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My question maybe unheard of or may even be impractical. But, I believe it is practical and acceptable. **Problem: PHP request and response in background thread.** Problem constraints: 1. You know it uses POST method. 2. It has two fields fname and lname as html ids that need to be filled. 3. You get response in the same page i.e. index.php . Pseudocode to solve the problem: 1. Open the website in background. Something like openURL("xyz(dot)com"); 2. Read the data sent in html format. 3. Change the value of the fields fname and lname to required fields "Allen" and "Walker." 4. Now, submit the fields back to the server. ( Page has a submit button.) **Note:** PHP code has a standard if-else check to check for those values. If the field is properly set, it then says "Success" else "Failed" 5. Again, get the response sent by the server. 6. Check if "Success" was returned. 7. If "success" was returned, UPDATE UI thread for saying "JOB done". Else, "Job failed." **Note: I am not talking about using a** *WebView*. **Everything happens via a service or AsyncTask**. --- Now, this is a simple question, and any ideas or a direction is acceptable. **So, to recap. You have to open a webpage in background, change its field, submit it back and then get the response.** --- I know we can open a website and get its content. But, I would also like to know if what I said is possible or not. And, I know it is possible. And, that I only lack the knowledge on Java Web API, could you please guide me on this. Thank You. And, Have a Good day!

2016/04/18

use [this link](http://www.androidhive.info/2012/01/android-json-parsing-tutorial/) for best solution of calling web service without using WebView. In this example fname and lname sent in namevaluepairs we get responce in json formet and parse json and get data also json parse defined in examples.

What you are trying to achieve is to create a webservice call using a [AsyncTask](http://developer.android.com/reference/android/os/AsyncTask.html). Like you have mentioned, you can make a post request within the AsyncTask, passing in the variables required for the request. You can find a good example as shown: [Sending HTTP Post Request with Android](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/31552242/sending-http-post-request-with-android)

quick question that's been bugging me lately. When it comes to a songs key specifically major and minor relatives- is it correct to say it can be written in two different keys with the same progression with the progression being written differently? I say this because a lot of times pop songs I see people post the progressions for, (usually 4 chord progressions that do not change during the song) some people list the major key and some list the minor key. For example lets use the song "Wake Me Up" -- A lot of people post the songs progression as a VI, IV, I, V and in the key of D. But other websites classify the song as in the key of Bm with the progression I, VI, III, VII. My personal opinion would be that the song begins with Bm So I would say it's in the key of Bm following a I, VI, III, VII. If it had started on a D and modulated to Bm I'd say its in the key of D--- I'm I correct in saying this? Can you always class the song in two different keys since you can rewrite the progression differently but use the same chords? pls help :(

2020/09/30

The song you quote with the bass line la,fa do,so and the chords Bm G D A can’t be identified as B minor or D major without listening to it. vi IV I V is one possible solution referring to major (beginning on the 6th degree) but this progression is ambivalent and it can be interpreted in Bm as i VI III bVII (b stands for the minor 7th degree of aeolian mode). If we listen to the melody and we have somewhere a home feeling on each of these chords it may help us to decide whether the song is in Bm aeolian or in D major. without a hint of tonic (see other answers): Yes it can be interpreted in both keys. But surely it makes sense to capital letters to assign Roman numbers of major chords and i, vi, for the minor chords. If you have no other indications I agree with you that you say the song is in D as it begins with D. But songs like this don’t need to be analyzed by R.N. It is sufficient that you know i VI ... in minor vi IV ... in major. You can practice this analogy back until to early Baroque music.

The answer to your question is **yes**. The notation you use is relative to tonic. Establishing which sound is the tonic (and whether it changes) is completely outside of this tool. Consider anything noted as II-V as carrying a standard disclaimer "assuming that X is the tonic". If you have a song with chords: C F C F C F, it might be a I-IV-I-IV, it might be a V-I-V-I. Depends on the rhythm, melody and even the listener. You can "make" yourself hear different tonics for the same progression in a similar way you can make yourself hear different "1" in a repeated drum loop. There's some modern research concerning this, the classical theory just assumed that all people have roughly the same musical background and follow the same convention.

quick question that's been bugging me lately. When it comes to a songs key specifically major and minor relatives- is it correct to say it can be written in two different keys with the same progression with the progression being written differently? I say this because a lot of times pop songs I see people post the progressions for, (usually 4 chord progressions that do not change during the song) some people list the major key and some list the minor key. For example lets use the song "Wake Me Up" -- A lot of people post the songs progression as a VI, IV, I, V and in the key of D. But other websites classify the song as in the key of Bm with the progression I, VI, III, VII. My personal opinion would be that the song begins with Bm So I would say it's in the key of Bm following a I, VI, III, VII. If it had started on a D and modulated to Bm I'd say its in the key of D--- I'm I correct in saying this? Can you always class the song in two different keys since you can rewrite the progression differently but use the same chords? pls help :(

2020/09/30

The scale/chords are good clues to the key of a song, but at least as important is the *tonal center*. That's not as easy to define but generally it's where the song comes back to a place of less musical tension. IMHO the chord played when the song in question returns to a "rest" state is A major. Which means I would say the song is in A and the progression is ii - bVII - IV - I. That would suggest that the scale is actually A mixolydian (not pure major or minor), which is not unusual for rock. The point is that the key of a song is not only about the scale. Learning to hear the tonal center is sometimes more important.

The answer to your question is **yes**. The notation you use is relative to tonic. Establishing which sound is the tonic (and whether it changes) is completely outside of this tool. Consider anything noted as II-V as carrying a standard disclaimer "assuming that X is the tonic". If you have a song with chords: C F C F C F, it might be a I-IV-I-IV, it might be a V-I-V-I. Depends on the rhythm, melody and even the listener. You can "make" yourself hear different tonics for the same progression in a similar way you can make yourself hear different "1" in a repeated drum loop. There's some modern research concerning this, the classical theory just assumed that all people have roughly the same musical background and follow the same convention.

quick question that's been bugging me lately. When it comes to a songs key specifically major and minor relatives- is it correct to say it can be written in two different keys with the same progression with the progression being written differently? I say this because a lot of times pop songs I see people post the progressions for, (usually 4 chord progressions that do not change during the song) some people list the major key and some list the minor key. For example lets use the song "Wake Me Up" -- A lot of people post the songs progression as a VI, IV, I, V and in the key of D. But other websites classify the song as in the key of Bm with the progression I, VI, III, VII. My personal opinion would be that the song begins with Bm So I would say it's in the key of Bm following a I, VI, III, VII. If it had started on a D and modulated to Bm I'd say its in the key of D--- I'm I correct in saying this? Can you always class the song in two different keys since you can rewrite the progression differently but use the same chords? pls help :(

2020/09/30

The answer lies in which chord is used to finish the piece (or section thereof.) If a piece ends with V-I (with I being D major and V being A major for example), one would say that that section (or piece) is in D major. To end a piece in the relative minor (same key signature but that's just for notational convenience and not universally used during the Baroque), one would have V-i with i being a b minor chord and V being F# major. (The V chords could be V7s without changing the analysis.) Try playing A7-D or A-D then F#7-b or F#-b and listen to the difference. This applies to Common Practice Period harmony (which is still commonly used) where the chord on the dominant is a major (even if needing an accidental) in a cadence. (A almost said accidentally major....)

The answer to your question is **yes**. The notation you use is relative to tonic. Establishing which sound is the tonic (and whether it changes) is completely outside of this tool. Consider anything noted as II-V as carrying a standard disclaimer "assuming that X is the tonic". If you have a song with chords: C F C F C F, it might be a I-IV-I-IV, it might be a V-I-V-I. Depends on the rhythm, melody and even the listener. You can "make" yourself hear different tonics for the same progression in a similar way you can make yourself hear different "1" in a repeated drum loop. There's some modern research concerning this, the classical theory just assumed that all people have roughly the same musical background and follow the same convention.

quick question that's been bugging me lately. When it comes to a songs key specifically major and minor relatives- is it correct to say it can be written in two different keys with the same progression with the progression being written differently? I say this because a lot of times pop songs I see people post the progressions for, (usually 4 chord progressions that do not change during the song) some people list the major key and some list the minor key. For example lets use the song "Wake Me Up" -- A lot of people post the songs progression as a VI, IV, I, V and in the key of D. But other websites classify the song as in the key of Bm with the progression I, VI, III, VII. My personal opinion would be that the song begins with Bm So I would say it's in the key of Bm following a I, VI, III, VII. If it had started on a D and modulated to Bm I'd say its in the key of D--- I'm I correct in saying this? Can you always class the song in two different keys since you can rewrite the progression differently but use the same chords? pls help :(

2020/09/30

The problem goes away if you consider D and Bm to be two sides of the same key. They have the same key signature. The Roman numeral analysis system - in the form you talk about - assumes that either the major or minor side is clearly more prominent, in order to assign number one to a scale degree. You should make a decision: do you want to subscribe to this idea of two possible "ones", or normalize the situation and have the major side's tonic be number I always, even for tunes that are "in minor". Who cares about the numbers? You know where D and B are, what notes are in the default scale specified by the key signature, and how to play the song, isn't that enough? The tonal center can sway back and forth in a song, and it's often more or less ambiguous. It can even feel like moving completely outside the original major and minor side tonics, and then we talk about a potential modulation. Insisting on moving the number one around all the time is useless IMO. The whole Roman numeral thing and functional harmony is a simplified model for harmony exercises and theory classes. Just a tool to get a perspective on a static harmonic snapshot. But real music isn't so clear and static, it moves and morphs around.

As others have pointed out, whether a song is in a major key or its relative minor is often a matter of debate or opinion. However, there are some clues that can point in one or other direction. First, in specifically the *harmonic* minor there is a key difference, the raised leading note: thus here you would expect an A# in B minor but it would be difficult to explain in D major. Assuming that I've got the right song (["Take Me Home" by Avicii](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=IcrbM1l_BoI)), there is an A# on the last beat of the bar every second time the chord sequence repeats, making a V-i progression back to the tonic. I would analyse the chord sequence (in the guitar at the beginning, which is a bit more revealing) as i - VI - IIIc - VII i7d - i - VI - IIIc - VII V. Second, in the bass line, dominant to tonic is a very strong sequence to establish a tonal centre, so looking for F# - B or A - D progression at a cadence will also be helpful. Thinking of the *end* of the song now, we have the bassline B - G - D - A - B - G - D - **F# - B** For both of these reasons I'd say that the song is unambiguously in B minor.

quick question that's been bugging me lately. When it comes to a songs key specifically major and minor relatives- is it correct to say it can be written in two different keys with the same progression with the progression being written differently? I say this because a lot of times pop songs I see people post the progressions for, (usually 4 chord progressions that do not change during the song) some people list the major key and some list the minor key. For example lets use the song "Wake Me Up" -- A lot of people post the songs progression as a VI, IV, I, V and in the key of D. But other websites classify the song as in the key of Bm with the progression I, VI, III, VII. My personal opinion would be that the song begins with Bm So I would say it's in the key of Bm following a I, VI, III, VII. If it had started on a D and modulated to Bm I'd say its in the key of D--- I'm I correct in saying this? Can you always class the song in two different keys since you can rewrite the progression differently but use the same chords? pls help :(

2020/09/30

As others have pointed out, whether a song is in a major key or its relative minor is often a matter of debate or opinion. However, there are some clues that can point in one or other direction. First, in specifically the *harmonic* minor there is a key difference, the raised leading note: thus here you would expect an A# in B minor but it would be difficult to explain in D major. Assuming that I've got the right song (["Take Me Home" by Avicii](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=IcrbM1l_BoI)), there is an A# on the last beat of the bar every second time the chord sequence repeats, making a V-i progression back to the tonic. I would analyse the chord sequence (in the guitar at the beginning, which is a bit more revealing) as i - VI - IIIc - VII i7d - i - VI - IIIc - VII V. Second, in the bass line, dominant to tonic is a very strong sequence to establish a tonal centre, so looking for F# - B or A - D progression at a cadence will also be helpful. Thinking of the *end* of the song now, we have the bassline B - G - D - A - B - G - D - **F# - B** For both of these reasons I'd say that the song is unambiguously in B minor.

The answer to your question is **yes**. The notation you use is relative to tonic. Establishing which sound is the tonic (and whether it changes) is completely outside of this tool. Consider anything noted as II-V as carrying a standard disclaimer "assuming that X is the tonic". If you have a song with chords: C F C F C F, it might be a I-IV-I-IV, it might be a V-I-V-I. Depends on the rhythm, melody and even the listener. You can "make" yourself hear different tonics for the same progression in a similar way you can make yourself hear different "1" in a repeated drum loop. There's some modern research concerning this, the classical theory just assumed that all people have roughly the same musical background and follow the same convention.

quick question that's been bugging me lately. When it comes to a songs key specifically major and minor relatives- is it correct to say it can be written in two different keys with the same progression with the progression being written differently? I say this because a lot of times pop songs I see people post the progressions for, (usually 4 chord progressions that do not change during the song) some people list the major key and some list the minor key. For example lets use the song "Wake Me Up" -- A lot of people post the songs progression as a VI, IV, I, V and in the key of D. But other websites classify the song as in the key of Bm with the progression I, VI, III, VII. My personal opinion would be that the song begins with Bm So I would say it's in the key of Bm following a I, VI, III, VII. If it had started on a D and modulated to Bm I'd say its in the key of D--- I'm I correct in saying this? Can you always class the song in two different keys since you can rewrite the progression differently but use the same chords? pls help :(

2020/09/30

A complete song need not be just in one key, and stay in that key throughout. I guess that's one good thing about relative key signatures - they are identical. There are many songs which may be in relative major for the verse, and move to relative minor for the chorus - or vice versa. There are many songs which move between the two relatives *during* the verse/chorus. Often a telling clue is the dominant harmony - but not always. In the relative minor, often its dominant will use a 'proper' leading note - let's take key C/Am. In key C there's a G note, whereas in key Am, that often gets changed to G♯ - the leading note of *that* key, but not actually part of the diatonic set of notes making up C major. There again, that may just be a move to modulate for a short time *to* the relative minor, or even just to get to a bar or two where Am fits best. Most pieces have a **tonal centre**, which feels to most like 'home'. This is usually the clue to the piece's key. Does it feel like it can stop at that bar, and be at rest, finished? In a piece such as you proffer, which sounds most like 'at home'? As mentioned in the previous para., a perfect cadence will usually offer the best clue. Incidentally, *major* chords are written using capital RN, *minors* use lower case. And with some pieces, it's (almost!) impossible to say what the key is! Sweet Home Alabama, Unforgettable and Fly me to the Moon come immediately to mind. Maybe someone can convince everyone which key is accurately the 'correct' one for each! But does it *really* matter? EDIT: to directly answer what I think is the question - let's take a sequence vi, IV, I, V. That could also be written in relative minor as i, VI, III, VII. In any given key, that sequence will be the same chords - e.g. in key C - Am, F, C, G.

The answer lies in which chord is used to finish the piece (or section thereof.) If a piece ends with V-I (with I being D major and V being A major for example), one would say that that section (or piece) is in D major. To end a piece in the relative minor (same key signature but that's just for notational convenience and not universally used during the Baroque), one would have V-i with i being a b minor chord and V being F# major. (The V chords could be V7s without changing the analysis.) Try playing A7-D or A-D then F#7-b or F#-b and listen to the difference. This applies to Common Practice Period harmony (which is still commonly used) where the chord on the dominant is a major (even if needing an accidental) in a cadence. (A almost said accidentally major....)

quick question that's been bugging me lately. When it comes to a songs key specifically major and minor relatives- is it correct to say it can be written in two different keys with the same progression with the progression being written differently? I say this because a lot of times pop songs I see people post the progressions for, (usually 4 chord progressions that do not change during the song) some people list the major key and some list the minor key. For example lets use the song "Wake Me Up" -- A lot of people post the songs progression as a VI, IV, I, V and in the key of D. But other websites classify the song as in the key of Bm with the progression I, VI, III, VII. My personal opinion would be that the song begins with Bm So I would say it's in the key of Bm following a I, VI, III, VII. If it had started on a D and modulated to Bm I'd say its in the key of D--- I'm I correct in saying this? Can you always class the song in two different keys since you can rewrite the progression differently but use the same chords? pls help :(

2020/09/30

The scale/chords are good clues to the key of a song, but at least as important is the *tonal center*. That's not as easy to define but generally it's where the song comes back to a place of less musical tension. IMHO the chord played when the song in question returns to a "rest" state is A major. Which means I would say the song is in A and the progression is ii - bVII - IV - I. That would suggest that the scale is actually A mixolydian (not pure major or minor), which is not unusual for rock. The point is that the key of a song is not only about the scale. Learning to hear the tonal center is sometimes more important.

As others have pointed out, whether a song is in a major key or its relative minor is often a matter of debate or opinion. However, there are some clues that can point in one or other direction. First, in specifically the *harmonic* minor there is a key difference, the raised leading note: thus here you would expect an A# in B minor but it would be difficult to explain in D major. Assuming that I've got the right song (["Take Me Home" by Avicii](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=IcrbM1l_BoI)), there is an A# on the last beat of the bar every second time the chord sequence repeats, making a V-i progression back to the tonic. I would analyse the chord sequence (in the guitar at the beginning, which is a bit more revealing) as i - VI - IIIc - VII i7d - i - VI - IIIc - VII V. Second, in the bass line, dominant to tonic is a very strong sequence to establish a tonal centre, so looking for F# - B or A - D progression at a cadence will also be helpful. Thinking of the *end* of the song now, we have the bassline B - G - D - A - B - G - D - **F# - B** For both of these reasons I'd say that the song is unambiguously in B minor.

quick question that's been bugging me lately. When it comes to a songs key specifically major and minor relatives- is it correct to say it can be written in two different keys with the same progression with the progression being written differently? I say this because a lot of times pop songs I see people post the progressions for, (usually 4 chord progressions that do not change during the song) some people list the major key and some list the minor key. For example lets use the song "Wake Me Up" -- A lot of people post the songs progression as a VI, IV, I, V and in the key of D. But other websites classify the song as in the key of Bm with the progression I, VI, III, VII. My personal opinion would be that the song begins with Bm So I would say it's in the key of Bm following a I, VI, III, VII. If it had started on a D and modulated to Bm I'd say its in the key of D--- I'm I correct in saying this? Can you always class the song in two different keys since you can rewrite the progression differently but use the same chords? pls help :(

2020/09/30

The answer lies in which chord is used to finish the piece (or section thereof.) If a piece ends with V-I (with I being D major and V being A major for example), one would say that that section (or piece) is in D major. To end a piece in the relative minor (same key signature but that's just for notational convenience and not universally used during the Baroque), one would have V-i with i being a b minor chord and V being F# major. (The V chords could be V7s without changing the analysis.) Try playing A7-D or A-D then F#7-b or F#-b and listen to the difference. This applies to Common Practice Period harmony (which is still commonly used) where the chord on the dominant is a major (even if needing an accidental) in a cadence. (A almost said accidentally major....)

As others have pointed out, whether a song is in a major key or its relative minor is often a matter of debate or opinion. However, there are some clues that can point in one or other direction. First, in specifically the *harmonic* minor there is a key difference, the raised leading note: thus here you would expect an A# in B minor but it would be difficult to explain in D major. Assuming that I've got the right song (["Take Me Home" by Avicii](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=IcrbM1l_BoI)), there is an A# on the last beat of the bar every second time the chord sequence repeats, making a V-i progression back to the tonic. I would analyse the chord sequence (in the guitar at the beginning, which is a bit more revealing) as i - VI - IIIc - VII i7d - i - VI - IIIc - VII V. Second, in the bass line, dominant to tonic is a very strong sequence to establish a tonal centre, so looking for F# - B or A - D progression at a cadence will also be helpful. Thinking of the *end* of the song now, we have the bassline B - G - D - A - B - G - D - **F# - B** For both of these reasons I'd say that the song is unambiguously in B minor.

quick question that's been bugging me lately. When it comes to a songs key specifically major and minor relatives- is it correct to say it can be written in two different keys with the same progression with the progression being written differently? I say this because a lot of times pop songs I see people post the progressions for, (usually 4 chord progressions that do not change during the song) some people list the major key and some list the minor key. For example lets use the song "Wake Me Up" -- A lot of people post the songs progression as a VI, IV, I, V and in the key of D. But other websites classify the song as in the key of Bm with the progression I, VI, III, VII. My personal opinion would be that the song begins with Bm So I would say it's in the key of Bm following a I, VI, III, VII. If it had started on a D and modulated to Bm I'd say its in the key of D--- I'm I correct in saying this? Can you always class the song in two different keys since you can rewrite the progression differently but use the same chords? pls help :(

2020/09/30

The scale/chords are good clues to the key of a song, but at least as important is the *tonal center*. That's not as easy to define but generally it's where the song comes back to a place of less musical tension. IMHO the chord played when the song in question returns to a "rest" state is A major. Which means I would say the song is in A and the progression is ii - bVII - IV - I. That would suggest that the scale is actually A mixolydian (not pure major or minor), which is not unusual for rock. The point is that the key of a song is not only about the scale. Learning to hear the tonal center is sometimes more important.

The problem goes away if you consider D and Bm to be two sides of the same key. They have the same key signature. The Roman numeral analysis system - in the form you talk about - assumes that either the major or minor side is clearly more prominent, in order to assign number one to a scale degree. You should make a decision: do you want to subscribe to this idea of two possible "ones", or normalize the situation and have the major side's tonic be number I always, even for tunes that are "in minor". Who cares about the numbers? You know where D and B are, what notes are in the default scale specified by the key signature, and how to play the song, isn't that enough? The tonal center can sway back and forth in a song, and it's often more or less ambiguous. It can even feel like moving completely outside the original major and minor side tonics, and then we talk about a potential modulation. Insisting on moving the number one around all the time is useless IMO. The whole Roman numeral thing and functional harmony is a simplified model for harmony exercises and theory classes. Just a tool to get a perspective on a static harmonic snapshot. But real music isn't so clear and static, it moves and morphs around.

quick question that's been bugging me lately. When it comes to a songs key specifically major and minor relatives- is it correct to say it can be written in two different keys with the same progression with the progression being written differently? I say this because a lot of times pop songs I see people post the progressions for, (usually 4 chord progressions that do not change during the song) some people list the major key and some list the minor key. For example lets use the song "Wake Me Up" -- A lot of people post the songs progression as a VI, IV, I, V and in the key of D. But other websites classify the song as in the key of Bm with the progression I, VI, III, VII. My personal opinion would be that the song begins with Bm So I would say it's in the key of Bm following a I, VI, III, VII. If it had started on a D and modulated to Bm I'd say its in the key of D--- I'm I correct in saying this? Can you always class the song in two different keys since you can rewrite the progression differently but use the same chords? pls help :(

2020/09/30

A complete song need not be just in one key, and stay in that key throughout. I guess that's one good thing about relative key signatures - they are identical. There are many songs which may be in relative major for the verse, and move to relative minor for the chorus - or vice versa. There are many songs which move between the two relatives *during* the verse/chorus. Often a telling clue is the dominant harmony - but not always. In the relative minor, often its dominant will use a 'proper' leading note - let's take key C/Am. In key C there's a G note, whereas in key Am, that often gets changed to G♯ - the leading note of *that* key, but not actually part of the diatonic set of notes making up C major. There again, that may just be a move to modulate for a short time *to* the relative minor, or even just to get to a bar or two where Am fits best. Most pieces have a **tonal centre**, which feels to most like 'home'. This is usually the clue to the piece's key. Does it feel like it can stop at that bar, and be at rest, finished? In a piece such as you proffer, which sounds most like 'at home'? As mentioned in the previous para., a perfect cadence will usually offer the best clue. Incidentally, *major* chords are written using capital RN, *minors* use lower case. And with some pieces, it's (almost!) impossible to say what the key is! Sweet Home Alabama, Unforgettable and Fly me to the Moon come immediately to mind. Maybe someone can convince everyone which key is accurately the 'correct' one for each! But does it *really* matter? EDIT: to directly answer what I think is the question - let's take a sequence vi, IV, I, V. That could also be written in relative minor as i, VI, III, VII. In any given key, that sequence will be the same chords - e.g. in key C - Am, F, C, G.

The problem goes away if you consider D and Bm to be two sides of the same key. They have the same key signature. The Roman numeral analysis system - in the form you talk about - assumes that either the major or minor side is clearly more prominent, in order to assign number one to a scale degree. You should make a decision: do you want to subscribe to this idea of two possible "ones", or normalize the situation and have the major side's tonic be number I always, even for tunes that are "in minor". Who cares about the numbers? You know where D and B are, what notes are in the default scale specified by the key signature, and how to play the song, isn't that enough? The tonal center can sway back and forth in a song, and it's often more or less ambiguous. It can even feel like moving completely outside the original major and minor side tonics, and then we talk about a potential modulation. Insisting on moving the number one around all the time is useless IMO. The whole Roman numeral thing and functional harmony is a simplified model for harmony exercises and theory classes. Just a tool to get a perspective on a static harmonic snapshot. But real music isn't so clear and static, it moves and morphs around.

On OS from win 2000 or later (any language) can I assume that this path will always exists? For example I know that on win xp in some languages the "Program Files" directory have a different name. So is it true for the System32 folder? Thanks. Ohad.

2008/10/27

Windows can be installed on a different harddrive and or in a different folder. Use the %windir% or %systemroot% environment variables to get you to the windows folder and append system32. Or use the %path% variable, it's usually the first entrance and the preferred method of searching for files such as dlls AFAIK. As per comments: don't rely too much on the system32 dir being the first item. I do think it's safe to assume it's in %path% somewhere though.

Just an FYI, but in a Terminal Server environment (ie, Citrix), GetWindowsDirectory() may return a unique path for a remote user. [link text](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms724454(VS.85).aspx) As more and more companies use virtualized desktops, developers need to keep this in mind.

On OS from win 2000 or later (any language) can I assume that this path will always exists? For example I know that on win xp in some languages the "Program Files" directory have a different name. So is it true for the System32 folder? Thanks. Ohad.

2008/10/27

You definitely cannot assume that: Windows could be installed on a different drive letter, or in a different directory. On a previous work PC Windows was installed in D:\WINNT, for example. The short answer is to use the API call GetSystemDirectory(), which will return the path you are after. The longer answer is to ask: do you really need to know this? If you're using it to copy files into the Windows directory, I'd suggest you ask if you really want to do this. Copying into the Windows directory is not encouraged, as you can mess up other applications very easily. If you're using the path to find DLLs, why not just rely on the OS to find the appropriate one without giving a path? If you're digging into bits of the OS files, consider: is that going to work in future? In general it's better to not explicitly poke around in the Windows directory if you want your program to work on future Windows versions.

Windows can be installed on a different harddrive and or in a different folder. Use the %windir% or %systemroot% environment variables to get you to the windows folder and append system32. Or use the %path% variable, it's usually the first entrance and the preferred method of searching for files such as dlls AFAIK. As per comments: don't rely too much on the system32 dir being the first item. I do think it's safe to assume it's in %path% somewhere though.

On OS from win 2000 or later (any language) can I assume that this path will always exists? For example I know that on win xp in some languages the "Program Files" directory have a different name. So is it true for the System32 folder? Thanks. Ohad.

2008/10/27

Windows can be installed on a different harddrive and or in a different folder. Use the %windir% or %systemroot% environment variables to get you to the windows folder and append system32. Or use the %path% variable, it's usually the first entrance and the preferred method of searching for files such as dlls AFAIK. As per comments: don't rely too much on the system32 dir being the first item. I do think it's safe to assume it's in %path% somewhere though.

I would use the **GetWindowsDirectory** Win32 API to get the current Windows directory, append **System32** to it an then check if it exists.

On OS from win 2000 or later (any language) can I assume that this path will always exists? For example I know that on win xp in some languages the "Program Files" directory have a different name. So is it true for the System32 folder? Thanks. Ohad.

2008/10/27

You definitely cannot assume that: Windows could be installed on a different drive letter, or in a different directory. On a previous work PC Windows was installed in D:\WINNT, for example. The short answer is to use the API call GetSystemDirectory(), which will return the path you are after. The longer answer is to ask: do you really need to know this? If you're using it to copy files into the Windows directory, I'd suggest you ask if you really want to do this. Copying into the Windows directory is not encouraged, as you can mess up other applications very easily. If you're using the path to find DLLs, why not just rely on the OS to find the appropriate one without giving a path? If you're digging into bits of the OS files, consider: is that going to work in future? In general it's better to not explicitly poke around in the Windows directory if you want your program to work on future Windows versions.

No, you can't assume that. Windows can be installed to a different path. One solution is to look for it by calling GetSystemDirectory (implemented as part of the Windows API).

On OS from win 2000 or later (any language) can I assume that this path will always exists? For example I know that on win xp in some languages the "Program Files" directory have a different name. So is it true for the System32 folder? Thanks. Ohad.

2008/10/27

Windows can be installed on a different harddrive and or in a different folder. Use the %windir% or %systemroot% environment variables to get you to the windows folder and append system32. Or use the %path% variable, it's usually the first entrance and the preferred method of searching for files such as dlls AFAIK. As per comments: don't rely too much on the system32 dir being the first item. I do think it's safe to assume it's in %path% somewhere though.

It might be safer to use the "windir" environment variable and then append the "System32" to the end of that path. Sometimes windows could be under a different folder or different drive so "windir" will tell you where it is. As far as i know, the system32 folder should always exist under the windows folder.

On OS from win 2000 or later (any language) can I assume that this path will always exists? For example I know that on win xp in some languages the "Program Files" directory have a different name. So is it true for the System32 folder? Thanks. Ohad.

2008/10/27

You definitely cannot assume that: Windows could be installed on a different drive letter, or in a different directory. On a previous work PC Windows was installed in D:\WINNT, for example. The short answer is to use the API call GetSystemDirectory(), which will return the path you are after. The longer answer is to ask: do you really need to know this? If you're using it to copy files into the Windows directory, I'd suggest you ask if you really want to do this. Copying into the Windows directory is not encouraged, as you can mess up other applications very easily. If you're using the path to find DLLs, why not just rely on the OS to find the appropriate one without giving a path? If you're digging into bits of the OS files, consider: is that going to work in future? In general it's better to not explicitly poke around in the Windows directory if you want your program to work on future Windows versions.

I would use the **GetWindowsDirectory** Win32 API to get the current Windows directory, append **System32** to it an then check if it exists.

On OS from win 2000 or later (any language) can I assume that this path will always exists? For example I know that on win xp in some languages the "Program Files" directory have a different name. So is it true for the System32 folder? Thanks. Ohad.

2008/10/27

No, you can't assume that. Windows can be installed to a different path. One solution is to look for it by calling GetSystemDirectory (implemented as part of the Windows API).

I would use the **GetWindowsDirectory** Win32 API to get the current Windows directory, append **System32** to it an then check if it exists.

On OS from win 2000 or later (any language) can I assume that this path will always exists? For example I know that on win xp in some languages the "Program Files" directory have a different name. So is it true for the System32 folder? Thanks. Ohad.

2008/10/27

You definitely cannot assume that: Windows could be installed on a different drive letter, or in a different directory. On a previous work PC Windows was installed in D:\WINNT, for example. The short answer is to use the API call GetSystemDirectory(), which will return the path you are after. The longer answer is to ask: do you really need to know this? If you're using it to copy files into the Windows directory, I'd suggest you ask if you really want to do this. Copying into the Windows directory is not encouraged, as you can mess up other applications very easily. If you're using the path to find DLLs, why not just rely on the OS to find the appropriate one without giving a path? If you're digging into bits of the OS files, consider: is that going to work in future? In general it's better to not explicitly poke around in the Windows directory if you want your program to work on future Windows versions.

Just an FYI, but in a Terminal Server environment (ie, Citrix), GetWindowsDirectory() may return a unique path for a remote user. [link text](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms724454(VS.85).aspx) As more and more companies use virtualized desktops, developers need to keep this in mind.

On OS from win 2000 or later (any language) can I assume that this path will always exists? For example I know that on win xp in some languages the "Program Files" directory have a different name. So is it true for the System32 folder? Thanks. Ohad.

2008/10/27

No, you can't assume that. Windows can be installed to a different path. One solution is to look for it by calling GetSystemDirectory (implemented as part of the Windows API).

It might be safer to use the "windir" environment variable and then append the "System32" to the end of that path. Sometimes windows could be under a different folder or different drive so "windir" will tell you where it is. As far as i know, the system32 folder should always exist under the windows folder.

On OS from win 2000 or later (any language) can I assume that this path will always exists? For example I know that on win xp in some languages the "Program Files" directory have a different name. So is it true for the System32 folder? Thanks. Ohad.

2008/10/27

No, you can't assume that. Windows can be installed to a different path. One solution is to look for it by calling GetSystemDirectory (implemented as part of the Windows API).

Just an FYI, but in a Terminal Server environment (ie, Citrix), GetWindowsDirectory() may return a unique path for a remote user. [link text](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms724454(VS.85).aspx) As more and more companies use virtualized desktops, developers need to keep this in mind.

 This problem has bothered me for quite some time and I can't solve it. I have even tried to make a construction, but it sometimes tips to the left and sometimes tips to the right :). When we submerge the body in the water the water pushes it up. That is an action. At the same time the body pushes water down. That is a reaction. So the balance should be maintained. But, since the water level rises the hydrostatic pressure on the bottom is greater so the right side should go down. There is another similar problem but it's not the same. Please help.

2017/03/16

**The scale will not move.** You don't need to think about buoyancy at all to answer this question. In the first picture, the scale is balanced, because the net force on each side (the weight) is equal. No mass is added to or removed from either side, so the net forces remain the same.

So various forces neglected (including gravity, air resistance, thermal forces, air pressure) - but your question suggest this is an inquiry about the effect of bouyancy. That being the case, lowering the mass into the water brings into effect its bouyancy. This is a force lifting the mass and acting down on the water. However, as the mass is tethered to the scale the force acting down the string is reduced by the same amount as the bouyancy, and the net effect on the scale is zero. (Also neglecting rotating frames of reference, light pressure, stress and young's modulus, magnetically induce currents etc)

 This problem has bothered me for quite some time and I can't solve it. I have even tried to make a construction, but it sometimes tips to the left and sometimes tips to the right :). When we submerge the body in the water the water pushes it up. That is an action. At the same time the body pushes water down. That is a reaction. So the balance should be maintained. But, since the water level rises the hydrostatic pressure on the bottom is greater so the right side should go down. There is another similar problem but it's not the same. Please help.

2017/03/16

The balance will be maintained because there is no EXTERNAL force applied on left or right side. This is because of the same reason you can't push a car while sitting in it!

So various forces neglected (including gravity, air resistance, thermal forces, air pressure) - but your question suggest this is an inquiry about the effect of bouyancy. That being the case, lowering the mass into the water brings into effect its bouyancy. This is a force lifting the mass and acting down on the water. However, as the mass is tethered to the scale the force acting down the string is reduced by the same amount as the bouyancy, and the net effect on the scale is zero. (Also neglecting rotating frames of reference, light pressure, stress and young's modulus, magnetically induce currents etc)

 This problem has bothered me for quite some time and I can't solve it. I have even tried to make a construction, but it sometimes tips to the left and sometimes tips to the right :). When we submerge the body in the water the water pushes it up. That is an action. At the same time the body pushes water down. That is a reaction. So the balance should be maintained. But, since the water level rises the hydrostatic pressure on the bottom is greater so the right side should go down. There is another similar problem but it's not the same. Please help.

2017/03/16

The balance will be maintained because there is no EXTERNAL force applied on left or right side. This is because of the same reason you can't push a car while sitting in it!

If you consider everything put in the right side of balance scale as one system, only the internal forces are changed which will not affect the balance. No external force is applied and hence the balance will be maintained.

I need to find the GUID for an existing USB device attached to my Windows XP system. How can this be done using WMI or the registry? Or, is there another avenue that I should explore? Thanks. **Additional Information:** I need to find the GUID for a specific known device; it is not expected to change. If I need to write a little program, use some tool, or look somewhere in the Windows system to find this information, it's all the same to me.

2010/12/07

For a specific known device, the easiest way I've found is to open the .inf file for that device's driver (if you have the driver); it should be clearly indicated there. You can probably also poke around under HKEY\_LOCAL\_MACHINE\SYSTEM\CurrentControlSet\Enum\USB.

[DevViewer from Symantec](http://service1.symantec.com/SUPPORT/ent-security.nsf/ppfdocs/2007511906325898?Open&dtype=corp&src=&seg=&om=1&om_out=prod) also seems to do the trick.

I need to find the GUID for an existing USB device attached to my Windows XP system. How can this be done using WMI or the registry? Or, is there another avenue that I should explore? Thanks. **Additional Information:** I need to find the GUID for a specific known device; it is not expected to change. If I need to write a little program, use some tool, or look somewhere in the Windows system to find this information, it's all the same to me.

2010/12/07

Control Panel > Device Manager > Right Click on Device > Properties > Details Tab > Change 'Property' to Driver Key > Guid will be displayed in 'value' section

[DevViewer from Symantec](http://service1.symantec.com/SUPPORT/ent-security.nsf/ppfdocs/2007511906325898?Open&dtype=corp&src=&seg=&om=1&om_out=prod) also seems to do the trick.

I know it's not *exactly* what SU is about, but I didn't know where else to turn at this point. I'm trying to hook up a Samsung LA32S81B television to my/a computer using HDMI. This is a moderately old TV, 2007 era, non-smart. Originally, I tried to hook it up to my laptop, to no avail. I'll save you the long story of all the bug hunting I did, but eventually I came to the discovery that it's not the computer(s) at fault, nor the cable: the TV itself is not recognizing any HDMI from either my laptop or my desktop. My laptop, running win10, and later Win8.1 (after reading in some places win10 and HDMI have known to not play nice) was unable to get a link to the TV, and my desktop is also not able to output to it, or even recognize a screen is connected. Oddly enough, if I hook up, say, a cable box, to the same HDMI ports on the TV, using the same cable, I do get output, and if I for instance use the same HDMI cable and plug it into one of my computer monitors, the computer picks it up fine. It's literally only PC to TV that will NOT work. I've tried onboard graphics, I've tried my GTX970, I've tried old drivers, new drivers, I've factory resetted the TV, it won't budge. Nothing is working. I've tried literally everything I can think of. The only thing I can imagine is happening is that maybe the PCs are all outputting some format the TV won't recognize (which already seems unlikely, especially through HDMI), but then at least I would still imagine my computer to at least *notice* a screen is connected. Is there *anyone* who has *any* idea what the hell is going on? further info: desktop is Win10 and is also running two other monitors off of the GTX970, both are connected through DVI. Laptop had Intel onboard graphics,

2015/10/31

In looking at the specs for that TV, it does not support 1080p. Likely, your PC is outputting a 1080p signal and the TV can't sync to it. Try these things: * Lower your display resolution to 1280x720 (that's the HDTV 720p spec). * On the TV, make sure the HDMI input says PC as the source type (Samsungs in particular have undocumented behavior where they overscan/underscan an image depending on what the input type is set to). * Most laptops have an `Fn`+ key combination to enable/disable/mirror an external display. Fiddle with that to see if it makes a difference. * In Windows, make sure it understands that you have two screens, and that the "Extend my desktop onto this monitor" checkbox is selected for the TV. Hope it helps.

I got so sick of this I just bought a new TV

I'd like to host a WCF web service in IIS. The service should keep a certain set of data all the time, it must never be lost. My colleague told me this is impossible because IIS closes down the service after a certain time (I assume without any activity). Is that true? How do I prevent that behavior? In case it matters, both IIS 6 and 7 are available.

2010/05/05

By default, IIS recycles the worker process after a certain period of inactivity (20 mins if I recall correct). This causes your data to be lost. You can turn off this behavior in the Properties page of the ApplicationPool under which your app is running. EDIT: having said that, if it is *really* important that this data is never lost, I would consider storing it in a database or some other form of storage.

> > My colleague told me this is > impossible because IIS closes down the > service after a certain time (I assume > without any activity). Is that true? > How do I prevent that behavior? > > > This is true, but you can get around it by using an out of process state server. Here are three links describing session state and how to set it up in IIS: <http://www.microsoft.com/technet/prodtechnol/WindowsServer2003/Library/IIS/0d9dc063-dc1a-46be-8e84-f05dbb402221.mspx?mfr=true> <http://www.eggheadcafe.com/articles/20021016.asp> <http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms178586.aspx>

So here's the question: ***We want to design a circuit that determines if a four-bit number is less than 10 and is also even.*** ***a. (10 points) Write an expression of M such that M=1 if the four-bit number X (x3 x2 x1 x0) is less than 10 and is also even.*** Is this asking for the answer in POS form since it is using "M" instead of "m"?

2019/02/09

They probably want the simplest form.

Yes. The conventional representation for the POS form is M(.). Now, since the last bit for the even numbers is 0, it is enough to have 3 bits will all numbers from 0 to 4. So, we just need a mod 5 counter to generate all these numbers and the last bit of the four bits (LSB) being grounded always.

I've started Wing Chun few days before. Everything seems to be nice, but I've seen some videos on internet, they say that Wing Chun can't handle Boxers or Wrestlers. What are the comparisons between Wing Chun and boxing/wrestling that would lead someone to make this claim? Are there weaknesses that can be exploited?

2017/07/16

As always, you can't compare style A with style B and say either one is better. It's not because you're a boxer, you immediately win agains a wing chun practitioner. It all depends on how good both fighters are, how much experience they got fighting opponents of different styles, the competition's rules (eg. if you pit a judoka vs. a taekwondo, and rules state no throws or groundwork, chances are the taekwondo will win. If the rules state throws and groundwork are allowed, but kicks to the head aren't, the tables will turn), and even as much as how good/bad a day someone's been having and even sheer luck (Remember, one lucky hit can be all it takes) Of course, each style has its strengths and weaknesses. Once you understand your system well enough (and your own body, for that matter), you can start playing with the strengths and the weaknesses. You can get creative with them. That's an important part of the experience part mentioned above. But yeah, in short: You can't just compare style A with style B. A kid who did 3 weeks boxing classes won't win against Ip Man. A kid who did Wing Chun for 3 weeks won't win against Mohammed Ali.

I don't think that it makes too much sense to compare styles instead of individual athletes, but I will try to answer your question anyway. There is no one answer to this as it is very hard to say how important the advantages and disadvantages of both styles are. Therefore I will give you some insight to the advantages/disadvantages and you can think about it yourself. Wing Chun has good punches, which may be the fastest with the least amount of telegraphing, but they have less range and have a less power compared to the punch of a boxer (they are still powerful and hurt). But the most important thing is the range. Wing Chun and Boxers have different ranges in which they work and feel comfortable. Also because of the range, they have different tactics to be in that range. A boxer normally stays back, out of range, moving in to strike then moving back again. A wing chun practioner will be much closer to their opponent and tries to stay close (this is one reason why "sticky hands" are important). I assume that the fighter who can stay at his preferred range will win the fight. Wing chun focuses on sticking to the opponent, maintaining physical contact in some way. The sense of feeling is 6 times faster than the sense of seeing, which obviously gives a strong advantage to the wing chun fighter in their preferred range. Some boxing schools start training in the wing chun range. If this is the case, the boxer has an advantage, because all boxers I know train a lot to get into their range. An additional point I can imagine that a boxer could lose because he underestimates his opponent in general. On the other hand I see a good chance, that the wing chun practitioner gets knocked out by a hook, because I have seen a lot of wing chun people underestimating every round technique. Wrestling and wing chun are even more difficult to compare, but I think it's about the same as with a boxer versus a wing chun guy.

I've started Wing Chun few days before. Everything seems to be nice, but I've seen some videos on internet, they say that Wing Chun can't handle Boxers or Wrestlers. What are the comparisons between Wing Chun and boxing/wrestling that would lead someone to make this claim? Are there weaknesses that can be exploited?

2017/07/16

As always, you can't compare style A with style B and say either one is better. It's not because you're a boxer, you immediately win agains a wing chun practitioner. It all depends on how good both fighters are, how much experience they got fighting opponents of different styles, the competition's rules (eg. if you pit a judoka vs. a taekwondo, and rules state no throws or groundwork, chances are the taekwondo will win. If the rules state throws and groundwork are allowed, but kicks to the head aren't, the tables will turn), and even as much as how good/bad a day someone's been having and even sheer luck (Remember, one lucky hit can be all it takes) Of course, each style has its strengths and weaknesses. Once you understand your system well enough (and your own body, for that matter), you can start playing with the strengths and the weaknesses. You can get creative with them. That's an important part of the experience part mentioned above. But yeah, in short: You can't just compare style A with style B. A kid who did 3 weeks boxing classes won't win against Ip Man. A kid who did Wing Chun for 3 weeks won't win against Mohammed Ali.

So there are some fundamental assumptions here that one must look at with "intent or goal". **Goal: To beat your opponent senseless?** * If this is your goal then you will probably want a style that focuses aggression and subjugation of your opponent over anything else. **Goal: To protect oneself?** * If this is the goal then any discipline which focuses on body mechanics as well as properly analyzing a situation and working to diffuse it works well. **Goal: To develop oneself through discipline and mastery of ones body?** * If this is the goal then the ability to "beat someone" isn't really as important as the type of person you become through the exercise and mastery of the art. Boxing, Wrestling, Kung Fu, Tai Chi, Karate, etc... all have the ability to develop ones physical and mental techniques while disciplining and harnessing ones own inner self for personal growth. P.S. Unless you are practicing just for a MMA full contact event, then any style has use, purpose, and value. The only caveat to add is if you are grappling it's hard to hit and if you are at a distance it's hard to grapple, so there is a body mechanics balance needed to be well rounded. P.P.S. As far as ability to beat another opponent, this is largely circumspect on the individual's abilities and if one is better skilled and physically capable then they will likely win regardless of the style in question.

I've started Wing Chun few days before. Everything seems to be nice, but I've seen some videos on internet, they say that Wing Chun can't handle Boxers or Wrestlers. What are the comparisons between Wing Chun and boxing/wrestling that would lead someone to make this claim? Are there weaknesses that can be exploited?

2017/07/16

I don't think that it makes too much sense to compare styles instead of individual athletes, but I will try to answer your question anyway. There is no one answer to this as it is very hard to say how important the advantages and disadvantages of both styles are. Therefore I will give you some insight to the advantages/disadvantages and you can think about it yourself. Wing Chun has good punches, which may be the fastest with the least amount of telegraphing, but they have less range and have a less power compared to the punch of a boxer (they are still powerful and hurt). But the most important thing is the range. Wing Chun and Boxers have different ranges in which they work and feel comfortable. Also because of the range, they have different tactics to be in that range. A boxer normally stays back, out of range, moving in to strike then moving back again. A wing chun practioner will be much closer to their opponent and tries to stay close (this is one reason why "sticky hands" are important). I assume that the fighter who can stay at his preferred range will win the fight. Wing chun focuses on sticking to the opponent, maintaining physical contact in some way. The sense of feeling is 6 times faster than the sense of seeing, which obviously gives a strong advantage to the wing chun fighter in their preferred range. Some boxing schools start training in the wing chun range. If this is the case, the boxer has an advantage, because all boxers I know train a lot to get into their range. An additional point I can imagine that a boxer could lose because he underestimates his opponent in general. On the other hand I see a good chance, that the wing chun practitioner gets knocked out by a hook, because I have seen a lot of wing chun people underestimating every round technique. Wrestling and wing chun are even more difficult to compare, but I think it's about the same as with a boxer versus a wing chun guy.

So there are some fundamental assumptions here that one must look at with "intent or goal". **Goal: To beat your opponent senseless?** * If this is your goal then you will probably want a style that focuses aggression and subjugation of your opponent over anything else. **Goal: To protect oneself?** * If this is the goal then any discipline which focuses on body mechanics as well as properly analyzing a situation and working to diffuse it works well. **Goal: To develop oneself through discipline and mastery of ones body?** * If this is the goal then the ability to "beat someone" isn't really as important as the type of person you become through the exercise and mastery of the art. Boxing, Wrestling, Kung Fu, Tai Chi, Karate, etc... all have the ability to develop ones physical and mental techniques while disciplining and harnessing ones own inner self for personal growth. P.S. Unless you are practicing just for a MMA full contact event, then any style has use, purpose, and value. The only caveat to add is if you are grappling it's hard to hit and if you are at a distance it's hard to grapple, so there is a body mechanics balance needed to be well rounded. P.P.S. As far as ability to beat another opponent, this is largely circumspect on the individual's abilities and if one is better skilled and physically capable then they will likely win regardless of the style in question.

I've started Wing Chun few days before. Everything seems to be nice, but I've seen some videos on internet, they say that Wing Chun can't handle Boxers or Wrestlers. What are the comparisons between Wing Chun and boxing/wrestling that would lead someone to make this claim? Are there weaknesses that can be exploited?

2017/07/16

The great advantage of boxing and wrestling is that boxers and wrestlers practice actual fighting, with all other elements of their training - weights, bag work, jumping rope - in support of improving them as fighters. Even when practicing a constrained format a boxer's conditioning, strength and (most importantly) familiarity with hard contact will invariably see them roll over the top of more esoteric fighting methods. Regardless of the style, the single greatest determinant of effectiveness is hard, realistic sparring. If you want to learn how to fight, practice fighting. It's a no brainer

I don't think that it makes too much sense to compare styles instead of individual athletes, but I will try to answer your question anyway. There is no one answer to this as it is very hard to say how important the advantages and disadvantages of both styles are. Therefore I will give you some insight to the advantages/disadvantages and you can think about it yourself. Wing Chun has good punches, which may be the fastest with the least amount of telegraphing, but they have less range and have a less power compared to the punch of a boxer (they are still powerful and hurt). But the most important thing is the range. Wing Chun and Boxers have different ranges in which they work and feel comfortable. Also because of the range, they have different tactics to be in that range. A boxer normally stays back, out of range, moving in to strike then moving back again. A wing chun practioner will be much closer to their opponent and tries to stay close (this is one reason why "sticky hands" are important). I assume that the fighter who can stay at his preferred range will win the fight. Wing chun focuses on sticking to the opponent, maintaining physical contact in some way. The sense of feeling is 6 times faster than the sense of seeing, which obviously gives a strong advantage to the wing chun fighter in their preferred range. Some boxing schools start training in the wing chun range. If this is the case, the boxer has an advantage, because all boxers I know train a lot to get into their range. An additional point I can imagine that a boxer could lose because he underestimates his opponent in general. On the other hand I see a good chance, that the wing chun practitioner gets knocked out by a hook, because I have seen a lot of wing chun people underestimating every round technique. Wrestling and wing chun are even more difficult to compare, but I think it's about the same as with a boxer versus a wing chun guy.

I've started Wing Chun few days before. Everything seems to be nice, but I've seen some videos on internet, they say that Wing Chun can't handle Boxers or Wrestlers. What are the comparisons between Wing Chun and boxing/wrestling that would lead someone to make this claim? Are there weaknesses that can be exploited?

2017/07/16

The great advantage of boxing and wrestling is that boxers and wrestlers practice actual fighting, with all other elements of their training - weights, bag work, jumping rope - in support of improving them as fighters. Even when practicing a constrained format a boxer's conditioning, strength and (most importantly) familiarity with hard contact will invariably see them roll over the top of more esoteric fighting methods. Regardless of the style, the single greatest determinant of effectiveness is hard, realistic sparring. If you want to learn how to fight, practice fighting. It's a no brainer

So there are some fundamental assumptions here that one must look at with "intent or goal". **Goal: To beat your opponent senseless?** * If this is your goal then you will probably want a style that focuses aggression and subjugation of your opponent over anything else. **Goal: To protect oneself?** * If this is the goal then any discipline which focuses on body mechanics as well as properly analyzing a situation and working to diffuse it works well. **Goal: To develop oneself through discipline and mastery of ones body?** * If this is the goal then the ability to "beat someone" isn't really as important as the type of person you become through the exercise and mastery of the art. Boxing, Wrestling, Kung Fu, Tai Chi, Karate, etc... all have the ability to develop ones physical and mental techniques while disciplining and harnessing ones own inner self for personal growth. P.S. Unless you are practicing just for a MMA full contact event, then any style has use, purpose, and value. The only caveat to add is if you are grappling it's hard to hit and if you are at a distance it's hard to grapple, so there is a body mechanics balance needed to be well rounded. P.P.S. As far as ability to beat another opponent, this is largely circumspect on the individual's abilities and if one is better skilled and physically capable then they will likely win regardless of the style in question.

I am trying to build a small circuit using an ESP8288-12E, 4 5V relays and a 74HC595 shift register as the main components. To power the whole circuit I am using a Hi Link HLK 5M05 5V/5W switch power supply module. Here is how I planned the whole circuit: [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/iTD0j.jpg) If it is difficult to see in this image then I can provide PDF as well. I took this AMS1117-3.3 to get 3.3V from my 5V power supply. Instead of 3.3C, I am getting 4.2V on my PCB. I am not sure why this is happening. I am attaching my EasyEDA file for the PCB design also. [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ogBMW.png) One more issue I am facing is that when i take my multi-meter probes near to the circuit the relays are triggering automatically. I didn't connect the ESP8266-12E on the PCB yet, as I am not getting proper voltage on ESP8266-12E VCC pin. Any suggestions, why this issue might be happening? Any suggestions will be helpful! If someone wants to have an EasyEDA access I can provide for this project so can visualize the same issue more easily. <https://oshwlab.com/nehul.splendit/shift-resistor-sn74hc595-with-4-channel-relay> Here is the link of the same project.

2020/12/25

If there is no load at all on the 3V3 regulator, it has no minimum required load so it won't output 3V3. When there is no ESP connected, there is nothing connected on HC595 input pins, so they are floating. The input impedance is so high that taking multimeter probes nearby will cause the HC595 to see activity on input pins and it will randomly load in a data pattern to drive the relays to they will chatter on and off. Also do note that inputs of HC595 fed with 5V is not compatible with 3.3V outputs of ESP. Either change the HC type to something else that can work with 3.3V input voltages, or change the supply of HC595 to 3V3. Edit: Oh dear I just realized the supply that converts mains voltage to 5V is not external but onboard. The PCB layout is not safe for mains voltage at all. Not the mains input to supply, and not the relay contact wiring either. Please don't connect this to mains as it is unsafe.

Throw away that pcb before it kills you and burns down your house - I’m not joking. As others have observed, the clearance between tracks carrying mains voltages and low voltage tracks is nowhere near safe. Have your mains wiring down one end of the pcb well away from the low voltage circuit. What current do you expect to switch with the relays? What voltage? I’d also suggest you use different relays like the omron G2R series - these are easier the design the pcb for and to ensure adequate clearance. The relays you’ve used require slots in the pcb and more care in the design. Do not use copper pours in the mains region! Consider using a tpic6b595 instead of transistors and a 74hc595. The esp12 module needs to be placed carefully - read the datasheet guidelines. Throw away your current pcb before it becomes the first and last one you design.

 This was my grandfather’s and have no idea what it is only that it is some piece of physics equipment! The main black cylinder doesn’t seem like it wants to rotate but not sure if it should?

2018/12/11

It looks like an [induction coil](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Induction_coil) with the make and break device at the bottom and a switch right at the bottom. If you connect it up to an accumulator, be very, very careful as the output between the two balls, when separate, could be lethal. Also the electrical insulation elsewhere may be poor and you might get a shock just by touching the switch. **Use with very great care** and preferably have somebody who knows about such devices with you.

It is a spark radio transmitter. The first working radios. Video: <https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=YSf93g0heUA> Pics: <https://www.google.com/search?q=spark+radio+transmitter&source=lnms&tbm=isch&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwi-68m5vJjfAhXMx1kKHVuUASQQ_AUIDygC&biw=1920&bih=930> This one looks awfully similar and might give you some help finding out model and such: <http://www.samhallas.co.uk/bt_museum/radio.htm> Remember 300 baud modems that you put the handset into? This was the top of the line once upon a time too. It's why we have "SOS" in our language rather than relying upon a simple "Oh God, we need help!" And if Tesla'd ever realized be was using Morgan's money to succcessfully invent radio transmission rather than failing at wireless power transmission, we'd've never called these "Marconi Spark Gap Transmitters"... but he didn't.

Every once in a while, my eighth-inch audio jack will slip loose and I'll seemingly lose only the voice part of a track -- leaving somewhat of a "karaoke" version. What I would guess about how audio plugs work suggests that I'd be making this up; however, I've asked and others tell me they've experienced this as well. What causes this stripped vocals from audio when a 1/8" audio jack is partially unplugged?

2012/10/02

When the plug starts to slip out of the jack, very often it's the ground contact (sleeve) that breaks its connection first, leaving the two "hot" leads (left and right, tip and ring) still connected. With the ground open like this, both earpieces still get a signal, but now it's the "difference" signal between the left and right channels; any signal that is in-phase in both channels cancels out. Recording engineers tend to place the lead vocal signal right in the middle of the stereo image, so that's just one example of an in-phase signal that disappears when you're listening to the difference signal.

If you look carefully at the jackplug, you'll likely see three (or more) contacts. These are ground (shared), left and right. I would guess that the vocals are on only one of the stereo tracks (ie. left or right but not both). When the plug comes partially out, you're getting mono.

Every once in a while, my eighth-inch audio jack will slip loose and I'll seemingly lose only the voice part of a track -- leaving somewhat of a "karaoke" version. What I would guess about how audio plugs work suggests that I'd be making this up; however, I've asked and others tell me they've experienced this as well. What causes this stripped vocals from audio when a 1/8" audio jack is partially unplugged?

2012/10/02

The vocal track, particularly if it is just one singer, is usually found in the centre. This means it is mixed equally into left and right. If you produce a difference signal, L-R or R-L, then this common mode material (anything mixed in equal proportions to left and right) will be attenuated. Such a situation can happen in headphones if you break the ground connection. Note that the headphone jack has only three conductors (tip, ring, sleeve). So the headphones share a common return path, or ground. If this ground is not properly connected to the player, it still remains properly connected to both headphones through the jack. The headphones then form a series circuit: left amplifier output, left headphone, common ground, right headphone, right amplifier output. What you're hearing in the headphones then is the voltage difference between the amps. Any component of the signal which is common mode (mixed into both channels equally) is suppressed. (If the amplifiers produced exactly the same signal, then the difference would be zero!) So vocals in the center, and other things that are panned in the center such as (typically) bass guitar and kick drum, are faintly audible or not at all. You hear a signal that lacks bass and in which the vocals are faint and distant. But the reverb on the vocals may sound huge, because it is a stereo effect with a differing left and right signal! It may sound like the reverb mix is much more "wet" with respect to a tiny "dry" vocal signal. Additional notes: Why can the amplifiers work without a ground? Because each amplifier can regard the other as a ground, so to speak. A voltage amplifier has a low output impedance. One amplifier's output can serve as the ground or return path for another amplifier's output and vice versa. This is the basis for amplifier bridging. The main point is that the connection from one amplifier to the other is a complete circuit; lifting the headphone ground does not interrupt the circuit. This type of connection between two amplifiers is exploited to bring about *bridging*. But bridging requires that one of the amplifiers receives an inverted signal, so that their difference is really addition! Bridging is a technique of using two weaker amplifiers to make a single more powerful amplifier. Bridging also allows an amplifier to be DC-coupled to the speaker, even if it is based on a single voltage supply (meaning that no coupling capacitor is required in series with the speaker to block DC). The technique is used in some small audio amplifier IC's that run off a single supply, but in the pro audio world, large stereo amplifiers sometimes support a bridging configuration. An important parameter of a stereo amp (to some users) is whether or not it can be easily "bridged mono" for more power, or driving of smaller impedance loads. So, what you've done with your jack is essentially bridged the left and right amps, except they have somewhat different signals, and one is not inverted with respect to the other!

If you look carefully at the jackplug, you'll likely see three (or more) contacts. These are ground (shared), left and right. I would guess that the vocals are on only one of the stereo tracks (ie. left or right but not both). When the plug comes partially out, you're getting mono.

Every once in a while, my eighth-inch audio jack will slip loose and I'll seemingly lose only the voice part of a track -- leaving somewhat of a "karaoke" version. What I would guess about how audio plugs work suggests that I'd be making this up; however, I've asked and others tell me they've experienced this as well. What causes this stripped vocals from audio when a 1/8" audio jack is partially unplugged?

2012/10/02

When the plug starts to slip out of the jack, very often it's the ground contact (sleeve) that breaks its connection first, leaving the two "hot" leads (left and right, tip and ring) still connected. With the ground open like this, both earpieces still get a signal, but now it's the "difference" signal between the left and right channels; any signal that is in-phase in both channels cancels out. Recording engineers tend to place the lead vocal signal right in the middle of the stereo image, so that's just one example of an in-phase signal that disappears when you're listening to the difference signal.

The vocal track, particularly if it is just one singer, is usually found in the centre. This means it is mixed equally into left and right. If you produce a difference signal, L-R or R-L, then this common mode material (anything mixed in equal proportions to left and right) will be attenuated. Such a situation can happen in headphones if you break the ground connection. Note that the headphone jack has only three conductors (tip, ring, sleeve). So the headphones share a common return path, or ground. If this ground is not properly connected to the player, it still remains properly connected to both headphones through the jack. The headphones then form a series circuit: left amplifier output, left headphone, common ground, right headphone, right amplifier output. What you're hearing in the headphones then is the voltage difference between the amps. Any component of the signal which is common mode (mixed into both channels equally) is suppressed. (If the amplifiers produced exactly the same signal, then the difference would be zero!) So vocals in the center, and other things that are panned in the center such as (typically) bass guitar and kick drum, are faintly audible or not at all. You hear a signal that lacks bass and in which the vocals are faint and distant. But the reverb on the vocals may sound huge, because it is a stereo effect with a differing left and right signal! It may sound like the reverb mix is much more "wet" with respect to a tiny "dry" vocal signal. Additional notes: Why can the amplifiers work without a ground? Because each amplifier can regard the other as a ground, so to speak. A voltage amplifier has a low output impedance. One amplifier's output can serve as the ground or return path for another amplifier's output and vice versa. This is the basis for amplifier bridging. The main point is that the connection from one amplifier to the other is a complete circuit; lifting the headphone ground does not interrupt the circuit. This type of connection between two amplifiers is exploited to bring about *bridging*. But bridging requires that one of the amplifiers receives an inverted signal, so that their difference is really addition! Bridging is a technique of using two weaker amplifiers to make a single more powerful amplifier. Bridging also allows an amplifier to be DC-coupled to the speaker, even if it is based on a single voltage supply (meaning that no coupling capacitor is required in series with the speaker to block DC). The technique is used in some small audio amplifier IC's that run off a single supply, but in the pro audio world, large stereo amplifiers sometimes support a bridging configuration. An important parameter of a stereo amp (to some users) is whether or not it can be easily "bridged mono" for more power, or driving of smaller impedance loads. So, what you've done with your jack is essentially bridged the left and right amps, except they have somewhat different signals, and one is not inverted with respect to the other!

Say every container and the host itself has its own dedicated, external IP. Is it possible to do this without any problems? And is this really a good plan? Instead of hosting a database per container, hosting a database per host, for all containers to share? This question is sort of related to this one: <https://unix.stackexchange.com/questions/114786/giving-ovz-containers-their-own-ip>

2014/02/12

I do this exact same thing, I have ~10+ OpenVZ guests and a single instance of MySQL running in one of the 10. This is a good approach if the following things are true: * All the VM's using this DB won't overload it * Running multiple individual MySQL instances in their own VMs would be more resource intensive * All the guest VMs that are talking to the single instance of MySQL can be coordinated to have it (MySQL) down when doing maintenance, backups, etc. From a technology standpoint OpenVZ can definitely do this, it really comes down to what expectations the applications and other VMs are expecting the database "service" to be available. I think you're confusing the situation due to the technology being used. There is nothing inherent in OpenVZ that will disallow you from setting up this kind of architecture. OpenVZ will allow you to loosely "wall off" instances of applications and allow you to create multiple hostnames for the varying services, if you so choose, but otherwise it's no different then if you were to spin up 10 machines with 10 instances of Apache running on them, with a single host running MySQL.

OK, the question is: is it a good plan to have one MySQL-Database on a hardware node to server all VM, or is it better to have the MySQL-Database on a VM. As always it depends on what are your requirements. If you are paranoid enough and security is most important, then have your DB on a VM. If performance is most important, than it would be better to put your DB on the hardware node.

I have a genuine question, I am a noob at stocks. from what I have been reading value investors get higher returns than growth investors but then how come the growth etf IVW gets much higher returns than the value index fund VTV. I've looked at other value ETF's but they sucked even more. Is value investing worth the hype or are these ETF's just bad. If professionals can't do good value investing what chance do we have? Is this a skill worth spending my time in? [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/XMJfI.png)

2022/08/23

"Value investing" is essentially looking for stocks that are cheaper than they "should be" by some measure. That ETF tracks an index of *large cap* value stocks, which may skew the results somewhat, since there may be more smaller "value" stocks that perform better than larger ones. Also note that the two were largely in sync until mid-2018 and mid-2020, where large tech stocks (which are more "growth" than value) dominated from COVID lockdowns (there are many other factors, but that's a significant one). And note that *this year*, VTV has outperformed IVW - the value fund is only down 5% while the growth fund is down 18%. So it may be an anomaly that growth has outperformed over the period you're looking at. If you're a "noob at stocks" then it's best to stick with very broad index funds until you understand more the risks associated with different styles of funds, and slowly move to individual stocks. There's no way to ensure that you pick the "best fund" or even the best strategy going forward. As a young kid, you have plenty of time to make mistakes and learn from them. Don't try to "get rich young" (you might get lucky and do that, but more than likely you'll lose more than you win). Play the long game, save as much as you can, watch it grow, and as you grow you can set aside portions of your portfolio (say 10%) to experiment with individual stocks or other strategies.

Value investing and value stocks are somewhat different. Value investing is, like D Stanley says, figuring out what stocks are cheaper than they should be. Warren Buffet does this by reading public financial statements / disclosures that are required to be made available by law. Value stocks are stocks that make more consistent income, often have dividends, but aren't growing or innovating that much compared to growth stocks. Over the past decade or two, value stocks haven't done that well compared to growth stocks. This may or may not change in the future. At least part of the reason is extremely low interest rates set by the Fed. When borrowing money is cheap, companies that have growth potential can borrow to expand / capture the market and then have time to make a profit. If people believe the Fed will continue raising rates, growth stocks will go down. Once they think the Fed is going to start lowering rates, growth stocks will go back up. This is assuming other factors stay the same. If I were you, I'd start investing mostly in a broad index fund like VOO and I would leave a bit that I could afford to lose and experiment with value investing (which doesn't have to be investing in value stocks) while learning about it. The Intelligent Investor and Security Analysis are two well respected books about how to do value investing.

Is it scientifically possible to briefly walk on the moon bare footed? What possible side effects could there be? Are these side effects mild enough to make it worth it?

2015/05/16

There are 3 main threats you'd have to account for: 1. Vacuum. This is discussed in the questions @Forgemonkey linked to. Conclusion: brief exposure of the feet only is survivable. 2. Temperature. Surface temperatures on the Moon swing between + 120 and - 150 °C, so you'd have to pick your spot carefully to have a survivable temperature. 3. Cuts and abrasion. Lunar [regolith](http://www.airspacemag.com/space/stronger-than-dirt-8944228/?no-ist) is [very sharp](http://www.universetoday.com/96208/the-moon-is-toxic/). It'd be like walking across glass shards. On Earth, dust and sand are subject to erosion from wind and water, which tends to make everything smooth. On the Moon these forces are absent, so e.g. the debris from a meteorite impact all keeps its sharp edges indefinitely. All in all, not a pleasant experience, I'd think.

For the record here's a direct quote, from the [same article](http://www.universetoday.com/96208/the-moon-is-toxic/) Hobbes discovered: > > “The dust was so abrasive that it actually wore through three layers > of Kevlar-like material on Jack [Schmitt’s] boot.” > > > – Professor Larry Taylor, Director of the Planetary Geosciences Institute, University of Tennessee (2008) I observe that the "ground" on Earth is soil, which is an organic substance and (even in the driest places) **very wet and springy**. What we think of as "very dry, hard" earth (in the "outback") is nothing compared to, say, imagine a try with an inch of tiny and large metal filings. I suggest the issue of what the lunar "soil" feels like is somewhat unknown. We do know it wore-through three layers of kevlar, even in the low gravity, in about 20 hours.

After reading "[Java concurrent in practice](http://jcip.net/)" and "[OSGI in practice](http://neilbartlett.name/blog/osgibook/)" I found a specific subject very interesting; Safe Publication. The following is from JCIP: > > To publish an object safely, both the reference to the object and the object's state must be made visible to other threads at the same time. A properly constructed object can be safely published by: > > > * Initializing an object reference from a *static* initializer. > * Storing a reference to it into a *volatile* field. > * Storing a reference to it into a *final* field. > * Storing a reference to it into a field that is properly guarded by a (*synchronized*) lock. > > > My first question: how many java developers are aware of this (problem)? How many real world java applications are really following this, AND is this really a real problem? I have a feeling that 99% of the implemented JVMs out there are not that "evil", i.e. a thread is not guaranteed (in fact its practical (almost) "impossible") to see stale data just because the reference is not following the "safe publication idiom" above.

2009/04/29

Proportionally, it's probably fair to say that very few programmers sufficiently understand synchronization and concurrency. Who knows how many server applications there are out there right now managing financial transactions, medical records, police records, telephony etc etc that are full of synchronization bugs and essentially work by accident, or very very occasionally fail (never heard of anybody get a phantom phone call added to their telephone bill?) for reasons that are never really looked into or gotten to the bottom of. Object publication is a particular problem because it's often overlooked, and it's a place where it's quite reasonable for compilers to make optimisations that could result in unexpected behaviour if you don't know about it: in the JIT-compiled code, storing a pointer, then incrementing it and storing the data is a very reasonable thing to do. You might think it's "evil", but at a low level, it's really how you'd expect the JVM spec to be. (Incidentally, I've heard of real-life programs running in JRockit suffering from this problem-- it's not purely theoretical.) If you know that your application has synchronization bugs but isn't misbehaving in your current JVM on your current hardware, then (a) congratulations; and (b), now is the time to start "walking calmly towards the fire exit", fixing your code and educating your programmers before you need to upgrade too many components.

I would say very few programmers are away of this issue. When was the last code example you have seen that used the volatile keyword? However, most of the other conditioned mentioned - I just took for granted as best practices. If a developer completely neglects those conditions, they will quickly encounter multi-threading errors.

After reading "[Java concurrent in practice](http://jcip.net/)" and "[OSGI in practice](http://neilbartlett.name/blog/osgibook/)" I found a specific subject very interesting; Safe Publication. The following is from JCIP: > > To publish an object safely, both the reference to the object and the object's state must be made visible to other threads at the same time. A properly constructed object can be safely published by: > > > * Initializing an object reference from a *static* initializer. > * Storing a reference to it into a *volatile* field. > * Storing a reference to it into a *final* field. > * Storing a reference to it into a field that is properly guarded by a (*synchronized*) lock. > > > My first question: how many java developers are aware of this (problem)? How many real world java applications are really following this, AND is this really a real problem? I have a feeling that 99% of the implemented JVMs out there are not that "evil", i.e. a thread is not guaranteed (in fact its practical (almost) "impossible") to see stale data just because the reference is not following the "safe publication idiom" above.

2009/04/29

It's not a matter of being "evil". It **is** a real problem, and will become much more apparent with the rise of multicore architectures in the coming years. I have seen very real production bugs due to improper synchronization. And to answer your other question, I would say that very few programmers are aware of the issue, even among otherwise "good" developers.

My experience (short-terming and consulting in lots of different kinds of environments Most applications I've seen) agrees with this intuition - I've never seen an entire system clearly architected to manage this problem carefully (well, I've also almost never seen an entire system clearly architected) . I've worked with very, very few developers with a good knowledge of threading issues. Especially with web apps, you can often get away with this, or at least seem to get away with it. If you have spring-based instantiations managing your object creation and stateless servlets, you can often pretend that there's no such thing as synchronization, and this is sort where lots of applications end up. Eventually someone starts putting some shared state where it doesn't belong and 3 months later someone notices some wierd intermittent errors. This is often "good enough" for many people (as long as you're not writing banking transactions). How many java developer are aware of this problem? Hard to say, as it depends heavily on where you work.

After reading "[Java concurrent in practice](http://jcip.net/)" and "[OSGI in practice](http://neilbartlett.name/blog/osgibook/)" I found a specific subject very interesting; Safe Publication. The following is from JCIP: > > To publish an object safely, both the reference to the object and the object's state must be made visible to other threads at the same time. A properly constructed object can be safely published by: > > > * Initializing an object reference from a *static* initializer. > * Storing a reference to it into a *volatile* field. > * Storing a reference to it into a *final* field. > * Storing a reference to it into a field that is properly guarded by a (*synchronized*) lock. > > > My first question: how many java developers are aware of this (problem)? How many real world java applications are really following this, AND is this really a real problem? I have a feeling that 99% of the implemented JVMs out there are not that "evil", i.e. a thread is not guaranteed (in fact its practical (almost) "impossible") to see stale data just because the reference is not following the "safe publication idiom" above.

2009/04/29

Proportionally, it's probably fair to say that very few programmers sufficiently understand synchronization and concurrency. Who knows how many server applications there are out there right now managing financial transactions, medical records, police records, telephony etc etc that are full of synchronization bugs and essentially work by accident, or very very occasionally fail (never heard of anybody get a phantom phone call added to their telephone bill?) for reasons that are never really looked into or gotten to the bottom of. Object publication is a particular problem because it's often overlooked, and it's a place where it's quite reasonable for compilers to make optimisations that could result in unexpected behaviour if you don't know about it: in the JIT-compiled code, storing a pointer, then incrementing it and storing the data is a very reasonable thing to do. You might think it's "evil", but at a low level, it's really how you'd expect the JVM spec to be. (Incidentally, I've heard of real-life programs running in JRockit suffering from this problem-- it's not purely theoretical.) If you know that your application has synchronization bugs but isn't misbehaving in your current JVM on your current hardware, then (a) congratulations; and (b), now is the time to start "walking calmly towards the fire exit", fixing your code and educating your programmers before you need to upgrade too many components.

"is this really a real problem?" Yes absolutely. Even the most trivial web application has to confront issues surrounding concurrency. Servlets are accessed by multiple threads, for example. The other issue is that threading and concurrency is very hard to handle correctly. It is almost too hard. That is why we are seeing trends emerge like transactional memory, and languages like Clojure that hopefully make concurrency easier to deal with. But we have a ways to go before these become main stream. Thus we have to do the best with what we have. Reading JCiP is a very good start.

After reading "[Java concurrent in practice](http://jcip.net/)" and "[OSGI in practice](http://neilbartlett.name/blog/osgibook/)" I found a specific subject very interesting; Safe Publication. The following is from JCIP: > > To publish an object safely, both the reference to the object and the object's state must be made visible to other threads at the same time. A properly constructed object can be safely published by: > > > * Initializing an object reference from a *static* initializer. > * Storing a reference to it into a *volatile* field. > * Storing a reference to it into a *final* field. > * Storing a reference to it into a field that is properly guarded by a (*synchronized*) lock. > > > My first question: how many java developers are aware of this (problem)? How many real world java applications are really following this, AND is this really a real problem? I have a feeling that 99% of the implemented JVMs out there are not that "evil", i.e. a thread is not guaranteed (in fact its practical (almost) "impossible") to see stale data just because the reference is not following the "safe publication idiom" above.

2009/04/29

It's not a matter of being "evil". It **is** a real problem, and will become much more apparent with the rise of multicore architectures in the coming years. I have seen very real production bugs due to improper synchronization. And to answer your other question, I would say that very few programmers are aware of the issue, even among otherwise "good" developers.

I would say very few programmers are away of this issue. When was the last code example you have seen that used the volatile keyword? However, most of the other conditioned mentioned - I just took for granted as best practices. If a developer completely neglects those conditions, they will quickly encounter multi-threading errors.

After reading "[Java concurrent in practice](http://jcip.net/)" and "[OSGI in practice](http://neilbartlett.name/blog/osgibook/)" I found a specific subject very interesting; Safe Publication. The following is from JCIP: > > To publish an object safely, both the reference to the object and the object's state must be made visible to other threads at the same time. A properly constructed object can be safely published by: > > > * Initializing an object reference from a *static* initializer. > * Storing a reference to it into a *volatile* field. > * Storing a reference to it into a *final* field. > * Storing a reference to it into a field that is properly guarded by a (*synchronized*) lock. > > > My first question: how many java developers are aware of this (problem)? How many real world java applications are really following this, AND is this really a real problem? I have a feeling that 99% of the implemented JVMs out there are not that "evil", i.e. a thread is not guaranteed (in fact its practical (almost) "impossible") to see stale data just because the reference is not following the "safe publication idiom" above.

2009/04/29

"is this really a real problem?" Yes absolutely. Even the most trivial web application has to confront issues surrounding concurrency. Servlets are accessed by multiple threads, for example. The other issue is that threading and concurrency is very hard to handle correctly. It is almost too hard. That is why we are seeing trends emerge like transactional memory, and languages like Clojure that hopefully make concurrency easier to deal with. But we have a ways to go before these become main stream. Thus we have to do the best with what we have. Reading JCiP is a very good start.

My experience (short-terming and consulting in lots of different kinds of environments Most applications I've seen) agrees with this intuition - I've never seen an entire system clearly architected to manage this problem carefully (well, I've also almost never seen an entire system clearly architected) . I've worked with very, very few developers with a good knowledge of threading issues. Especially with web apps, you can often get away with this, or at least seem to get away with it. If you have spring-based instantiations managing your object creation and stateless servlets, you can often pretend that there's no such thing as synchronization, and this is sort where lots of applications end up. Eventually someone starts putting some shared state where it doesn't belong and 3 months later someone notices some wierd intermittent errors. This is often "good enough" for many people (as long as you're not writing banking transactions). How many java developer are aware of this problem? Hard to say, as it depends heavily on where you work.

After reading "[Java concurrent in practice](http://jcip.net/)" and "[OSGI in practice](http://neilbartlett.name/blog/osgibook/)" I found a specific subject very interesting; Safe Publication. The following is from JCIP: > > To publish an object safely, both the reference to the object and the object's state must be made visible to other threads at the same time. A properly constructed object can be safely published by: > > > * Initializing an object reference from a *static* initializer. > * Storing a reference to it into a *volatile* field. > * Storing a reference to it into a *final* field. > * Storing a reference to it into a field that is properly guarded by a (*synchronized*) lock. > > > My first question: how many java developers are aware of this (problem)? How many real world java applications are really following this, AND is this really a real problem? I have a feeling that 99% of the implemented JVMs out there are not that "evil", i.e. a thread is not guaranteed (in fact its practical (almost) "impossible") to see stale data just because the reference is not following the "safe publication idiom" above.

2009/04/29

"is this really a real problem?" Yes absolutely. Even the most trivial web application has to confront issues surrounding concurrency. Servlets are accessed by multiple threads, for example. The other issue is that threading and concurrency is very hard to handle correctly. It is almost too hard. That is why we are seeing trends emerge like transactional memory, and languages like Clojure that hopefully make concurrency easier to deal with. But we have a ways to go before these become main stream. Thus we have to do the best with what we have. Reading JCiP is a very good start.

Firstly "safe publication" is not really an idiom (IMO). It comes straight from the language. There have been cases of problems with unsafe publication, with use of NIO for instance. Most Java code is very badly written. Threaded code is obviously more difficult than average line-of-business code.

After reading "[Java concurrent in practice](http://jcip.net/)" and "[OSGI in practice](http://neilbartlett.name/blog/osgibook/)" I found a specific subject very interesting; Safe Publication. The following is from JCIP: > > To publish an object safely, both the reference to the object and the object's state must be made visible to other threads at the same time. A properly constructed object can be safely published by: > > > * Initializing an object reference from a *static* initializer. > * Storing a reference to it into a *volatile* field. > * Storing a reference to it into a *final* field. > * Storing a reference to it into a field that is properly guarded by a (*synchronized*) lock. > > > My first question: how many java developers are aware of this (problem)? How many real world java applications are really following this, AND is this really a real problem? I have a feeling that 99% of the implemented JVMs out there are not that "evil", i.e. a thread is not guaranteed (in fact its practical (almost) "impossible") to see stale data just because the reference is not following the "safe publication idiom" above.

2009/04/29

Proportionally, it's probably fair to say that very few programmers sufficiently understand synchronization and concurrency. Who knows how many server applications there are out there right now managing financial transactions, medical records, police records, telephony etc etc that are full of synchronization bugs and essentially work by accident, or very very occasionally fail (never heard of anybody get a phantom phone call added to their telephone bill?) for reasons that are never really looked into or gotten to the bottom of. Object publication is a particular problem because it's often overlooked, and it's a place where it's quite reasonable for compilers to make optimisations that could result in unexpected behaviour if you don't know about it: in the JIT-compiled code, storing a pointer, then incrementing it and storing the data is a very reasonable thing to do. You might think it's "evil", but at a low level, it's really how you'd expect the JVM spec to be. (Incidentally, I've heard of real-life programs running in JRockit suffering from this problem-- it's not purely theoretical.) If you know that your application has synchronization bugs but isn't misbehaving in your current JVM on your current hardware, then (a) congratulations; and (b), now is the time to start "walking calmly towards the fire exit", fixing your code and educating your programmers before you need to upgrade too many components.

It's not a matter of being "evil". It **is** a real problem, and will become much more apparent with the rise of multicore architectures in the coming years. I have seen very real production bugs due to improper synchronization. And to answer your other question, I would say that very few programmers are aware of the issue, even among otherwise "good" developers.

After reading "[Java concurrent in practice](http://jcip.net/)" and "[OSGI in practice](http://neilbartlett.name/blog/osgibook/)" I found a specific subject very interesting; Safe Publication. The following is from JCIP: > > To publish an object safely, both the reference to the object and the object's state must be made visible to other threads at the same time. A properly constructed object can be safely published by: > > > * Initializing an object reference from a *static* initializer. > * Storing a reference to it into a *volatile* field. > * Storing a reference to it into a *final* field. > * Storing a reference to it into a field that is properly guarded by a (*synchronized*) lock. > > > My first question: how many java developers are aware of this (problem)? How many real world java applications are really following this, AND is this really a real problem? I have a feeling that 99% of the implemented JVMs out there are not that "evil", i.e. a thread is not guaranteed (in fact its practical (almost) "impossible") to see stale data just because the reference is not following the "safe publication idiom" above.

2009/04/29

Firstly "safe publication" is not really an idiom (IMO). It comes straight from the language. There have been cases of problems with unsafe publication, with use of NIO for instance. Most Java code is very badly written. Threaded code is obviously more difficult than average line-of-business code.

I would say very few programmers are away of this issue. When was the last code example you have seen that used the volatile keyword? However, most of the other conditioned mentioned - I just took for granted as best practices. If a developer completely neglects those conditions, they will quickly encounter multi-threading errors.

After reading "[Java concurrent in practice](http://jcip.net/)" and "[OSGI in practice](http://neilbartlett.name/blog/osgibook/)" I found a specific subject very interesting; Safe Publication. The following is from JCIP: > > To publish an object safely, both the reference to the object and the object's state must be made visible to other threads at the same time. A properly constructed object can be safely published by: > > > * Initializing an object reference from a *static* initializer. > * Storing a reference to it into a *volatile* field. > * Storing a reference to it into a *final* field. > * Storing a reference to it into a field that is properly guarded by a (*synchronized*) lock. > > > My first question: how many java developers are aware of this (problem)? How many real world java applications are really following this, AND is this really a real problem? I have a feeling that 99% of the implemented JVMs out there are not that "evil", i.e. a thread is not guaranteed (in fact its practical (almost) "impossible") to see stale data just because the reference is not following the "safe publication idiom" above.

2009/04/29

Proportionally, it's probably fair to say that very few programmers sufficiently understand synchronization and concurrency. Who knows how many server applications there are out there right now managing financial transactions, medical records, police records, telephony etc etc that are full of synchronization bugs and essentially work by accident, or very very occasionally fail (never heard of anybody get a phantom phone call added to their telephone bill?) for reasons that are never really looked into or gotten to the bottom of. Object publication is a particular problem because it's often overlooked, and it's a place where it's quite reasonable for compilers to make optimisations that could result in unexpected behaviour if you don't know about it: in the JIT-compiled code, storing a pointer, then incrementing it and storing the data is a very reasonable thing to do. You might think it's "evil", but at a low level, it's really how you'd expect the JVM spec to be. (Incidentally, I've heard of real-life programs running in JRockit suffering from this problem-- it's not purely theoretical.) If you know that your application has synchronization bugs but isn't misbehaving in your current JVM on your current hardware, then (a) congratulations; and (b), now is the time to start "walking calmly towards the fire exit", fixing your code and educating your programmers before you need to upgrade too many components.

My experience (short-terming and consulting in lots of different kinds of environments Most applications I've seen) agrees with this intuition - I've never seen an entire system clearly architected to manage this problem carefully (well, I've also almost never seen an entire system clearly architected) . I've worked with very, very few developers with a good knowledge of threading issues. Especially with web apps, you can often get away with this, or at least seem to get away with it. If you have spring-based instantiations managing your object creation and stateless servlets, you can often pretend that there's no such thing as synchronization, and this is sort where lots of applications end up. Eventually someone starts putting some shared state where it doesn't belong and 3 months later someone notices some wierd intermittent errors. This is often "good enough" for many people (as long as you're not writing banking transactions). How many java developer are aware of this problem? Hard to say, as it depends heavily on where you work.

After reading "[Java concurrent in practice](http://jcip.net/)" and "[OSGI in practice](http://neilbartlett.name/blog/osgibook/)" I found a specific subject very interesting; Safe Publication. The following is from JCIP: > > To publish an object safely, both the reference to the object and the object's state must be made visible to other threads at the same time. A properly constructed object can be safely published by: > > > * Initializing an object reference from a *static* initializer. > * Storing a reference to it into a *volatile* field. > * Storing a reference to it into a *final* field. > * Storing a reference to it into a field that is properly guarded by a (*synchronized*) lock. > > > My first question: how many java developers are aware of this (problem)? How many real world java applications are really following this, AND is this really a real problem? I have a feeling that 99% of the implemented JVMs out there are not that "evil", i.e. a thread is not guaranteed (in fact its practical (almost) "impossible") to see stale data just because the reference is not following the "safe publication idiom" above.

2009/04/29

Proportionally, it's probably fair to say that very few programmers sufficiently understand synchronization and concurrency. Who knows how many server applications there are out there right now managing financial transactions, medical records, police records, telephony etc etc that are full of synchronization bugs and essentially work by accident, or very very occasionally fail (never heard of anybody get a phantom phone call added to their telephone bill?) for reasons that are never really looked into or gotten to the bottom of. Object publication is a particular problem because it's often overlooked, and it's a place where it's quite reasonable for compilers to make optimisations that could result in unexpected behaviour if you don't know about it: in the JIT-compiled code, storing a pointer, then incrementing it and storing the data is a very reasonable thing to do. You might think it's "evil", but at a low level, it's really how you'd expect the JVM spec to be. (Incidentally, I've heard of real-life programs running in JRockit suffering from this problem-- it's not purely theoretical.) If you know that your application has synchronization bugs but isn't misbehaving in your current JVM on your current hardware, then (a) congratulations; and (b), now is the time to start "walking calmly towards the fire exit", fixing your code and educating your programmers before you need to upgrade too many components.

Firstly "safe publication" is not really an idiom (IMO). It comes straight from the language. There have been cases of problems with unsafe publication, with use of NIO for instance. Most Java code is very badly written. Threaded code is obviously more difficult than average line-of-business code.

I have been taking 2-3gm of creatine per day mixed extremely well with 16-17oz lukewarm water, that too on workout days (i.e. I avoid the non-workout days) for at least 2.5 months now. However, I feel that the paunch/belly fat I had, as mentioned in [this post of mine](https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/32030/how-much-cardio-is-advisable-for-an-overweight-person-who-is-new-to-bodybuilding), has increased considerably. Now, if I start taking whey protein, would the cons (from the pov of fat in belly/waist) overweigh the pros significantly? --- Edit: I linked a wrong thread instead of the one I intended to, earlier. The correction has been made.

2016/09/19

To answer the valid question here: ### Does Creatine cause bloating? Yes, the water retention usually seen with higher (>10g) loading doses can exceed five pounds (more than two kilograms). Lower doses may cause less water retention. While water mass is not muscle mass (though both count as lean mass), prolonged creatine supplementation is met with an increased rate of muscle growth. <https://examine.com/supplements/creatine/#hem-weight> Do you need to load creatine? No. <http://examine.com/nutrition/do-i-need-to-load-creatine/> However: **you are retaining more water, not more fat**. Your weight is going up as a result of supplementing creatine increasing water retention but that weight is **not fat**. Some bodybuilders cycle off creatine for competitions but it varies from person-to-person. Note: Some body-fat measuring scales (using electrical resistance) which claim to tell you your body-fat percentage are affected massively by your hydration/water level. Taking creatine may make it read falsely that your body-fat has gone up. --- If that first post was from you I'd say that personally it sounds like you are trying to cut to show abs you probably don't have. Based on the original questions statistics (weigh/height) my personal recommendation would be to focus your main effort on your strength training, following a structured barbell program will help a lot. Consistency is key here.

It can, but I can't tell for sure it's causing the problem in your case, or the other part of your diet is. The fact is, different diet plans work differently on different people. You may be allergic or intolerant to certain components of your diet, or the supplement you are taking. You get yourself checked by a doctor if the issue persists. Why not to go off it for a few weeks, and see how it works? If you just want to look good, you don't need those, but that's just my opinion.

I have been taking 2-3gm of creatine per day mixed extremely well with 16-17oz lukewarm water, that too on workout days (i.e. I avoid the non-workout days) for at least 2.5 months now. However, I feel that the paunch/belly fat I had, as mentioned in [this post of mine](https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/32030/how-much-cardio-is-advisable-for-an-overweight-person-who-is-new-to-bodybuilding), has increased considerably. Now, if I start taking whey protein, would the cons (from the pov of fat in belly/waist) overweigh the pros significantly? --- Edit: I linked a wrong thread instead of the one I intended to, earlier. The correction has been made.

2016/09/19

To answer the valid question here: ### Does Creatine cause bloating? Yes, the water retention usually seen with higher (>10g) loading doses can exceed five pounds (more than two kilograms). Lower doses may cause less water retention. While water mass is not muscle mass (though both count as lean mass), prolonged creatine supplementation is met with an increased rate of muscle growth. <https://examine.com/supplements/creatine/#hem-weight> Do you need to load creatine? No. <http://examine.com/nutrition/do-i-need-to-load-creatine/> However: **you are retaining more water, not more fat**. Your weight is going up as a result of supplementing creatine increasing water retention but that weight is **not fat**. Some bodybuilders cycle off creatine for competitions but it varies from person-to-person. Note: Some body-fat measuring scales (using electrical resistance) which claim to tell you your body-fat percentage are affected massively by your hydration/water level. Taking creatine may make it read falsely that your body-fat has gone up. --- If that first post was from you I'd say that personally it sounds like you are trying to cut to show abs you probably don't have. Based on the original questions statistics (weigh/height) my personal recommendation would be to focus your main effort on your strength training, following a structured barbell program will help a lot. Consistency is key here.

@JJosaur's answer is correct. Creatine will slightly increase the amount of water your muscles hold. It will not, and in fact, it can not, increase body fat. That is literally impossible. The amount of water bloat that you get will largely depend on your genetic muscle fiber makeup. Since creatine works better with fast-twitch muscle fibers, individuals with a higher percentage of these fibres will see more effects. Moreover, the recommended dose is generally 5mg, not 2-3...so I can even argue that your body is barely saturated with creatine enough to cause any effect. I'm not sure what you mean by "would taking whey outweigh the cons"... All whey will do is supply you with protein that you couldn't get through your diet. In terms of muscle building, this helps insure proper protein synthesis and recovery. In terms of weight loss, this helps insure you minimize muscle loss. I can confidently say your issues have absolutely nothing to do with creatine/protein or any supplements, work on your diet.

Is it possible to attain the first jhana, then remain in first jhana, while walking, talking, eating and performing other daily activities? Or does one remain in first jhana only while in sitting meditation, then he has to leave the jhana and meditation, before he is able to perform daily activities such as walking, talking and eating?

2019/03/12

From [AN3.63](https://suttacentral.net/an3.63/en/sujato): > > With the giving up of pleasure and pain, and the ending of former happiness and sadness, I enter and remain in the fourth absorption, without pleasure or pain, with pure equanimity and mindfulness. > > > When I’m practicing like this, if I **walk** meditation, at that time I walk like the gods. > > > When I’m practicing like this, if I **stand**, at that time I stand like the gods. > > > When I’m practicing like this, if I **sit**, at that time I sit like the gods. > > > When I’m practicing like this, if I **lie** down, at that time I lie down like the gods. > > > There are some who find the above an indication that walking meditation in jhana is possible. There are also those who find the above impossible given the depth of absorption in which senses recede and physical processes such as breathing stop. There is also the matter of the Vinaya, which prohibits public discussion of attainments. To illustrate the difficulty of translation for those bound by the Vinaya, note that where Bhante Sujato uses "walking meditation", Bhikkhu Bodhi translates the section on walking in [AN3.63](https://suttacentral.net/an3.63/en/bodhi) with more ambiguity. Both are bound by the Vinaya: > > Then, brahmin, when I am in such a state, if I walk back and forth, on that occasion my **walking back and forth** is celestial. > > > Discussion of jhana attainments is problematic given the prohibitions of the Vinaya. In other words, the monastics who understand jhana are forbidden from discussing it. Therefore, this question can never be answered definitively in a public forum such as this.

It's possible to reach Jhanic states while not formal sitting, yet can be certain "[dangerous](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=W8hgPSwHnM8)". (while not serious, actually serious warning). Walking is perfect, but one should not train such in a "dangerous" environment for one self and others but only when already walking renouncing ways. A will of change (sitting, walking, standing, lying), how ever, requires to leave the state, but if good trained, quick may continue. It might occur, but would not be prompted by one knowing what he is doing, while doing other things concentrated. *[Note: not for trade, exchange, stacks and gains binding to world but liberation given]*

Is it possible to attain the first jhana, then remain in first jhana, while walking, talking, eating and performing other daily activities? Or does one remain in first jhana only while in sitting meditation, then he has to leave the jhana and meditation, before he is able to perform daily activities such as walking, talking and eating?

2019/03/12

From [AN3.63](https://suttacentral.net/an3.63/en/sujato): > > With the giving up of pleasure and pain, and the ending of former happiness and sadness, I enter and remain in the fourth absorption, without pleasure or pain, with pure equanimity and mindfulness. > > > When I’m practicing like this, if I **walk** meditation, at that time I walk like the gods. > > > When I’m practicing like this, if I **stand**, at that time I stand like the gods. > > > When I’m practicing like this, if I **sit**, at that time I sit like the gods. > > > When I’m practicing like this, if I **lie** down, at that time I lie down like the gods. > > > There are some who find the above an indication that walking meditation in jhana is possible. There are also those who find the above impossible given the depth of absorption in which senses recede and physical processes such as breathing stop. There is also the matter of the Vinaya, which prohibits public discussion of attainments. To illustrate the difficulty of translation for those bound by the Vinaya, note that where Bhante Sujato uses "walking meditation", Bhikkhu Bodhi translates the section on walking in [AN3.63](https://suttacentral.net/an3.63/en/bodhi) with more ambiguity. Both are bound by the Vinaya: > > Then, brahmin, when I am in such a state, if I walk back and forth, on that occasion my **walking back and forth** is celestial. > > > Discussion of jhana attainments is problematic given the prohibitions of the Vinaya. In other words, the monastics who understand jhana are forbidden from discussing it. Therefore, this question can never be answered definitively in a public forum such as this.

According to Sutta Jhana formula, you have to sit cross-legged and keeping your body erects, keeping your mindfulness to the front when you are in first Jhana. In first Jhana you have abandoned five hindrances and acquired five Jhana factors vitakka, vicara, pithi, sukha and ekagata. your speech has ceased and no body pain. Hence walking, talking and eating do not satisfy the Jhana formula.

Is it possible to attain the first jhana, then remain in first jhana, while walking, talking, eating and performing other daily activities? Or does one remain in first jhana only while in sitting meditation, then he has to leave the jhana and meditation, before he is able to perform daily activities such as walking, talking and eating?

2019/03/12

From [AN3.63](https://suttacentral.net/an3.63/en/sujato): > > With the giving up of pleasure and pain, and the ending of former happiness and sadness, I enter and remain in the fourth absorption, without pleasure or pain, with pure equanimity and mindfulness. > > > When I’m practicing like this, if I **walk** meditation, at that time I walk like the gods. > > > When I’m practicing like this, if I **stand**, at that time I stand like the gods. > > > When I’m practicing like this, if I **sit**, at that time I sit like the gods. > > > When I’m practicing like this, if I **lie** down, at that time I lie down like the gods. > > > There are some who find the above an indication that walking meditation in jhana is possible. There are also those who find the above impossible given the depth of absorption in which senses recede and physical processes such as breathing stop. There is also the matter of the Vinaya, which prohibits public discussion of attainments. To illustrate the difficulty of translation for those bound by the Vinaya, note that where Bhante Sujato uses "walking meditation", Bhikkhu Bodhi translates the section on walking in [AN3.63](https://suttacentral.net/an3.63/en/bodhi) with more ambiguity. Both are bound by the Vinaya: > > Then, brahmin, when I am in such a state, if I walk back and forth, on that occasion my **walking back and forth** is celestial. > > > Discussion of jhana attainments is problematic given the prohibitions of the Vinaya. In other words, the monastics who understand jhana are forbidden from discussing it. Therefore, this question can never be answered definitively in a public forum such as this.

Perhaps you can stay in Arahattaphla Samadhi while you are walking, talking and eating.

Is it possible to attain the first jhana, then remain in first jhana, while walking, talking, eating and performing other daily activities? Or does one remain in first jhana only while in sitting meditation, then he has to leave the jhana and meditation, before he is able to perform daily activities such as walking, talking and eating?

2019/03/12

From [AN3.63](https://suttacentral.net/an3.63/en/sujato): > > With the giving up of pleasure and pain, and the ending of former happiness and sadness, I enter and remain in the fourth absorption, without pleasure or pain, with pure equanimity and mindfulness. > > > When I’m practicing like this, if I **walk** meditation, at that time I walk like the gods. > > > When I’m practicing like this, if I **stand**, at that time I stand like the gods. > > > When I’m practicing like this, if I **sit**, at that time I sit like the gods. > > > When I’m practicing like this, if I **lie** down, at that time I lie down like the gods. > > > There are some who find the above an indication that walking meditation in jhana is possible. There are also those who find the above impossible given the depth of absorption in which senses recede and physical processes such as breathing stop. There is also the matter of the Vinaya, which prohibits public discussion of attainments. To illustrate the difficulty of translation for those bound by the Vinaya, note that where Bhante Sujato uses "walking meditation", Bhikkhu Bodhi translates the section on walking in [AN3.63](https://suttacentral.net/an3.63/en/bodhi) with more ambiguity. Both are bound by the Vinaya: > > Then, brahmin, when I am in such a state, if I walk back and forth, on that occasion my **walking back and forth** is celestial. > > > Discussion of jhana attainments is problematic given the prohibitions of the Vinaya. In other words, the monastics who understand jhana are forbidden from discussing it. Therefore, this question can never be answered definitively in a public forum such as this.

No, it's impossible. That isn't to say that you can't practice walking meditation (or any other technique) in a way that develops the five jhana factors, however. These can be cultivated to quite a significant degree especially if they are done as a supplement to seated meditation. Unfortunately, it's simply not possible to develop one-pointedness to the degree required by full jhana when one's attention has to be split between the object of meditation and the act of walking. By definition, one-pointedness cannot coexist in the midst of multiple objects of attention.

Is it possible to attain the first jhana, then remain in first jhana, while walking, talking, eating and performing other daily activities? Or does one remain in first jhana only while in sitting meditation, then he has to leave the jhana and meditation, before he is able to perform daily activities such as walking, talking and eating?

2019/03/12

From [AN3.63](https://suttacentral.net/an3.63/en/sujato): > > With the giving up of pleasure and pain, and the ending of former happiness and sadness, I enter and remain in the fourth absorption, without pleasure or pain, with pure equanimity and mindfulness. > > > When I’m practicing like this, if I **walk** meditation, at that time I walk like the gods. > > > When I’m practicing like this, if I **stand**, at that time I stand like the gods. > > > When I’m practicing like this, if I **sit**, at that time I sit like the gods. > > > When I’m practicing like this, if I **lie** down, at that time I lie down like the gods. > > > There are some who find the above an indication that walking meditation in jhana is possible. There are also those who find the above impossible given the depth of absorption in which senses recede and physical processes such as breathing stop. There is also the matter of the Vinaya, which prohibits public discussion of attainments. To illustrate the difficulty of translation for those bound by the Vinaya, note that where Bhante Sujato uses "walking meditation", Bhikkhu Bodhi translates the section on walking in [AN3.63](https://suttacentral.net/an3.63/en/bodhi) with more ambiguity. Both are bound by the Vinaya: > > Then, brahmin, when I am in such a state, if I walk back and forth, on that occasion my **walking back and forth** is celestial. > > > Discussion of jhana attainments is problematic given the prohibitions of the Vinaya. In other words, the monastics who understand jhana are forbidden from discussing it. Therefore, this question can never be answered definitively in a public forum such as this.

The First Jhana is just sustained thought and attention on the object, with some sukkha (pleasure, bliss), and some piiti (rapture, ecstacy) which are "First dhyāna: the first dhyana can be entered when one is secluded from sensuality and unskillful qualities, due to withdrawal and right effort. There is pīti ("rapture") and non-sensual sukha ("pleasure") as the result of seclusion, while vitarka-vicara ("discursive thought") continues" <https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dhy%C4%81na_in_Buddhism> "you will be overcome with rapture, euphoria, ecstasy, delight. These are all English words that are used to translate the Pali word piti. Perhaps the best English word for piti is “glee.” Piti is a primarily physical sensation that sweeps you powerfully into an altered state. But piti is not solely physical; as the suttas say, “On account of the presence of piti, there is mental exhilaration.” In addition to the physical energy and mental exhilaration, the piti will be accompanied by an emotional sensation of joy and happiness. The Pali word for this joy/happiness is sukha, the opposite of dukkha (pain, suffering). And if you can remain undistractedly focused on this experience of piti and sukha, that is the first jhana." Leigh Brasington - <https://www.lionsroar.com/entering-the-jhanas/> It must be possible to experience these during sitting, standing, lying down, and walking, because they are standard positions for meditation. Eating is also used for meditation so that also. Conversing activates the discrimination mind, rather than the mind moving towards equanimity, so it will diminish the effect of the First Jhana. It is excellent to stabilize samadhi by doing these things, whilst in jhana, but preferably with Noble Silence. "Huisi taught two different forms of the lotus samadhi. The "practice devoid of characteristics", or the practice of ease and bliss, is based on the fourteenth chapter of the Lotus Sutra.[22][23] Huisi explains, "While in the very midst of phenomena [the practitioner discerns that] mental characteristics are quiescent and extinguished and ultimately do not arise. (...) He is constantly immersed in all the profound and wonderful dhyana absorptions because in all activities - walking, standing, sitting, lying down, eating or speaking - his mind is always settled [in samadhi]." <https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nanyue_Huisi>

I am trying to see test coverage line by line in a class, however, only the first line is highlighted. [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/uW3o7.png) The *Show Inline Statistics* setting is enabled. [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/H4R7a.png) I get the test coverage for the **class**, **methods** and **lines** as below: [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/gydYw.png) I remember this worked in a previous version of Android Studio (ca't exactly remember which). How can enable the feature so that coverage is shown for all lines.

2019/11/25

Step 1 - Run **testDebugUnitTest** with coverage [Click here to see unit test coverage](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Yy5oF.png) Step 2 - Generate coverage report - click on icon as shown in above image (yellow highlighted) give exported path to generate html file. Step 3 - Click on index.html file to view report. You will get test coverage percentage for **class, method and line** as shown in below image [Click here to see test coverage class](https://i.stack.imgur.com/guNFM.png) [click here to see overall coverage summary](https://i.stack.imgur.com/JWvoT.png)

Run the test with coverage, then you can see it line by line: [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/q8pgp.png)

Is it possible to install/register another local server instance in any SqlServer version, besides the default local instance, where only one SqlServer version is installed?

2008/09/27

Yes, it's possible. I have several combinations in my servers. I have one server that has both SQL Server 2000 and 2005 installed side by side. My desktop at work is a Windows 2003 Server, and I have SQL Server 2005 and 2008 installed side by side. What you want is called a named instance. There will be a screen during the install, where you will be able to give it a name.

Yes. Usually the installer will detect that you have one or more existing instances and will prompt you for a instance name. We have setup three SQL Server 2000 standard editions on a development box to emulate the three production servers at one of our clients.

We have application which is using some additional files from one catalog. Right now when some of this file is changed we need to log in to each application container clone repository and copy files to catalog. We want to automate this process without rebuilding/restarting whole application. Is there some native approach how to handle such thing? I was thinking about using docker volume which is use/share by all containers and when is such need to rebuild just volume. Will it work as im expecting without restarting containers which are using this volume? Or maybe there is some better solution for such case eg like NFS volumes?

2018/01/11

Have a look at PersistentVolume [Access Modes](https://kubernetes.io/docs/concepts/storage/persistent-volumes/#access-modes) matrix. What you are looking for is either ROX or RWX support. ROX is more common but you'll need some side process to update the content. RWX give you full access to change content on these volumes from any pod. ROX support is by definition much wider, as you do not need distributed write locking, so if you can handle that (and I think that in your case it is quite probable) that would be the best choice for a shared PV where your changing data can be stored.

It looks like you have already found a solution by making use of NFS mounted volume. There are a number of other volume options available for those who read this seeking a similar solution. If you only need pods on a single node to be able to access a volume, the the options for Access Mode 'ReadWriteOnce' in this [table](https://kubernetes.io/docs/concepts/storage/persistent-volumes/#access-modes) display types of volumes that maybe suitable. If you need your pods (either on the same node or different nodes) to only read information in a volume, then some of the other 'ReadOnlyMany' options may also be suitable (please see the table [here](https://kubernetes.io/docs/concepts/storage/persistent-volumes/#access-modes)). There are also options for mounting volumes that allow read/write access to multiple nodes classed under the access mode 'ReadWriteMany' in the same [table](https://kubernetes.io/docs/concepts/storage/persistent-volumes/#access-modes). As there is such a large number of options, some may be more suited to each use case, but more information can be found [here](https://kubernetes.io/docs/concepts/storage/volumes/#types-of-volumes) about the specifics for each type of volume.

Can somebody please suggest me when would I need a Level-Order Traversal (to solve some practical/real-life scenario)?

2012/10/31

[Level order traversal](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tree_traversal#Queue-based_level_order_traversal) is actually a Breadth First Search, which is not recursive by nature. From: <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Breadth-first_search> Breadth-first search can be used to solve many problems in graph theory, for example: * Finding all nodes within one connected component * Copying Collection, Cheney's algorithm * Finding the shortest path between two nodes u and - v (with path length measured by number of edges) * Testing a graph for bipartiteness * (Reverse) Cuthill–McKee mesh numbering * Ford–Fulkerson method for computing the maximum flow in a flow network * Serialization/Deserialization of a binary tree vs serialization in sorted order, allows the tree to be re-constructed in an efficient manner.

Google Map Direction is using Level Order Traversal (BFS) all the time. Algorithms repeat the same method choosing the node nearest to the intersection points, eventually selecting the route with the shortest length. <http://blog.hackerearth.com/breadth-first-search-algorithm-example-working-of-gps-navigation>

If I build a module with a indexer, is Magento going to run the reindex automatically each night or do I need to create a cronjob for it?

2019/05/20

If you want the reindex happen automatically, you need to set a cronjob for that. Please refer [here](https://magento.stackexchange.com/questions/269624/how-to-check-whether-the-reindex-working-or-not-in-magento) for detailed explanations:

Automatic re-indexing always require a active Cronjob

I found myself in an interesting puzzle. Here is the simplified version: I have a flight from A to C, connecting through B. I decide that from B I actually want to go to D, so I buy a separate ticket for that journey\*. The B-C and B-D flights are around the same time and with the same airline\*\*. Will there be a problem with checking in to B-D, given that at that point I will already be checked in on their system to the whole trip A-C, including the leg B-C? No luggage is involved. Some extra information: (\*) Every leg is relatively short within Europe, on economy fare. In particular, changing the A-C ticket to A-D would likely be pricier. (\*\*) The B-D trip could be done with another airline. Does this change the answer?

2018/04/06

**No**, there won't be any problem. Separate bookings are separate bookings and don't affect each other, even on the same airline. I will note, however, that if you make a habit of buying A-B-C tickets and getting off at B, and give your frequent flyer number every time, the airline will eventually get grumpy. However, doing this once or twice is fine.

1. It's unlikely but not impossible that you will get problems at check in. This can be interpreted as you cancelling the "B-C" leg, which incurs a change fee (as stated in the contract of carriage). It sounds insane, but airlines want you to pay for not taking a flight that you have already paid for. They can enforce this if they detect it 2. You need enough time. Depending on the airport and airline, you may have to leave the secure area, check in, and then go through security again. In many cases check in closes 1 hour before departure, which may be more than your connection time. 3. Any return flights from C to A would get cancelled by the airline.

I found myself in an interesting puzzle. Here is the simplified version: I have a flight from A to C, connecting through B. I decide that from B I actually want to go to D, so I buy a separate ticket for that journey\*. The B-C and B-D flights are around the same time and with the same airline\*\*. Will there be a problem with checking in to B-D, given that at that point I will already be checked in on their system to the whole trip A-C, including the leg B-C? No luggage is involved. Some extra information: (\*) Every leg is relatively short within Europe, on economy fare. In particular, changing the A-C ticket to A-D would likely be pricier. (\*\*) The B-D trip could be done with another airline. Does this change the answer?

2018/04/06

**No**, there won't be any problem. Separate bookings are separate bookings and don't affect each other, even on the same airline. I will note, however, that if you make a habit of buying A-B-C tickets and getting off at B, and give your frequent flyer number every time, the airline will eventually get grumpy. However, doing this once or twice is fine.

There might be a big problem with any checked-in bag. If this is all with the same airline, your bag might be checked through to destination C, with no opportunity to retrieve it at the intermediate stop B.

I found myself in an interesting puzzle. Here is the simplified version: I have a flight from A to C, connecting through B. I decide that from B I actually want to go to D, so I buy a separate ticket for that journey\*. The B-C and B-D flights are around the same time and with the same airline\*\*. Will there be a problem with checking in to B-D, given that at that point I will already be checked in on their system to the whole trip A-C, including the leg B-C? No luggage is involved. Some extra information: (\*) Every leg is relatively short within Europe, on economy fare. In particular, changing the A-C ticket to A-D would likely be pricier. (\*\*) The B-D trip could be done with another airline. Does this change the answer?

2018/04/06

**No**, there won't be any problem. Separate bookings are separate bookings and don't affect each other, even on the same airline. I will note, however, that if you make a habit of buying A-B-C tickets and getting off at B, and give your frequent flyer number every time, the airline will eventually get grumpy. However, doing this once or twice is fine.

I would not count on being able to do this with the same airline. Many airlines implement [revenue protection](http://www.navitaire.com/Styles/Images/PDFs/New%20Skies%20Revenue%20Protection.pdf) systems that can automatically [cancel](https://thepointsguy.com/2017/08/illegal-book-2-flights-cancel-1) duplicate bookings. Since it's not physically possible to take all the flights you've booked, the airline may detect that and cancel one of your bookings. There may be a higher chance of success if you use different airlines.

I found myself in an interesting puzzle. Here is the simplified version: I have a flight from A to C, connecting through B. I decide that from B I actually want to go to D, so I buy a separate ticket for that journey\*. The B-C and B-D flights are around the same time and with the same airline\*\*. Will there be a problem with checking in to B-D, given that at that point I will already be checked in on their system to the whole trip A-C, including the leg B-C? No luggage is involved. Some extra information: (\*) Every leg is relatively short within Europe, on economy fare. In particular, changing the A-C ticket to A-D would likely be pricier. (\*\*) The B-D trip could be done with another airline. Does this change the answer?

2018/04/06

There might be a big problem with any checked-in bag. If this is all with the same airline, your bag might be checked through to destination C, with no opportunity to retrieve it at the intermediate stop B.

1. It's unlikely but not impossible that you will get problems at check in. This can be interpreted as you cancelling the "B-C" leg, which incurs a change fee (as stated in the contract of carriage). It sounds insane, but airlines want you to pay for not taking a flight that you have already paid for. They can enforce this if they detect it 2. You need enough time. Depending on the airport and airline, you may have to leave the secure area, check in, and then go through security again. In many cases check in closes 1 hour before departure, which may be more than your connection time. 3. Any return flights from C to A would get cancelled by the airline.

I found myself in an interesting puzzle. Here is the simplified version: I have a flight from A to C, connecting through B. I decide that from B I actually want to go to D, so I buy a separate ticket for that journey\*. The B-C and B-D flights are around the same time and with the same airline\*\*. Will there be a problem with checking in to B-D, given that at that point I will already be checked in on their system to the whole trip A-C, including the leg B-C? No luggage is involved. Some extra information: (\*) Every leg is relatively short within Europe, on economy fare. In particular, changing the A-C ticket to A-D would likely be pricier. (\*\*) The B-D trip could be done with another airline. Does this change the answer?

2018/04/06

There might be a big problem with any checked-in bag. If this is all with the same airline, your bag might be checked through to destination C, with no opportunity to retrieve it at the intermediate stop B.

I would not count on being able to do this with the same airline. Many airlines implement [revenue protection](http://www.navitaire.com/Styles/Images/PDFs/New%20Skies%20Revenue%20Protection.pdf) systems that can automatically [cancel](https://thepointsguy.com/2017/08/illegal-book-2-flights-cancel-1) duplicate bookings. Since it's not physically possible to take all the flights you've booked, the airline may detect that and cancel one of your bookings. There may be a higher chance of success if you use different airlines.

we have a client application that plays flash files (.swf). This works on all other mobiles except iphone as Apple doesn't support Flash. Is there any workaround to play these flash files in iphone using HTML5 or any other tweaking? Since there aren't any answers to this question recently, I am submiting this question.

2013/08/27

No, there is no way to display a Flash file (SWF) in the iPhone browser. If you have access to the source of the Flash files in the application, it may be possible to export them as HTML5 from the Flash builder. There's no way to do this conversion just from the SWFs, though. As an aside: your application won't work on many newer smartphones either - under Android, Adobe has dropped support for the Flash plugin on current versions of the OS, and it's not supported at all on current versions of Windows Mobile or Blackberry OS. Sites which depend on Flash content are effectively unusable on mobile at this point.

* **using external browser:** There is a browser called **photon** which plays *flash videos and games* on ios devices without any need to jailbreak open this browser with the web url using custom app url scheme * **using html5 conversion tools:** Use *google swiffy* or *Adobe wallaby* and open the HTML page using uiwebview * **native app** Using *Adobe air sdk* you could play local flash videos natively Click [here](https://stackoverflow.com/a/19167057/730807) to see detailed answer that compares these approaches and too see main links to these approaches

**I'm pretty sure this happens to someone out there now and then:** You've read a question, done the work with writing a pretty decent answer, at least you think you have, then you find some detail in the question, either edited in at a later time or maybe not clearly defined in the title or pointed out in the context in the first place, that makes your answer either get down-voted because it isn't the most accurate or relevant answer or just kinda misplaced because it answers what you *thought* was asked, but then again, meh... So, it isn't directly wrong, but neither a good answer for the question when you realize that you misread the whole thing. Could be that something got lost in internal translation (like inside your head, for non-native English speaking folks) or just poorly written. Could be you rushed for a bounty, at 4 a.m after a couple of beers, whatever. What is the best approach in such cases? Should I (or could I) delete my answer? What are the rules for if / when I can delete an answer? Come to think of it, I really don't know the rules for if / when I can delete my own questions either... Is this written somewhere? Does deleting an answer impact anything other than what it sounds like, e.g. the answer is Poof! gone or does it cause any other reactions / rep changes? Is it considered bad practice to do so, if at all possible?

2020/12/26

It can respond to another answer, but you still need to give at least a partial answer to the question. Thus, answering like this is okay: > > My experience about @X's answer (link) is negative, although I used a newer version of (...). Instead, what I did is (explanation), and now it works. > > > [(example)](https://stackoverflow.com/a/39034132/1783163) This answer is not okay, because it is a comment: > > @X's answer does not work. > > > The important thing is that the main focus of the answer should be at least a partial answer to the question on the top. --- Users starting with > > It is not an answer, but... > > > have typically two options: 1. Yes, it is an (at least partial) answer. These users typically think that giving a step-by-step guide is a requirement; the requirement is that at least a part of the question on the top should be answered. Users can get the supportive comment and editing out the "not an answer" part (superficial future reviewers might flag it for deletion without enough thinking on the details). 2. It is really not an answer. Some personalised advice, particularly in the case of newbies is still helpful, anyways flag as NAA (or for mod comment conversion if it is worthwhile). --- Who decides: mostly, the reviewers. I would say that about 80% of the cases are obvious (in the VLQ queue). For the border cases, this is why it requires 2k (or 1k on beta) the VLQ queue. --- Posting answer in comments: I do this if I am not sure or if I would flag my answer as VLQ/NAA. Because comments are second-grade citizens, if I write a bad comment, it will be at most deleted. I think the reason of others is the same. If you are the OP, and one or more comment has actually the worth of an answer, then you could ask the commenter(s) to do it for an upvote and accept. If they remain inactive, you can summarize them in a self-answer ([example1](https://android.stackexchange.com/a/231985/50837), [example2](https://meta.stackexchange.com/a/296950/259412)). This is not forbidden, although you should mention your source(s) to avoid plagiarism.

There has recently been a discussion on Stack Overflow: [Is an answer that only addresses other answers not an answer?](https://meta.stackoverflow.com/q/403026/13552470) The consensus of [the most upvoted answer](https://meta.stackoverflow.com/a/403027/13552470) is: > > "Not an Answer" is the wrong flag in any case. "Not an answer" is for things like "I have the same problem, any solution?" > > > If you're casting a moderator flag, the implication is that you want a moderator to take action on this particular answer, rather than leaving it to the community. The only reasonable response that a moderator can take to a "not an answer" flag is to delete the answer. > > > So the question you have to ask yourself is, "does this answer harm the site enough that it must be forcibly removed by a moderator?" I would argue that it doesn't. > > >

I've looking looking at this with no success so far. I need a regular expression that returns me the string after the one in a phone number. Let me give you the perfect example: phone number (in exact format i need): 15063217711 return i need: 5063217711 --> so the FIRST char if its a 1 is removed. I need a regular expression that matches a 1 only at the BEGINNING of the string and then returns the rest of the phone number. By the way im using objective C but it should not make much difference.

2012/10/12

For a playlist DEFINITELY the database. The preferences is just a simple key-value pair.

It all depends on the complexity of what you are going to save. SharedPreferences it's the simple approach, but I don't think it is a good idea in terms of scalability. In your case you would be better off using SQLite just because you can create complex structures using a relational database and still being easy to develop because its well-known SQL syntax.

I swear that for the past couple of weeks or so the speed of responses on serverfault.com has really degraded from what it used to be. Is it time to beef that site up a little?

2012/02/23

Are you sure it's nothing at your end? I've noticed no difference here.

Where are you located? I'm in Sydney, Australia and for the last 10 months I've had speed issues with the site - it's so "normal" now that I don't even notice them. See my [meta.stackoverflow question here](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/92452/cdn-sstatic-net-is-slowing-down-initial-page-loads) - there's a lot of info on how to diagnose CDN issues in the answers.

a few weeks ago, we setup a cronjob that wipes the entire contents of /tmp every Sunday at 5am. I wasn't really convinced that this is a good idea. Today we discovered that a certain task depended on an existing directory inside /tmp - the task was broken, and worse, it remained silence about why it failed. The question is: Is it generally a bad idea to just wipe out /tmp?

2010/11/12

It's not a bad idea to do something about stale old files in /tmp, but I'm not sure that nuking the contents is the best thing you could do. My CentOS servers use something called tmpwatch, which runs daily and can be configured to remove only files that haven't been accessed in a certain period (30 days is a popular delay), or modified in a certain period; it can be told to leave directories alone unless they're empty, or not to touch directory files at all, or to exclude files used by a certain user (root is a popular choice). This works well for me, and it offers enough hooks that you can tune it to do what you want. I'd recommend tmpwatch, or whatever your distro offers that's like that.

My thoughts on this is.. Yes.. dont wipe the /tmp.. Lots of strange and weird applications use the temp for buffering and temporary storage.. If the information wasnt important, it wouldnt store it there :) Ive seen, logging buffers, webserver sessions and even library versions in there on servers.. Its best that you leave it alone.. unless it needs to be cleaned... Hope this helps :)

a few weeks ago, we setup a cronjob that wipes the entire contents of /tmp every Sunday at 5am. I wasn't really convinced that this is a good idea. Today we discovered that a certain task depended on an existing directory inside /tmp - the task was broken, and worse, it remained silence about why it failed. The question is: Is it generally a bad idea to just wipe out /tmp?

2010/11/12

It depends a bit on applications and distributions. It's typically safe to wipe /tmp on reboots. Wiping it on a running system is very likely to break applications. /tmp is not meant for permanent storage, and any application using it for such is serious broken, but applications can easily leave files in /tmp for months on a system that stays online. Which is why I am a bit suspicious about tmpwatch. In the end I only tend to look into how much is stored in /tmp when a server is running low on hard disk space. If there is plenty of HD space why bother?

My thoughts on this is.. Yes.. dont wipe the /tmp.. Lots of strange and weird applications use the temp for buffering and temporary storage.. If the information wasnt important, it wouldnt store it there :) Ive seen, logging buffers, webserver sessions and even library versions in there on servers.. Its best that you leave it alone.. unless it needs to be cleaned... Hope this helps :)

a few weeks ago, we setup a cronjob that wipes the entire contents of /tmp every Sunday at 5am. I wasn't really convinced that this is a good idea. Today we discovered that a certain task depended on an existing directory inside /tmp - the task was broken, and worse, it remained silence about why it failed. The question is: Is it generally a bad idea to just wipe out /tmp?

2010/11/12

According to [the FHS](http://www.pathname.com/fhs/pub/fhs-2.3.html#TMPTEMPORARYFILES): > > Programs must not assume that any files or directories in /tmp are preserved between invocations of the program. > > > Rationale > > > IEEE standard P1003.2 (POSIX, part 2) makes requirements that are similar to the above section. > > > Although data stored in /tmp may be deleted in a site-specific manner, it is recommended that files and directories located in /tmp be deleted whenever the system is booted. > > > FHS added this recommendation on the basis of historical precedent and common practice, but did not make it a requirement because system administration is not within the scope of this standard. > > > However, this is only a recommendation, and furthermore, it states only between invocations of a program -- which unless you're rebooting your server as well at 5am on Sunday, isn't happening. So, things like lockfiles, temp sockets, etc get deleted and cause problems. As [MadHatter](https://serverfault.com/users/55514/madhatter) suggested, use `tmpwatch`.

My thoughts on this is.. Yes.. dont wipe the /tmp.. Lots of strange and weird applications use the temp for buffering and temporary storage.. If the information wasnt important, it wouldnt store it there :) Ive seen, logging buffers, webserver sessions and even library versions in there on servers.. Its best that you leave it alone.. unless it needs to be cleaned... Hope this helps :)

a few weeks ago, we setup a cronjob that wipes the entire contents of /tmp every Sunday at 5am. I wasn't really convinced that this is a good idea. Today we discovered that a certain task depended on an existing directory inside /tmp - the task was broken, and worse, it remained silence about why it failed. The question is: Is it generally a bad idea to just wipe out /tmp?

2010/11/12

It's not a bad idea to do something about stale old files in /tmp, but I'm not sure that nuking the contents is the best thing you could do. My CentOS servers use something called tmpwatch, which runs daily and can be configured to remove only files that haven't been accessed in a certain period (30 days is a popular delay), or modified in a certain period; it can be told to leave directories alone unless they're empty, or not to touch directory files at all, or to exclude files used by a certain user (root is a popular choice). This works well for me, and it offers enough hooks that you can tune it to do what you want. I'd recommend tmpwatch, or whatever your distro offers that's like that.

It depends a bit on applications and distributions. It's typically safe to wipe /tmp on reboots. Wiping it on a running system is very likely to break applications. /tmp is not meant for permanent storage, and any application using it for such is serious broken, but applications can easily leave files in /tmp for months on a system that stays online. Which is why I am a bit suspicious about tmpwatch. In the end I only tend to look into how much is stored in /tmp when a server is running low on hard disk space. If there is plenty of HD space why bother?

a few weeks ago, we setup a cronjob that wipes the entire contents of /tmp every Sunday at 5am. I wasn't really convinced that this is a good idea. Today we discovered that a certain task depended on an existing directory inside /tmp - the task was broken, and worse, it remained silence about why it failed. The question is: Is it generally a bad idea to just wipe out /tmp?

2010/11/12

It's not a bad idea to do something about stale old files in /tmp, but I'm not sure that nuking the contents is the best thing you could do. My CentOS servers use something called tmpwatch, which runs daily and can be configured to remove only files that haven't been accessed in a certain period (30 days is a popular delay), or modified in a certain period; it can be told to leave directories alone unless they're empty, or not to touch directory files at all, or to exclude files used by a certain user (root is a popular choice). This works well for me, and it offers enough hooks that you can tune it to do what you want. I'd recommend tmpwatch, or whatever your distro offers that's like that.

According to [the FHS](http://www.pathname.com/fhs/pub/fhs-2.3.html#TMPTEMPORARYFILES): > > Programs must not assume that any files or directories in /tmp are preserved between invocations of the program. > > > Rationale > > > IEEE standard P1003.2 (POSIX, part 2) makes requirements that are similar to the above section. > > > Although data stored in /tmp may be deleted in a site-specific manner, it is recommended that files and directories located in /tmp be deleted whenever the system is booted. > > > FHS added this recommendation on the basis of historical precedent and common practice, but did not make it a requirement because system administration is not within the scope of this standard. > > > However, this is only a recommendation, and furthermore, it states only between invocations of a program -- which unless you're rebooting your server as well at 5am on Sunday, isn't happening. So, things like lockfiles, temp sockets, etc get deleted and cause problems. As [MadHatter](https://serverfault.com/users/55514/madhatter) suggested, use `tmpwatch`.

a few weeks ago, we setup a cronjob that wipes the entire contents of /tmp every Sunday at 5am. I wasn't really convinced that this is a good idea. Today we discovered that a certain task depended on an existing directory inside /tmp - the task was broken, and worse, it remained silence about why it failed. The question is: Is it generally a bad idea to just wipe out /tmp?

2010/11/12

It depends a bit on applications and distributions. It's typically safe to wipe /tmp on reboots. Wiping it on a running system is very likely to break applications. /tmp is not meant for permanent storage, and any application using it for such is serious broken, but applications can easily leave files in /tmp for months on a system that stays online. Which is why I am a bit suspicious about tmpwatch. In the end I only tend to look into how much is stored in /tmp when a server is running low on hard disk space. If there is plenty of HD space why bother?

According to [the FHS](http://www.pathname.com/fhs/pub/fhs-2.3.html#TMPTEMPORARYFILES): > > Programs must not assume that any files or directories in /tmp are preserved between invocations of the program. > > > Rationale > > > IEEE standard P1003.2 (POSIX, part 2) makes requirements that are similar to the above section. > > > Although data stored in /tmp may be deleted in a site-specific manner, it is recommended that files and directories located in /tmp be deleted whenever the system is booted. > > > FHS added this recommendation on the basis of historical precedent and common practice, but did not make it a requirement because system administration is not within the scope of this standard. > > > However, this is only a recommendation, and furthermore, it states only between invocations of a program -- which unless you're rebooting your server as well at 5am on Sunday, isn't happening. So, things like lockfiles, temp sockets, etc get deleted and cause problems. As [MadHatter](https://serverfault.com/users/55514/madhatter) suggested, use `tmpwatch`.

Specifically for the SpaceX SES-8 mission going on right now. But, generally, how long does it take for a satellite to reach GEO at a minimum?

2013/11/25

In theory, the shortest practical time from spacecraft separation would be about five and a quarter hours, which is half of a geosynchronous transfer orbit. At apogee, which is carefully placed to occur over the equator, a single burn raises the perigee and changes the inclination of the orbit, and you're there. All early GEO birds used this approach, and many launches still do, especially from near the equator (Ariane, Sea Launch). SES-8 went to a supersynchronous transfer orbit, which allows for much lower $\Delta V$ to change the inclination, since the spacecraft is going so much slower at apogee. It would be 1800 m/s from GTO, but it's 1500 m/s from SSTO. That includes some inclination assistance from the Falcon upper stage, which reduced the inclination from 28° in the parking orbit to 20.75° in SSTO. The SSTO in this case is 295 km x 80000 km. The SSTO approach takes longer, and there are several maneuvers required. But it is usually well worth it to save that fuel for extending the useful life of the spacecraft. Lifetime is money. A supersynchronous transfer orbit was first used in 1992. SES-8 will perform five maneuvers over two weeks to get into GEO.

**Less than 30 minutes** > > Falcon 9’s second stage single Merlin vacuum engine ignited at 185 > seconds after launch to begin a five minute, 20 second burn to deliver > SES-8 into a temporary parking orbit. Eighteen minutes after injecting > SES-8 into that orbit, the second stage engine reignited for just over > a minute to carry the satellite to its final GTO. > > > Source: [RedOrbit](http://www.redorbit.com/news/space/1113019268/spacex-launches-ses-8-satellite-geostationary-transfer-orbit-120413/) > > > Best performance..

I'm using a tablet with Android 2.2. Is there something like `Tab` to switch to the next form field?

2012/10/19

Is this what you are looking for [paid app]: <https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=com.vmlite.vncserver&hl=en> However, if you are willing to go through a lengthy process [but free], you can follow the tutorial [here](http://www.howtogeek.com/howto/42491/how-to-remote-view-and-control-your-android-phone/) to access your phone via PC.

Give [androidscreencast](http://code.google.com/p/androidscreencast/) a try. You may already need to have USB Debugging enabled for it to work, but you've said you already have that enabled, so should be ok. It just needs a USB connection to the phone and goes over the ADB protocol.

I'm using a tablet with Android 2.2. Is there something like `Tab` to switch to the next form field?

2012/10/19

Is this what you are looking for [paid app]: <https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=com.vmlite.vncserver&hl=en> However, if you are willing to go through a lengthy process [but free], you can follow the tutorial [here](http://www.howtogeek.com/howto/42491/how-to-remote-view-and-control-your-android-phone/) to access your phone via PC.

Use a USB-OTG cable to connect a mouse. You can even make your own by cutting and soldering a microUSB cable to the female end of a USB extension cable.

I'm using a tablet with Android 2.2. Is there something like `Tab` to switch to the next form field?

2012/10/19

Is this what you are looking for [paid app]: <https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=com.vmlite.vncserver&hl=en> However, if you are willing to go through a lengthy process [but free], you can follow the tutorial [here](http://www.howtogeek.com/howto/42491/how-to-remote-view-and-control-your-android-phone/) to access your phone via PC.

Scrcpy is awesome! It uses adb directly for backend and it doesn't block those remote screen restricted apps too. And since it's adb. You can remote control via same network wirelessly. For linux users. It's available on most of package managers.

I'm using a tablet with Android 2.2. Is there something like `Tab` to switch to the next form field?

2012/10/19

Give [androidscreencast](http://code.google.com/p/androidscreencast/) a try. You may already need to have USB Debugging enabled for it to work, but you've said you already have that enabled, so should be ok. It just needs a USB connection to the phone and goes over the ADB protocol.

Use a USB-OTG cable to connect a mouse. You can even make your own by cutting and soldering a microUSB cable to the female end of a USB extension cable.

I'm using a tablet with Android 2.2. Is there something like `Tab` to switch to the next form field?

2012/10/19

Give [androidscreencast](http://code.google.com/p/androidscreencast/) a try. You may already need to have USB Debugging enabled for it to work, but you've said you already have that enabled, so should be ok. It just needs a USB connection to the phone and goes over the ADB protocol.

Scrcpy is awesome! It uses adb directly for backend and it doesn't block those remote screen restricted apps too. And since it's adb. You can remote control via same network wirelessly. For linux users. It's available on most of package managers.

I'm using a tablet with Android 2.2. Is there something like `Tab` to switch to the next form field?

2012/10/19

Use a USB-OTG cable to connect a mouse. You can even make your own by cutting and soldering a microUSB cable to the female end of a USB extension cable.

Scrcpy is awesome! It uses adb directly for backend and it doesn't block those remote screen restricted apps too. And since it's adb. You can remote control via same network wirelessly. For linux users. It's available on most of package managers.

I have setup a Remote Desktop Gateway server using Windows Server 2012 R2. I am using the Remote Desktop Gateway as an intermediary between to provide the remote desktop session over 443 since 3389 is blocked at many client locations. However, I ran into a problem with a client who's network seems to be using an web proxy. Is is possible to configure Remote Desktop to connect via web proxy? If so, how? If not does any one have any suggestions on how to provide a Remote Desktop session via 443 over proxy for situations where you don't control the client's PC or network? Does RemoteApps allow for access via web proxy when using RD Gateway? The error message is below: **Your computer can't connect to the remote computer because the web proxy server requires authentication. To allow unauthenticated traffic to an RD Gateway server through your web proxy server, contact your network administrator.** Thanks for any help!

2014/06/30

As of 2008 [a Microsoft employee indicated there was "no official way" to accomplish this](http://social.technet.microsoft.com/Forums/windowsserver/en-US/a341fda4-10ef-4c4c-8646-3ff10bea3a38/connecting-to-ts-gateway-through-a-web-proxy?forum=winserverTS). Given the six intervening years you'd like to think there has been progress, but I'm not seeing that there has been. If I were in your situation I'd try to find a small Win32 HTTP/HTTPS proxy that can be "pointed" at an upstream proxy and configured to provide authentication. I don't have an immediate recommendation for such a thing. (I'd probably just throw something together with Perl or Python, personally.)

Another option is to use an SSH tunnel. PuTTY, to name names, has an easily-configured proxy option, so it can work through the proxy server and then provide a local tunnel through which you can connect to the RDP destination. This does assume that the client has something to login to via SSH, and more specifically something that can communicate with the RDP server.

I have setup a Remote Desktop Gateway server using Windows Server 2012 R2. I am using the Remote Desktop Gateway as an intermediary between to provide the remote desktop session over 443 since 3389 is blocked at many client locations. However, I ran into a problem with a client who's network seems to be using an web proxy. Is is possible to configure Remote Desktop to connect via web proxy? If so, how? If not does any one have any suggestions on how to provide a Remote Desktop session via 443 over proxy for situations where you don't control the client's PC or network? Does RemoteApps allow for access via web proxy when using RD Gateway? The error message is below: **Your computer can't connect to the remote computer because the web proxy server requires authentication. To allow unauthenticated traffic to an RD Gateway server through your web proxy server, contact your network administrator.** Thanks for any help!

2014/06/30

As of 2008 [a Microsoft employee indicated there was "no official way" to accomplish this](http://social.technet.microsoft.com/Forums/windowsserver/en-US/a341fda4-10ef-4c4c-8646-3ff10bea3a38/connecting-to-ts-gateway-through-a-web-proxy?forum=winserverTS). Given the six intervening years you'd like to think there has been progress, but I'm not seeing that there has been. If I were in your situation I'd try to find a small Win32 HTTP/HTTPS proxy that can be "pointed" at an upstream proxy and configured to provide authentication. I don't have an immediate recommendation for such a thing. (I'd probably just throw something together with Perl or Python, personally.)

Guacamole and FreeRDP-WebConnect are Linux based gateways. For Windows Servers (I saw you are using Windows Server 2012 R2), you can try [Myrtille](https://github.com/cedrozor/myrtille), a comparable solution (equally using FreeRDP as rdp client), also open source.

I have setup a Remote Desktop Gateway server using Windows Server 2012 R2. I am using the Remote Desktop Gateway as an intermediary between to provide the remote desktop session over 443 since 3389 is blocked at many client locations. However, I ran into a problem with a client who's network seems to be using an web proxy. Is is possible to configure Remote Desktop to connect via web proxy? If so, how? If not does any one have any suggestions on how to provide a Remote Desktop session via 443 over proxy for situations where you don't control the client's PC or network? Does RemoteApps allow for access via web proxy when using RD Gateway? The error message is below: **Your computer can't connect to the remote computer because the web proxy server requires authentication. To allow unauthenticated traffic to an RD Gateway server through your web proxy server, contact your network administrator.** Thanks for any help!

2014/06/30

Another option is to use an SSH tunnel. PuTTY, to name names, has an easily-configured proxy option, so it can work through the proxy server and then provide a local tunnel through which you can connect to the RDP destination. This does assume that the client has something to login to via SSH, and more specifically something that can communicate with the RDP server.

Guacamole and FreeRDP-WebConnect are Linux based gateways. For Windows Servers (I saw you are using Windows Server 2012 R2), you can try [Myrtille](https://github.com/cedrozor/myrtille), a comparable solution (equally using FreeRDP as rdp client), also open source.

I've just been wondering because I see this on ubiquity and want to know how this is better during the installation of Ubuntu.

2015/07/28

If you are not plugged, then your laptop battery may be dead before the installation is finished, if you have a laptop. **;)** The result can be a ruined or incomplete installation and you have to start over. Assuming your hard drive still functions.

There is another point. When you are on battery performance is all depend on battery but while charging performance increase little bit and laptop all depends on direct DC charge and it gives little bit more volts than battery.

So in 3 we learn about the Virgo II lander, but really not much else in the space program. What else happened? Were there space stations, probes to other planets?

2015/10/23

Ultimately, we have speculative evidence that *Project: Safehouse*, aka the *Societal Preservation Program*, which tasked the Enclave to oversee the vaults, had but one supreme objective. > > The purpose of the [vault experiments](http://fallout.wikia.com/wiki/Vault) was to help prepare the Enclave for either re-colonizing Earth or colonizing another planet if Earth turned out to be uninhabitable. > > > Space flight was always part of the plan but it's unclear how far that part had been developed during the 23 years the program operated before the bombs fell. --- Cool stuff in space: [Archimedes](http://fallout.wikia.com/wiki/Archimedes_I), **New Vegas** > > It should be distinguished from Archimedes II, the second iteration of the system, which is an **orbital based laser system** and can target any outdoor location in the Mojave Wasteland. > > > [Highwater-Trousers](http://fallout.wikia.com/wiki/Highwater-Trousers), **Fallout 3** > > Highwater-Trousers is a computer program that was meant as a last resort, to be activated when an invading enemy had the SatCom Arrays under siege. From SatCom Array NW-05a it was possible to activate the program from the control terminal and call in **nuclear strikes from an orbiting platform**. > > > [B.O.M.B.](http://fallout.wikia.com/wiki/B.O.M.B.-001_design_document), **Van Buren Project** (game canceled) > > The Ballistic Orbital Missile Base 001 (abbreviated B.O.M.B.-001) is a large, donut shaped U.S. **space station** capable of firing twenty-four nuclear-tipped ballistic missiles. While it is currently staffed with eight individuals, it is capable of housing six people long term. A sister station, B.O.M.B.-002, existed alongside B.O.M.B.-001 until some point after the Great War. The layout for B.O.M.B.-001 shows areas designated for living, recreation, medical treatment, and a separate area for the station's true purpose; a nuclear missile control and launch center. > > > [USSA](http://fallout.wikia.com/wiki/United_States_Space_Administration), **Fallout 2** (unreliable source, although it does present a possible tie-in with the Hubologists having a space shuttle) > > United States Space Administration > > > The following is based on Fallout 2 cut content and has not been confirmed by canon sources. > > > The U.S. government's real plan to survive a nuclear war was simply to find another planet to live on after having helped to destroy the Earth. **A spacecraft designed to ferry the human race to another planet was either under construction or ready to go before the Great War broke out.** The plan was for the government to flee to the Enclave's Oil Rig, wait out the conflict and then pack up the populations of the Vaults to head into space. The Vaults were funded by the U.S. government and, accordingly, the government had control over them. Ostensibly, they were intended to allow a selection of privileged United States citizens to survive the Great War. Secretly, however, a large part of the Vault Project (Project Safehouse) had a far more sinister goal. > > > --- [Come Fly With Me](http://fallout.wikia.com/wiki/Come_Fly_With_Me) is a side quest in **Fallout: New Vegas**, primarily conducted at the *REPCONN test site*, which still has three somewhat functional rockets. [REPCONN Aerospace](http://fallout.wikia.com/wiki/REPCONN_Aerospace) (**R**ocket **E**ngineering and **P**roduction **CO**mpa**N**y of **N**evada) was an up-and-coming regional aerospace firm based in Nevada that specialized in rocket manufacture, primarily for the U.S. government. Its original purpose was to develop orbital propulsion systems. > > The company was purchased by the giant RobCo company just before the Great War, in a hostile takeover. New security countermeasures were installed, and more militaristic plans were undertaken, especially after the discovery of a special radioactive igniting agent that interested senior RobCo management staff. > > > --- [ArcJet Systems](http://fallout.wikia.com/wiki/ArcJet_Systems), **Fallout 4** > > ArcJet Systems was a pre-War military and civilian aerospace contractor in the United States, **specializing in communications, propulsion systems, and custom-built high-tech aviation equipment**. One known facility is located in Cambridge. They produced electronics and rockets used by the USSA until 2077. > > > In 2075, ArcJet began working on a **nuclear-powered rocket, the XMB booster engine**, in hopes of convincing the United States Space Administration to award them the lucrative contract for their Mars Shot Project. > > > The [Mars Shot Project](http://fallout.wikia.com/wiki/Mars_Shot_Project), was a plan by the USSA for a manned mission to Mars, and was scheduled for launch in July of 2078. --- Space probes are the real question. Did we launch the Voyager space probes or their equivalents during the once every 175y planetary alignment? If we could find a representation of Saturn in the Fallout universe with one solid ring around it, then we would know that we did *not* launch them, as only after Voyager 2 visited Saturn did we learn that it had many separate rings. That's a somewhat moot point though, considering it's a game made by a company whose logo is a V2 shaped '50s rocket orbiting the Earth, and that **building space probes without transistors is highly unlikely.** See [divergence](http://fallout.wikia.com/wiki/Divergence), which demarcates the critical point at which our history divides with the Fallout universe, as the invention of the transistor. Some of the late '70s tech that the Voyagers employed was digital and necessarily so. The fragility and power consumption of vacuum tubes is too great to achieve what we've come to expect from modern space probes. In Fallout: > > Miniaturized electronic capacity was never developed past [American society's] prime. This is why small television, radio, newspapers and even word of mouth are still prevalent. ([reddit](https://www.reddit.com/r/falloutlore/comments/2eysug/why_wasnt_the_transistor_invented_in_1947/)) > > > Even the Apollo Program rockets used integrated circuits; tubes were almost nonexistent on-board them. Be that as it may, man *did* land on the moon in the Fallout universe, and the Great War of 2077 left many years leading up to itself in which we *probably* began exploring the cosmos. --- *All your histories are belong to us now*. Of noticeable lack are basically all [**Soviet accomplishments**](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Soviet_space_program) (Wiki), which were [exemplary in the real world](https://space.stackexchange.com/questions/14645/why-was-venus-rather-than-mars-targeted-for-the-first-interplanetary-landings/14659#14659). Here (below) we have evidence of a possible re-write of history as apposed to a divergence. To the victor may have gone the spoils: > > [Defiance 7](http://fallout.wikia.com/wiki/Defiance_7) was the space capsule in which Captain Carl Bell of the United States Space Administration (USSA) made his historic flight, becoming the first human in space, on May 5, 1961. This claim was disputed by both the Soviet Union and China. Captain Bell's flight lasted twelve minutes and seven seconds, and made a full revolution around the Earth. Bell died when the capsule crashed on its return to Earth. > > > Notes > > It is not possible to complete an orbit of the Earth in a "coasting" spacecraft in less than 89 minutes. Most likely this is a minor writing error; otherwise, an implausibly complex explanation would be required. It should also be noted that the 1950s-esque science of the Fallout universe differs from the actual physics of our universe, so this is another explanation. It is also entirely plausible that the US government lied about this "accomplishment", and the error was in fact a subtle hint towards this fact. > > > [Carl Bell](http://fallout.wikia.com/wiki/Carl_Bell), Note: > > In the real world, May 5, 1961 was the date of the flight of the first American in space, Alan Shepard. Unlike the Fallout universe, the actual first man in space was Soviet cosmonaut Yuri Gagarin, who became the first person to orbit the Earth on April 12, 1961. > > > Maybe the moon landings were faked after all; the Russians beat us to it. All links are in-site or from [fallout.wikia.com](http://fallout.wikia.com/wiki/Fallout_Wiki) unless noted.

There was Hubology in Fallout 2, with the questionable goal of leaving Earth in an old pre-war space shuttle. In Fallout New Vegas the ghouls in the quest 'Come Fly With Me' use three pre-war rockets to leave Earth. And if you join Mr House in Fallout New Vegas I believe one of the ending slides mentions a return to space.

I am trying to integrate a calendar plugin like google calendar with custom database and code with asp.net MVC in C#. It needs to handle Day/Week/Month Events in the Calendar as like google calendar. I found the similar plugin in jquery <http://www.webappers.com/2009/08/04/jquery-weekly-calendar-plugin-inspired-by-google-calendar/>. But it shows only the Week Do anyone have a reference to this? Please suggest

2009/10/05

I answered a similar question a while ago, "[ASP.net weekly schedule control](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/700810/asp-net-weekly-schedule-control)", and the answer there would still be relevant to yourself. > > [DayPilot](http://www.daypilot.org/) is a pretty good general > purpose calendaring/schedule control. > > > The full version is not free, but > there is a "lite" version available > which is not only free but open > source! > > > The "lite" version will give you both Day and Week (and "Work" week) views of the calendar and will show a Month Scheduler view. Whilst the original DayPilot component is not meant for ASP.NET MVC, a guy called Craig Stuntz has adapted the DayPilot Lite component for ASP.NET MVC: [Using DayPilot with ASP.NET MVC](http://blogs.teamb.com/craigstuntz/2009/05/12/38297/)

Use Google's [Calendar API](http://code.google.com/apis/calendar/)

I am trying to integrate a calendar plugin like google calendar with custom database and code with asp.net MVC in C#. It needs to handle Day/Week/Month Events in the Calendar as like google calendar. I found the similar plugin in jquery <http://www.webappers.com/2009/08/04/jquery-weekly-calendar-plugin-inspired-by-google-calendar/>. But it shows only the Week Do anyone have a reference to this? Please suggest

2009/10/05

I'd try [FullCalendar](http://arshaw.com/fullcalendar/)

I answered a similar question a while ago, "[ASP.net weekly schedule control](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/700810/asp-net-weekly-schedule-control)", and the answer there would still be relevant to yourself. > > [DayPilot](http://www.daypilot.org/) is a pretty good general > purpose calendaring/schedule control. > > > The full version is not free, but > there is a "lite" version available > which is not only free but open > source! > > > The "lite" version will give you both Day and Week (and "Work" week) views of the calendar and will show a Month Scheduler view. Whilst the original DayPilot component is not meant for ASP.NET MVC, a guy called Craig Stuntz has adapted the DayPilot Lite component for ASP.NET MVC: [Using DayPilot with ASP.NET MVC](http://blogs.teamb.com/craigstuntz/2009/05/12/38297/)

I am trying to integrate a calendar plugin like google calendar with custom database and code with asp.net MVC in C#. It needs to handle Day/Week/Month Events in the Calendar as like google calendar. I found the similar plugin in jquery <http://www.webappers.com/2009/08/04/jquery-weekly-calendar-plugin-inspired-by-google-calendar/>. But it shows only the Week Do anyone have a reference to this? Please suggest

2009/10/05

I answered a similar question a while ago, "[ASP.net weekly schedule control](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/700810/asp-net-weekly-schedule-control)", and the answer there would still be relevant to yourself. > > [DayPilot](http://www.daypilot.org/) is a pretty good general > purpose calendaring/schedule control. > > > The full version is not free, but > there is a "lite" version available > which is not only free but open > source! > > > The "lite" version will give you both Day and Week (and "Work" week) views of the calendar and will show a Month Scheduler view. Whilst the original DayPilot component is not meant for ASP.NET MVC, a guy called Craig Stuntz has adapted the DayPilot Lite component for ASP.NET MVC: [Using DayPilot with ASP.NET MVC](http://blogs.teamb.com/craigstuntz/2009/05/12/38297/)

I am using this jquery plugin. <http://www.web-delicious.com/jquery-events-calendar-wdcalendar/> It provide php mvc sample, you can convert it to .net mvc

I am trying to integrate a calendar plugin like google calendar with custom database and code with asp.net MVC in C#. It needs to handle Day/Week/Month Events in the Calendar as like google calendar. I found the similar plugin in jquery <http://www.webappers.com/2009/08/04/jquery-weekly-calendar-plugin-inspired-by-google-calendar/>. But it shows only the Week Do anyone have a reference to this? Please suggest

2009/10/05

I answered a similar question a while ago, "[ASP.net weekly schedule control](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/700810/asp-net-weekly-schedule-control)", and the answer there would still be relevant to yourself. > > [DayPilot](http://www.daypilot.org/) is a pretty good general > purpose calendaring/schedule control. > > > The full version is not free, but > there is a "lite" version available > which is not only free but open > source! > > > The "lite" version will give you both Day and Week (and "Work" week) views of the calendar and will show a Month Scheduler view. Whilst the original DayPilot component is not meant for ASP.NET MVC, a guy called Craig Stuntz has adapted the DayPilot Lite component for ASP.NET MVC: [Using DayPilot with ASP.NET MVC](http://blogs.teamb.com/craigstuntz/2009/05/12/38297/)

The best one I found is [dhtmlxScheduler](http://dhtmlx.com/docs/products/dhtmlxScheduler/). It is highly customizable, fires events and works cross-browser. It is free for GPL projects, otherwise there are commercial licenses available with affordable prices. And their customer support is excellent!

I am trying to integrate a calendar plugin like google calendar with custom database and code with asp.net MVC in C#. It needs to handle Day/Week/Month Events in the Calendar as like google calendar. I found the similar plugin in jquery <http://www.webappers.com/2009/08/04/jquery-weekly-calendar-plugin-inspired-by-google-calendar/>. But it shows only the Week Do anyone have a reference to this? Please suggest

2009/10/05

I'd try [FullCalendar](http://arshaw.com/fullcalendar/)

Use Google's [Calendar API](http://code.google.com/apis/calendar/)

I am trying to integrate a calendar plugin like google calendar with custom database and code with asp.net MVC in C#. It needs to handle Day/Week/Month Events in the Calendar as like google calendar. I found the similar plugin in jquery <http://www.webappers.com/2009/08/04/jquery-weekly-calendar-plugin-inspired-by-google-calendar/>. But it shows only the Week Do anyone have a reference to this? Please suggest

2009/10/05

The best one I found is [dhtmlxScheduler](http://dhtmlx.com/docs/products/dhtmlxScheduler/). It is highly customizable, fires events and works cross-browser. It is free for GPL projects, otherwise there are commercial licenses available with affordable prices. And their customer support is excellent!

Use Google's [Calendar API](http://code.google.com/apis/calendar/)

I am trying to integrate a calendar plugin like google calendar with custom database and code with asp.net MVC in C#. It needs to handle Day/Week/Month Events in the Calendar as like google calendar. I found the similar plugin in jquery <http://www.webappers.com/2009/08/04/jquery-weekly-calendar-plugin-inspired-by-google-calendar/>. But it shows only the Week Do anyone have a reference to this? Please suggest

2009/10/05

I'd try [FullCalendar](http://arshaw.com/fullcalendar/)

I am using this jquery plugin. <http://www.web-delicious.com/jquery-events-calendar-wdcalendar/> It provide php mvc sample, you can convert it to .net mvc

I am trying to integrate a calendar plugin like google calendar with custom database and code with asp.net MVC in C#. It needs to handle Day/Week/Month Events in the Calendar as like google calendar. I found the similar plugin in jquery <http://www.webappers.com/2009/08/04/jquery-weekly-calendar-plugin-inspired-by-google-calendar/>. But it shows only the Week Do anyone have a reference to this? Please suggest

2009/10/05

I'd try [FullCalendar](http://arshaw.com/fullcalendar/)

The best one I found is [dhtmlxScheduler](http://dhtmlx.com/docs/products/dhtmlxScheduler/). It is highly customizable, fires events and works cross-browser. It is free for GPL projects, otherwise there are commercial licenses available with affordable prices. And their customer support is excellent!

I am trying to integrate a calendar plugin like google calendar with custom database and code with asp.net MVC in C#. It needs to handle Day/Week/Month Events in the Calendar as like google calendar. I found the similar plugin in jquery <http://www.webappers.com/2009/08/04/jquery-weekly-calendar-plugin-inspired-by-google-calendar/>. But it shows only the Week Do anyone have a reference to this? Please suggest

2009/10/05

The best one I found is [dhtmlxScheduler](http://dhtmlx.com/docs/products/dhtmlxScheduler/). It is highly customizable, fires events and works cross-browser. It is free for GPL projects, otherwise there are commercial licenses available with affordable prices. And their customer support is excellent!

I am using this jquery plugin. <http://www.web-delicious.com/jquery-events-calendar-wdcalendar/> It provide php mvc sample, you can convert it to .net mvc