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Don't such issues as "patient's rights" and "informed consent" interfere with experiments to test the efficacy of psychotherapy?

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Obviously, especially where the patient is assigned to a control "no-treatment" group or given a placebo. Ethically, sick patients are entitled to receive therapy and to deny them this to test a procedure involves moral as well as legal issues. One way that has been recommended to circumvent this problem is by "informed consent" procedures apprising the patient of the purposes of the experiment, possible risks, the uses of the data collected, and the fact that the patient can leave the experiment when he wishes to do so. He may also be informed about other therapeutic resources. Will this interfere with the experiment? It may, since suggestion enters into the picture. The patient will know what is demanded of him. The "demand characteristics" of the experiment will undoubtedly influence some of his reactions, the patient responding either in ways to please the researcher (who may have promised him treatment in the future) or reacting oppositionally to frustrate the researcher out of resentm ent or transference.

In cost-benefit research do any studies show greater work productivity for patients receiving psychotherapy?

refer to instruction for context

Yes, for example, a study by Riess (1967) done at the Postgraduate Center for Mental Health in New York City shows an increase of 35 percent in income of patients receiving psychotherapy.

How does community-based treatment compare in cost-benefits and cost-effectiveness with treatment in institu tions?

refer to instruction for context

Delivery systems in the community are more cost-beneficial and cost-effective than institutional delivery systems. What is important of course is supervision of the quality of care in day-hospital and other community-based programs. In one study (Cassell et al., 1972), deinstitutionalization with follow-up care, welfare costs, medications, etc., was shown to be about 60 percent less costly than institutional costs, and the outcome was considered more effective. The advantage of community programs has been confirmed by Foreyt et al., 1975, Levenson et al., 1977, Mosher et al., 1975, and others. Again it must be emphasized that dumping patients onto the community without adequate follow-up produces problems for both the patients and the citizens around them. On the other hand, adequate aftercare services are reflected in all-around benefits.

Why is there resistance among insurers and governmental policymakers toward financing psychotherapy, and can this situation be improved?

refer to instruction for context

Prejudice against psychotherapy is based largely on its indeterm inate cost and outcome. There is some question about its true efficacy also as a method, contrasted, for example, with drug therapy. We do not as yet know which therapies do best with which syndromes and with which patients. A psychotherapeutic effort is believed by many to be a "catch as catch can" affair, a therapist utilizing his own standards about how long to keep a patient in treatment and what best to do in a specific situation. Experience with longterm therapy, especially psychoanalysis, has not been reassuring. A patient may be in four or five times a week treatment for five years or longer and the cost can be monumental. Yet, unless the patient has been carefully screened, he may have been completely unsuited for this technique. When we assay the result of this high investment of time, money and effort, we must admit that the cost-effectiveness level here is low. Without knowing that the fault lies in poor selection, people responsible for payments will come to the spurious and global conclusion that psychoanalysis as a method of treatment is fraudulent. I do believe there are answers. Foremost, some fiscal restraints are essential in financing psychotherapy.

Gene expression is NOT impacted by which of the following factors?

['(A) An organism’s behaviors', '(B) Nucleus size', '(C) Timing of reproduction', '(D) Temperature outside the cell', '(E) Environment inside the cell']

(B) Nucleus size is not a factor in gene expression. Gene expression is impacted by numerous factors. The environment outside of the cell, including an organism’s behaviors (A) and temperature (D), as well as the timing of reproduction (C) alter the biochemistry inside the cell.

Which of the following defines the word phenotype?

['(A) Gene transmission', '(B) Gene that directs the development of a characteristic', '(C) Pattern of genes in the chromosomes', '(D) Traits, behaviors, and characteristics', '(E) Part of a DNA molecule']

(D) A phenotype is what is observed in the organism, including traits, behaviors, and characteristics. Gene transmission (A) is a general term regarding traits that are passed on through the hereditary process. Choice (B) is the definition for a dominant gene. Choice (C) is the definition for genotype.

How many chromosomes do cells in the human body typically contain?

['(A) 92', '(B) 46', '(C) 23', '(D) 12.5', '(E) 6']

(B) The number of cells in the typical human cell is 46. Sex cells, including the ovaries in females and the sperm in males, contain only 23 cells (C).

What condition is needed for a recessive allele to be expressed as

['(A) A pairing with a dominant allele', '(B) A pairing with an allele for a different gene that is also recessive', '(C) A pairing with the same allele on the corresponding gene', '(D) A pairing with any recessive allele in the DNA', '(E) No pairing needed for the recessive allele to be expressed']

(C) A recessive allele must be paired with another recessive allele on the corresponding gene in order for that trait to be expressed. For example, two recessive alleles for blue eyes exist and correspond in order for blue eyes to be the phenotype.

Which concept describes the process of inheriting traits that is

['(A) Natural selection', '(B) Gene transmission', '(C) Gene expression', '(D) Natural selection', '(E) Polygenetic inheritance']

(E) Polygenetic inheritance involves inheriting traits for certain qualities from many genes rather than just one gene. Some mental disorders are thought to be transmitted through polygenetic inheritance.

Which population of people is often studied to explore the impact of

['(A) Caucasian individuals', '(B) Individuals from developing countries', '(C) Younger siblings', '(D) Identical and fraternal twins', '(E) Childless adults']

(D) Twin studies are often used to explore the impact of genetics and also the impact of genetics versus the environment. The population of identical twins is not large, and finding identical twins who fit research criteria and want to participate is sometimes quite challenging.

Which concept is used to explore the influence of genetics and

['(A) Susceptibility', '(B) Heritability', '(C) Natural selection', '(D) Monogenetic inheritance', '(E) Polygenetic inheritance']

(B) Heritability is a mathematical estimate that is used to explore the extent to which genetic and environmental factors influence differences in individuals. For example, the level of intelligence may be measured in a certain population to explore the genetic and environmental influences.

Which of the following factors have been found to influence

['(A) Genes', '(B) Family environment', '(C) Prenatal environment', '(D) Peer relationships', '(E) All of the above']

(E) Genes, family environment, prenatal environment, and peer relationships influence psychological traits. Other factors, including culture, also are known to influence psychological traits. There are very few factors that are internal or external to the individual that are not thought to influence psychological traits.

Which of the following is identifiable through heritability

['(A) Amount of genetic similarity in a group', '(B) Influence of an individual’s genes on his or her traits', '(C) Amount of environmental similarity in a group', '(D) The degree to which trait differences between individuals can be', '(E) The degree of heritability of a particular trait in a population']

(D) The degree to which trait differences between individuals in a population can be attributed to genes can be gleaned through heritability estimates. The other choices are not found through heritability estimates. The use and generalizability of heritability estimates must be closely considered.

The concept that advantageous traits associated with survival and

['(A) polygenetic inheritance', '(B) natural selection', '(C) evolution', '(D) heredity', '(E) genetics']

(B) Natural selection, a concept originated by Charles Darwin, describes the concept of certain traits being reproduced more frequently than others based on the advantage of these traits for survival of the species. Natural selection is a building block for the concept of evolution (C).

If an error occurs during reproduction resulting in a change in the

['(A) selection', '(B) mutation', '(C) evolution', '(D) inheritance', '(E) genetic disorder']

(B) A mutation is an error that occurs when DNA is copied, or is a rearrangement of DNA patterns. Mutation can result in genetic disorders but also can be an aid in evolution.

Which types of cells carry information from the brain to muscles and

['(A) Atypical neurons', '(B) Sensory neurons', '(C) Interneurons', '(D) Motor neurons', '(E) Afferent neurons']

(D) Motor neurons transmit information from the brain to the muscles and glands. Sensory neurons (B), also called afferent neurons (E), transmit information from sensory systems in the brain. Choice (A) can be eliminated as atypical is not a type of neuron.

Which part of a neuron carries information to other parts of the

['(A) Nucleus', '(B) Axon', '(C) Dendrite', '(D) Myelin sheath', '(E) Cell body']

(B) An axon transmits information to other parts of the body. The nucleus (A) does not transmit data out, and the dendrite (C) is responsible for carrying information from the body to the neuron. The myelin sheath (D) wraps around axons to provide protection and other functions. The cell body (E) contains the nucleus.

Which of these functions is NOT carried out by the glial cells?

['(A) Nourishment of neurons', '(B) Removal of waste from neurons', '(C) Control of nutrient supply', '(D) Creation of patterns of connections', '(E) Regulation of temperature of neurons']

(E) Although glial cells do provide a protective covering for axons, they are not involved in temperature regulation. Glial cells carry out many critical functions in addition to those listed in the other choices.

Serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine are examples of which type

['(A) Neurons', '(B) Neurotransmitters', '(C) Glutamate', '(D) Antagonists', '(E) Dendrites']

(B) Serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine are examples of neurotransmitters. Glutamate (C) is another type of neurotransmitter. Antagonists (D) are medications that impact neurotransmitters. A neuron (A) is a type of cell, and a dendrite (E) is part of a neuron.

Neurotransmitters send messages to other neurons by crossing what

['(A) Receptor site', '(B) Synaptic cleft', '(C) Cerebral cortex', '(D) Adrenal cortex', '(E) Hypothalamus']

(B) Messages from neurotransmitters cross the synaptic cleft to reach other neurons. A receptor site is the site of a neuron that is receiving messages from the neurotransmitter. The adrenal cortex (D) is part of the endocrine system, not the nervous system. The cerebral cortex (C) is the outer layer of the brain, not the space between neurons. The hypothalamus (E) helps provide a linking function between the nervous system and the endocrine system.

Which describes the main function of an SSRI, a class of medication

['(A) Enhance the release of serotonin', '(B) Slow the production of serotonin', '(C) Stop the production of serotonin', '(D) Block the reuptake of serotonin', '(E) Inhibit the production of serotonin']

(D) SSRIs block the reuptake of serotonin, leaving increased amounts of serotonin in the synaptic cleft. Different classes of medications do serve other functions with regard to neurotransmitters, but these functions typically target other neurotransmitters.

Which part of the nervous system is responsible for restoring the

['(A) Central nervous system', '(B) Somatic nervous system', '(C) Sympathetic nervous system', '(D) Parasympathetic nervous system', '(E) Spinal cord']

(D) The parasympathetic nervous system restores the body to its typical resting state after arousal. The sympathetic nervous system (C) is responsible for mobilizing the body under stress or arousal. The parasympathetic nervous system is part of the peripheral nervous system, not the central nervous system (A). The central nervous system includes the spinal cord (E) and the brain. The somatic nervous system (B) is part of the peripheral nervous system but not part of the autonomic nervous system like the parasympathetic nervous system.

What function is the somatic nervous system responsible for?

['(A) Carrying motor messages and sensory information to and from the', '(B) Receiving motor messages and sensory information from the autonomic', '(C) Processing information from the other parts of the nervous system', '(D) Mobilizing the body in times of activation', '(E) Restoring the body back to a resting state']

(A) The somatic nervous system carries motor and sensory information to and from the central nervous system. Choice (B) describes the somatic nervous system as only receiving messages, and incorrectly names the system with which the somatic system communicates. Choice (C) describes the main function of the central nervous system. Choices (D) and (E) describe the functions of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.

A man is suddenly startled and then notices his heart rate has

['(A) Central nervous system', '(B) Somatic nervous system', '(C) Sympathetic nervous system', '(D) Parasympathetic nervous system', '(E) Brain']

(C) The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for arousing a response in a time of stress. Choices (A), (B), and (D) are other parts of the peripheral nervous system with other responsibilities. The brain (E) is a key part of the central nervous system.

The left brain is to _________________ as the right brain is to

['(A) verbal; creative', '(B) creative; verbal', '(C) logic; objective', '(D) objective; logic', '(E) logic; verbal']

(A) The left brain is responsible for verbal skills while the right brain is associated with creative thinking. The left brain is associated with both logic and objective thinking (C and D).

Which system of the body is a system of glands that produce

['(A) Nervous system', '(B) Muscular system', '(C) Endocrine system', '(D) Reproductive system', '(E) Lymphatic system']

(C) The endocrine system is a system of glands that produce hormones. The glands and hormones of the endocrine system do impact the other systems of the body. For example, the reproductive systems (D) of both males and females contain hormones. Some hormones are gender specific.

Which gland(s) is/are associated with metabolism and can cause

['(A) Pineal gland', '(B) Thyroid gland', '(C) Pituitary gland', '(D) Testes', '(E) Adrenal gland']

(B) The thyroid gland can become overactive (hyperthyroidism) or underactive (hypothyroidism), leading to changes in mood. The pineal gland (A) is associated with light exposure and activity levels. The pituitary gland (C) is responsible for regulating the other glands of the endocrine system. A male sex gland is called testes (D). The adrenal glands (E) are mainly responsible for releasing stress-related hormones.

Which of the following is NOT an instrument used to study the brain?

['(A) MRI (magnetic resonance imaging)', '(B) PET scan (positron emission tomography)', '(C) CT scan (computerized tomography)', '(D) TMS (transcranial magnetic stimulation)', '(E) fMRI (functional magnetic resonance imaging)']

(D) Transcranial magnetic stimulation is a procedure used to treat some psychological disorders, but it is not used to study or view the brain. Transcranial magnetic stimulation is not an instrument; it is a procedure. All of the other choices are different methods of looking at the brain.

What is the adrenal gland mainly responsible for?

['(A) Releasing reproduction-related hormones', '(B) Releasing mood-related hormones', '(C) Releasing stress-related hormones', '(D) Releasing metabolism-related hormones', '(E) Releasing rest-related hormones']

(C) The adrenal glands are mainly responsible for releasing stress-related hormones. Choice (A) describes the functions of the testes and ovum. Choice (D) describes the function of the thyroid, and the thyroid functioning can impact mood (B). The pineal gland is mainly involved in rest-related functions (E).

The chemicals produced in which part of the brain stem regulate

['(A) Medulla', '(B) Pons', '(C) Cerebellum', '(D) Thalamus', '(E) Midbrain']

(B) The pons is responsible for producing chemicals related to the sleep and wake cycle. The pons also serves other functions in the brain, including motor control and attention. The medulla (A) and the midbrain (E) are other parts of the brain stem. The thalamus (D) sits on top of the midbrain, and it passes sensory and motor information to other parts of the brain.

Which lobe of the cerebral hemisphere is involved in regulating

['(A) Frontal lobe', '(B) Temporal lobe', '(C) Occipital lobe', '(D) Parietal lobe', '(E) Cerebellum']

(A) The frontal lobe is involved in regulating emotions and behaviors, and damage to the frontal lobe can lead to mood and personality changes. The cerebellum (E) is not a lobe of the brain. The other lobes (B, C, and D) serve other functions in the brain and body.

If an individual has lost his or her sense of smell due to a

['(A) Frontal lobe', '(B) Temporal lobe', '(C) Parietal lobe', '(D) Occipital lobe', '(E) Cerebellum']

(B) Because the temporal lobe is responsible for regulating the sense of smell, an injury to the temporal lobe could cause a loss of the sense of smell. The frontal lobe (A) is not involved in sensory activities. The parietal lobe (C) links sensory functions to other parts of the body. The occipital lobe (D) is involved in the sense of sight and processing sight-related information. Finally, the cerebellum (E) controls balance, among other things.

Which of the following is a function of the right hemisphere of the

['(A) Speech development', '(B) Writing', '(C) Nonverbal tasks', '(D) Movement of the right side of the body', '(E) Information analysis']

(C) Nonverbal tasks are a function of the right brain. The other choices listed are functions of the left brain. The different functioning of each side of the brain is often referred to as lateralization. Although each side of the brain is responsible for different tasks, the sides do function closely together.

Which structure is part of the limbic system and is involved in

['(A) Hippocampus', '(B) Amygdala', '(C) Hypothalamus', '(D) Corpus callosum', '(E) Spinal cord']

(B) The amygdala is involved in evaluating emotional responses. It also stores implicit memories related to these responses. The hippocampus (A) is also involved in storing memories. The corpus callosum (D) and the spinal cord (E) serve important brain functions but are not part of the limbic system. The hypothalamus (C) is responsible for helping the body maintain homeostasis, including regulating sleep and eating cycles.

The connections and patterns between neurons can change over time

['(A) Regeneration', '(B) Neuroplasticity', '(C) Lateralization', '(D) Redevelopment', '(E) Neural growth']

(B) Neuroplasticity refers to the change in neuron patterns and connections throughout one’s development through the life cycle. Lateralization (C) refers to the different functions of the two sides of the brain. The other choices are words that could be used in reference to neuroplasticity but are more general vocabulary terms that do not specifically refer to this process in the brain.

Recognizing that it is cold outside and you should wear a coat

['(A) Prefrontal lobe', '(B) Frontal lobe', '(C) Temporal lobe', '(D) Parietal lobe', '(E) Occipital lobe']

(D) The parietal lobe is involved in sensory functioning and motor functioning. The other choices are different lobes of the brain that are involved in other processes.

Which neurons carry sensory information to the brain?

['(A) Motor neurons', '(B) Interneurons', '(C) Afferent neurons', '(D) Associative neurons', '(E) None of the above']

(C) Afferent neurons, also called sensory neurons, are responsible for bringing sensory information to the brain. Interneurons (B) assist neurons in communicating with each other. Motor neurons (A) transmit information from the brain to the muscles and glands.

When running a marathon, Maria felt great pain at mile 10, but at

['(A) Serotonin', '(B) Epinephrine', '(C) Endorphins', '(D) Dopamine', '(E) Acetylcholine']

(C) Endorphins are associated with inhibiting pain in moments of pain, extreme danger, or other circumstances. Serotonin (A), epinephrine (B), and dopamine (D) are generally associated with emotional functioning. Acetylcholine (E) is associated with arousal and attention.

Which lobe of the brain is involved in processing visual

['(A) Frontal lobe', '(B) Temporal lobe', '(C) Occipital lobe', '(D) Parietal lobe', '(E) Prefrontal lobe']

(C) The occipital lobe is associated with processing visual information. Information gathered by the structures of the eye is transformed into meaning with the help of the occipital lobe.

Which hormone is associated with childbirth and also thought to be

['(A) Adrenaline', '(B) Oxytocin', '(C) Thyroxine', '(D) Estrogen', '(E) Insulin']

(B) Oxytocin is associated with labor and with lactation. Pair bonding and orgasm are also associated with oxytocin, leading to the nickname for oxytocin as the love hormone.

Which gland is associated with the body’s response to stress?

['(A) Thyroid gland', '(B) Pituitary gland', '(C) Reproductive gland', '(D) Adrenal gland', '(E) Pineal gland']

(D) Humans have two adrenal glands, and they are associated with responses to stress. Cortisol and adrenaline are key hormones that are regulated by the adrenal glands.

The impulse of a neuron to fire is called

['(A) action potential', '(B) refractory period', '(C) resting potential', '(D) excitatory cells', '(E) inhibitory cells']

(A) The action potential of a neuron is critical in neuron-to-neuron communication. Action potential occurs when the neuron is depolarized and facilitates ions traveling across the cell membranes.

Which type of chemical obstructs the action of neurotransmitters?

['(A) Serotonin', '(B) Agonist', '(C) Antagonist', '(D) GABA', '(E) None of the above']

(C) An antagonist blocks the action of neurotransmitters. For example, the presence of an antagonist may prevent neurotransmitters from binding to receptors.

The somatic nervous system is to ________________ as the autonomic

['(A) involuntary; voluntary', '(B) voluntary; involuntary', '(C) sensation; perception', '(D) perception; sensation', '(E) involuntary; perception']

(B) The somatic nervous system is associated with voluntary actions, like a purposeful effort to take a step. The autonomic nervous system is associated with involuntary actions, including breathing.

Which part of the brain is the largest and includes the cerebellum

['(A) Forebrain', '(B) Midbrain', '(C) Hindbrain', '(D) Frontal lobe', '(E) Occipital lobe']

(A) The forebrain is the largest section and contains the cerebellum, the limbic system, and many other neural networks. When we think of the brain, we are often thinking of the forebrain. The midbrain (B) and the hindbrain (C) do play important functions in the brain and the body.

Which term refers to the different functions of the left side and

['(A) Bilateral stimulation', '(B) Lateralization', '(C) Mirroring', '(D) Neuroplasticity', '(E) None of the above']

(B) Lateralization refers to the concept that each side of the brain is responsible for different functions. Additionally, the right side of the brain is known to control left-side body functions, and the left side of the brain is associated with right-side body functions.

With regard to taste, what represents the smallest amount of a

['(A) Difference threshold', '(B) Absolute threshold', '(C) 1 gram of table salt per 600 quarts of water', '(D) Noticeable threshold', '(E) Sensory threshold']

(B) The absolute threshold describes the smallest amount of a substance needed to be detected. Choice (C) is an attempt at the absolute threshold of salt but is incorrect. The difference threshold (A) describes the smallest amount of change needed for detection of the change. Choice (D) can be eliminated as it is not a term used in the sensory arena. Sensory threshold (E) is a broader term that encompasses both (A) and (B).

Caryn had her stereo on low and could barely hear it. She turned it

['(A) Difference threshold', '(B) Absolute threshold', '(C) Hearing threshold', '(D) Sensory threshold', '(E) Recognizable threshold']

(A) The two notches describe the difference threshold, as Caryn could not hear the music after a one-notch change, but she could hear the music after a two-notch change. The absolute threshold (B) describes the amount, or in this case volume, of music needed to hear anything. Sensory threshold (D) is a term that includes both difference and absolute thresholds. Choices (C) and (E) are not sensory-related terms.

Tony used fractions to discover that humans have greater sensitivity

['(A) Fechner’s law', '(B) Weber’s law', '(C) Frequency theory', '(D) Just noticeable difference', '(E) Perceptual constancy']

(B) Weber’s law allows for comparison of sense sensitivities despite the different units of measurement. Fechner’s law (A) is another law of sensation but does not compare sensations; it describes the strength of the sensation as being proportional to the logarithm of the stimulus intensity. Frequency theory (C) relates to the sense of sound. Choices (D) and (E) describe other concepts involving sensation and perception.

Pressure, temperature, and pain are what type of senses?

['(A) Auditory senses', '(B) Olfactory senses', '(C) Skin senses', '(D) Touch senses', '(E) Sight senses']

(C) Pressure, temperature, and pain are considered skin senses. The skin is the largest organ of the body and contains nerve endings that sense pressure, temperature, and pain. Skin senses are related to the sense of touch (D), but “touch senses” is not proper terminology. The other choices (A, B, and E) refer to other senses.

A sense of smell is also known as

['(A) glomeruli', '(B) olfaction', '(C) odorants', '(D) anosmia', '(E) pheromones']

(B) Olfaction is another way to refer to the sense of smell. Glomeruli (A) are substances involved in the initial processing of scents. An odorant (C) is a substance with a smell. Anosmia (D) refers to a condition when someone has lost his or her sense of smell. Pheromones (E) are naturally occurring odorants that send signals to other organisms.

Which name describes the taste that is savory; is associated with

['(A) Sweet', '(B) Salty', '(C) Bitter', '(D) Sour', '(E) Umami']

(E) Umami is the taste of savory and is associated with foods such as some meats, cheeses, and vegetables. The word is of Japanese origin. The other choices, sweet (A), salty (B), bitter (C), and sour (D), may at times be associated with the foods mentioned, but they are not mainly associated with these foods. Additionally, the description of savory does not fit the other choices.

The structures on the tongue that house the taste buds are called

['(A) receptor cells', '(B) papillae', '(C) molecules', '(D) tastants', '(E) saliva']

(B) Taste buds are located in the papillae on the tongue. Receptor cells (A) are located on the taste buds and respond when they come in contact with tastants (D). Saliva (E) helps to dissolve tastants. Molecules (C) can be eliminated, as it is a general term.

When Keri blows a horn, she feels the vibration of the instrument.

['(A) Sound waves', '(B) Speech', '(C) Tones', '(D) Frequency', '(E) Amplification of percussion']

(A) Sound waves are created by molecule movement in the environment (sometimes playing an instrument) that travels to the outer ear. The other choices are also related to sound but are not described in the question.

The frequency of a sound wave is measure in what unit?

['(A) Octave', '(B) Hertz', '(C) Amplitude', '(D) Decibel', '(E) Timbre']

(B) A hertz is the unit of measurement that describes the frequency of sound waves in cycles per second. Decibels (D) are the units of measure that describe loudness. Octaves (A) describe pitch. Choices (C) and (E) are related to sound but are not the unit of measurement that describe the frequency of sound waves.

Maria has twin sons. Maria can tell which son is calling her by the

['(A) Frequency', '(B) Amplitude', '(C) Timbre', '(D) Pitch', '(E) Octave']

(C) Timbre describes sound quality and allows humans to differentiate different voices, different instruments even if they are playing the same note, and other specifications related to quality of sound. Frequency (A) and amplitude (B) are the two qualities of sound waves that create different sounds. Pitch (D) is created by the number of sound peaks per second, and octaves (E) are intervals between pitches.

Which of the following describes the place theory related to pitch?

['(A) Nerve impulses are related to frequencies of vibrations along the', '(B) Neurons determine pitch by noting the location on the basilar', '(C) Neurons determine pitch by noting the size of the movement along the', '(D) Nerve impulses travel along the basilar membrane and determine pitch', '(E) Neurons determine pitch by noting the location on the cochlea where']

(B) The location on the basilar membrane where the messages are the strongest describes place theory. Choice (A) is a partial description of frequency theory. The other choices are incorrect descriptions of place theory.

Hammer, anvil, and stirrup are parts related to which sense?

['(A) Taste', '(B) Sound', '(C) Smell', '(D) Touch', '(E) Sight']

(B) The hammer, anvil, and stirrup are small bones in the middle ear that vibrate and send vibrations to the cochlea. These parts are unique to the ear and are not involved in the other senses.

A group of light wavelengths that the human eye can see goes from

['(A) The light spectrum', '(B) The visual spectrum', '(C) The visible spectrum', '(D) The nanometer spectrum', '(E) The trichromatic theory']

(C) The visible spectrum goes from violet (at 400 nanometers) to red (at 700 nanometers) and the rainbow of colors in between. Nanometer (D) is the unit of measure used when describing light waves. Choices (A) and (B) are not terms related to light or sight. The trichromatic theory (E) is related to sight but is not described in this question.

Which structures in the retina respond to varying levels of light

['(A) Cones', '(B) Rods', '(C) Pupils', '(D) Iris', '(E) Fovea']

(B) Rods are photoreceptors that respond to varying levels of light. Cones (A) assist in recognizing color sensations. Pupils (C), iris (D), and fovea (E) are parts of the eye but are not responsible for responding to light levels.

How do messages from the retina reach the brain in order for one to

['(A) Messages from rods and cones are sent to bipolar cells and are then', '(B) Messages from bipolar cells activate the ganglion cells; then the', '(C) The iris filters the amount of light and then passes messages to the', '(D) Messages from the bipolar cells activate the axons to form an', '(E) Photoreceptors pass information to the ganglion, and the axons of']

(B) Retinal messages pass through the bipolar cells to the ganglion. The axons of the ganglion come together to form an optic nerve that carries messages to the brain. Choices (A) and (D) do not include the ganglion. Choice (C) does not include the bipolar cells and incorrectly designates functions for other parts of the eye. Choice (E) does not include bipolar cells or the optic nerve.

The axons of which cells come together to form the optic nerve?

['(A) Rods', '(B) Cones', '(C) Bipolar cells', '(D) Ganglion cells', '(E) Fovea']

(D) The axons of the ganglion cells form the optic nerve. This is a key structure in passing visual information to the brain in order to enable sight.

Which structure of the eye is responsible for keen, sharp, and

['(A) Iris', '(B) Cornea', '(C) Retina', '(D) Fovea', '(E) Optic nerve']

(D) The fovea is responsible for the acuity of vision. The connection between cones and bipolar cells in the fovea assists in this process. The fovea is a part of the retina (C). The optic nerve (E) passes visual information to the brain. The iris (A) allows light to pass into the eye, and the cornea (B) regulates the amount of light that contacts the retina.

Which concept of color describes the vividness of hues?

['(A) Saturation', '(B) Brightness', '(C) Achromatic', '(D) Chromatic', '(E) Trichromatic']

(A) Saturation determines the vividness of hues. The more gray a color has in it, the less saturation that color has. Colors are considered chromatic (D) or achromatic (C), and human vision is based on three colors, making it trichromatic (E). Brightness (B) is associated with the amount of white a color has in it.

Which concept of color allows one to differentiate black from gray?

['(A) Saturation', '(B) Hues', '(C) Brightness', '(D) Achromatic', '(E) Chromatic']

(C) Brightness allows for differentiation between black and gray (as well as white) and is present in colors that have hues as well. Black and gray are achromatic (D) because they do not have a hue (B). Saturation (A) describes a hue, and chromatic colors (E) are colors that have a hue.

The trichromatic color vision principle states that there are three

['(A) Red, green, yellow', '(B) Red, blue, purple', '(C) White, black, gray', '(D) Red, blue, green', '(E) Blue, green, yellow']

(D) Red, blue, and green are the colors associated with the trichromatic theory of color. Trichromatic theory states that these three colors provide the base for the large spectrum of colors we see. Colors such as yellow and purple contain elements of the base colors of red, blue, and green; therefore, choices (A), (B), and (E) are incorrect. White, black, and gray (C) are achromatic colors.

According to which theory of color vision do color antagonists,

['(A) Trichromatic color theory', '(B) Opponent-process theory', '(C) Huvich-Jameson theory', '(D) Color-blindness theory', '(E) Young-Helmholtz theory']

(B) This description is of the opponent-process theory. Huvich and Jameson (C) developed the theory, but it is not named for them. The other major theory of color, trichromatic color theory (A), does not pair colors together, rather it pairs color hues with different types of cones; it was developed by Young and further refined by Helmholtz (E). Color-blindness (D) is a different concept altogether.

Sandra stares at a green circle for 30 seconds and then shifts her

['(A) An afterimage', '(B) A shadow', '(C) A light adaptation', '(D) A color adaptation', '(E) A blind spot']

(A) The red circle is an afterimage and is thought to go from green to red because of the opponent-process theory. The receptors that initially saw green go through an adaptation process after looking at green for that period of time.

Evan is only able to see shades of light and dark that he describes

['(A) Trichromatic color-blindness', '(B) Dichromatic color-blindness', '(C) Monochromatic color-blindness', '(D) Protanopia color-blindness', '(E) Genetic color-blindness']

(C) Evan’s condition is known as monochromatic color-blindness because he sees only pairs on the opponent-process spectrum. People with dichromatic color-blindness (B) have difficulty with the red-green spectrum but see other colors. Choice (D) is a type of dichromatic color-blindness. Many cases of color-blindness are due to genetics, but genetic color-blindness (E) is not a specific condition. Trichromatic color-blindness (A) refers to sensitivity of the eye to one of the three core pigments. In this case, Evan does not see any of the pigments.

Which statement describes the difference between sensation and

['(A) Sensation is the sensory experience, while perception is how one', '(B) Sensation is the making and interpretation of the perception', '(C) Sensation is the sensory experience, while perception is the meaning', '(D) Sensation is the stimulation of the senses, while perception is the', '(E) Sensation is the creation of sensory stimuli, while perception is']

(C) Sensation is the sensory experience and is a passive process. Perception is the patterning, interpretation, and meaning making of the experience. Choice (E) is not correct, as it describes sensation as an active rather than passive process. The other choices also incorrectly describe either sensation or perception.

The idea that humans tend to perceive complete objects and overlook

['(A) proximity', '(B) continuity', '(C) similarity', '(D) closure', '(E) contours']

(D) Closure refers to humans’ tendency to see items as complete shapes or figures even when parts are missing. In other words, we perceive the closure of the shape or figure when it may not be present. Contours (E) are a part of our perception that assist in closing figures or completing figures. The other choices are other principles of perception but not the one described in the question.

There are 10 straws that are grouped together in groups of 3 each,

['(A) Similarity', '(B) Proximity', '(C) Closure', '(D) Continuity', '(E) Contours']

(B) Proximity states that humans tend to perceive things grouped together in groups rather than separately. Choices (A), (C), and (D) are different principles of perception. Contours (E) are part of perception but are not related to proximity or groups of items.

Tara has a photo showing her brother on a beach with the ocean in

['(A) Continuation', '(B) Figure and ground', '(C) Organization', '(D) Distinction', '(E) Constancy']

(B) The concept of figure and ground allows us to distinguish between items. At times this includes items in the foreground and the background of a photo as the question describes. Figure and ground is part of our perceptual organization (C). Distinction (D) and constancy (E) are other principles of perception. Continuation (A) is a different principle of perception.

What concept explains why we tend to perceive snow as white in

['(A) Object constancy', '(B) Perceptual constancy', '(C) Size constancy', '(D) Perceptual organization', '(E) Shape constancy']

(B) Perceptual constancy allows us to see some things as not changing despite sensory evidence that is changing. Our previous environmental information informs the perception of white snow even in varying environments.

The concept that explains why parallel lines appear to converge as

['(A) texture gradient', '(B) aerial perspective', '(C) linear perspective', '(D) pictorial cues', '(E) motion parallax']

(C) Linear perspective is the concept that explains why parallel lines appear to converge as they get farther away from the viewer. This can be seen on floors that have lines across them and even on drawings that show depth. The other choices describe different concepts related to monocular cues.

Which concept of perception explains why cubes that are drawn on a

['(A) Interposition', '(B) Pictorial cues', '(C) Superposition', '(D) Aerial perspective', '(E) Texture gradient']

(B) Pictorial cues create the sense of three dimensions on a flat surface. Artists frequently use techniques around pictorial cues to show dimensions and depth in their work. The other choices are other types of monocular cues but do not specifically describe dimensions on a flat surface.

Which of the following is a real-life example of the concept of

['(A) Drawing three-dimensional objects on flat surfaces', '(B) Looking through glasses with a blue lens and a red lens to make a', '(C) Viewing objects with only one eye and describing the object', '(D) Blocking the view of an object in the distance', '(E) Covering one eye to assess depth perception']

(B) Binocular disparity is the concept that each eye sees things from a slightly different angle. The brain uses messages from each eye to create depth perception. The example of the three-dimensional glasses and movie uses binocular disparity, as the different lens glasses make for different messages going to each eye. This causes binocular disparity and gives the movie “depth” that it did not have without the audience wearing the glasses.

George drew his own flip-book of a man lifting weights. Each page

['(A) Autokinetic illusion', '(B) Apparent movement', '(C) Motion parallax', '(D) Position constancy', '(E) Phi phenomenon']

(B) Apparent movement is a perception of motion of still objects. The perception comes from presenting appropriately timed intervals of stimuli. In this case, flipping quickly through the flip-book would show the apparent movement but flipping slowly through the book would not have the same effect. The other choices are related to perception but not as described in this question.

Which concept of perception allows one to see the object separate

['(A) Interposition', '(B) Figure and ground', '(C) Continuation', '(D) Distinction', '(E) Perceptual constancy']

(B) The concept of figure and ground allows people to separate background and the object. This concept aids in perception and allows us to see figures on a page.

Misinterpretation of information in our surroundings may cause a(n)

['(A) sensation', '(B) perception', '(C) illusion', '(D) correspondence problem', '(E) visual search']

(C) An illusion is a misinterpretation of information. It leads to an error in perception. There are many different artistic examples of illusions where the perception of depth or of movement is present although depth and movement are not actually happening.

Kayla writes her initials by making dots in the sand. Which concept

['(A) Proximity', '(B) Similarity', '(C) Continuity', '(D) Closure', '(E) None of the above']

(C) Continuity allows us to perceive a series of dots in a certain pattern as a continuous figure.

Which theory of psychology looks at the whole as greater than the

['(A) Psychoanalytic theory', '(B) Humanistic theory', '(C) Behavioral theory', '(D) Cognitive theory', '(E) Gestalt theory']

(E) Gestalt theory looks at the whole and sees the whole as greater than its individual parts. Regarding perception, looking at a group of lines as a group, rather than as each individual line, aids in perception.

If you look at a drawing one way you see a face, and if you look at

['(A) Illusion', '(B) Perceptual constancy', '(C) Continuation', '(D) Figure and ground', '(E) Proximity']

(D) The concept of figure and ground is at play when looking at this type of figure. This is called a reversible figure. The lamp can be the figure and the face can also be the figure in this case.

Tyler spots the church from blocks away. Even though data from his

['(A) figure and ground', '(B) continuation', '(C) perceptual constancy', '(D) unconscious inference', '(E) apparent movement']

(C) Perceptual constancy allows Tyler to view the church as one size although it changes size in the visual data. Tyler does not perceive the church as growing as he moves closer toward it.

Which stage of sleep is characterized by increased blood pressure

['(A) Stage 1', '(B) Stage 2', '(C) Stage 3', '(D) Stage 4', '(E) REM sleep']

(E) REM sleep mirrors wakefulness, with brain activity, respiration, and heart rate mirroring wakefulness, although an individual in REM is sound asleep and difficult to wake. Stage 1 (A) begins the sleep cycle. Stages 2 and 3 (B and C) are characterized by the slowing down of heart rate and respiration. Stage 4 (D) is very deep sleep.

Emma fell asleep on the couch. Her roommate noticed her eyes rolling

['(A) Stage 1', '(B) Stage 2', '(C) Stage 3', '(D) Stage 4', '(E) REM sleep']

(A) The question describes some characteristics of stage 1 sleep. Stage 1 sleep is also characterized by alpha waves and a slowing pulse. One marked difference between stage 1 and the other sleep stages is the ability of someone to wake from that stage. The other sleep stages are much more difficult for people to wake from.

Which statement most accurately describes the reason we dream?

['(A) Humans dream for restorative processes.', '(B) Humans dream to integrate latent and manifest content.', '(C) We don’t know the exact reason for dreaming, but there are many', '(D) Humans dream to rework events of their lives.', '(E) Each person dreams for different reasons.']

(C) There are many different theories about dreaming, but there is not one concrete proven answer for why humans dream. Therefore, choice (C) is the most accurate answer. Each answer in (A), (B), and (D) describes one of the theories behind dreaming. Although dreaming is an individual process, the reason behind dreaming does not vary from person to person; therefore, choice (E) is not accurate.

Karen has trouble falling asleep every night and tosses and turns

['(A) Sleep terrors', '(B) Sleep apnea', '(C) Narcolepsy', '(D) Insomnia', '(E) Parasomnia']

(D) Insomnia refers to a difficulty falling asleep or staying asleep, and it results in the individual getting a great deal less sleep than is needed. The other choices are different types of sleep disorders but are not described in Karen’s case.

Which sleep disorder is genetically based and characterized by

['(A) Sleep apnea', '(B) Sleep walking disorder', '(C) Insomnia', '(D) Narcolepsy', '(E) Parasomnia']

(D) The question describes the main characteristics of narcolepsy. Those who suffer from narcolepsy can also have bouts of insomnia (C). Narcolepsy is considered a dysomnia, related to amount, quality, and timing of sleep rather than a parasomnia (E), which relates to behaviors and physiological events during sleep.

As the age of an individual __________________, the amount the

['(A) increases; increases', '(B) increases; decreases', '(C) decreases; decreases', '(D) decreases; increases', '(E) none of the above']

(B) A look at sleep patterns through the life cycle shows decreased sleep progressing from children into older adulthood. Babies need and typically get the most amount of sleep. Older adults spend a great deal of sleep time in awake states according to previous sleep studies.

Which sleep disorder is characterized by difficulty breathing during

['(A) Narcolepsy', '(B) Sleep apnea', '(C) Insomnia', '(D) Parasomnia', '(E) Sleep terrors']

(B) Sleep apnea is characterized by difficulty breathing during sleep. Those who suffer from sleep apnea may wake up coughing or grasping for breath, interrupting their sleep.

Which stage of sleep is associated with slow delta waves?

['(A) Stage 1', '(B) Stage 2', '(C) Stage 3', '(D) Stage 4', '(E) All of the above']

(D) Stage 4 of sleep is associated with slow delta waves. Stage 4 sleep is the deepest level of sleep and is often associated with dreaming. The other stages of sleep are associated with different types of brain waves.

How does the sleep cycle progress after stage 4?

['(A) Moving from stage 4 to REM sleep', '(B) Moving from stage 4 to stage 1', '(C) Moving from stage 4 back to stage 3', '(D) Remaining at stage 4', '(E) None of the above']

(C) The sleep stages progress from stage 4, to stage 3, to stage 2, and then to stage 1, after which the sleeper progresses to REM sleep. This is a typical sleep cycle.

According to Freud, what is the latent content of a dream?

['(A) Actual plot of the dream', '(B) Impact of the dream on consciousness', '(C) Underlying meaning of the dream', '(D) Repressed drives', '(E) A picture of the superego']

(C) The latent content of a dream is the underlying meaning. The manifest and latent contents of dreams are Freudian theories. Dream interpretation is an ongoing technique in some areas of psychology.

Why is REM sleep also called paradoxical sleep?

['(A) REM sleep involves delta brain waves.', '(B) REM sleep involves delta, alpha, and beta waves.', '(C) REM sleep physiologically mirrors wakefulness.', '(D) REM sleep does not allow people to achieve rest.', '(E) REM sleep includes active dreaming.']

(D) REM sleep mirrors wakefulness; therefore, it is also called paradoxical sleep. A paradox in any situation contradicts common sense. Because REM sleep looks like wakefulness on EEGs and in physiological responses, it is thought to be paradoxical.

Jet lag when traveling occurs because of a disruption of which

['(A) Sleep cycle', '(B) Light/dark cycle', '(C) Circadian rhythms', '(D) REM sleep', '(E) Ultradian rhythms']

(C) Circadian rhythms are natural 24-hour cycles in humans. These rhythms are disrupted when traveling across times zones, and they are especially difficult to adjust to when traveling west to east. Circadian rhythms are commonly called the body clock.

Which two outcomes are associated with sleep deprivation?

['(A) Increased accidents and compromised immune system', '(B) Workplace absenteeism and weight loss', '(C) Decreased need for sleep and compromised immune system', '(D) Weight loss and mood disorders', '(E) All of the above']

(A) Increased accidents and a compromised immune system are associated with sleep deprivation. Sleep deprivation is also associated with obesity, not weight loss as indicated by (B) and (D). Mood disorders (D) and workplace absenteeism (B) are also associated with sleep deprivation. Many other psychological and physiological side effects are associated with sleep deprivation.

Which answer choice is NOT associated with treating sleep

['(A) Managing caffeine intake', '(B) Ensuring darkness in the bedroom', '(C) Limiting eating in the bedroom', '(D) Limiting watching television in the bedroom', '(E) Staying in bed all night even if sleep doesn’t occur']

(E) Individuals are often instructed to get out of bed if sleep has not come in a reasonable amount of time. This strategy allows someone to then restart the process around getting ready for bed and sleep. Limiting caffeine intake, ensuring darkness in the bedroom, and using the bedroom for only sleep-related activities can be useful for individuals with sleep difficulties.

During which stage of sleep is sleepwalking most likely to occur?

['(A) Stage 1', '(B) Stage 2', '(C) Stage 3', '(D) Stage 4', '(E) REM sleep']

(D) Stage 4, considered very deep sleep, is the stage in which people are most likely to sleepwalk. Sometimes children sleepwalk and eventually grow out of this habit. There are cases in which sleepwalking behaviors are quite dangerous.

All of the following are altered states of consciousness EXCEPT

['(A) sleeping', '(B) meditation', '(C) alcohol intoxication', '(D) alertness', '(E) hypnosis']

(D) Alertness implies awareness and clear consciousness rather than an altered state of consciousness. The other choices are different types of altered states of consciousness.