Datasets:

Tawkat

/

medmcqa

like 0

3cbfd65a-92f2-4c67-919d-847dccb7e6d8

Teeth selected for scoring of PHP-M (Personal Hygiene Performance Modified) are:

Six

Twelve

Eighteen

Twenty four

single

Dental

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 3cbfd65a-92f2-4c67-919d-847dccb7e6d8question: Teeth selected for scoring of PHP-M (Personal Hygiene Performance Modified) are:opa: Sixopb: Twelveopc: Eighteenopd: Twenty fourcop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Nonesubject_name: Dentaltopic_name: None

yes

5a7cda67-bf66-44be-95b0-ff347d55c01a

Fetal alcohol syndrome is characterized by all except –

Microcephaly

Low intelligence

Large proportionate body

Septal defects of heart

multi

Fetal alcohol syndrome High level of alcohol ingestion in pregnancy can cause damage to fetus, known as fetal alcohol syndrome. The harmful effects may be due to alcohol itself or due to one of its breakdown products. Some evidence suggests that alcohol may impair placental transfer of essential amino acids and zinc, both necessary for protein synthesis, which may account for IUGR. Characterististics of fetal alcohol syndrome include : - HIG1? (not large proportionate body) Microcephaly Congenital heart defects (ASD, VS ) Mental retardation Facial abnormalities -3 Short palpebral fissures, epicanthal folds, maxillary hypoplasia, micrognathia, low set ears, smooth philthrum, thin smooth upper lip. Minor joint anomalies Hyperkinetic movements

Pediatrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 5a7cda67-bf66-44be-95b0-ff347d55c01aquestion: Fetal alcohol syndrome is characterized by all except –opa: Microcephalyopb: Low intelligenceopc: Large proportionate bodyopd: Septal defects of heartcop: 2choice_type: multiexp: Fetal alcohol syndrome High level of alcohol ingestion in pregnancy can cause damage to fetus, known as fetal alcohol syndrome. The harmful effects may be due to alcohol itself or due to one of its breakdown products. Some evidence suggests that alcohol may impair placental transfer of essential amino acids and zinc, both necessary for protein synthesis, which may account for IUGR. Characterististics of fetal alcohol syndrome include : - HIG1? (not large proportionate body) Microcephaly Congenital heart defects (ASD, VS ) Mental retardation Facial abnormalities -3 Short palpebral fissures, epicanthal folds, maxillary hypoplasia, micrognathia, low set ears, smooth philthrum, thin smooth upper lip. Minor joint anomalies Hyperkinetic movementssubject_name: Pediatricstopic_name: None

yes

6db0be4d-9458-4e57-98f2-1755ea19876b

What is the approved dose of misoprostol in emergent management of postpaum hemorrhage?

200 mcg

400 mcg

600 mcg

1000 mcg

single

Ans: C. 600 mcg(Ref Williams 24/e p785)Approved dose of misoprostol in emergent management of postpaum hemorrhage = 600 pg.Misoprostol:Derman (2006) compared a 600 pg oral dose given at delivery against placebo.Drug decreased hemorrhage incidence from 12 to 6 percent & severe hemorrhage from 1.2 to 0.2 percent.

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 6db0be4d-9458-4e57-98f2-1755ea19876bquestion: What is the approved dose of misoprostol in emergent management of postpaum hemorrhage?opa: 200 mcgopb: 400 mcgopc: 600 mcgopd: 1000 mcgcop: 2choice_type: singleexp: Ans: C. 600 mcg(Ref Williams 24/e p785)Approved dose of misoprostol in emergent management of postpaum hemorrhage = 600 pg.Misoprostol:Derman (2006) compared a 600 pg oral dose given at delivery against placebo.Drug decreased hemorrhage incidence from 12 to 6 percent & severe hemorrhage from 1.2 to 0.2 percent.subject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

1fe1bd49-93cd-4bea-8beb-fdf6cc819421

Absence of which of the following milestone in 3 yr old chitd is called delayed development?

Hopping on one leg

Drawing a square

Feeding by spoon

Passing a ball to someone

multi

Ans: C. Feeding by spoonRef: Ghai Essentiul Pediatrics, 8"' ed., pg. 49Hopping on one leg - Should be attained by 4 years ofageDrawing a square - Should be attained by 4Il2 years of ageFeeding by spoon Should be attained by l8 months of agePassing a ball to someone- Should be attained by 3 years

Pediatrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 1fe1bd49-93cd-4bea-8beb-fdf6cc819421question: Absence of which of the following milestone in 3 yr old chitd is called delayed development?opa: Hopping on one legopb: Drawing a squareopc: Feeding by spoonopd: Passing a ball to someonecop: 2choice_type: multiexp: Ans: C. Feeding by spoonRef: Ghai Essentiul Pediatrics, 8"' ed., pg. 49Hopping on one leg - Should be attained by 4 years ofageDrawing a square - Should be attained by 4Il2 years of ageFeeding by spoon Should be attained by l8 months of agePassing a ball to someone- Should be attained by 3 yearssubject_name: Pediatricstopic_name: None

yes

37dda658-5f35-46d8-b34d-247e81ac0536

Pigmentation of nail is caused by all of these drugs except:

Cyclophosphamide

Chlorpromazine

Chloroquine

Amiodarone

multi

Ans: D. Amiodarone(Ref: KDT 7//e p534)Amiodarone:Cause corneal deposits.Not causes nail pigmentation.Causes of Melanonychia or Nail PigmentationPhenothiazines like ChloroquineMinocyclineArsenicClofazimineClomipramineCyclophosphamidFluconazoleFluorideGold saltsIbuprofenKetoconazoleLamivudineMercuryPhenytoinPsoralenRoxithromyciSteroidsSulfonamideTetracyclineThalliumTimoloZidovudine

Pharmacology

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 37dda658-5f35-46d8-b34d-247e81ac0536question: Pigmentation of nail is caused by all of these drugs except:opa: Cyclophosphamideopb: Chlorpromazineopc: Chloroquineopd: Amiodaronecop: 3choice_type: multiexp: Ans: D. Amiodarone(Ref: KDT 7//e p534)Amiodarone:Cause corneal deposits.Not causes nail pigmentation.Causes of Melanonychia or Nail PigmentationPhenothiazines like ChloroquineMinocyclineArsenicClofazimineClomipramineCyclophosphamidFluconazoleFluorideGold saltsIbuprofenKetoconazoleLamivudineMercuryPhenytoinPsoralenRoxithromyciSteroidsSulfonamideTetracyclineThalliumTimoloZidovudinesubject_name: Pharmacologytopic_name: None

yes

d21c92e6-398f-4f09-9a96-6e6668e01e8f

Paograph represents various stages of labor with respect to time. True about paograph is all except:

Each small square represents one hour

Ale and action lines are separated by a difference of 4 hours

Paograph recording should be staed at a cervical dilation of 4 cm

Send the patient to first referral unit if the labor progression line crosses the ale line

multi

Ans: C. Paograph recording should be staed at a cervical dilation of 4 cm(Ref: Williams 24/e p452)Paograph recording:Staed after a cervical dilation of 3 cm (not the 4 cm).i.e. During active stage of labor.Designed by WHO for use in developing countries.Stages of labor:Labor a Divided into latent phase.Latent phase should last no longer than 8 hours.Active phase - Stas at 3 cm dilatation a progress should be no slower than 1 cm/hr.Recommended wait period:4-hour before intervention for slow active phase.Labor is graphed & analysis includes use of ale action lines.

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: d21c92e6-398f-4f09-9a96-6e6668e01e8fquestion: Paograph represents various stages of labor with respect to time. True about paograph is all except:opa: Each small square represents one houropb: Ale and action lines are separated by a difference of 4 hoursopc: Paograph recording should be staed at a cervical dilation of 4 cmopd: Send the patient to first referral unit if the labor progression line crosses the ale linecop: 2choice_type: multiexp: Ans: C. Paograph recording should be staed at a cervical dilation of 4 cm(Ref: Williams 24/e p452)Paograph recording:Staed after a cervical dilation of 3 cm (not the 4 cm).i.e. During active stage of labor.Designed by WHO for use in developing countries.Stages of labor:Labor a Divided into latent phase.Latent phase should last no longer than 8 hours.Active phase - Stas at 3 cm dilatation a progress should be no slower than 1 cm/hr.Recommended wait period:4-hour before intervention for slow active phase.Labor is graphed & analysis includes use of ale action lines.subject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

e8b18049-9725-4ab5-89ad-2799af470822

The cannula infuse maximum fluids in dehydration and diarrhea is

Grey

Green

Pink

Blue

single

Answer- A. Grey Grey cannula- 16 G -236 ml/minUses:Trauma Patients, Major Surgery, Intra Paum/Post Paum, GI bleeds, Multiple blood transfers, High volume of Fluids.

Surgery

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: e8b18049-9725-4ab5-89ad-2799af470822question: The cannula infuse maximum fluids in dehydration and diarrhea isopa: Greyopb: Greenopc: Pinkopd: Bluecop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Answer- A. Grey Grey cannula- 16 G -236 ml/minUses:Trauma Patients, Major Surgery, Intra Paum/Post Paum, GI bleeds, Multiple blood transfers, High volume of Fluids.subject_name: Surgerytopic_name: None

yes

89e0b62e-fa1d-4964-8870-d57cb8b871f4

According to WHO, anemia in pregnancy is diagnosed, when hemoglobin is less than:

10.0 gm%

11.0 gm%

12.0 gm%

9.0 gm%

single

“According to the standards laid by WHO – Anemia in pregnancy is defined as when hemoglobin is 11 gm/100 ml or less or hematocrit is less than 33%”.

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 89e0b62e-fa1d-4964-8870-d57cb8b871f4question: According to WHO, anemia in pregnancy is diagnosed, when hemoglobin is less than:opa: 10.0 gm%opb: 11.0 gm%opc: 12.0 gm%opd: 9.0 gm%cop: 1choice_type: singleexp: “According to the standards laid by WHO – Anemia in pregnancy is defined as when hemoglobin is 11 gm/100 ml or less or hematocrit is less than 33%”.subject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

44d88df4-2f63-4957-ae74-50422b03a7d9

Cephalosporins have all of the following interactions & uses, except:

Show cross sensitivity with penicillins

Are penicillinase resistant

Have a broad spectrum but are inactive against anaerobes

Are used in upper respiratory tract infections

multi

CEPHALOSPORINS  These are a group of semisynthetic antibiotics derived from 'cephalosporin-C obtained from a fungus Cephalosporium. They are chemically related to penicillins; the nucleus consists of a beta-lactam ring fused to a dihydrothiazine ring, (7-aminocepha losporanic acid). By addition of different side chains at position 7 of beta-lactam ring (altering spectrum of activity) and at position 3 of dihydrothiazine ring (affecting pharmacokinetics), a large number of semisynthetic compounds have been produced.  Some salient features are: These are not penicillinase resistance (just like penicillins). Attributed to the similar chemical structure to penicillins they show cross sensitivity with penicillins. These are broadspectrum antibiotics but are inactive against anaerobes. These can be used effectively in upper respiratory tract infection. Reference: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology Eighth Edition KD TRIPATHI page no 775,776

Pharmacology

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 44d88df4-2f63-4957-ae74-50422b03a7d9question: Cephalosporins have all of the following interactions & uses, except:opa: Show cross sensitivity with penicillinsopb: Are penicillinase resistantopc: Have a broad spectrum but are inactive against anaerobesopd: Are used in upper respiratory tract infectionscop: 1choice_type: multiexp: CEPHALOSPORINS  These are a group of semisynthetic antibiotics derived from 'cephalosporin-C obtained from a fungus Cephalosporium. They are chemically related to penicillins; the nucleus consists of a beta-lactam ring fused to a dihydrothiazine ring, (7-aminocepha losporanic acid). By addition of different side chains at position 7 of beta-lactam ring (altering spectrum of activity) and at position 3 of dihydrothiazine ring (affecting pharmacokinetics), a large number of semisynthetic compounds have been produced.  Some salient features are: These are not penicillinase resistance (just like penicillins). Attributed to the similar chemical structure to penicillins they show cross sensitivity with penicillins. These are broadspectrum antibiotics but are inactive against anaerobes. These can be used effectively in upper respiratory tract infection. Reference: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology Eighth Edition KD TRIPATHI page no 775,776subject_name: Pharmacologytopic_name: None

yes

778a2563-fd4e-4c60-8c72-892dc8e3429c

A 5 year old child is rushed to casualty reportedly electrocuted while playing in a park. The child is apneic and is ventilated with bag and a mask. Which of the following will be the next step in the management –

Check pulses

Start chest compressions

Intubate

Check oxygen saturation

multi

After airway has been opened and two rescue breaths provided, determine the need for chest compression. For this check the pulse in carotid (in children) or branchial artery (in infants). If the pulse is not palpable or heart rate is <60/min, begin chest compression.

Pediatrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 778a2563-fd4e-4c60-8c72-892dc8e3429cquestion: A 5 year old child is rushed to casualty reportedly electrocuted while playing in a park. The child is apneic and is ventilated with bag and a mask. Which of the following will be the next step in the management –opa: Check pulsesopb: Start chest compressionsopc: Intubateopd: Check oxygen saturationcop: 0choice_type: multiexp: After airway has been opened and two rescue breaths provided, determine the need for chest compression. For this check the pulse in carotid (in children) or branchial artery (in infants). If the pulse is not palpable or heart rate is <60/min, begin chest compression.subject_name: Pediatricstopic_name: None

yes

561aefb5-77c7-433e-8029-096d77ad3099

A 5 years old child brought to the hospital with history of loose stools but no history of fever or blood in stools. Mother says he is irritable and drinks water hastily when given. On examination eyes are sunken and in skin pinch test, the skin retracted within two seconds but not immediately. What is the treatment for this child?

Administer the first dose of IV antibiotic and immediately refer to hither center

Give oral fluids and ask the mother to continue the same and visit again next day

Consider severe dehydration, sta IV fluids, IV antibiotics and refer to higher center

Give Zinc supplementation and oral rehydration solution only and ask mother to come back if some danger signs develop

single

Answer- D. Give Zinc supplementation and oral rehydration solution only and ask mother to come back if some danger signs developThe child in this given scenario is having some dehydration, as the child is restless and irritable, drink water readilyand skin pinch goes back slowly (< 2 seconds) with sunken eyes. Treatment includes oral rehydration therapy, zincsupplementation and continued breastfeeding according to the WHO IMNCI protocol plan B.

Pediatrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 561aefb5-77c7-433e-8029-096d77ad3099question: A 5 years old child brought to the hospital with history of loose stools but no history of fever or blood in stools. Mother says he is irritable and drinks water hastily when given. On examination eyes are sunken and in skin pinch test, the skin retracted within two seconds but not immediately. What is the treatment for this child?opa: Administer the first dose of IV antibiotic and immediately refer to hither centeropb: Give oral fluids and ask the mother to continue the same and visit again next dayopc: Consider severe dehydration, sta IV fluids, IV antibiotics and refer to higher centeropd: Give Zinc supplementation and oral rehydration solution only and ask mother to come back if some danger signs developcop: 3choice_type: singleexp: Answer- D. Give Zinc supplementation and oral rehydration solution only and ask mother to come back if some danger signs developThe child in this given scenario is having some dehydration, as the child is restless and irritable, drink water readilyand skin pinch goes back slowly (< 2 seconds) with sunken eyes. Treatment includes oral rehydration therapy, zincsupplementation and continued breastfeeding according to the WHO IMNCI protocol plan B.subject_name: Pediatricstopic_name: None

yes

89e4fd81-0a6a-4702-8229-b393fcf8bf91

Which of the following antihypertensives is not safe in pregnancy:

Clonidine

ACE inhibitors / Enalapril

α − Methyldopa

Amlodipine

single

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 89e4fd81-0a6a-4702-8229-b393fcf8bf91question: Which of the following antihypertensives is not safe in pregnancy:opa: Clonidineopb: ACE inhibitors / Enalaprilopc: α − Methyldopaopd: Amlodipinecop: 1choice_type: singleexp: Nonesubject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

44f185f0-7a8e-406c-a33a-b2d7d54e7a25

Which of the following drug is commonly used for community acquired pneumonia in OPD?

Vancomycin

Ceftriaxone

Azithromycin

Streptomycin

single

Ans: C. AzithromycinRef: n e u m o n ia- i n- a d u I t s -in -t h e - o u tp atie n t - s e tt in g H 4Only one drug which is active orally i.e. Azithromycin.We require OPD based treatment; hence Azithromycin is the best answer here.

Pharmacology

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 44f185f0-7a8e-406c-a33a-b2d7d54e7a25question: Which of the following drug is commonly used for community acquired pneumonia in OPD?opa: Vancomycinopb: Ceftriaxoneopc: Azithromycinopd: Streptomycincop: 2choice_type: singleexp: Ans: C. AzithromycinRef: n e u m o n ia- i n- a d u I t s -in -t h e - o u tp atie n t - s e tt in g H 4Only one drug which is active orally i.e. Azithromycin.We require OPD based treatment; hence Azithromycin is the best answer here.subject_name: Pharmacologytopic_name: None

yes

7d728f72-4c79-421d-abbf-da809c42c558

Injury to which of the following deep pa of perinea! body causes cystocele, enterocele and urethral descent?

Pubococcygeus

Ischiocavernosus

Bulbospongiosus

Sphincter of urethra and anus

single

Ans. a. Pubococcygeus When the pubococcygeus muscle contracts, it pulls the rectum, vagina, and urethra anteriorly toward the pubic bone and constricts the lumens of these pelvic organs. It is this contractile propey that is so impoant in maintaining urinary and fecal continence and in providing suppo for the genital organs (vagina, cervix, uterus) that lie upon and are suppoed by the levator plate. Injury to pubococcygeus can lead to rectocele, cystocele and urinary incontinence.

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 7d728f72-4c79-421d-abbf-da809c42c558question: Injury to which of the following deep pa of perinea! body causes cystocele, enterocele and urethral descent?opa: Pubococcygeusopb: Ischiocavernosusopc: Bulbospongiosusopd: Sphincter of urethra and anuscop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Ans. a. Pubococcygeus When the pubococcygeus muscle contracts, it pulls the rectum, vagina, and urethra anteriorly toward the pubic bone and constricts the lumens of these pelvic organs. It is this contractile propey that is so impoant in maintaining urinary and fecal continence and in providing suppo for the genital organs (vagina, cervix, uterus) that lie upon and are suppoed by the levator plate. Injury to pubococcygeus can lead to rectocele, cystocele and urinary incontinence.subject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

7b08c0f1-55fc-45d7-b4e1-b6e4666a1f88

A 26 years old patient c/o foul smelling greyish white discharge diagnosed to be Gardnerella vaginalis infection. Microscopic finding is suggestive of?

Group of bacilli arranged in chain forms

Bacteria found to be engulfed by macrophages

Bacteria adherent to lining vaginal epithelial cells

Bacteria arranged in cluster forms

single

Ans C. Bacteria adherent to lining vaginal epithelial cellsGardnerella vaginalis, facultatively anaerobic gram-variable rod, is one of the organisms responsible for bacterial vaginosis (BV).The vaginal discharge of BV is characteristically described as a thin, gray, homogeneous fluid that is adherent to the vaginal mucosa. A fishy vaginal odour, which is paicularly noticeable following coitusis present.Demonstration of clue cells on a saline smear is the most specific criterion for diagnosing BV.The whiff test may be positive in up to 70% of BV patients.The vaginal discharge of patients with BV is notable for its lack of polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs), typically 1 or less than 1 PMN per vaginal epithelial cell.

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 7b08c0f1-55fc-45d7-b4e1-b6e4666a1f88question: A 26 years old patient c/o foul smelling greyish white discharge diagnosed to be Gardnerella vaginalis infection. Microscopic finding is suggestive of?opa: Group of bacilli arranged in chain formsopb: Bacteria found to be engulfed by macrophagesopc: Bacteria adherent to lining vaginal epithelial cellsopd: Bacteria arranged in cluster formscop: 2choice_type: singleexp: Ans C. Bacteria adherent to lining vaginal epithelial cellsGardnerella vaginalis, facultatively anaerobic gram-variable rod, is one of the organisms responsible for bacterial vaginosis (BV).The vaginal discharge of BV is characteristically described as a thin, gray, homogeneous fluid that is adherent to the vaginal mucosa. A fishy vaginal odour, which is paicularly noticeable following coitusis present.Demonstration of clue cells on a saline smear is the most specific criterion for diagnosing BV.The whiff test may be positive in up to 70% of BV patients.The vaginal discharge of patients with BV is notable for its lack of polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs), typically 1 or less than 1 PMN per vaginal epithelial cell.subject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

a95f4998-4d5f-43c4-ba66-78e1a1cb8b57

Improving Quality of Labour room is covered under which program?

LaQshya

Improving care of newborn

Ayushman Bharat Scheme

JSSK

single

'LaQshya' programme of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (Launched in 2017) under the umbrella of NHM aims at improving quality of care in labour room and maternity Operation Theatre (OT). GOAL : Reduce preventable maternal and newborn moality. Morbidity and stillbihs associated with the care around delivery in the labour room and maternity OT. Ensure respectful maternity care.

Social & Preventive Medicine

AIIMS 2019

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: a95f4998-4d5f-43c4-ba66-78e1a1cb8b57question: Improving Quality of Labour room is covered under which program?opa: LaQshyaopb: Improving care of newbornopc: Ayushman Bharat Schemeopd: JSSKcop: 0choice_type: singleexp: 'LaQshya' programme of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (Launched in 2017) under the umbrella of NHM aims at improving quality of care in labour room and maternity Operation Theatre (OT). GOAL : Reduce preventable maternal and newborn moality. Morbidity and stillbihs associated with the care around delivery in the labour room and maternity OT. Ensure respectful maternity care.subject_name: Social & Preventive Medicinetopic_name: AIIMS 2019

yes

105be08b-3a40-4e47-831d-f8cae8b90240

A child presented with complaint of severe itching over the web of fingers, more at night. Examination revealed burrows. Most probable diagnosis is:September 2009

Tinea cruris

Scabies

Infantile eczema

Papular uicaria

single

Ans. B: ScabiesScabies is essentially a disease of the children. The itching appears a few days after infestation. It may occur within a few hours if the mite is caught a second time.The itch is characteristically more severe at night and affects the trunk and limbs.It does not usually affect the scalp.Burrow is the pathognomic lesion of scabies.Scabies burrows appear as tiny grey irregular tracks between the fingers and on the wrists.They may also be found in armpits, buttocks, on the penis, insteps and backs of the heels. Microscopic examination of the contents of a burrow may reveal mites, eggs or mite faeces (scybala).

Skin

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 105be08b-3a40-4e47-831d-f8cae8b90240question: A child presented with complaint of severe itching over the web of fingers, more at night. Examination revealed burrows. Most probable diagnosis is:September 2009opa: Tinea crurisopb: Scabiesopc: Infantile eczemaopd: Papular uicariacop: 1choice_type: singleexp: Ans. B: ScabiesScabies is essentially a disease of the children. The itching appears a few days after infestation. It may occur within a few hours if the mite is caught a second time.The itch is characteristically more severe at night and affects the trunk and limbs.It does not usually affect the scalp.Burrow is the pathognomic lesion of scabies.Scabies burrows appear as tiny grey irregular tracks between the fingers and on the wrists.They may also be found in armpits, buttocks, on the penis, insteps and backs of the heels. Microscopic examination of the contents of a burrow may reveal mites, eggs or mite faeces (scybala).subject_name: Skintopic_name: None

yes

90d38496-3baf-4df8-a4ce-5210d0dbfa0f

In a patient with dehydration, which of the following color intravenous cannula will you place for rapid fluid resuscitation?

Grey

Blue

Pink

Green

single

Ans:. A. Grey GaugeColor codeExternal DiameterLengthFlow Rate14GOrange2.1 mm45 mm240 ml/min16GGrey1.8 mm45 mm180 ml/min18GGreen1.3 mm32/45 mm90 ml/min20GPink1.1 mm32 mm60 ml/min22GBlue0.9 mm25 mm36 ml/min24GYellow0.7 mm19 mm20 ml/min26GViolet0.6 mm19 mm13 ml/min

Surgery

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 90d38496-3baf-4df8-a4ce-5210d0dbfa0fquestion: In a patient with dehydration, which of the following color intravenous cannula will you place for rapid fluid resuscitation?opa: Greyopb: Blueopc: Pinkopd: Greencop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Ans:. A. Grey GaugeColor codeExternal DiameterLengthFlow Rate14GOrange2.1 mm45 mm240 ml/min16GGrey1.8 mm45 mm180 ml/min18GGreen1.3 mm32/45 mm90 ml/min20GPink1.1 mm32 mm60 ml/min22GBlue0.9 mm25 mm36 ml/min24GYellow0.7 mm19 mm20 ml/min26GViolet0.6 mm19 mm13 ml/minsubject_name: Surgerytopic_name: None

yes

ee6fc122-f7cc-425b-b372-9c55c4f5f5ab

A primigravida came to the labor room at 40 weeks + 5 days gestation for induction of labor. On per vaginal examination, the cervix is 1 cm dilated and 30% effaced. The veex is at --1 station and the cervix is soft and posterior. What will be the modified bishop score for this lady?

0

3

5

8

single

Ans: C. 5(Ref: Williams 24Ie p525-526; Dutta 8Ie p600, 7/e p722)Cervical Station: -1 = 2; Cervical Dilatation: 1 cm = 1; Effacement: 30% = 0 ; Cervix Position: Posterior = 0; Consistency: Soft = 2.Hence, Bishop Score = 5.Bishop Scoring System Used for Assessment of InducibilityCervical FactorDilatation (cm)Effacement (%)Station (-3 to +2)ConsistencyPositionClosed0-30-3FirmPosterior1-240-50-2MediumMidposition3-460-70-1SoftAnterior>_5?80+1, +2--

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: ee6fc122-f7cc-425b-b372-9c55c4f5f5abquestion: A primigravida came to the labor room at 40 weeks + 5 days gestation for induction of labor. On per vaginal examination, the cervix is 1 cm dilated and 30% effaced. The veex is at --1 station and the cervix is soft and posterior. What will be the modified bishop score for this lady?opa: 0opb: 3opc: 5opd: 8cop: 2choice_type: singleexp: Ans: C. 5(Ref: Williams 24Ie p525-526; Dutta 8Ie p600, 7/e p722)Cervical Station: -1 = 2; Cervical Dilatation: 1 cm = 1; Effacement: 30% = 0 ; Cervix Position: Posterior = 0; Consistency: Soft = 2.Hence, Bishop Score = 5.Bishop Scoring System Used for Assessment of InducibilityCervical FactorDilatation (cm)Effacement (%)Station (-3 to +2)ConsistencyPositionClosed0-30-3FirmPosterior1-240-50-2MediumMidposition3-460-70-1SoftAnterior>_5?80+1, +2--subject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

59ca3227-50c1-4151-a65f-3bfeb8768028

Increased calories required during pregnancy:September 2012

300

400

550

800

single

Ans. A i.e. 300The increased calorie requirement is to the extent of 300 over the non pregnancy state during second half of pregnancy.

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 59ca3227-50c1-4151-a65f-3bfeb8768028question: Increased calories required during pregnancy:September 2012opa: 300opb: 400opc: 550opd: 800cop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Ans. A i.e. 300The increased calorie requirement is to the extent of 300 over the non pregnancy state during second half of pregnancy.subject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

6a0892ca-db19-4c27-9057-2bf9171e9469

All of the following are used in the treatment of postpartum hemorrhage except:

Misoprostol

Mifepristone

Carboprost

Methyl ergometrine

multi

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 6a0892ca-db19-4c27-9057-2bf9171e9469question: All of the following are used in the treatment of postpartum hemorrhage except:opa: Misoprostolopb: Mifepristoneopc: Carboprostopd: Methyl ergometrinecop: 1choice_type: multiexp: Nonesubject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

39aa0685-41e4-4701-acb9-88abe226e574

Which of the following gives the rate of drug absorption in plasma concentration graph?

Tmax and Cmax

Area under the curve

Tmax alone

Cmax alone

single

Ans: A. Tmax and CmaxRef: Sharma & Sharma's Principles of Pharmacolog, j'd ed., pg. 30-31 and hup:// whrw. e a r op e a n r ev i ew. o r g/wp /wp - c o n t e nt/ up I o a d s/6. p df .From the plasma concentration graph, we obtain three impoant parametersCmax is the peak plasma concentrationTmax i.e. time to attain the peak plasma concentration or CmaxAUC (Area under the curve) of plasma concentration time graphThe 1st two parameters i.e. Cmax and the Tmax are the indicators of the rate of absorption.

Pharmacology

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 39aa0685-41e4-4701-acb9-88abe226e574question: Which of the following gives the rate of drug absorption in plasma concentration graph?opa: Tmax and Cmaxopb: Area under the curveopc: Tmax aloneopd: Cmax alonecop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Ans: A. Tmax and CmaxRef: Sharma & Sharma's Principles of Pharmacolog, j'd ed., pg. 30-31 and hup:// whrw. e a r op e a n r ev i ew. o r g/wp /wp - c o n t e nt/ up I o a d s/6. p df .From the plasma concentration graph, we obtain three impoant parametersCmax is the peak plasma concentrationTmax i.e. time to attain the peak plasma concentration or CmaxAUC (Area under the curve) of plasma concentration time graphThe 1st two parameters i.e. Cmax and the Tmax are the indicators of the rate of absorption.subject_name: Pharmacologytopic_name: None

yes

8cd9acfa-7c86-406b-83f0-49e7e207aef7

Which of the following instructions should be given to a lactating mother regarding drug usage?

No advice is required as most of the drugs are secreted negligibly in the milk

Take drugs with longer half-life

Tell her to feed the baby just before next dose

Do not feed the baby if you are consuming any drug

single

Just before the next dose, the plasma concentration of drug is minimum; so it is relatively safer to feed at that time. Some drugs are secreted significantly in milk. There is no relation between half-life of a drug and its milk secretion ; So, long half life drugs may also come in milk. Not all the drugs are harmful or significantly secreted in milk so feed should not be stopped. Drugs C/I during lactation: Lithium Aspirin Levetiracetam Atenolol Sulfonamide Metronidazole Methotrexate Metals(Cu).

Pharmacology

AIIMS 2017

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 8cd9acfa-7c86-406b-83f0-49e7e207aef7question: Which of the following instructions should be given to a lactating mother regarding drug usage?opa: No advice is required as most of the drugs are secreted negligibly in the milkopb: Take drugs with longer half-lifeopc: Tell her to feed the baby just before next doseopd: Do not feed the baby if you are consuming any drugcop: 2choice_type: singleexp: Just before the next dose, the plasma concentration of drug is minimum; so it is relatively safer to feed at that time. Some drugs are secreted significantly in milk. There is no relation between half-life of a drug and its milk secretion ; So, long half life drugs may also come in milk. Not all the drugs are harmful or significantly secreted in milk so feed should not be stopped. Drugs C/I during lactation: Lithium Aspirin Levetiracetam Atenolol Sulfonamide Metronidazole Methotrexate Metals(Cu).subject_name: Pharmacologytopic_name: AIIMS 2017

yes

bf338178-cb15-4239-bf94-f6cfcb38d61f

Infant of diabetic mother with weight 3.8 Kg presented with seizures after 16 hours of birth.What is the cause –

Hypoglycemia

Hypocalcemia

Birth asphyxia

Intraventricular hemorrhage

single

Electrolyte disturbances, including hypoglycemia and hypocalcemia, are commonly seen in association with infants of diabetic mother and may result in early-onset seizures. Sorry friends, I could not find any reference which has directly mentioned that hypoglycemia is a more common cause of seizure than hypocalcemia in infants of diabetic mother. I was just able to find following two statements : - "Infants of diabetic mother are most at risk for hypoglycemia which can result in seizure". "Infant of diabetic mothers with seizures, that does not respond to glucose should have their serum calcium measured" From these two statements, it seems to me that hypoglycemia is a more common cause of seizures in infants of diabetic mother.

Pediatrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: bf338178-cb15-4239-bf94-f6cfcb38d61fquestion: Infant of diabetic mother with weight 3.8 Kg presented with seizures after 16 hours of birth.What is the cause –opa: Hypoglycemiaopb: Hypocalcemiaopc: Birth asphyxiaopd: Intraventricular hemorrhagecop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Electrolyte disturbances, including hypoglycemia and hypocalcemia, are commonly seen in association with infants of diabetic mother and may result in early-onset seizures. Sorry friends, I could not find any reference which has directly mentioned that hypoglycemia is a more common cause of seizure than hypocalcemia in infants of diabetic mother. I was just able to find following two statements : - "Infants of diabetic mother are most at risk for hypoglycemia which can result in seizure". "Infant of diabetic mothers with seizures, that does not respond to glucose should have their serum calcium measured" From these two statements, it seems to me that hypoglycemia is a more common cause of seizures in infants of diabetic mother.subject_name: Pediatricstopic_name: None

yes

174760f1-1b8a-4643-b017-813b7d123ff2

Which of these is the most reliable method for monitoring fluid resuscitation?

Urine output

CVP

Pulse rate

Blood pressure

single

Ans: A. Urine outputGoal of treatment:Restore cellular and organ perfusion.Hence, monitoring of organ perfusion should guide the management of shock.The best measures of organ perfusion and the best monitor of the adequacy of shock therapy remain the urine output.

Surgery

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 174760f1-1b8a-4643-b017-813b7d123ff2question: Which of these is the most reliable method for monitoring fluid resuscitation?opa: Urine outputopb: CVPopc: Pulse rateopd: Blood pressurecop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Ans: A. Urine outputGoal of treatment:Restore cellular and organ perfusion.Hence, monitoring of organ perfusion should guide the management of shock.The best measures of organ perfusion and the best monitor of the adequacy of shock therapy remain the urine output.subject_name: Surgerytopic_name: None

yes

2097d24a-6816-485c-984d-90a5fbf2090e

A mother comes with her 3 months' child asking the physician if she can give cereals to her child. What problems can this lead to her child?

Allergy due to the food content

Risk of gastrointestinal infection

Retarded oro-motor development

Contaminated food leading to reflux

multi

Ans: A: Allergy due to the food contentExplanation:(Ref: Nelson 20/e p1139; Ghni 8/e p90)Babies should receive only breast milk or infant formula for the first 6 months of life.Most impoant reason for this is allergy due to the food content.Exclusive breastfeeding for the first 4-6 months of life may reduce allergic disorders in the first few years of life. Potentially allergenic foods (eggs, milk, wheat, soy, peanut and fish) should be introduced after this period of exclusive breastfeeding to decrease chances of food allergy.

Pediatrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 2097d24a-6816-485c-984d-90a5fbf2090equestion: A mother comes with her 3 months' child asking the physician if she can give cereals to her child. What problems can this lead to her child?opa: Allergy due to the food contentopb: Risk of gastrointestinal infectionopc: Retarded oro-motor developmentopd: Contaminated food leading to refluxcop: 0choice_type: multiexp: Ans: A: Allergy due to the food contentExplanation:(Ref: Nelson 20/e p1139; Ghni 8/e p90)Babies should receive only breast milk or infant formula for the first 6 months of life.Most impoant reason for this is allergy due to the food content.Exclusive breastfeeding for the first 4-6 months of life may reduce allergic disorders in the first few years of life. Potentially allergenic foods (eggs, milk, wheat, soy, peanut and fish) should be introduced after this period of exclusive breastfeeding to decrease chances of food allergy.subject_name: Pediatricstopic_name: None

yes

cfcf4861-d0b6-41f7-91ae-468f78fae02e

A 1.5 years old child was brought to emergency with history of burn by hot water on both hands and palms. The lesion was pink, oozing and painful to air and touch. Which of the following is the best management for this patient?

Paraffin gauze and dressing

Collagen dressing

Excision and grafting

Apply 1% silver sulfasalazine ointment and keep the wound open

multi

Answer- A. Paraffin gauze and dressingParaffin gauze and dressing - Collagenase is the most commonly employed enzymatic debriding agent currently commercially available in the United States.It is slow acting, requiring several days to one week to adequately debride or heal intermediate-depth paial thickness wounds.Superficial BurnsClean the burn wound & remove the roof of all blistersqExpose superficial burns of face but apply sterile liquid paraffin to reduce crusting.For burns of perineum, clean & expose but apply silver sulfadiazine cream. Nurse the patient without dressings on a sterile sheet on air or water-bed.Cover superficial burns of other areas with two layers of paraffin gauze & a bulky absorptive dressing

Surgery

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: cfcf4861-d0b6-41f7-91ae-468f78fae02equestion: A 1.5 years old child was brought to emergency with history of burn by hot water on both hands and palms. The lesion was pink, oozing and painful to air and touch. Which of the following is the best management for this patient?opa: Paraffin gauze and dressingopb: Collagen dressingopc: Excision and graftingopd: Apply 1% silver sulfasalazine ointment and keep the wound opencop: 0choice_type: multiexp: Answer- A. Paraffin gauze and dressingParaffin gauze and dressing - Collagenase is the most commonly employed enzymatic debriding agent currently commercially available in the United States.It is slow acting, requiring several days to one week to adequately debride or heal intermediate-depth paial thickness wounds.Superficial BurnsClean the burn wound & remove the roof of all blistersqExpose superficial burns of face but apply sterile liquid paraffin to reduce crusting.For burns of perineum, clean & expose but apply silver sulfadiazine cream. Nurse the patient without dressings on a sterile sheet on air or water-bed.Cover superficial burns of other areas with two layers of paraffin gauze & a bulky absorptive dressingsubject_name: Surgerytopic_name: None

yes

37383322-4c63-4a27-bc22-f63dcd5763db

Arrange the following layers of epidermis from surface to deep layer - CorneocytesMerkel cellsMelanocytesLangerhans cells

Corneocytes>merkel cell>melanocytes>langerhans cells

Merkel cells>corneocytes>melanocytes>langerhans cells

Melanocytes >merkel cells>corneocytes>langerhans cells

corneocytes>>langerhans cells>melanocytes > merkel cells

single

Ans. DThe epidermis is composed of 4 or 5 layers, depending on the region of skin being considered.Those layers in descending order are:Cornified layer (stratum corneum)Composed of 10 to 30 layers of polyhedral, anucleated corneocytes (final step of keratinocyte differentiation), with the palms and soles having the most layers.Clear/translucent layer (stratum lucidum, only in palms and soles)This narrow layer is found only on the palms and soles. The epidermis of these two areas is known as "thick skin" because with this extra layer, the skin has 5 epidermal layers instead of 4Granular layer (stratum granulosum)Keratinocytes lose their nuclei and their cytoplasm appears granular. Lipids, contained into those keratinocytes within lamellar bodies, are released into the extracellular space through exocytosis to form a lipid barrier. Those polar lipids are then conveed into non-polar lipids and arranged parallel to the cell surface.Spinous layer (stratum spinosum)Keratinocytes become connected through desmosomes and sta produce lamellar bodies, from within the Golgi, enriched in polar lipids, glycosphingolipids, free sterols, phospholipids and catabolic enzymes.Langerhans cells, immunologically active cells, are located in the middle of this layer.Basal/germinal layer (stratum basale/germinativum).Composed mainly of proliferating and non-proliferating keratinocytes, attached to the basement membrane by hemidesmosomes.Melanocytes are present, connected to numerous keratinocytes in this and other strata through dendrites.Merkel cells are also found in the stratum basale with large numbers in touch-sensitive sites such as the fingeips and lips.

Anatomy

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 37383322-4c63-4a27-bc22-f63dcd5763dbquestion: Arrange the following layers of epidermis from surface to deep layer - CorneocytesMerkel cellsMelanocytesLangerhans cellsopa: Corneocytes>merkel cell>melanocytes>langerhans cellsopb: Merkel cells>corneocytes>melanocytes>langerhans cellsopc: Melanocytes >merkel cells>corneocytes>langerhans cellsopd: corneocytes>>langerhans cells>melanocytes > merkel cellscop: 3choice_type: singleexp: Ans. DThe epidermis is composed of 4 or 5 layers, depending on the region of skin being considered.Those layers in descending order are:Cornified layer (stratum corneum)Composed of 10 to 30 layers of polyhedral, anucleated corneocytes (final step of keratinocyte differentiation), with the palms and soles having the most layers.Clear/translucent layer (stratum lucidum, only in palms and soles)This narrow layer is found only on the palms and soles. The epidermis of these two areas is known as "thick skin" because with this extra layer, the skin has 5 epidermal layers instead of 4Granular layer (stratum granulosum)Keratinocytes lose their nuclei and their cytoplasm appears granular. Lipids, contained into those keratinocytes within lamellar bodies, are released into the extracellular space through exocytosis to form a lipid barrier. Those polar lipids are then conveed into non-polar lipids and arranged parallel to the cell surface.Spinous layer (stratum spinosum)Keratinocytes become connected through desmosomes and sta produce lamellar bodies, from within the Golgi, enriched in polar lipids, glycosphingolipids, free sterols, phospholipids and catabolic enzymes.Langerhans cells, immunologically active cells, are located in the middle of this layer.Basal/germinal layer (stratum basale/germinativum).Composed mainly of proliferating and non-proliferating keratinocytes, attached to the basement membrane by hemidesmosomes.Melanocytes are present, connected to numerous keratinocytes in this and other strata through dendrites.Merkel cells are also found in the stratum basale with large numbers in touch-sensitive sites such as the fingeips and lips.subject_name: Anatomytopic_name: None

yes

73cbdaba-1321-4765-a9f4-ec0b0dbc9994

A newborn with eyes closed 6 hrs after birth lustily crying, no chest retraction and movements of all four limbs. Neonatal behavioral response grading –

State 1

State 3

State 5

State 6

multi

Neonatal behavioral assessment scale Neonatal Behavioural Assessment Scale (NBAS) is used to support parents in the neonatal unit, especially around discharge home. The aim is to increase parents' confidence in understanding their baby. An infant's reaction are state related. So it is extremely important that observations of state be considered as a starting point from which all other observations are made. The ideal time to administer the examination is when the infant is asleep and midway between feeding cycles. Scores Sleep states State 1 : Sleep with regular breathing, eyes closed, no spontaneous activity except startles or jerky movements at quite regular intervals. a State 2 : Sleep with eyes closed; rapid eye movements can often be observed under closed lids; low activity level with random movements and startles. Awake states State 3 : Drowsy or semidrowsy; eyes may be open but dull and heavy lidded, or closed, eyelids fluttering; activity level minimal, Movements are usually smooth, although there may be startles. Some infants may also show fuss/cry vocalizations in this state. What distinguishes state 3 from state 5 when both are accompanied by fuss/cry vocalizations is the minimal movement in state 3 and considerable movement in state 5. State 4 : Alert, eyes open with bright look. Motor activity is minimal; there can be a glazed look that is easily changed into a brighter look with appropriate stimulation. State 5 : Eyes likely to be open; considerable motor activity, with thrusting movements of the extremities, and even a few spontaneous startles; reactive to external stimulation with increase in startles or motor activity. State 6 : Crying : characterized by intense, loud, rhythmic, and sustained cry vocalizations that are difficult to break through with stimulation; motor activity is high. Coming to the question According to above staging, the newborn in our question comes under state 6 (crying lustily, and moving all 4 limbs). If you have any confusion, read the following facts on crying (state 6) :- "it is important to distinguish between crying as a state (stage 6) from the fuss/ay vocalization that can occur in state 5 and even state 3. Some infants show repeated episodes of fuss /cry vocalization in state 5 but may not reach state 6. This may also be a maturational issue, because some preterm infants may not have energy reserves to sustain state 6. In general, state 6 Can be distinguished from state 5 by the intensity and sustained quality of the crying (at least 15 seconds) and unavailability of infant in state 6. Repeated brief episodes of cry /fuss in state 5 do not mean that the infant has moved into state 6. Examiners need to give the infant the opportunity to show state 6" So, crying lustily with all limbs moving (child in question), straight away goes in state 6.

Pediatrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 73cbdaba-1321-4765-a9f4-ec0b0dbc9994question: A newborn with eyes closed 6 hrs after birth lustily crying, no chest retraction and movements of all four limbs. Neonatal behavioral response grading –opa: State 1opb: State 3opc: State 5opd: State 6cop: 3choice_type: multiexp: Neonatal behavioral assessment scale Neonatal Behavioural Assessment Scale (NBAS) is used to support parents in the neonatal unit, especially around discharge home. The aim is to increase parents' confidence in understanding their baby. An infant's reaction are state related. So it is extremely important that observations of state be considered as a starting point from which all other observations are made. The ideal time to administer the examination is when the infant is asleep and midway between feeding cycles. Scores Sleep states State 1 : Sleep with regular breathing, eyes closed, no spontaneous activity except startles or jerky movements at quite regular intervals. a State 2 : Sleep with eyes closed; rapid eye movements can often be observed under closed lids; low activity level with random movements and startles. Awake states State 3 : Drowsy or semidrowsy; eyes may be open but dull and heavy lidded, or closed, eyelids fluttering; activity level minimal, Movements are usually smooth, although there may be startles. Some infants may also show fuss/cry vocalizations in this state. What distinguishes state 3 from state 5 when both are accompanied by fuss/cry vocalizations is the minimal movement in state 3 and considerable movement in state 5. State 4 : Alert, eyes open with bright look. Motor activity is minimal; there can be a glazed look that is easily changed into a brighter look with appropriate stimulation. State 5 : Eyes likely to be open; considerable motor activity, with thrusting movements of the extremities, and even a few spontaneous startles; reactive to external stimulation with increase in startles or motor activity. State 6 : Crying : characterized by intense, loud, rhythmic, and sustained cry vocalizations that are difficult to break through with stimulation; motor activity is high. Coming to the question According to above staging, the newborn in our question comes under state 6 (crying lustily, and moving all 4 limbs). If you have any confusion, read the following facts on crying (state 6) :- "it is important to distinguish between crying as a state (stage 6) from the fuss/ay vocalization that can occur in state 5 and even state 3. Some infants show repeated episodes of fuss /cry vocalization in state 5 but may not reach state 6. This may also be a maturational issue, because some preterm infants may not have energy reserves to sustain state 6. In general, state 6 Can be distinguished from state 5 by the intensity and sustained quality of the crying (at least 15 seconds) and unavailability of infant in state 6. Repeated brief episodes of cry /fuss in state 5 do not mean that the infant has moved into state 6. Examiners need to give the infant the opportunity to show state 6" So, crying lustily with all limbs moving (child in question), straight away goes in state 6.subject_name: Pediatricstopic_name: None

yes

f608b3a8-f9f0-4096-af64-3fe43798a70f

Anti-hypeensive drug contraindicated in pregnancy is:September 2005, 2010 March 2007, March 2013

Hydralazine

Methyldopa

Enalapril

Amlodopine

single

Ans. C: EnalaprilAntihypeensive used in pregnancyAlpha methyldopaLabetololFelodipineNot usually initiated in pregnancy due to volume depletion but may be continued:NifedipineHydralazineACE inhibitors, Thiazide diuretics, Angiotensin antagonists (losaan), Furosemide, propranolol and nitroprusside areunsafe/safety unceain in pregnancy.Foetal growth retardation, hypoplasia of organs and foetal death may occur if ACE inhibitors are given during later half of pregnancy.

Pharmacology

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: f608b3a8-f9f0-4096-af64-3fe43798a70fquestion: Anti-hypeensive drug contraindicated in pregnancy is:September 2005, 2010 March 2007, March 2013opa: Hydralazineopb: Methyldopaopc: Enalaprilopd: Amlodopinecop: 2choice_type: singleexp: Ans. C: EnalaprilAntihypeensive used in pregnancyAlpha methyldopaLabetololFelodipineNot usually initiated in pregnancy due to volume depletion but may be continued:NifedipineHydralazineACE inhibitors, Thiazide diuretics, Angiotensin antagonists (losaan), Furosemide, propranolol and nitroprusside areunsafe/safety unceain in pregnancy.Foetal growth retardation, hypoplasia of organs and foetal death may occur if ACE inhibitors are given during later half of pregnancy.subject_name: Pharmacologytopic_name: None

yes

28fb749e-f104-48ad-8387-c2dac5b62ec3

An episiotomy is to be performed in a primigravida in labor. Which of these is an advantage of mediolateral episiotomy over midline episiotomy?

Less chance of extension

Can be repaired at ease

Fewer breakdown

Lesser blood loss

single

Ans: A. Less chance of extension (Ref: Williams 24/e p551).A mediolateral episiotomy is preferred because it has a much lesser chance of extension through the perineum till anal sphincter, though there is increased risk of blood loss and it is difficult to repair.

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 28fb749e-f104-48ad-8387-c2dac5b62ec3question: An episiotomy is to be performed in a primigravida in labor. Which of these is an advantage of mediolateral episiotomy over midline episiotomy?opa: Less chance of extensionopb: Can be repaired at easeopc: Fewer breakdownopd: Lesser blood losscop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Ans: A. Less chance of extension (Ref: Williams 24/e p551).A mediolateral episiotomy is preferred because it has a much lesser chance of extension through the perineum till anal sphincter, though there is increased risk of blood loss and it is difficult to repair.subject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

b7899c5a-8bd2-4a87-8082-0ad7980f3886

Comprehensive emergency obstetric care does not include:

Manual removal of placenta

Hysterectomy

Blood transfusion

Cesarean section

single

Setting standards of emergency obstetrics and newborn care: Basic emergency obstetric and newborn care provided in health centres, large or small include the facilities for: Administration of antibiotics, oxytocics and anticonvulsants. Manual removal of the placenta. Removal of retained products following miscarriage or abortion. Assisted vaginal delivery preferably with vacuum extractor. Comprehensive emergency obstetric and newborn care, typically delivered in district hospital, includes all basic functions above, plus cesarean section, safe blood transfusion and care to sick and low birth weight newborns including resuscitation. It is recommended that for every 5,00,000 people there should be 4 facilities offering comprehensive essential obstetric care.

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: b7899c5a-8bd2-4a87-8082-0ad7980f3886question: Comprehensive emergency obstetric care does not include:opa: Manual removal of placentaopb: Hysterectomyopc: Blood transfusionopd: Cesarean sectioncop: 1choice_type: singleexp: Setting standards of emergency obstetrics and newborn care: Basic emergency obstetric and newborn care provided in health centres, large or small include the facilities for: Administration of antibiotics, oxytocics and anticonvulsants. Manual removal of the placenta. Removal of retained products following miscarriage or abortion. Assisted vaginal delivery preferably with vacuum extractor. Comprehensive emergency obstetric and newborn care, typically delivered in district hospital, includes all basic functions above, plus cesarean section, safe blood transfusion and care to sick and low birth weight newborns including resuscitation. It is recommended that for every 5,00,000 people there should be 4 facilities offering comprehensive essential obstetric care.subject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

b3c00c97-b6ca-4475-95e2-42343c8959cc

Immunization that could help post-disaster includes

Measles

Cholera

Typhoid

All

multi

Ans. A. MeaslesVaccines recommended in disastersFollowing vaccines are recommendedChildren < 10 years:- DPT, inactivated polio (IPV), H.influenzae type b (Hib), hepatitis B, pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV), measles-mumps-rubella (MMR), varicella vaccine, influenza, hepatitis A and rotavirus.Children and adolescents (11-18 years):- Tetanus, diphtheria, peussis, meningococcal conjugate vaccine (MCV), Influenza.Adults (>18 years):- Tetanus, diphtheria, peussis, pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV23), and influenza.Vaccination against typhoid and cholera is not recommended.

Social & Preventive Medicine

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: b3c00c97-b6ca-4475-95e2-42343c8959ccquestion: Immunization that could help post-disaster includesopa: Measlesopb: Choleraopc: Typhoidopd: Allcop: 0choice_type: multiexp: Ans. A. MeaslesVaccines recommended in disastersFollowing vaccines are recommendedChildren < 10 years:- DPT, inactivated polio (IPV), H.influenzae type b (Hib), hepatitis B, pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV), measles-mumps-rubella (MMR), varicella vaccine, influenza, hepatitis A and rotavirus.Children and adolescents (11-18 years):- Tetanus, diphtheria, peussis, meningococcal conjugate vaccine (MCV), Influenza.Adults (>18 years):- Tetanus, diphtheria, peussis, pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV23), and influenza.Vaccination against typhoid and cholera is not recommended.subject_name: Social & Preventive Medicinetopic_name: None

yes

0383dfdc-42eb-43db-9fc1-34779d337f2e

Which of the following should be considered a 'High risk infant'?

Mal-presentation

Folic acid tablet not consumed

Working mother

Antenatal preeclampsia

single

- High risk infant includes, Bih weight < 2.5 kg Bih order > 5 Twin delivery Aificial feeding Weight < 70% of expected Failure to thrive Diarrhea/Protein energy malnutrition Working Mother /single parent

Social & Preventive Medicine

AIIMS 2019

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 0383dfdc-42eb-43db-9fc1-34779d337f2equestion: Which of the following should be considered a 'High risk infant'?opa: Mal-presentationopb: Folic acid tablet not consumedopc: Working motheropd: Antenatal preeclampsiacop: 2choice_type: singleexp: - High risk infant includes, Bih weight < 2.5 kg Bih order > 5 Twin delivery Aificial feeding Weight < 70% of expected Failure to thrive Diarrhea/Protein energy malnutrition Working Mother /single parentsubject_name: Social & Preventive Medicinetopic_name: AIIMS 2019

yes

b5aac757-6fb7-48f0-8179-21ffde466c0d

Dose of dexamethasone given to mother in anticipated preterm delivery:

12 mg 12 hourly 2 doses

12 mg 24 hourly 4 doses

6 mg 24 hourly 2 doses

6 mg 12 hourly 4 doses

single

Ans: D. 6 mg 12 hourly 4 doses(Ref Dutta 8/e p367, 7/e p316: Nelson 20/e p 852)Dose of dexamethasone given to anticipated preterm delivery mother - 6 mg 12 hourly 4 doses.Antenatal coicosteroids:Single course recommended for 24-34 weeks gestation with preterm delivery risk.Drugs & dosage:Dexamethasone (6 mg, 12 hourly, 4 doses).Betamethasone (12 mg, 2 doses, 24 hours apa).

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: b5aac757-6fb7-48f0-8179-21ffde466c0dquestion: Dose of dexamethasone given to mother in anticipated preterm delivery:opa: 12 mg 12 hourly 2 dosesopb: 12 mg 24 hourly 4 dosesopc: 6 mg 24 hourly 2 dosesopd: 6 mg 12 hourly 4 dosescop: 3choice_type: singleexp: Ans: D. 6 mg 12 hourly 4 doses(Ref Dutta 8/e p367, 7/e p316: Nelson 20/e p 852)Dose of dexamethasone given to anticipated preterm delivery mother - 6 mg 12 hourly 4 doses.Antenatal coicosteroids:Single course recommended for 24-34 weeks gestation with preterm delivery risk.Drugs & dosage:Dexamethasone (6 mg, 12 hourly, 4 doses).Betamethasone (12 mg, 2 doses, 24 hours apa).subject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

6f0b2cc4-de54-4d80-8aa6-e9dc3acc4bb0

A patient on anti-tubercular drug therapy developed tingling sensation on lower limb. Which of the following drug should be used for the treatment?

Thiamine

Folic acid

Pyridoxine

Vitamin B-12

single

Patient is developing tingling sensation (peripheral neuropathy) which is a side effect of Isoniazid (INH) a first line antitubercular drug. INH is extensively metabolized in liver; most impoant pathway being N-acetylation by NAT2. The acetylated metabolite is excreted in urine. The rate of INH acetylation shows genetic variation. There are either: Fast acetylators: (30-40% of Indians) t1/2 of INH 1 hr. Slow acetylators: (60-70% of Indians) t1/2 of INH 3 hr. Slow acetylators will not be able to metabolize the drug quickly and there will be accumulation of isoniazid. Isoniazid inhibits pyridoxal phosphokinase enzyme and hence causes peripheral neuritis, paraesthesias, numbness etc. Pyridoxine given prophylactically (10mg/day) prevents this neurotoxicity. On the other hand, fast acetylators are more prone to develop.

Pharmacology

AIIMS 2017

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 6f0b2cc4-de54-4d80-8aa6-e9dc3acc4bb0question: A patient on anti-tubercular drug therapy developed tingling sensation on lower limb. Which of the following drug should be used for the treatment?opa: Thiamineopb: Folic acidopc: Pyridoxineopd: Vitamin B-12cop: 2choice_type: singleexp: Patient is developing tingling sensation (peripheral neuropathy) which is a side effect of Isoniazid (INH) a first line antitubercular drug. INH is extensively metabolized in liver; most impoant pathway being N-acetylation by NAT2. The acetylated metabolite is excreted in urine. The rate of INH acetylation shows genetic variation. There are either: Fast acetylators: (30-40% of Indians) t1/2 of INH 1 hr. Slow acetylators: (60-70% of Indians) t1/2 of INH 3 hr. Slow acetylators will not be able to metabolize the drug quickly and there will be accumulation of isoniazid. Isoniazid inhibits pyridoxal phosphokinase enzyme and hence causes peripheral neuritis, paraesthesias, numbness etc. Pyridoxine given prophylactically (10mg/day) prevents this neurotoxicity. On the other hand, fast acetylators are more prone to develop.subject_name: Pharmacologytopic_name: AIIMS 2017

yes

e0f9e4af-3c3f-49d3-a19a-f8b884951de6

What is the ratio of chest compressions and breaths when a lone person is giving cardiopulmonary resuscitation?

10:01

15:01

30:01:00

30:02:00

single

Ans: D. 30:2(Ref AHA 2015 CPR Guidelines " wp-content/uploads/2015/10/2015-AHA!Guidclinet.-Hilivhtv-En,cgish ficIf.)Ratio of chest compressions to rescue breath in all adults (Even with 1 or 2 rescuers) = 30:2.

Anaesthesia

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: e0f9e4af-3c3f-49d3-a19a-f8b884951de6question: What is the ratio of chest compressions and breaths when a lone person is giving cardiopulmonary resuscitation?opa: 10:01opb: 15:01opc: 30:01:00opd: 30:02:00cop: 3choice_type: singleexp: Ans: D. 30:2(Ref AHA 2015 CPR Guidelines " wp-content/uploads/2015/10/2015-AHA!Guidclinet.-Hilivhtv-En,cgish ficIf.)Ratio of chest compressions to rescue breath in all adults (Even with 1 or 2 rescuers) = 30:2.subject_name: Anaesthesiatopic_name: None

yes

836b4e61-8568-4d55-9acf-3a1695081981

A 45 y ears old patient presented to you with ongoing massive hematemesis. The patient is ale and hemodynamically stable. What will be the first step in management?

Do an urgent upper GI endoscopy

Put the patient in recovery position and secure airway

Inse a cannula and sta IV fluids

Send for blood transfusion

multi

Ans: B. Put the patient in recovery position and secure airway(Ref BLS/ACLS Guidelines: resuscitation guidelines /adult- aclvanced-lik-suppo: Harrison 19/e p1768: Bratinwald's 10/e p844-845)BLS algorithm:Sta airway management in any patient who is collapsed/expected to collapse.Patient here is hemodynamically stable.Airway - Most impoant component at risk in this patient & requires immediate attention.Put patient in recovery position.i.e. left lateral decubitus position to prevent the risk of aspiration.

Surgery

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 836b4e61-8568-4d55-9acf-3a1695081981question: A 45 y ears old patient presented to you with ongoing massive hematemesis. The patient is ale and hemodynamically stable. What will be the first step in management?opa: Do an urgent upper GI endoscopyopb: Put the patient in recovery position and secure airwayopc: Inse a cannula and sta IV fluidsopd: Send for blood transfusioncop: 1choice_type: multiexp: Ans: B. Put the patient in recovery position and secure airway(Ref BLS/ACLS Guidelines: resuscitation guidelines /adult- aclvanced-lik-suppo: Harrison 19/e p1768: Bratinwald's 10/e p844-845)BLS algorithm:Sta airway management in any patient who is collapsed/expected to collapse.Patient here is hemodynamically stable.Airway - Most impoant component at risk in this patient & requires immediate attention.Put patient in recovery position.i.e. left lateral decubitus position to prevent the risk of aspiration.subject_name: Surgerytopic_name: None

yes

2f0e50d9-79cb-4de8-b650-3b3815da5266

A 2-year-old child was brought to the emergency depament at 3 AM. The child presented with fever and cough. On examination, respiratory rate was 36/ min, temperature was 39degC and saturation on pulse oximetry was 96%. The child had barking cough and stridor only on crying. Otherwise, the child was hydrated, able to drink and consolable. The nest step in management would be:

Racemic epinephrine nebulization

Single dose of dexamethasone

Complete blood count and culture

Nasal washings for Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) and influenza

multi

Answer- B (Single dose of dexamethasone)Coicosteroids decrease the edema in the laryngeal mucosa through their anti-inflammatory action.Oral steroids are beneficial, even in mild croup, as measured by reduced hospitalization, shoer duration of hospitalization, and reduced need for subsequent intimations such as epinephrine administration.

Pediatrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 2f0e50d9-79cb-4de8-b650-3b3815da5266question: A 2-year-old child was brought to the emergency depament at 3 AM. The child presented with fever and cough. On examination, respiratory rate was 36/ min, temperature was 39degC and saturation on pulse oximetry was 96%. The child had barking cough and stridor only on crying. Otherwise, the child was hydrated, able to drink and consolable. The nest step in management would be:opa: Racemic epinephrine nebulizationopb: Single dose of dexamethasoneopc: Complete blood count and cultureopd: Nasal washings for Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) and influenzacop: 1choice_type: multiexp: Answer- B (Single dose of dexamethasone)Coicosteroids decrease the edema in the laryngeal mucosa through their anti-inflammatory action.Oral steroids are beneficial, even in mild croup, as measured by reduced hospitalization, shoer duration of hospitalization, and reduced need for subsequent intimations such as epinephrine administration.subject_name: Pediatricstopic_name: None

yes

139372ab-2365-445d-a053-e978dc9ca6af

In a school bus accident, which of the following victim you will attend first?

A child with Airway obstruction

A child with shock

A child with flail chest

A child with Severe head injury

single

Initial assessment, also termed the primary survey, follows the mnemonic ABCDE: Airway and cervical spine protection, Breathing, Circulation, Disability or neurologic condition, Exposure and environmental control.

Surgery

AIIMS 2017

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 139372ab-2365-445d-a053-e978dc9ca6afquestion: In a school bus accident, which of the following victim you will attend first?opa: A child with Airway obstructionopb: A child with shockopc: A child with flail chestopd: A child with Severe head injurycop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Initial assessment, also termed the primary survey, follows the mnemonic ABCDE: Airway and cervical spine protection, Breathing, Circulation, Disability or neurologic condition, Exposure and environmental control.subject_name: Surgerytopic_name: AIIMS 2017

yes

a9593a3b-34bf-4de3-b53b-f9e957a0dad5

Anti D prophylaxis is administered in all except?

MTP at 63 days

Amniocentesis at 16 weeks

Manual removal of placenta

Intra-uterine transfusion 28 weeks

multi

Ans. D. Intra uterine transfusionAnti D prophylaxis is not given after intrauterine transfusion.Intrauterine transfusion is done to prevent the fetus from dying.If the hydropic fetus is too immature for early delivery, intrauterine transfusion is done.Transfusion is done through intraperitoneal and intravascular routes.This is performed using O-negative, cytomegalovirus negative, washed irradiated packed red cell.The volume to be transfused is roughly calculated by the formula: (weeks of gestation-20) multiplied by 10.Transfusion is repeated whenever fetal hemoglobin levels falls below 10gm/dl.

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: a9593a3b-34bf-4de3-b53b-f9e957a0dad5question: Anti D prophylaxis is administered in all except?opa: MTP at 63 daysopb: Amniocentesis at 16 weeksopc: Manual removal of placentaopd: Intra-uterine transfusion 28 weekscop: 3choice_type: multiexp: Ans. D. Intra uterine transfusionAnti D prophylaxis is not given after intrauterine transfusion.Intrauterine transfusion is done to prevent the fetus from dying.If the hydropic fetus is too immature for early delivery, intrauterine transfusion is done.Transfusion is done through intraperitoneal and intravascular routes.This is performed using O-negative, cytomegalovirus negative, washed irradiated packed red cell.The volume to be transfused is roughly calculated by the formula: (weeks of gestation-20) multiplied by 10.Transfusion is repeated whenever fetal hemoglobin levels falls below 10gm/dl.subject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

25ad5741-fdb7-49d7-b985-aa021e70a967

'Store in a cool place' is written on a drug label. It means drug should be stored at a temperature of:

-2 degree Celsius

0 degree Celsius

2-8 degree Celsius

8-15 degree Celsius

single

STORAGE TEMPRATURES: LABEL WHERE TO KEEP TEMPRATURE Keep frozen Inside freezer -20 degree celsius Keep cold Inside refrigerator; outside freezer 2-8 degree celsius Keep cool Outside refrigerator 8-15 degree Celsius(in USA); 8-25 degree Celsius (in India)

Pharmacology

AIIMS 2018

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 25ad5741-fdb7-49d7-b985-aa021e70a967question: 'Store in a cool place' is written on a drug label. It means drug should be stored at a temperature of:opa: -2 degree Celsiusopb: 0 degree Celsiusopc: 2-8 degree Celsiusopd: 8-15 degree Celsiuscop: 3choice_type: singleexp: STORAGE TEMPRATURES: LABEL WHERE TO KEEP TEMPRATURE Keep frozen Inside freezer -20 degree celsius Keep cold Inside refrigerator; outside freezer 2-8 degree celsius Keep cool Outside refrigerator 8-15 degree Celsius(in USA); 8-25 degree Celsius (in India)subject_name: Pharmacologytopic_name: AIIMS 2018

yes

ee5093ed-0f38-4c1f-a70a-13548b8779f7

Which of the following would you consider ohostatic hypotension?

SBP fall by 20 mm hg, DBP fall by 10 mm hg within 3 minutes

SBP fall by 20 mm hg, DBP fall by 10 mm Hg within 6 minutes

SBP fall by 30 mm hg, DBP fall by 20 mm Hg within 3 minutes

SBP fall by 30 mm hg, DBP fall by 20 mm hg within 6 minutes

multi

Answer- A. SBP fall by 20 mm hg, DBP fall by 10 mm hg within 3 minutesOhostatic hypotension is defined as a decrease in systolic blood pressure of 20 mm Hg or a decrease in diastolic blood pressure of 10 mm Hg within three minutes of standing when compared with blood pressure from the sitting or supine position.

Surgery

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: ee5093ed-0f38-4c1f-a70a-13548b8779f7question: Which of the following would you consider ohostatic hypotension?opa: SBP fall by 20 mm hg, DBP fall by 10 mm hg within 3 minutesopb: SBP fall by 20 mm hg, DBP fall by 10 mm Hg within 6 minutesopc: SBP fall by 30 mm hg, DBP fall by 20 mm Hg within 3 minutesopd: SBP fall by 30 mm hg, DBP fall by 20 mm hg within 6 minutescop: 0choice_type: multiexp: Answer- A. SBP fall by 20 mm hg, DBP fall by 10 mm hg within 3 minutesOhostatic hypotension is defined as a decrease in systolic blood pressure of 20 mm Hg or a decrease in diastolic blood pressure of 10 mm Hg within three minutes of standing when compared with blood pressure from the sitting or supine position.subject_name: Surgerytopic_name: None

yes

7a163b43-2355-4789-aa99-a116c1a3ca00

Carbamazepine has been utilized to successfully diminish attacks in trigeminal neuralgia. During this therapy, which of the following is indicated?

Clinical observation only

Clinical observation and complete blood and platelet counts prior to and at frequent intervals during therapy

No monitoring

Complete blood investigation, only if adverse symptoms arise

single

Aplastic anemia and leucopenia are rare complications of carbamazepine therapy. So, the patients receiving carbamazepine must have periodic hematological laboratory investigations.

Pathology

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 7a163b43-2355-4789-aa99-a116c1a3ca00question: Carbamazepine has been utilized to successfully diminish attacks in trigeminal neuralgia. During this therapy, which of the following is indicated?opa: Clinical observation onlyopb: Clinical observation and complete blood and platelet counts prior to and at frequent intervals during therapyopc: No monitoringopd: Complete blood investigation, only if adverse symptoms arisecop: 1choice_type: singleexp: Aplastic anemia and leucopenia are rare complications of carbamazepine therapy. So, the patients receiving carbamazepine must have periodic hematological laboratory investigations.subject_name: Pathologytopic_name: None

yes

9e8038c4-e848-450c-8f57-f9bfa7b75fb0

The most common problem with blood transfusion is:

Hemolytic reaction

Remission of disease

Hypokalemia

Metabolic acidosis

single

Physiology

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 9e8038c4-e848-450c-8f57-f9bfa7b75fb0question: The most common problem with blood transfusion is:opa: Hemolytic reactionopb: Remission of diseaseopc: Hypokalemiaopd: Metabolic acidosiscop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Nonesubject_name: Physiologytopic_name: None

yes

ade05b67-b4f5-433b-8433-d74e009763cd

Which of the following can be used to delay preterm contractions of uterus with best neurological outcome for the fetus?

Mgso4

Nifidipine

Ritodrine

Isoxprine

single

Ans. A.MgSo4Antenatal magnesium sulfate for both tocolysis and fetal neuroprotection in premature rupture of the membranes before 32 weeks' gestation. Other tocolytic drugs:Ritodrine, salbutamol and magnesium sulphate are tocolytic drugs used to terminate preterm labour and delivery.Other tocolytic drugs are isoxsuprine, indomethacin, calcium channel blockers, glyceryl trinitrate, atosiban and glyceryl trinitrate.

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: ade05b67-b4f5-433b-8433-d74e009763cdquestion: Which of the following can be used to delay preterm contractions of uterus with best neurological outcome for the fetus?opa: Mgso4opb: Nifidipineopc: Ritodrineopd: Isoxprinecop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Ans. A.MgSo4Antenatal magnesium sulfate for both tocolysis and fetal neuroprotection in premature rupture of the membranes before 32 weeks' gestation. Other tocolytic drugs:Ritodrine, salbutamol and magnesium sulphate are tocolytic drugs used to terminate preterm labour and delivery.Other tocolytic drugs are isoxsuprine, indomethacin, calcium channel blockers, glyceryl trinitrate, atosiban and glyceryl trinitrate.subject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

5b612728-c228-4423-8fd8-fde0ff1d3f68

Criteria for infant at risk?

Working mothers

Have not taken 100 days folic acid

Preclampsia is pregnancy

Malpresentation during bih

single

Infant safe Infant risk Working mothers Have not taken 100 days folic acid Malpresentation during bih Preclampsia in pregnancy

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

AIIMS 2019

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 5b612728-c228-4423-8fd8-fde0ff1d3f68question: Criteria for infant at risk?opa: Working mothersopb: Have not taken 100 days folic acidopc: Preclampsia is pregnancyopd: Malpresentation during bihcop: 2choice_type: singleexp: Infant safe Infant risk Working mothers Have not taken 100 days folic acid Malpresentation during bih Preclampsia in pregnancysubject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: AIIMS 2019

yes

fbd3b828-a75a-47d5-bee7-3068e78b2e6f

Which of the following sites is least commonly preferred for insulin injection?

Anterior thigh

Lateral thigh

Dorsum of arm

Around umbilicus

single

Ans: B. Lateral thigh(Ref Goodman Gilman 12/e p1252)Insulin injection:Usually injected into subcutaneous tissues of abdomen, buttock, anterior thigh, or dorsal arm.Absorption most rapid from abdominal wall, followed by arm, buttock & thigh.

Pharmacology

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: fbd3b828-a75a-47d5-bee7-3068e78b2e6fquestion: Which of the following sites is least commonly preferred for insulin injection?opa: Anterior thighopb: Lateral thighopc: Dorsum of armopd: Around umbilicuscop: 1choice_type: singleexp: Ans: B. Lateral thigh(Ref Goodman Gilman 12/e p1252)Insulin injection:Usually injected into subcutaneous tissues of abdomen, buttock, anterior thigh, or dorsal arm.Absorption most rapid from abdominal wall, followed by arm, buttock & thigh.subject_name: Pharmacologytopic_name: None

yes

c7c97482-3fe5-4798-bd40-50926d7595f8

Which of the following is the most appropriate method for obtaining a urine specimen for culture in an 8 month old girl –

Suprapubic aspiration

Indwelling catheter sample

Clean catch void

Urinary bag sample

single

Diagnosis of urinary tract infection A UTI may be suspected based on the symptoms or finding on urinalysis or both, but a urine culture is necessary for confirmation and appropriate therapy. Thus the diagnosis of UTI depends on having the proper sample of urine. There are several ways to obtain a urine sample, some are more accurate than others. These methods are — Midstream urine sample — It is satisfactory in toilet trained children and in circumcised boys. But in young infants and boys who cannot ratract their foreskin, it is not reliable. Such samples will usually reflect periurethral and prepucial organisms and cells. Collection in an adhesive sealed sterile collection bag after disinfection of the genitals Is a useful technique in infants, but potential contamination from genitals and perianal area can occur. 3. Urine specimen through catheterization or indwelling catheter — Urine specimen through a catheter is less likely to be contaminated than the voided specimens as described above. It is also less invasive than suprapubic aspiration, but it is not as sensitive as suprapubic aspiration. A catherized specimen is reliable if the first portion of the urine that may contain urethral organisms is discarded and specimen is taken from later flow through the catheter, but it has the disadvantage of being traumatic and of potentially introducing urethral organisms into sterile bladder Suprapubic aspiration - Suprapubic aspiration is best method to collect urine specimen for culture. It is the most reliable method It can be performed safely in children and in premature infants by 21 or 22 gauge needle. This procedure avoids any sort of contamination, however it is invasive. So it is used only in infants and selected patients. Note: The sensitivity of suprapubic aspiration is 99 % The sensitivity of catherization is 95%

Pediatrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: c7c97482-3fe5-4798-bd40-50926d7595f8question: Which of the following is the most appropriate method for obtaining a urine specimen for culture in an 8 month old girl –opa: Suprapubic aspirationopb: Indwelling catheter sampleopc: Clean catch voidopd: Urinary bag samplecop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Diagnosis of urinary tract infection A UTI may be suspected based on the symptoms or finding on urinalysis or both, but a urine culture is necessary for confirmation and appropriate therapy. Thus the diagnosis of UTI depends on having the proper sample of urine. There are several ways to obtain a urine sample, some are more accurate than others. These methods are — Midstream urine sample — It is satisfactory in toilet trained children and in circumcised boys. But in young infants and boys who cannot ratract their foreskin, it is not reliable. Such samples will usually reflect periurethral and prepucial organisms and cells. Collection in an adhesive sealed sterile collection bag after disinfection of the genitals Is a useful technique in infants, but potential contamination from genitals and perianal area can occur. 3. Urine specimen through catheterization or indwelling catheter — Urine specimen through a catheter is less likely to be contaminated than the voided specimens as described above. It is also less invasive than suprapubic aspiration, but it is not as sensitive as suprapubic aspiration. A catherized specimen is reliable if the first portion of the urine that may contain urethral organisms is discarded and specimen is taken from later flow through the catheter, but it has the disadvantage of being traumatic and of potentially introducing urethral organisms into sterile bladder Suprapubic aspiration - Suprapubic aspiration is best method to collect urine specimen for culture. It is the most reliable method It can be performed safely in children and in premature infants by 21 or 22 gauge needle. This procedure avoids any sort of contamination, however it is invasive. So it is used only in infants and selected patients. Note: The sensitivity of suprapubic aspiration is 99 % The sensitivity of catherization is 95%subject_name: Pediatricstopic_name: None

yes

dd6f308c-9900-47f6-b41b-978022bb7700

A child can walk upstairs one step at a time, can ride cycle but can't jump can also speak sentences, can tell his/her name gender but finds difficult to narrate the story.What is her actual developmental age

1 yrs

2

3

4

multi

Ans. b) 2yearsGROSS MOTOR MILESTONES: AgeMilestone3 monthsNeck holding 5 monthsRolls over6monthsSitting suppoed8monthsSitting without suppo9monthsStands with suppo12monthsStands without suppo, Walks but falls15monthsWalks alone, Creeps upstairs18monthsRuns, explores drawers2 yearsWalks upstairs (baby steps), Jumps3 yearsWalks upstairs (alternate feet), rides tricycle4 yearsHops on one foot, walks downstairs (alternate feet)

Pediatrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: dd6f308c-9900-47f6-b41b-978022bb7700question: A child can walk upstairs one step at a time, can ride cycle but can't jump can also speak sentences, can tell his/her name gender but finds difficult to narrate the story.What is her actual developmental ageopa: 1 yrsopb: 2opc: 3opd: 4cop: 1choice_type: multiexp: Ans. b) 2yearsGROSS MOTOR MILESTONES: AgeMilestone3 monthsNeck holding 5 monthsRolls over6monthsSitting suppoed8monthsSitting without suppo9monthsStands with suppo12monthsStands without suppo, Walks but falls15monthsWalks alone, Creeps upstairs18monthsRuns, explores drawers2 yearsWalks upstairs (baby steps), Jumps3 yearsWalks upstairs (alternate feet), rides tricycle4 yearsHops on one foot, walks downstairs (alternate feet)subject_name: Pediatricstopic_name: None

yes

cb6588a7-e4ef-4670-b6aa-7eae297fb443

Exact number of weeks between last menstrual period and expected date of delivery :March 2005

38 weeks

39 weeks

40 weeks

41 weeks

single

Ans. C: 40 weeksChildbih usually occurs about 38 weeks after conception; i.e., approximately 40 weeks from the last normal menstrual period (LNMP).The World Health Organization defines normal term for delivery as between 37 weeks and 42 weeksEDD is calculated by Naegele's ruleAdd 7 days to the first day of the last period and subtract 3 monthsNaegele's rule is based on 28 days regular cycle.If the cycle is shoer or longer than 28 days, EDD will be corrected and written as corrected EDD.Examples:40 days cycle regularly, to get corrected EDD, add 12 days (40-28) with the EDD calculated from LMP.21 days cycle regularly, to get corrected EDD, subtract 7 days (28-21) with the EDD calculated from LMP.

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: cb6588a7-e4ef-4670-b6aa-7eae297fb443question: Exact number of weeks between last menstrual period and expected date of delivery :March 2005opa: 38 weeksopb: 39 weeksopc: 40 weeksopd: 41 weekscop: 2choice_type: singleexp: Ans. C: 40 weeksChildbih usually occurs about 38 weeks after conception; i.e., approximately 40 weeks from the last normal menstrual period (LNMP).The World Health Organization defines normal term for delivery as between 37 weeks and 42 weeksEDD is calculated by Naegele's ruleAdd 7 days to the first day of the last period and subtract 3 monthsNaegele's rule is based on 28 days regular cycle.If the cycle is shoer or longer than 28 days, EDD will be corrected and written as corrected EDD.Examples:40 days cycle regularly, to get corrected EDD, add 12 days (40-28) with the EDD calculated from LMP.21 days cycle regularly, to get corrected EDD, subtract 7 days (28-21) with the EDD calculated from LMP.subject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

0acff0e8-a28e-4c44-ba99-7bf1ea71951f

Chicken pox infection in mother most dangerous for the baby when it occurs at -

14-28 weeks

3 -9 weeks

28-37weeks

8-14weeks

single

Ans. C. 28-37weeksBefore 28 weeks pregnant: there's no evidence you are at increased risk of suffering a miscarriage. However, there's a small risk baby could develop foetal varicella syndrome (FVS). FVS can damage the baby's skin, eyes, legs, arms, brain, bladder or bowel.Between weeks 28 and 36 of pregnancy: the virus stays in the baby's body but doesn't cause any symptoms. However, it may become active again in the first few years of the baby's life, causing shingles.After 36 weeks of pregnancy: baby may be infected and could be born with chickenpox.

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 0acff0e8-a28e-4c44-ba99-7bf1ea71951fquestion: Chicken pox infection in mother most dangerous for the baby when it occurs at -opa: 14-28 weeksopb: 3 -9 weeksopc: 28-37weeksopd: 8-14weekscop: 2choice_type: singleexp: Ans. C. 28-37weeksBefore 28 weeks pregnant: there's no evidence you are at increased risk of suffering a miscarriage. However, there's a small risk baby could develop foetal varicella syndrome (FVS). FVS can damage the baby's skin, eyes, legs, arms, brain, bladder or bowel.Between weeks 28 and 36 of pregnancy: the virus stays in the baby's body but doesn't cause any symptoms. However, it may become active again in the first few years of the baby's life, causing shingles.After 36 weeks of pregnancy: baby may be infected and could be born with chickenpox.subject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

c34c9996-5391-4655-9249-948fe2cb0d2b

Vasopressor of choice in pregnancy is:

Ephedrine

Phenylephrine

Methoxamine

Mephentermine

single

Vasopressor of choice in pregnancy is ephedrine.

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: c34c9996-5391-4655-9249-948fe2cb0d2bquestion: Vasopressor of choice in pregnancy is:opa: Ephedrineopb: Phenylephrineopc: Methoxamineopd: Mephenterminecop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Vasopressor of choice in pregnancy is ephedrine.subject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

3fd17b81-42d6-41dc-915f-d4b612074dc5

When broad-spectrum antibiotics are administered with coumarin anticoagulants, the anticoagulant action may be:

Reduced because of enhanced hepatic drug metabolism

Reduced because of increased protein-binding

Increased because of reduction of vitamin 'K' sources

Increased because of decreased renal excretion of the anticoagulant

single

Pharmacology

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 3fd17b81-42d6-41dc-915f-d4b612074dc5question: When broad-spectrum antibiotics are administered with coumarin anticoagulants, the anticoagulant action may be:opa: Reduced because of enhanced hepatic drug metabolismopb: Reduced because of increased protein-bindingopc: Increased because of reduction of vitamin 'K' sourcesopd: Increased because of decreased renal excretion of the anticoagulantcop: 2choice_type: singleexp: Nonesubject_name: Pharmacologytopic_name: None

yes

6f9ebf7c-17e8-470e-9f14-99a0c17a368c

Most common sequelae due to periventricular leukomalacia –

Spastic diplegia

Spastic quadriplegia

Mental retardation

Seizures

single

Spastic diplegia is commoner in preten-n babies and is associated with periventricular leukomalacia. Periventricular leukomalacia Periventricular leukomalacia is a form of brain injury characterized by the death of white matter near the cerebral ventricles due to damage and softening of brain tissue. Premature infants are at the greatest risk of developing periventricular leulcomalacia. Affected individuals develop : - i)    Motor control problems ii) Other developmental delay iii) Cerebral palsy (especially spastic diplegia) iv) Epilepsy

Pediatrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 6f9ebf7c-17e8-470e-9f14-99a0c17a368cquestion: Most common sequelae due to periventricular leukomalacia –opa: Spastic diplegiaopb: Spastic quadriplegiaopc: Mental retardationopd: Seizurescop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Spastic diplegia is commoner in preten-n babies and is associated with periventricular leukomalacia. Periventricular leukomalacia Periventricular leukomalacia is a form of brain injury characterized by the death of white matter near the cerebral ventricles due to damage and softening of brain tissue. Premature infants are at the greatest risk of developing periventricular leulcomalacia. Affected individuals develop : - i)    Motor control problems ii) Other developmental delay iii) Cerebral palsy (especially spastic diplegia) iv) Epilepsysubject_name: Pediatricstopic_name: None

yes

5d786de9-1f31-4d77-9ef6-9bfefa3f86ba

What should be the position of child during asthmatic attack:

Supine

Semi erect

Erect

Trendelenburg

single

Advocated patient positions: Unconscious patient:; supine position. Foreign body aspiration;: Trendelenburg position. Asthmatic patient;: semi erect position.

Dental

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 5d786de9-1f31-4d77-9ef6-9bfefa3f86baquestion: What should be the position of child during asthmatic attack:opa: Supineopb: Semi erectopc: Erectopd: Trendelenburgcop: 1choice_type: singleexp: Advocated patient positions: Unconscious patient:; supine position. Foreign body aspiration;: Trendelenburg position. Asthmatic patient;: semi erect position.subject_name: Dentaltopic_name: None

yes

a3254f11-cbb8-4b34-b1fa-db125225541f

A patient on amphotericin B develops hypokalemia of 2.3 meq/l. K+ supplementation required?

40 mEq over 24 hours

60 mEq over 24 hours

80 mEq over 24 hours

120-160 mEq over 24 hours

single

Ans. d. 120-160 mEq over 24 hoursExcept in unusual circumstances, the total amount of potassium administered daily should not exceed 200 mEq.Potassium SupplementationA prudent protocol to follow is to add potassium chloride to IV solutions at a final concentration of 40-60 mEq/L and to administer no more than 10-20 mEq/L of potassium per hourExcept in unusual circumstances, the total amount of potassium administered daily should not exceed 200 mEq.IV potassium replacement is indicated for patients with severe hypokalemia and for those who can not take oral supplementation.For severe deficiency, potassium may be given through a peripheral IV line in a concentration that should exceed 40 mEq/L, at the rates upto 40 mEq/L/Hour.Continuous ECG monitoring is indicated and the serum potassium levels should be checked every 3-6 hours.For the initial administration, avoid glucose containing fluid to prevent fuher shift of potassium intothe cells. .Magnesium deficiency also needs to be corrected at the same time, paicularly in refractory hypokalemia

Medicine

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: a3254f11-cbb8-4b34-b1fa-db125225541fquestion: A patient on amphotericin B develops hypokalemia of 2.3 meq/l. K+ supplementation required?opa: 40 mEq over 24 hoursopb: 60 mEq over 24 hoursopc: 80 mEq over 24 hoursopd: 120-160 mEq over 24 hourscop: 3choice_type: singleexp: Ans. d. 120-160 mEq over 24 hoursExcept in unusual circumstances, the total amount of potassium administered daily should not exceed 200 mEq.Potassium SupplementationA prudent protocol to follow is to add potassium chloride to IV solutions at a final concentration of 40-60 mEq/L and to administer no more than 10-20 mEq/L of potassium per hourExcept in unusual circumstances, the total amount of potassium administered daily should not exceed 200 mEq.IV potassium replacement is indicated for patients with severe hypokalemia and for those who can not take oral supplementation.For severe deficiency, potassium may be given through a peripheral IV line in a concentration that should exceed 40 mEq/L, at the rates upto 40 mEq/L/Hour.Continuous ECG monitoring is indicated and the serum potassium levels should be checked every 3-6 hours.For the initial administration, avoid glucose containing fluid to prevent fuher shift of potassium intothe cells. .Magnesium deficiency also needs to be corrected at the same time, paicularly in refractory hypokalemiasubject_name: Medicinetopic_name: None

yes

645de065-8ca4-48b5-b6c5-0b5894eca245

Essential fatty acid present in breast milk which is required for normal growth of child is:

Lenoleic acid

Palmitic acid

Docosahexanoic acid

EPA

single

DOCOSA HEXAENOIC ACID (DHA) Sources: Human milk, Fish liver oils, Algal oils Synthesized in the body from α Linolenic acid. Highest  concentration  of  DHA  found  in  retina,  cerebral  cortex, sperms. Functions: Needed for the development of fetal brain and retina DHA is supplied transplacentally and through breast milk. Clinical significance: Low DHA is associated with increased risk of Retinitis Pigmentosa.

Biochemistry

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 645de065-8ca4-48b5-b6c5-0b5894eca245question: Essential fatty acid present in breast milk which is required for normal growth of child is:opa: Lenoleic acidopb: Palmitic acidopc: Docosahexanoic acidopd: EPAcop: 2choice_type: singleexp: DOCOSA HEXAENOIC ACID (DHA) Sources: Human milk, Fish liver oils, Algal oils Synthesized in the body from α Linolenic acid. Highest  concentration  of  DHA  found  in  retina,  cerebral  cortex, sperms. Functions: Needed for the development of fetal brain and retina DHA is supplied transplacentally and through breast milk. Clinical significance: Low DHA is associated with increased risk of Retinitis Pigmentosa.subject_name: Biochemistrytopic_name: None

yes

12f0cd05-7053-437d-8c8d-edc889a21004

While measuring blood pressure of a cardiac tamponade patient, what advice will you give him:

Hold breath

Breathe normally

I.ong and deep breathing

Sho and shallow breaths

multi

Ans. b. Breath normallyParadoxus requires the patient to breathe normally and does not require any special maneuver.BP is best measured in the seated position with the arm at the level of thehea, using an appropriately sized cuff, after 5-10 minutes of relaxation.In Supine position: The arm should be raised to bring it to level of mid-tight atrium.

Medicine

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 12f0cd05-7053-437d-8c8d-edc889a21004question: While measuring blood pressure of a cardiac tamponade patient, what advice will you give him:opa: Hold breathopb: Breathe normallyopc: I.ong and deep breathingopd: Sho and shallow breathscop: 1choice_type: multiexp: Ans. b. Breath normallyParadoxus requires the patient to breathe normally and does not require any special maneuver.BP is best measured in the seated position with the arm at the level of thehea, using an appropriately sized cuff, after 5-10 minutes of relaxation.In Supine position: The arm should be raised to bring it to level of mid-tight atrium.subject_name: Medicinetopic_name: None

yes

040b2ed8-9b17-4749-8191-2fcc6ead4f73

Stoppage of which of the following drugs can result in anxiety and insomnia causing discontinuation syndrome?

Venlafaxine

ImiPramine

Valproate

OlanzaPine

single

Ans: A. VenlafaxineRef: Katzung, I3'h ed., pg. 524-525 and Goodman & Gilman, l3'h ed-, pg. 27372.Sudden withdrawal of Shoer acting antidepressants paicularly SSRIs (paroxetine and seraline) and SNRI (venlafaxine) can lead to discontinuation syndrome and troublesome side effects.These symptoms may include dizziness, headache, nervousness, nausea, anxiety and insomnia.Out of the options provided Venlafaxine is the best answer.

Pharmacology

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 040b2ed8-9b17-4749-8191-2fcc6ead4f73question: Stoppage of which of the following drugs can result in anxiety and insomnia causing discontinuation syndrome?opa: Venlafaxineopb: ImiPramineopc: Valproateopd: OlanzaPinecop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Ans: A. VenlafaxineRef: Katzung, I3'h ed., pg. 524-525 and Goodman & Gilman, l3'h ed-, pg. 27372.Sudden withdrawal of Shoer acting antidepressants paicularly SSRIs (paroxetine and seraline) and SNRI (venlafaxine) can lead to discontinuation syndrome and troublesome side effects.These symptoms may include dizziness, headache, nervousness, nausea, anxiety and insomnia.Out of the options provided Venlafaxine is the best answer.subject_name: Pharmacologytopic_name: None

yes

4080f3a3-a88c-4bcb-a8a3-2add0483fca0

Which score is used for wound infection

Glasgow coma scale

Southampton score

Apgar score

SIRS score

single

Answer- B. Southampton scoreSouthampton score and ASEPSIS criteria are used for wound infection.There are scoring systems for the severity of wound infection, which are paicularly useful in surveillance and research.Examples are the Southampton and ASEPSIS systemsGradeAppearance0Normal healingINormal healing with mild bruising or erythemaIaSome bruisingIbConsiderable bruisingIcMild erythemaIIErythema plus other signs of inflammationIIaAt one pointIIbAround suturesIIcAlong woundIIdAround woundIIIClear or haemoserous dischargeIIIaAt one point only (IIIbAlong wound (>2 cm)IIIcLarge-volumeIIIdProlonged (>3 days) Major complicationsIVPusIVaAt one point only (IVbAlong wound (>2 cm)VDeep or severe wound infection with or without tissuebreakdown; hematoma requiring aspiration

Surgery

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 4080f3a3-a88c-4bcb-a8a3-2add0483fca0question: Which score is used for wound infectionopa: Glasgow coma scaleopb: Southampton scoreopc: Apgar scoreopd: SIRS scorecop: 1choice_type: singleexp: Answer- B. Southampton scoreSouthampton score and ASEPSIS criteria are used for wound infection.There are scoring systems for the severity of wound infection, which are paicularly useful in surveillance and research.Examples are the Southampton and ASEPSIS systemsGradeAppearance0Normal healingINormal healing with mild bruising or erythemaIaSome bruisingIbConsiderable bruisingIcMild erythemaIIErythema plus other signs of inflammationIIaAt one pointIIbAround suturesIIcAlong woundIIdAround woundIIIClear or haemoserous dischargeIIIaAt one point only (IIIbAlong wound (>2 cm)IIIcLarge-volumeIIIdProlonged (>3 days) Major complicationsIVPusIVaAt one point only (IVbAlong wound (>2 cm)VDeep or severe wound infection with or without tissuebreakdown; hematoma requiring aspirationsubject_name: Surgerytopic_name: None

yes

68d5b275-e544-4393-9c77-8e801e483a33

A type of immediately occurring reaction in which antigens combine with antibodies already attached to the surface of mast cells and basophils is called:

Type I hypersensitivity

Type II hypersensitivity

Type III hypersensitivity

Type IV hypersensitivity

multi

Microbiology

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 68d5b275-e544-4393-9c77-8e801e483a33question: A type of immediately occurring reaction in which antigens combine with antibodies already attached to the surface of mast cells and basophils is called:opa: Type I hypersensitivityopb: Type II hypersensitivityopc: Type III hypersensitivityopd: Type IV hypersensitivitycop: 0choice_type: multiexp: Nonesubject_name: Microbiologytopic_name: None

yes

ec8aaefa-2e2d-4d4a-a84e-8f9d95918c25

Pre eclampsia with torsades de pointes, stable vitals. The next best management will be-

DC shock

MgSo4

IV Calcium

None

multi

Ans. B. MgSo4MgSo4 is Indicated to prevent seizures associated with pre-eclampsia, and for control of seizures with eclampsia4-5 g (diluted in 250 mL NS/D5W) IV in combination with either (a) up to 10 g (20 mL of undiluted 50% solution) divided and administered IM into each buttock or (b) after initial IV dose, 1-2 g/hr IV; (c) May administer q. 4hr as necessary.

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: ec8aaefa-2e2d-4d4a-a84e-8f9d95918c25question: Pre eclampsia with torsades de pointes, stable vitals. The next best management will be-opa: DC shockopb: MgSo4opc: IV Calciumopd: Nonecop: 1choice_type: multiexp: Ans. B. MgSo4MgSo4 is Indicated to prevent seizures associated with pre-eclampsia, and for control of seizures with eclampsia4-5 g (diluted in 250 mL NS/D5W) IV in combination with either (a) up to 10 g (20 mL of undiluted 50% solution) divided and administered IM into each buttock or (b) after initial IV dose, 1-2 g/hr IV; (c) May administer q. 4hr as necessary.subject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

3e736802-2e0b-405c-b429-eac535efb755

Anti D is required in all cases except

Aboion at 63 days

Manual removal of placenta

Amniocentesis of 16 Weeks

Intrauterine transfusion at 28 weeks

multi

Anti D prophylaxis administered in : Invasive prenatal diagnosis - eg, amniocentesis, chronic villus biopsy Antepaum hemorrhage External cephalic version of the fetus Ectopic pregnancy Evacuation of molar pregnancy Intrauterine death and stillbih Intrauterine procedures (inseion of shunts, embryo reduction) Therapeutic termination of pregnancy Delivery - Normal, instrumental or caesarean section

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

AIIMS 2019

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 3e736802-2e0b-405c-b429-eac535efb755question: Anti D is required in all cases exceptopa: Aboion at 63 daysopb: Manual removal of placentaopc: Amniocentesis of 16 Weeksopd: Intrauterine transfusion at 28 weekscop: 3choice_type: multiexp: Anti D prophylaxis administered in : Invasive prenatal diagnosis - eg, amniocentesis, chronic villus biopsy Antepaum hemorrhage External cephalic version of the fetus Ectopic pregnancy Evacuation of molar pregnancy Intrauterine death and stillbih Intrauterine procedures (inseion of shunts, embryo reduction) Therapeutic termination of pregnancy Delivery - Normal, instrumental or caesarean sectionsubject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: AIIMS 2019

yes

b0db4fac-bf20-4a54-8efa-0ff926e03a9b

Polyglycolic acid suture material ("vicryl/Dexon") is an:

Absorbable natural suture

Absorbable synthetic suture

Non-absorbable natural suture

Non absorbable synthetic suture

single

Surgery

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: b0db4fac-bf20-4a54-8efa-0ff926e03a9bquestion: Polyglycolic acid suture material ("vicryl/Dexon") is an:opa: Absorbable natural sutureopb: Absorbable synthetic sutureopc: Non-absorbable natural sutureopd: Non absorbable synthetic suturecop: 1choice_type: singleexp: Nonesubject_name: Surgerytopic_name: None

yes

48979fea-5d39-4c8f-ae13-8dc9421c2288

RBC should be transfused:

With a 18-20 G needle within 4 hours of receiving at the patient's side

With a 18-20 G needle within 4 hours of receiving at the patient's side

With a 20-22 G needle within 4 hours of issue from the blood bank

With a 20-22 G needle within 4 hours of receiving at the patient's side

single

Ans: C(Ref: WHO Clinical Transfusion Guidelines/p22).RBCs should he transfused with 18-20 G needle within 4 hours of issue from the blood bank.Sta infusion within 30 min of removing pack from refrigerator and complete the infusion within 4 hours.An 18-gauge needle is standard, but a needle or catheter as small as 23-gauge can be used for transfusion if necessary within 4 hours of issue from the blood bank.

Pathology

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 48979fea-5d39-4c8f-ae13-8dc9421c2288question: RBC should be transfused:opa: With a 18-20 G needle within 4 hours of receiving at the patient's sideopb: With a 18-20 G needle within 4 hours of receiving at the patient's sideopc: With a 20-22 G needle within 4 hours of issue from the blood bankopd: With a 20-22 G needle within 4 hours of receiving at the patient's sidecop: 2choice_type: singleexp: Ans: C(Ref: WHO Clinical Transfusion Guidelines/p22).RBCs should he transfused with 18-20 G needle within 4 hours of issue from the blood bank.Sta infusion within 30 min of removing pack from refrigerator and complete the infusion within 4 hours.An 18-gauge needle is standard, but a needle or catheter as small as 23-gauge can be used for transfusion if necessary within 4 hours of issue from the blood bank.subject_name: Pathologytopic_name: None

yes

fa73f211-d8c8-4926-910b-d8a1f5444208

4 day old breastfed neonate, otherwise well, term neonate presented with jaundice, on testing the bilirubin level was found to be 18 mg/dl. Which of the following is the best step of management?

Sta phototherapy and continue breast feeding

Sta iv fluids and given phototherapy

Initiate exchange transfusion

Stop breast feeding and do phototherapy

multi

Use total bilirubin. Do not subtract direct reacting or conjugated bilirubin. Risk factors = isoimmune hemolytic disease, G6PD deficiency, asphyxia, significant lethargy, Temperature instability, sepsis, acidosis, or albumin <3.0 g/d (if measured) For well infants 35-47 6/7 wk can adjust TSB levels for intervention around the medium risk line. It is an option to intervene at lower TSB levels for infatns closer to 35 weeks and at higher TSB levels for those closer to 37 6/7 wk. It is an option to provide conventional phototherapy in hospital or at home at TSB levels 2-3 mg/dL (35 - 50 mmol/L) below those shown but home phototherapy should not be used in any infant with risk factors. Cut off for phototherapy in 4-day old neonate is 19-20 mg/dl The dashed lines for the first 24 hours indicate unceainly due to a wide range of clinical circumstances and a range of responses to phototherapy. Immediate exchange transfusion is recommended if infant shows signs of acute bilirubin encephalopathy (hypeonia, arching, retrocollis, opisthotonos, fever, high pitched cry) or IF TSB is > 5 mg/dL (85mmol/L) abvoe these lines. Risk factors - isoimmune hemolytic disease, GPD deficiency, asphyxia, significant lethargy, temperature instability, sepsis, acidosis. Measure serum albumin and calculate B/A ratio (see legend) Use total bilirubin. Do not subtract direct reacting or conjugated bilirubin. It infant is well and 36-37 6/7 wk (median risk) can individualize TSB levels for exchange based on actual gestational age. Cut off for exchange transfusion in 4-day old neonate is 25mg/dl For otherwise well term neonate- Age Phototherapy cut off Exchange transfusion cut off 24 to 48 hrs. >15 mg/dl >20 mg/dl 48 to 72 hrs. >18 mg/dl >25mg/dl >72 hrs. >20mg/dl >25mg/dl

Pediatrics

AIIMS 2017

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: fa73f211-d8c8-4926-910b-d8a1f5444208question: 4 day old breastfed neonate, otherwise well, term neonate presented with jaundice, on testing the bilirubin level was found to be 18 mg/dl. Which of the following is the best step of management?opa: Sta phototherapy and continue breast feedingopb: Sta iv fluids and given phototherapyopc: Initiate exchange transfusionopd: Stop breast feeding and do phototherapycop: 0choice_type: multiexp: Use total bilirubin. Do not subtract direct reacting or conjugated bilirubin. Risk factors = isoimmune hemolytic disease, G6PD deficiency, asphyxia, significant lethargy, Temperature instability, sepsis, acidosis, or albumin <3.0 g/d (if measured) For well infants 35-47 6/7 wk can adjust TSB levels for intervention around the medium risk line. It is an option to intervene at lower TSB levels for infatns closer to 35 weeks and at higher TSB levels for those closer to 37 6/7 wk. It is an option to provide conventional phototherapy in hospital or at home at TSB levels 2-3 mg/dL (35 - 50 mmol/L) below those shown but home phototherapy should not be used in any infant with risk factors. Cut off for phototherapy in 4-day old neonate is 19-20 mg/dl The dashed lines for the first 24 hours indicate unceainly due to a wide range of clinical circumstances and a range of responses to phototherapy. Immediate exchange transfusion is recommended if infant shows signs of acute bilirubin encephalopathy (hypeonia, arching, retrocollis, opisthotonos, fever, high pitched cry) or IF TSB is > 5 mg/dL (85mmol/L) abvoe these lines. Risk factors - isoimmune hemolytic disease, GPD deficiency, asphyxia, significant lethargy, temperature instability, sepsis, acidosis. Measure serum albumin and calculate B/A ratio (see legend) Use total bilirubin. Do not subtract direct reacting or conjugated bilirubin. It infant is well and 36-37 6/7 wk (median risk) can individualize TSB levels for exchange based on actual gestational age. Cut off for exchange transfusion in 4-day old neonate is 25mg/dl For otherwise well term neonate- Age Phototherapy cut off Exchange transfusion cut off 24 to 48 hrs. >15 mg/dl >20 mg/dl 48 to 72 hrs. >18 mg/dl >25mg/dl >72 hrs. >20mg/dl >25mg/dlsubject_name: Pediatricstopic_name: AIIMS 2017

yes

059b7c1c-bc8d-499d-ba18-42f173fc6501

In a patient with dengue hemorrhagic fever, which of the following is most impoant to monitor?

Hemoglobin

TLC

Platelet count

Hematocrit

single

Ans: D. Hematocrit(Ref: Harrison 19/e p1319, 1322)In a patient with dengue hemorrhagic fever (DHF), hematocrit is most impoant parameter to monitor. Diagnosis of DHF needs the presence of rise in hematocrit 420% or more i.e. Hemoconcentration.Despite the name, the critical feature that distinguishes DHF from dengue fever is not hemorrhaging, but rather plasma leakage resulting from increased vascular permeability

Medicine

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 059b7c1c-bc8d-499d-ba18-42f173fc6501question: In a patient with dengue hemorrhagic fever, which of the following is most impoant to monitor?opa: Hemoglobinopb: TLCopc: Platelet countopd: Hematocritcop: 3choice_type: singleexp: Ans: D. Hematocrit(Ref: Harrison 19/e p1319, 1322)In a patient with dengue hemorrhagic fever (DHF), hematocrit is most impoant parameter to monitor. Diagnosis of DHF needs the presence of rise in hematocrit 420% or more i.e. Hemoconcentration.Despite the name, the critical feature that distinguishes DHF from dengue fever is not hemorrhaging, but rather plasma leakage resulting from increased vascular permeabilitysubject_name: Medicinetopic_name: None

yes

666e12f6-d2f8-4ba5-97ff-1078dc287def

A nurse got accidental prick from the HIV infected needle. Which of the following statements is false regarding the management of this nurse?

Zidovudine is used as monotherapy for post-exposure prophylaxis

Washing hands with soap and water is advised

Baseline viral markers of health care personnel should be done at the time of presentation

Follow up viral markers of health care personnel should be measured at 6 weeks

multi

Post exposure prophylaxisTreatment should be staed within 72 hours of exposure, preferably as early as possible At first the wound is washed with soap and water. Secondly before initiating drug therapy blood samples are taken to measure the baseline viral markers Then three drug therapy is given for 28 days. The drugs include 2 NI PLUS a protease inhibitor (or alternative drug). Commonly used therapy include Tenofovir + Lamivudine + Atazanavir/r After 6 weeks again viral markers are measured to check for the infection. Post-exposure prophylaxis of HIV infection For adults and adolescents Preferred 2 NI: Tenofovir (300 mg) + Emtricitabine (200 mg) daily Preferred PI: Lopinavir/r (400 + 100 mg) or Atazanavir/r (300 + 100 mg) daily Alternative 3rd drug: Darunavir/r (600 + 100 mg BD) or Raltegravir/r (400 mg BD) or Eirenz (600 mg daily) For children <= 10 years Preferred 2 NI: Zidovudine + Lamivudine Alternative 3rd drug: Atazanavir/r or Darunavir/r or Eirenz or Raltegravir Preferred PI: Lopinavir Alternative 3rd drug: Atazanavir/r or Darunavir/r or Eirenz or Raltegravir Duration of regimen: 4 weeks

Pharmacology

AIIMS 2019

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 666e12f6-d2f8-4ba5-97ff-1078dc287defquestion: A nurse got accidental prick from the HIV infected needle. Which of the following statements is false regarding the management of this nurse?opa: Zidovudine is used as monotherapy for post-exposure prophylaxisopb: Washing hands with soap and water is advisedopc: Baseline viral markers of health care personnel should be done at the time of presentationopd: Follow up viral markers of health care personnel should be measured at 6 weekscop: 0choice_type: multiexp: Post exposure prophylaxisTreatment should be staed within 72 hours of exposure, preferably as early as possible At first the wound is washed with soap and water. Secondly before initiating drug therapy blood samples are taken to measure the baseline viral markers Then three drug therapy is given for 28 days. The drugs include 2 NI PLUS a protease inhibitor (or alternative drug). Commonly used therapy include Tenofovir + Lamivudine + Atazanavir/r After 6 weeks again viral markers are measured to check for the infection. Post-exposure prophylaxis of HIV infection For adults and adolescents Preferred 2 NI: Tenofovir (300 mg) + Emtricitabine (200 mg) daily Preferred PI: Lopinavir/r (400 + 100 mg) or Atazanavir/r (300 + 100 mg) daily Alternative 3rd drug: Darunavir/r (600 + 100 mg BD) or Raltegravir/r (400 mg BD) or Eirenz (600 mg daily) For children <= 10 years Preferred 2 NI: Zidovudine + Lamivudine Alternative 3rd drug: Atazanavir/r or Darunavir/r or Eirenz or Raltegravir Preferred PI: Lopinavir Alternative 3rd drug: Atazanavir/r or Darunavir/r or Eirenz or Raltegravir Duration of regimen: 4 weekssubject_name: Pharmacologytopic_name: AIIMS 2019

yes

7f6a2842-7816-4a42-821c-d6e066a36fb4

If untreated, percentage of mother to child transmission of HIV during delivery without intervention in a non-breast fed child is:

40-50%

10-15%

15-30%

5%

single

Answer- C. 15-30%'In the absence of any intervention, an estimated 15-30% of mothers with HIY infection will transmit the infection duringprcgnsncy and delivery. and 10-20% will transmit the infection, through breast feeding. Veical transmission of IIIV-Loccurs mostly during the intrapaum period (50-70%).'- COGDT l0/e p692

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 7f6a2842-7816-4a42-821c-d6e066a36fb4question: If untreated, percentage of mother to child transmission of HIV during delivery without intervention in a non-breast fed child is:opa: 40-50%opb: 10-15%opc: 15-30%opd: 5%cop: 2choice_type: singleexp: Answer- C. 15-30%'In the absence of any intervention, an estimated 15-30% of mothers with HIY infection will transmit the infection duringprcgnsncy and delivery. and 10-20% will transmit the infection, through breast feeding. Veical transmission of IIIV-Loccurs mostly during the intrapaum period (50-70%).'- COGDT l0/e p692subject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

46b87f53-f447-40b1-a0c0-85334ad9d9e7

What are the cut-off values in 2 hours oral glucose tolerance test for fasting and at 1 hour and 2 hours after meals respectively?

92, 182, 155

92, 180, 153

95, 180, 155

92, 180, 155

single

Ans: B. 92, 180, 153(Ref Williams 24/e p1137)Cut-off values in 2 hours oral glucose tolerance test for fasting and at 1 hour & 2 hours after meals respectively.Diagnosis of Gestational Diabetes by Oral Glucose Tolerance TestingTime 75-gm GlucoseFasting92 mg/dL5.1 mmol/L1-hour180 mg/dL10.0 mmol/L2-hours153 mg/dL8.5 mmol/L

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 46b87f53-f447-40b1-a0c0-85334ad9d9e7question: What are the cut-off values in 2 hours oral glucose tolerance test for fasting and at 1 hour and 2 hours after meals respectively?opa: 92, 182, 155opb: 92, 180, 153opc: 95, 180, 155opd: 92, 180, 155cop: 1choice_type: singleexp: Ans: B. 92, 180, 153(Ref Williams 24/e p1137)Cut-off values in 2 hours oral glucose tolerance test for fasting and at 1 hour & 2 hours after meals respectively.Diagnosis of Gestational Diabetes by Oral Glucose Tolerance TestingTime 75-gm GlucoseFasting92 mg/dL5.1 mmol/L1-hour180 mg/dL10.0 mmol/L2-hours153 mg/dL8.5 mmol/Lsubject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

1b7a2a1c-6321-4541-b649-7db8418c38da

Cephalosporin active against pseudomonas aeruginosa

Cefoperazone

Cefaclor

Ceftriaxone

Cefotaxime

single

Pharmacology

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 1b7a2a1c-6321-4541-b649-7db8418c38daquestion: Cephalosporin active against pseudomonas aeruginosaopa: Cefoperazoneopb: Cefacloropc: Ceftriaxoneopd: Cefotaximecop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Nonesubject_name: Pharmacologytopic_name: None

yes

08773184-d813-48bd-b8ac-fdcaab87d67c

A child with tetralogy of fallot uses which of the following positions –

Supine

Prone

Squatting

Leaning forwards

multi

The patients of TOF assume a sitting posture (squatting) as soon as they get dyspneic. TOF is the commonest congenital lesion in which squatting is noted.

Pediatrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 08773184-d813-48bd-b8ac-fdcaab87d67cquestion: A child with tetralogy of fallot uses which of the following positions –opa: Supineopb: Proneopc: Squattingopd: Leaning forwardscop: 2choice_type: multiexp: The patients of TOF assume a sitting posture (squatting) as soon as they get dyspneic. TOF is the commonest congenital lesion in which squatting is noted.subject_name: Pediatricstopic_name: None

yes

de803c1d-d6b5-49b1-ba45-ed4abe3ec0ef

Following renal disorder is associated with worst pregnancy outcome:

Systemic lupus erythromatosus

IgA nephropathy

Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease

Scleroderma

single

Prognostic indicators in renal disease and pregnancy: Most reliable prognostic indicator of the outcome of pregnancy is the presence of hypertension. The fetal prognosis for women with chronic renal disease is favorable as long as they do not develop superimposed preeclampsia. Second to hypertension, the most valuable prognostic index for patients with chronic renal disease during pregnancy is the degree of renal function impairment: – In patients with normal or only midly impaired renal function, pregnancy does not accelerate renal damage – In patients with moderate renal insufficiency (serum creatinine of 1.4 mg/dL or greater before pregnancy or creatinine clearance <30 ml/min. there is a decline in renal function during pregnancy). Another important prognostic sign is the presence or absence of proteinuria. As a general rule, if the patient has 2+ or more protein in qualitative tests or 3 g or more in 24 hours urine collections at the beginning of pregnancy, the tendency will be toward increased protein losses and development of nephritic syndrome during pregnancy. The histologic characteristics of the renal lesion also have prognostic value.

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: de803c1d-d6b5-49b1-ba45-ed4abe3ec0efquestion: Following renal disorder is associated with worst pregnancy outcome:opa: Systemic lupus erythromatosusopb: IgA nephropathyopc: Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney diseaseopd: Sclerodermacop: 3choice_type: singleexp: Prognostic indicators in renal disease and pregnancy: Most reliable prognostic indicator of the outcome of pregnancy is the presence of hypertension. The fetal prognosis for women with chronic renal disease is favorable as long as they do not develop superimposed preeclampsia. Second to hypertension, the most valuable prognostic index for patients with chronic renal disease during pregnancy is the degree of renal function impairment: – In patients with normal or only midly impaired renal function, pregnancy does not accelerate renal damage – In patients with moderate renal insufficiency (serum creatinine of 1.4 mg/dL or greater before pregnancy or creatinine clearance <30 ml/min. there is a decline in renal function during pregnancy). Another important prognostic sign is the presence or absence of proteinuria. As a general rule, if the patient has 2+ or more protein in qualitative tests or 3 g or more in 24 hours urine collections at the beginning of pregnancy, the tendency will be toward increased protein losses and development of nephritic syndrome during pregnancy. The histologic characteristics of the renal lesion also have prognostic value.subject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

77997eca-fce9-4840-916d-b373c61c411d

IV loading dose of MgSo4 prophylaxis in pre-eclampsia?

8ml MgSo4+10ml of NS

10ml MgSo4+10ml of NS

8ml MgSo4+12ml of NS

12ml MgSo4+8 ml of NS

single

Ans. C.8ml MgSo4+12ml of NSDose: 4-5 g (diluted in 250 mL NS/D5W) IV in combination with either :Up to 10 g (10 mL of undiluted 50% solution) divided and administered IM into each buttock orAfter initial IV dose, 1-3 g/hr IV.MgSO4 is continued 24 hours after delivery to prevent postpaum eclampsia

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 77997eca-fce9-4840-916d-b373c61c411dquestion: IV loading dose of MgSo4 prophylaxis in pre-eclampsia?opa: 8ml MgSo4+10ml of NSopb: 10ml MgSo4+10ml of NSopc: 8ml MgSo4+12ml of NSopd: 12ml MgSo4+8 ml of NScop: 2choice_type: singleexp: Ans. C.8ml MgSo4+12ml of NSDose: 4-5 g (diluted in 250 mL NS/D5W) IV in combination with either :Up to 10 g (10 mL of undiluted 50% solution) divided and administered IM into each buttock orAfter initial IV dose, 1-3 g/hr IV.MgSO4 is continued 24 hours after delivery to prevent postpaum eclampsiasubject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

00b083b3-b213-4b45-bbc4-301c4156576c

Which of the following is not true about latent phase of labour?

According to ACOG it stas after 3-4 cm cervical dilatation but they are planning to increase it to 5 cm

Begins at the end of active phase and is a pa of 1st stage of labour

Patient may present with false labour due to mild cramps

Stas with contractions of the uterus

multi

Answer- C. Patient may present with false labour due to mild crampsIt stas at the point at which mother perceives true labour pains and ends when cervix is 3cm dilated and 1.5 cm/hour for parous cervix.Duration in nulliparous is 6-8 hours and 5.3 hours in multiparous (average 4-6 hours).Mainly concerned with cervical effacement

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 00b083b3-b213-4b45-bbc4-301c4156576cquestion: Which of the following is not true about latent phase of labour?opa: According to ACOG it stas after 3-4 cm cervical dilatation but they are planning to increase it to 5 cmopb: Begins at the end of active phase and is a pa of 1st stage of labouropc: Patient may present with false labour due to mild crampsopd: Stas with contractions of the uteruscop: 2choice_type: multiexp: Answer- C. Patient may present with false labour due to mild crampsIt stas at the point at which mother perceives true labour pains and ends when cervix is 3cm dilated and 1.5 cm/hour for parous cervix.Duration in nulliparous is 6-8 hours and 5.3 hours in multiparous (average 4-6 hours).Mainly concerned with cervical effacementsubject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

a9b0fecd-41ee-4e52-87a9-12e7048e6615

Asseion: In a patient admitted to hospital for community acquired pneumonia, combination therapy of beta lactams and azithromycin is given.Reason : This combination covers gram positive organisms and anaerobes.

Both reason and asseion are true

Asseion is true but reason is false.

Asseion is true but reason is paially true for asseion

Both asseion & reason are not true.

multi

Ans. B. Asseion is true but reason is false.* Combination is given to cover atypical bacteria.* The CDC and others recommend outpatient oral empirical antibiotics with a macrolide, doxycycline, or an oral betalactam (amoxicillin, cefuroxime , or amoxicillin/clavulanate ) or inpatient treatment with an intravenous betalactam (cefuroxime, ceftriaxone , cefotaxime ) or a combination of ampicillin/sulbactam (Unasyn) with a macrolide

Pharmacology

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: a9b0fecd-41ee-4e52-87a9-12e7048e6615question: Asseion: In a patient admitted to hospital for community acquired pneumonia, combination therapy of beta lactams and azithromycin is given.Reason : This combination covers gram positive organisms and anaerobes.opa: Both reason and asseion are trueopb: Asseion is true but reason is false.opc: Asseion is true but reason is paially true for asseionopd: Both asseion & reason are not true.cop: 1choice_type: multiexp: Ans. B. Asseion is true but reason is false.* Combination is given to cover atypical bacteria.* The CDC and others recommend outpatient oral empirical antibiotics with a macrolide, doxycycline, or an oral betalactam (amoxicillin, cefuroxime , or amoxicillin/clavulanate ) or inpatient treatment with an intravenous betalactam (cefuroxime, ceftriaxone , cefotaxime ) or a combination of ampicillin/sulbactam (Unasyn) with a macrolidesubject_name: Pharmacologytopic_name: None

yes

69a34f1e-09bd-4364-b763-f28c6ddf772a

All of the following are true about lumbar puncture except:

Level of needle inseion should be L I -L2 veebral junction

The bevel end of needle should face up

Needle should be inseed in a slightly cephalad direction

Legs should be straightened for CSF pressure measurement

multi

Ans: A. Level of needle inseion should be L I -L2 veebral junction(Ref: Harrison 19Ie p443-e2)The spinal cord ends at L3 veebrae in children and L1 in adults.With a safe margin, lumbar puncture should be performed at L3-L4 or L4-L5 interspace.A useful anatomic guide is a line drawn between the posterior superior iliac crests, which corresponds closely to the level of the L3--L4 interspace.The interspace is chosen following gentle palpation to identify the spinous processes at each lumbar level.The LP needle (typically 20- to 22-gauge) is inseed in the midline, midway between two spinous processes, and slowly advanced.The bevel of the needle should be maintained in a horizontal position, parallel to the direction of the dural fibers and with the flat poion of the bevel pointed upward; this minimizes injury to the fibers as the dura is penetrated.

Anaesthesia

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 69a34f1e-09bd-4364-b763-f28c6ddf772aquestion: All of the following are true about lumbar puncture except:opa: Level of needle inseion should be L I -L2 veebral junctionopb: The bevel end of needle should face upopc: Needle should be inseed in a slightly cephalad directionopd: Legs should be straightened for CSF pressure measurementcop: 0choice_type: multiexp: Ans: A. Level of needle inseion should be L I -L2 veebral junction(Ref: Harrison 19Ie p443-e2)The spinal cord ends at L3 veebrae in children and L1 in adults.With a safe margin, lumbar puncture should be performed at L3-L4 or L4-L5 interspace.A useful anatomic guide is a line drawn between the posterior superior iliac crests, which corresponds closely to the level of the L3--L4 interspace.The interspace is chosen following gentle palpation to identify the spinous processes at each lumbar level.The LP needle (typically 20- to 22-gauge) is inseed in the midline, midway between two spinous processes, and slowly advanced.The bevel of the needle should be maintained in a horizontal position, parallel to the direction of the dural fibers and with the flat poion of the bevel pointed upward; this minimizes injury to the fibers as the dura is penetrated.subject_name: Anaesthesiatopic_name: None

yes

ba4a3d15-f1cf-4072-b836-ecf2785657e3

Which does not cross placenta:

Heparin

Morphine

Naloxone

Warfarin

single

Heparin does not cross placenta and is safe during pregnancy. It is the drug of choice for the management and prophylaxis of venous thromboembolism during pregnancy.

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: ba4a3d15-f1cf-4072-b836-ecf2785657e3question: Which does not cross placenta:opa: Heparinopb: Morphineopc: Naloxoneopd: Warfarincop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Heparin does not cross placenta and is safe during pregnancy. It is the drug of choice for the management and prophylaxis of venous thromboembolism during pregnancy.subject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

5029ecd7-0f3f-495a-b662-b45589a2f9d7

A baby is born with meconium stained liquor which of the following is taken account of in terming a baby vigorous except –

Tone

Colour

HR

Respiration

multi

Resuscitation of neonate born through meconium-stained liquer (MSL) When baby passes meconium in utero, there is a chance that the mecomium will be aspirated into infant's mouth and potentially into the trachea and lungs. Appropriate steps must be taken immediately after delivery to reduce the risk of serious consequences resulting from aspiration of meconium. Intrapartum nasopharyngeal suctioning just after the delivery of head is no longer recommended as it does not reduce the risk of meconium aspiration syndrome and, on rare occasions, may cause nasophagngeal trauma or a cardiac arrhythmia. The first step after delivery is to identify whether the newborn is vigrous or non-vigrous : - A) Vigrous newborn A newborn is classified as vigrous, if he has all the three signs are present : - Strong respiratory effort Good muscle tone Heart rate greater than 100 The vigrous child does not require any tracheal suctioning and the usual initial steps of resuscitation are provided, i.e., provide warniith, positioning, suctioning of mouth and nose (not tracheal suctioning); Dry, stimulate and 02 if necessary. B) Non-vigrous newborn If any of the above three signs is present, the newborn is classified as non-vigrous. For non-vigrous child, the initial steps are modified : - Place the baby under radiant wanner and postpone suctioning to prevent stimulation of posterior pharyngeal wall that can cause bradycardia. Residual meconium in the mouth and posterior pharynx should be removed by suctioning under direct vision using a laryngoscope. The trachea should then be intubated and mechonium suctioned from the lower airway. Tracheal suctioning is best done by applying suction directly to the endotracheal tube. After providing initial steps, the further management is same as with resucitation for other conditions.

Pediatrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 5029ecd7-0f3f-495a-b662-b45589a2f9d7question: A baby is born with meconium stained liquor which of the following is taken account of in terming a baby vigorous except –opa: Toneopb: Colouropc: HRopd: Respirationcop: 1choice_type: multiexp: Resuscitation of neonate born through meconium-stained liquer (MSL) When baby passes meconium in utero, there is a chance that the mecomium will be aspirated into infant's mouth and potentially into the trachea and lungs. Appropriate steps must be taken immediately after delivery to reduce the risk of serious consequences resulting from aspiration of meconium. Intrapartum nasopharyngeal suctioning just after the delivery of head is no longer recommended as it does not reduce the risk of meconium aspiration syndrome and, on rare occasions, may cause nasophagngeal trauma or a cardiac arrhythmia. The first step after delivery is to identify whether the newborn is vigrous or non-vigrous : - A) Vigrous newborn A newborn is classified as vigrous, if he has all the three signs are present : - Strong respiratory effort Good muscle tone Heart rate greater than 100 The vigrous child does not require any tracheal suctioning and the usual initial steps of resuscitation are provided, i.e., provide warniith, positioning, suctioning of mouth and nose (not tracheal suctioning); Dry, stimulate and 02 if necessary. B) Non-vigrous newborn If any of the above three signs is present, the newborn is classified as non-vigrous. For non-vigrous child, the initial steps are modified : - Place the baby under radiant wanner and postpone suctioning to prevent stimulation of posterior pharyngeal wall that can cause bradycardia. Residual meconium in the mouth and posterior pharynx should be removed by suctioning under direct vision using a laryngoscope. The trachea should then be intubated and mechonium suctioned from the lower airway. Tracheal suctioning is best done by applying suction directly to the endotracheal tube. After providing initial steps, the further management is same as with resucitation for other conditions.subject_name: Pediatricstopic_name: None

yes

218972be-3960-421c-bdc4-8a7627c5e548

A child presented at 18 months of age who has never been vaccinated before. Which vaccines will you administer?

DPT, OPV and MMR

Pentavalent vaccine alone

BCG and OPV

MMR, OPV, Rotavirus

single

Age Vaccine At bih BCG, bOPV-0, Hep B-0 6 weeks bOPV-1, Pentavalent-1, Rotavirus-1*, fIPV-1, PCV-1* 10 weeks bOPV-2, Pentavalent-2, Rotavirus-2* 14 weeks bOPV-3, Pentavalent-3, Rotavirus-3*, fIPV-2, PCV-2* 9 months MR-1*, JE-1*, PCV-3* 16-24 months DPT-B1, bOPV-B, JE-2*, MR-2* 5-6 years DPT-B2 11-13 yrs HPV-1*, HPV-2* BCG and Pentavalent can be given only up to 1st yr. of age, as per national immunization schedule

Pediatrics

AIIMS 2017

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 218972be-3960-421c-bdc4-8a7627c5e548question: A child presented at 18 months of age who has never been vaccinated before. Which vaccines will you administer?opa: DPT, OPV and MMRopb: Pentavalent vaccine aloneopc: BCG and OPVopd: MMR, OPV, Rotaviruscop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Age Vaccine At bih BCG, bOPV-0, Hep B-0 6 weeks bOPV-1, Pentavalent-1, Rotavirus-1*, fIPV-1, PCV-1* 10 weeks bOPV-2, Pentavalent-2, Rotavirus-2* 14 weeks bOPV-3, Pentavalent-3, Rotavirus-3*, fIPV-2, PCV-2* 9 months MR-1*, JE-1*, PCV-3* 16-24 months DPT-B1, bOPV-B, JE-2*, MR-2* 5-6 years DPT-B2 11-13 yrs HPV-1*, HPV-2* BCG and Pentavalent can be given only up to 1st yr. of age, as per national immunization schedulesubject_name: Pediatricstopic_name: AIIMS 2017

yes

0d679abd-78de-4477-a322-c8ef6dca8ec2

What is the cause of delirium tremens in alcoholics?

Fatty liver

Abrupt cessation of heavy and prolonged consumption of alcohol

Gradual withdrawal of alcohol

Small doses of consumption

multi

Alcohol Withdrawal Syndrome and Delirium Tremens Alcohol withdrawal syndrome typically occurs within 1-2 days of alcohol abstinence and is characterized by autonomic hyperactivity, tremors, insomnia, nausea and vomiting, transient hallucinations, psychomotor agitation, anxiety, and tonic-clonic seizures. Symptoms may be mild for many patients, but if left untreated, it can lead to delirium tremens, an uncommon but severe and life-threatening manifestation of withdrawal marked by severe hallucinations, disorientation, and autonomic overactivity. Symptoms and signs include the following: Profoundly delirious state associated with tremulousness and agitation. Excessive motor activity (most notable as a tremor that affects the face, tongue, and extremities but that may also involve speech) and purposeless activity such as picking at the bedclothes. Hallucinations, classically visual rather than auditory, are a prominent feature. Autonomic nervous system hyperactivity: tachycardia, dilated pupils, fever, and hyperhidrosis. Loss of orientation as to time and place. Such patients are often oblivious to the most obvious features of the surrounding environment. Treatment Note temperature, pulse, and blood pressure, and record results twice hourly to monitor for hyperpyrexia and hypotension. Consider lumbar puncture to rule out meningitis if fever or meningismus is present. 1. FLUIDS Fluid requirements on the first day of treatment may be as if profound dehydration is present. Intravenous fluid should contain glucose to prevent hypoglycemia. 2. THIAMINE Thiamine, 100 mg/d, prevents Wernicke encephalopathy. 3. BENZODIAZEPINES Benzodiazepines are the primary form of treatment. They may also prevent patients with impending delirium tremens from developing a full-blown case.Drug of choice-Chlordiazepoxide a - Fatty liver- irrelevant b - Its abrupt withdrawal not gradual d - Small doses of alcohol consumption will not lead to raving. Therefore, a,b,d ruled out.

Medicine

AIIMS 2019

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 0d679abd-78de-4477-a322-c8ef6dca8ec2question: What is the cause of delirium tremens in alcoholics?opa: Fatty liveropb: Abrupt cessation of heavy and prolonged consumption of alcoholopc: Gradual withdrawal of alcoholopd: Small doses of consumptioncop: 1choice_type: multiexp: Alcohol Withdrawal Syndrome and Delirium Tremens Alcohol withdrawal syndrome typically occurs within 1-2 days of alcohol abstinence and is characterized by autonomic hyperactivity, tremors, insomnia, nausea and vomiting, transient hallucinations, psychomotor agitation, anxiety, and tonic-clonic seizures. Symptoms may be mild for many patients, but if left untreated, it can lead to delirium tremens, an uncommon but severe and life-threatening manifestation of withdrawal marked by severe hallucinations, disorientation, and autonomic overactivity. Symptoms and signs include the following: Profoundly delirious state associated with tremulousness and agitation. Excessive motor activity (most notable as a tremor that affects the face, tongue, and extremities but that may also involve speech) and purposeless activity such as picking at the bedclothes. Hallucinations, classically visual rather than auditory, are a prominent feature. Autonomic nervous system hyperactivity: tachycardia, dilated pupils, fever, and hyperhidrosis. Loss of orientation as to time and place. Such patients are often oblivious to the most obvious features of the surrounding environment. Treatment Note temperature, pulse, and blood pressure, and record results twice hourly to monitor for hyperpyrexia and hypotension. Consider lumbar puncture to rule out meningitis if fever or meningismus is present. 1. FLUIDS Fluid requirements on the first day of treatment may be as if profound dehydration is present. Intravenous fluid should contain glucose to prevent hypoglycemia. 2. THIAMINE Thiamine, 100 mg/d, prevents Wernicke encephalopathy. 3. BENZODIAZEPINES Benzodiazepines are the primary form of treatment. They may also prevent patients with impending delirium tremens from developing a full-blown case.Drug of choice-Chlordiazepoxide a - Fatty liver- irrelevant b - Its abrupt withdrawal not gradual d - Small doses of alcohol consumption will not lead to raving. Therefore, a,b,d ruled out.subject_name: Medicinetopic_name: AIIMS 2019

yes

4484094e-92fb-4dd2-861b-582497333e86

In a post operative intensive care unit, five patients developed post-operative wound infection on the same wound. The best method to prevent cross infection occurring in other patients in the same ward is to:

Give antibiotics to all other patients in the ward

Fumigate the ward

Disinfect the ward with sodium hypochlorite

Practice proper hand washing

multi

Medicine

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 4484094e-92fb-4dd2-861b-582497333e86question: In a post operative intensive care unit, five patients developed post-operative wound infection on the same wound. The best method to prevent cross infection occurring in other patients in the same ward is to:opa: Give antibiotics to all other patients in the wardopb: Fumigate the wardopc: Disinfect the ward with sodium hypochloriteopd: Practice proper hand washingcop: 3choice_type: multiexp: Nonesubject_name: Medicinetopic_name: None

yes

3464f43e-9513-409c-8cfa-eb16407aa915

All are done in management of shoulder dystocia except:

Fundal pressure

Mc Roberts manoeuvre

Suprapubic pressure

Woods manoeuvre

multi

Shoulder Dystocia: The term shoulder dystocia is used to define a wide range of difficulties encountered in the delivery of the shoulders (A head to body delivery time exceeding 60 secs defines shoulder dystocia). Risk factors: Shoulder dystocia can occur in all those conditions where fetus is too big or in case of mismanaged labour. D-Maternal diabetes O-Maternal obesity and fetal obesity, i.e macrosomia P-Post-term pregnancy A-Anencephaly, Fetal ascites Management of shoulder dystocia: Shoulder dystocia should be managed as quickly as possible as interval of time from delivery of head to delivery of body is of great importance as far as survival of baby is concerned. Management follows a sequence of steps together called as Shoulder Dystocia Drill. First line measures: Immediately after recognition of shoulder dystocia extra help should be called, in the form of midwifery assistance, an obstetrician, a paediatric resuscitation team and an anaesthetist. Maternal pushing should be discouraged, as this may lead to further impaction of the shoulder, thereby exacerbating the situation. Liberal episiotomy should be given to provide more space posteriorly. Fundal pressure should not be employed. As it is associated with an unacceptably high neonatal complication rate and may result in uterine rupture. Moderate suprapubic pressure can be applied by the assistant. McRoberts’ manoeuvre is the single most effective intervention and should the first maneouvre to be performed. The McRobert’s manoeuvre is flexion and abduction of the maternal hips, positioning the maternal thighs on her abdomen. Second line measures: They should be done only, if first line measures fail: Wood’s manoeuvre: It is progressively rotating the posterior shoulder by 180°. So that the impacted anterior shoulder is released. Third line measures—They should be done only, if second line measures fail: Cleidotomy: Fracturing the clavicle bone of the fetus Symphiostomy: Dividing the pubic symphysis of the mother Zavanelli manoeuvre: Replacing the head of the baby back into the pelvis followed by cesarean section.

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 3464f43e-9513-409c-8cfa-eb16407aa915question: All are done in management of shoulder dystocia except:opa: Fundal pressureopb: Mc Roberts manoeuvreopc: Suprapubic pressureopd: Woods manoeuvrecop: 0choice_type: multiexp: Shoulder Dystocia: The term shoulder dystocia is used to define a wide range of difficulties encountered in the delivery of the shoulders (A head to body delivery time exceeding 60 secs defines shoulder dystocia). Risk factors: Shoulder dystocia can occur in all those conditions where fetus is too big or in case of mismanaged labour. D-Maternal diabetes O-Maternal obesity and fetal obesity, i.e macrosomia P-Post-term pregnancy A-Anencephaly, Fetal ascites Management of shoulder dystocia: Shoulder dystocia should be managed as quickly as possible as interval of time from delivery of head to delivery of body is of great importance as far as survival of baby is concerned. Management follows a sequence of steps together called as Shoulder Dystocia Drill. First line measures: Immediately after recognition of shoulder dystocia extra help should be called, in the form of midwifery assistance, an obstetrician, a paediatric resuscitation team and an anaesthetist. Maternal pushing should be discouraged, as this may lead to further impaction of the shoulder, thereby exacerbating the situation. Liberal episiotomy should be given to provide more space posteriorly. Fundal pressure should not be employed. As it is associated with an unacceptably high neonatal complication rate and may result in uterine rupture. Moderate suprapubic pressure can be applied by the assistant. McRoberts’ manoeuvre is the single most effective intervention and should the first maneouvre to be performed. The McRobert’s manoeuvre is flexion and abduction of the maternal hips, positioning the maternal thighs on her abdomen. Second line measures: They should be done only, if first line measures fail: Wood’s manoeuvre: It is progressively rotating the posterior shoulder by 180°. So that the impacted anterior shoulder is released. Third line measures—They should be done only, if second line measures fail: Cleidotomy: Fracturing the clavicle bone of the fetus Symphiostomy: Dividing the pubic symphysis of the mother Zavanelli manoeuvre: Replacing the head of the baby back into the pelvis followed by cesarean section.subject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

b0a05a95-cb2d-4ec4-9e19-c25742e18221

APGAR acronym stands for?

Activity, pulse pressure, grimace, appearance, rate of respiration

Appearance, pressure, grimace, MAP, hea rate

Appearance, pressure, grimace, appearance, rate of hea beat

Appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, respiration

single

0 (Points) 1 2 Appearance Blue or pale all over Blue extremities, but torso pink Pink all over Pulse None <100 >100 Grimace No response Weak grimace when stimulated Cries or pulls away when stimulated Activity None Some flexion of arms Arms flexed, legs resist extension Respirations None Weak, irregular or gasping Strong cry 0-3 Critically low, 4-6 Fairly Low, 7-10 Generally Normal

Pediatrics

AIIMS 2017

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: b0a05a95-cb2d-4ec4-9e19-c25742e18221question: APGAR acronym stands for?opa: Activity, pulse pressure, grimace, appearance, rate of respirationopb: Appearance, pressure, grimace, MAP, hea rateopc: Appearance, pressure, grimace, appearance, rate of hea beatopd: Appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, respirationcop: 3choice_type: singleexp: 0 (Points) 1 2 Appearance Blue or pale all over Blue extremities, but torso pink Pink all over Pulse None <100 >100 Grimace No response Weak grimace when stimulated Cries or pulls away when stimulated Activity None Some flexion of arms Arms flexed, legs resist extension Respirations None Weak, irregular or gasping Strong cry 0-3 Critically low, 4-6 Fairly Low, 7-10 Generally Normalsubject_name: Pediatricstopic_name: AIIMS 2017

yes