D levels.", "3": "Determination of hydroxyprolinuria.", "4": "Plain chest X-ray.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 253 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 37 ] ], "text": "Urinary hydroxyproline: Urinary hydroxyproline excretion reflects the degradation of bone collagen, but is also influenced by the metabolism of other tissues (cartilage, skin) and by the absorption of products rich in collagen, such as meat or gelatins." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
78
2,012
33
A 55-year-old postmenopausal woman consults for asthenia and dyspnea on exertion. In the anamnesis she reported slight epigastralgia and occasional heartburn. No metrorrhagia. Laboratory tests: Hb6 gr/dL, MCV 69 fl, sideremia 13 micrograms/dL, ferritin 4 ngr/mL. Gastrointestinal endoscopy: small sliding hiatal hernia with no signs of esophagitis. What is the most correct approach?
We have a case of chronic iron deficiency anemia, without obvious bleeding. The first cause of iron deficiency anemia is occult bleeding of digestive origin. The existence of clinical symptoms suggestive of pathology of the upper digestive tract has led us to begin the study with upper endoscopy, but there is no pathology to justify the anemia, so further investigation is necessary, which rules out answers 1 and 2. Between 3 and 4, large bowel lesions are much more common and should be ruled out before small bowel lesions. In fact the recommendations of capsule endoscopy in anemia studies are restricted.
DIGESTIVE SYSTEM
{ "1": "Administer oral iron and monitor the evolution of anemia.", "2": "Treat with proton pump inhibitors and evaluate at three months.", "3": "Recommend a complete colonoscopy.", "4": "Perform an endoscopic capsule study.", "5": "Request a gynecological evaluation." }
3
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 158, 418 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 25, 69 ] ], "text": "The existence of clinical symptoms suggestive of pathology of the upper digestive tract has led us to begin the study with upper endoscopy, but there is no pathology to justify the anemia, so further investigation is necessary, which rules out answers 1 and 2." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 158, 418 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 25, 69 ] ], "text": "The existence of clinical symptoms suggestive of pathology of the upper digestive tract has led us to begin the study with upper endoscopy, but there is no pathology to justify the anemia, so further investigation is necessary, which rules out answers 1 and 2." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 419, 528 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 69, 89 ] ], "text": "Between 3 and 4, large bowel lesions are much more common and should be ruled out before small bowel lesions." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 419, 528 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 69, 89 ] ], "text": "Between 3 and 4, large bowel lesions are much more common and should be ruled out before small bowel lesions." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
397
2,016
140
You assess a 66-year-old patient with accentuated groin pain with prolonged standing a few days a month. A plain radiograph of the hips shows narrowing of the femoroacetabular joint space, sclerosis and osteophytes. What is your attitude?
You present with coxarthrosis (no further imaging tests are needed), and conservative options are exhausted before opting for surgical treatment. Weak opioids are not the initial treatment of choice.
TRAUMATOLOGY AND ORTHOPEDICS
{ "1": "I make the diagnosis of coxarthrosis and send to the traumatologist to place a hip prosthesis.", "2": "Start treatment with weak opioids that have shown evidence of halting disease progression.", "3": "I instigate treatment with paracetamol, explain that the evolution is very variable and the surgical indication depends on functionality and pain control.", "4": "Because of the radiological features described, I need a hip MRI before making a therapeutic decision.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 199 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 29 ] ], "text": "You present with coxarthrosis (no further imaging tests are needed), and conservative options are exhausted before opting for surgical treatment. Weak opioids are not the initial treatment of choice." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 199 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 29 ] ], "text": "You present with coxarthrosis (no further imaging tests are needed), and conservative options are exhausted before opting for surgical treatment. Weak opioids are not the initial treatment of choice." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
275
2,016
74
A 67-year-old man, diagnosed with cirrhosis of the liver and an active drinker, is admitted for progressive abdominal distension with diffuse malaise, of two weeks of evolution. He reported no fever or other symptoms. On examination, there was a changeable dullness on abdominal percussion, with absence of edema. A diagnostic paracentesis is performed, finding a slightly cloudy fluid, with 2,300 cells/mL, of which 30% are lymphocytes, 60% polymorphonuclear and 10% red blood cells. What is the first therapeutic measure you would prescribe for this patient immediately?
This is spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP), defined by the presence of > 250 polymorphonuclears/mL in the ascitic fluid (in this case there are 1,380, which is 60% of 2,300). It is an indication to start 3rd generation cephalosporins (ceftriaxone or cefotaxime) and albumin. The rest are treatments that can wait for improvement (they do not speak of tension ascites).
DIGESTIVE SYSTEM
{ "1": "Salt and fluid restriction.", "2": "Diuretic treatment with oral spironolactone.", "3": "Treatment with a third generation cephalosporin.", "4": "Evacuative paracentesis.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 280, 373 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 43, 59 ] ], "text": "The rest are treatments that can wait for improvement (they do not speak of tension ascites)." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 280, 373 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 43, 59 ] ], "text": "The rest are treatments that can wait for improvement (they do not speak of tension ascites)." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 279 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 43 ] ], "text": "This is spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP), defined by the presence of > 250 polymorphonuclears/mL in the ascitic fluid (in this case there are 1,380, which is 60% of 2,300). It is an indication to start 3rd generation cephalosporins (ceftriaxone or cefotaxime) and albumin." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 280, 373 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 43, 59 ] ], "text": "The rest are treatments that can wait for improvement (they do not speak of tension ascites)." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
418
2,018
77
An 80-year-old woman comes to the emergency room with abdominal pain starting in the epigastrium and radiating later to the left iliac fossa. An abdominal CT scan is performed, showing inflammation in the walls of the sigma and mesenteric abscess of 2 cm. The treatment of choice is:
We are asked about the management of a very common pathology, diverticulitis. And we are asked about the different therapeutic options depending on how advanced it is. The correct answer is 1, it does not meet the criteria to require drainage by guided puncture (the abscess is not larger than 5-6 cm). Discharge colostomy in this case makes no sense whatsoever, since it is not a question of solving an obstructive condition. Drainage by laparoscopic surgery is not indicated in this case. It could be indicated in the absence of the possibility of percutaneous drainage after failure of conservative treatment, although it is a very controversial option at this time. Sigmoidectomy and anastomosis is also not required. In a high number of cases, after the resolution of the symptoms, the outbreaks are reduced and they can be prevented with diet and hygienic dietary habits.
GENERAL SURGERY
{ "1": "Admission to the ward with absolute diet and broad-spectrum antibiotic treatment.", "2": "Discharge colostomy.", "3": "Drainage by laparoscopic surgery.", "4": "Urgent surgery with sigmoidectomy and colorectal anastomosis.", "5": null }
1
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 722, 877 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 117, 144 ] ], "text": "In a high number of cases, after the resolution of the symptoms, the outbreaks are reduced and they can be prevented with diet and hygienic dietary habits." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 303, 426 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 52, 72 ] ], "text": "Discharge colostomy in this case makes no sense whatsoever, since it is not a question of solving an obstructive condition." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 193, 302 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 32, 52 ] ], "text": "it does not meet the criteria to require drainage by guided puncture (the abscess is not larger than 5-6 cm)." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 670, 721 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 110, 117 ] ], "text": "Sigmoidectomy and anastomosis is also not required." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
200
2,013
75
A 75-year-old woman consults for insomnia. She reports that for years she has been waking up at night with a tingling, burning sensation in the legs and sometimes in the arms; these symptoms also occur in the afternoon. She notices improvement when moving her legs, but the symptoms recur during rest, so she cannot fall asleep again. This picture could lead us to the diagnosis of restless legs syndrome Which of the following is FALSE?
The diagnosis is based on clinical criteria, so muscle biopsy is only performed to rule out other diseases, not to confirm this one. An iron profile, thyroid hormone and vitamin determinations should be performed to rule out other diseases with similar symptomatology. Treatment is symptomatic and is instituted when it interferes with sleep or quality of life, and the first choice treatment is dopamine agonists such as pramipexole and ropirinol.
NEUROLOGY
{ "1": "The diagnosis of this affectation is based on clinical criteria.", "2": "A basic blood test including iron profile, thyroid hormones and B 12 and folic acid should be performed.", "3": "The treatment would be indicated in patients who present alteration of sleep or quality of life but does not alter the course of the disease.", "4": "The diagnosis is confirmed by muscle biopsy.", "5": "Pramipexole and ropirinol are used in the treatment." }
4
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 133, 268 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 23, 42 ] ], "text": "An iron profile, thyroid hormone and vitamin determinations should be performed to rule out other diseases with similar symptomatology." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 269, 448 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 42, 70 ] ], "text": "Treatment is symptomatic and is instituted when it interferes with sleep or quality of life, and the first choice treatment is dopamine agonists such as pramipexole and ropirinol." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 132 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 23 ] ], "text": "The diagnosis is based on clinical criteria, so muscle biopsy is only performed to rule out other diseases, not to confirm this one." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 269, 448 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 42, 70 ] ], "text": "Treatment is symptomatic and is instituted when it interferes with sleep or quality of life, and the first choice treatment is dopamine agonists such as pramipexole and ropirinol." } }
469
2,020
137
93-year-old woman with a history of COPD, AHT, dyslipidemia, atrial fibrillation and ischemic heart disease. She lives alone. She has ventricular ejection fraction 53%, creatinine 1.5 mg/dL, normal coagulation. She receives treatment with inhaled bronchodilators and ASA 100 mg per day. She suffers a fall in the street, after which it is impossible for her to stand or sit up, with intense pain in the right hip on mobilization, great shortening and external rotation of the leg. When and how should she be treated?
A new approach is currently being developed for the treatment of these patients, which tries to coordinate from the beginning the activity of the different sectors involved, avoiding that the transfer of the patient from one to another takes place at the end of the treatment of each part. This idea gave rise to the so-called orthogeriatric units", which combine the surgeon's surgical activity with that of the patient's immediate rehabilitation and the controls and follow-up of internal medicine. From the very beginning of the process, the social workers and the various vital and support aids are put in place to ensure that recovery is as rapid and complete as possible. ... In most cases, surgery should be performed as soon as possible, as soon as the patient is medically stabilized. There is a contraindication to surgery in patients with unstable medical comorbidity, but several studies have shown that delaying surgery beyond 48 h after admission increases mortality. This is why the ideal time to intervene in these patients is after achieving stabilization of their medical pathologies, taking care that this takes place before 48 h have elapsed." There is no data to suggest that he has any unstable comorbidity at the present time, so surgery in less than 48 hours and orthogeriatric management is of interest.
ORTHOPEDIC SURGERY AND TRAUMATOLOGY
{ "1": "Admission for transthoracic ultrasound, assessment by Cardiology and then closed reduction and fixation with plate screw.", "2": "Admission for evaluation by Nephrology and Cardiology, and then Traumatology will decide whether to use an arthroplasty or a trochanteric nail.", "3": "Admission to Internal Medicine / Geriatrics, progressive stabilization of comorbidities, conservative orthopedic treatment.", "4": "Closed reduction and fixation of the fracture within 48 hours, very early sedation, orthogeriatric management.", "5": null }
4
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 982, 1328 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 158, 217 ] ], "text": "This is why the ideal time to intervene in these patients is after achieving stabilization of their medical pathologies, taking care that this takes place before 48 h have elapsed.\" There is no data to suggest that he has any unstable comorbidity at the present time, so surgery in less than 48 hours and orthogeriatric management is of interest." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
378
2,016
132
A 72-year-old patient presents with progressive memory loss and word finding difficulty of one year's duration. What is the most useful examination to characterize the type of cognitive deficit he presents with?
The characterization of cognitive deterioration processes is still clinical, with imaging tests (MRI or PET) being a support tool in some occasions. The first option would be the correct one because it allows us to measure in a standardized way each of the cognitive domains, which will allow us to frame the patient's deficits in a specific syndrome and to monitor the deterioration with repeated scans over time.
NEUROLOGY
{ "1": "Neuropsychological evaluation.", "2": "Brain magnetic resonance imaging.", "3": "Positron Emission Tomography.", "4": "Electroencephalogram.", "5": null }
1
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 275 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 45 ] ], "text": "The characterization of cognitive deterioration processes is still clinical, with imaging tests (MRI or PET) being a support tool in some occasions. The first option would be the correct one because it allows us to measure in a standardized way each of the cognitive domains," }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 275 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 45 ] ], "text": "The characterization of cognitive deterioration processes is still clinical, with imaging tests (MRI or PET) being a support tool in some occasions. The first option would be the correct one because it allows us to measure in a standardized way each of the cognitive domains," }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }