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All of the following are functions of the placenta EXCEPT

['(A) supply oxygen to fetus', '(B) supply nutrients to fetus', '(C) remove waste from uterine environment', '(D) provide temperature regulation to fetus', '(E) connect fetus to uterine wall']

(D) The placenta plays many roles in the developing fetus, but temperature regulation is not one of them. The other choices are roles of the placenta.

Which of the following correctly describes teratogens?

['(A) Nutritional qualities that positively impact fetal development', '(B) Nutritional deficits that negatively impact fetal development', '(C) Biological substances within a uterine environment that negatively', '(D) Environmental substances that negatively impact fetal development', '(E) Environmental substances that positively impact fetal development']

(D) Teratogens are environmental substances or conditions that negatively impact fetal development. Teratogens can be ingested by a mother or can be a result of exposure.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of fetal alcohol syndrome?

['(A) Heart defects', '(B) Facial deformities', '(C) Cognitive impairments', '(D) Stunted growth', '(E) Large head circumference']

(E) A small head circumference, not a large head circumference, is a symptom of fetal alcohol syndrome. The other choices do describe symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome. Symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome are expressed differently on a case-by-case basis, but the cluster of certain symptoms assists in the diagnosis.

All of the following are reflexes that newborns typically express

['(A) grasping', '(B) sucking', '(C) swallowing', '(D) crying', '(E) rooting']

(D) Newborns cry but crying is not a reflex. Crying is a state expressed by newborns, and sometimes crying is an attempt to communicate needs. Reflexes involve controlled responses of body movements.

The patterns of behavior, emotion, and self-regulation that infants

['(A) personality', '(B) temperament', '(C) bonding', '(D) attachment', '(E) development']

(B) An infant’s patterns of behavior, emotion, and self-regulation are considered his or her temperament. Temperament is thought to be largely genetically determined, as temperament is expressed in utero as well as in early infancy.

A young child who searches for his or her favorite toy under

['(A) Control mastery', '(B) Conservation', '(C) Object permanence', '(D) Mental reasoning', '(E) Abstract thinking']

(C) The child in this question displays object permanence. The child searches for a toy that he or she cannot see, thus demonstrating awareness that objects do exist even when they are no longer in plain sight. If this child did not have the ability of object permanence, the child would not search for something completely out of sight.

A child who sees a tiger stuffed animal for the first time and

['(A) egocentrism', '(B) conservation', '(C) accommodation', '(D) object permanence', '(E) assimilation']

(E) This child is demonstrating assimilation. Assimilation involves using current schemes, or ways in which one organizes the world, in order to interpret new information. This child had already learned what a kitty was, and when he saw a tiger toy he automatically associated it with a kitty.

A baby with which type of temperament negatively reacts to new

['(A) Shy child temperament', '(B) Slow-to-warm-up temperament', '(C) Difficult temperament', '(D) Easy temperament', '(E) Cheerful temperament']

(C) The question describes a difficult child as defined by Thomas and Chess’s (1984) temperament research. The shy child temperament was added after additional temperament research.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a teratogen?

['(A) Alcohol', '(B) X-ray exposure', '(C) Prenatal vitamins', '(D) Exposure to measles', '(E) Air pollution']

(C) Prenatal vitamins are frequently recommended and are known to positively impact fetal development. Teratogens negatively impact fetal development. Generally, expectant mothers are exposed to teratogens purposely (in the case of drinking alcohol) or inadvertently (in the case of air pollution, x-rays, and exposure to measles).

An infant who, when his or her cheek is touched, moves toward the

['(A) sucking reflex', '(B) grasp reflex', '(C) stepping reflex', '(D) swallowing reflex', '(E) rooting reflex']

(E) This infant is displaying the rooting reflex. Rooting is a precursor to sucking (A) but involves searching with one’s mouth for the sucking object. Rooting is an important reflex involved in breast-feeding.

A baby with a slow-to-warm-up temperament displays

['(A) high interest in new activities and experiences and high reactivity', '(B) high interest in new activities and experiences and low reactivity', '(C) low interest in new activities and experiences and low reactivity', '(D) low interest in new activities and experiences and high reactivity', '(E) low interest in new activities and experiences and no reactivity']

(C) Infants with slow-to-warm-up temperament display low interest in new activities and experiences and low reactivity to the experiences once they are engaged. The other choices incorrectly identify the interest and reactivity levels of this type of infant.

During which of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development does a

['(A) Sensory-motor stage', '(B) Preoperational stage', '(C) Concrete operational stage', '(D) Formal operational stage', '(E) Postconventional stage']

(A) Children from birth until age two are in the sensory-motor stage, and it is during this period that children develop object permanence. Object permanence is the understanding that objects exist even if they are out of sight.

Which statement describes an individual in Kohlberg’s

['(A) A 10-year-old cleans his room because he wants to.', '(B) A 10-year-old cleans his room because it is the right thing to do.', '(C) A 10-year-old refuses to clean his room to assert some autonomy.', '(D) A 10-year-old cleans his room in order to be seen as a good boy.', '(E) A 10-year-old cleans his room to earn time to play video games.']

(E) A 10-year-old who cleans his room in order to earn video game time is behaving in a particular way in order to earn a reward. Behavior motivated by earning a reward or avoiding punishment typically takes place during the preconventional stage according to Kohlberg’s theory. The preconventional stage is thought to occur in pre-adolescence; therefore, the age of the boy in this question provides another clue.

Which of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development is characterized

['(A) Sensory-motor stage', '(B) Preoperational stage', '(C) Concrete operational stage', '(D) Formal operational stage', '(E) Postconventional stage']

(B) A child demonstrates egocentric thinking in the preoperational stage. This means that a child thinks only from his or her point of view and is unable to consider the point of view of others.

____________________ is to Piaget’s formal operational stage as

['(A) Concrete thinking; abstract thinking', '(B) Abstract thinking; concrete thinking', '(C) Language development; egocentric thinking', '(D) Concrete thinking; egocentric thinking', '(E) Abstract thinking; egocentric thinking']

(B) Piaget’s formal operational stage is characterized in part by abstract thinking, while the concrete operational stage is characterized by concrete thinking. Egocentric thinking and viewpoints are present in the preoperational stage, which is before both the concrete operational and formal operational stages.

Which of the following is NOT a criticism of Piaget’s theory?

['(A) Lack of attention to social interactions', '(B) Lack of attention to human diversity', '(C) Possible variability from the distinct stages model', '(D) Lack of empirical data', '(E) Underrated infant cognitive capabilities']

(D) Piaget did present empirical data to back up his findings. Some of the data include observations of children. The other choices are criticisms of Piaget’s theory. Despite the criticisms Piaget did lay some groundwork for the field of cognitive development.

Which answer choice is NOT a limitation of a longitudinal study of

['(A) High attrition', '(B) High cost', '(C) Time consuming', '(D) Difficult to identify source of differences', '(E) Elimination of participant group differences']

(E) A longitudinal study is limited by the use of time and resources, participant attrition, and the ability to identify the reasons for the differences as primarily developmental. Because a longitudinal study follows the same cohort over time, participant group differences are not an issue.

According to John Bowlby, what develops in parent-child

['(A) Attachment', '(B) Insecure attachment', '(C) Secure base', '(D) Internal working models', '(E) Temperament']

(C) According to Bowlby, a secure base is one with which an infant or child can explore the world. A child with a secure base can explore his or her surroundings and then return to the parent. Variations in attachment develop in part due to the quality or presence of a secure base.

The tendency of some animal species to follow the first moving

['(A) orienting', '(B) imprinting', '(C) creating a secure base', '(D) developing autonomy', '(E) socializing']

(B) Imprinting is a learning process that is seen in many animal species. Because the first moving object an animal sees is most likely its mother, imprinting allows for attachment and learning from the mother. At times animals have been known to attach to species or objects that are not their mothers but do tend to continue to follow and take cues from that object.

Charlie’s father is quite strict, demands a great deal of

['(A) Baumrind’s parenting style', '(B) Authoritarian parenting style', '(C) Authoritative parenting style', '(D) Permissive-indulgent parenting style', '(E) Permissive-indifferent parenting style']

(B) An authoritarian parenting style is characterized by expectations of strict obedience and demands, with a lower level of responsiveness. This parenting style is not associated with positive outcomes for children, and children can have difficulty with communicating and trusting others.

Donna notices that her two-year-old plays side by side with her

['(A) Solitary play', '(B) Parallel play', '(C) Cooperative play', '(D) Onlooker play', '(E) Role play']

(B) Parallel play is characterized by toddlers playing side by side but not together. Toddlers engaged in this type of play may look at each other or investigate what the other is doing, but they do not play together. This is an expected stage in childhood development.

By what age should Andrea expect her newborn to say her first word?

['(A) 3 years', '(B) 2 years', '(C) 18 months', '(D) 1 year', '(E) 6 months']

(D) Generally children say their first word at about one year of age. Not until later will the word be used in a sentence or be strung with other words. Before saying their first word, infants will babble and use sounds to communicate and become familiar with their voices.

According to Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development, what is

['(A) Identity vs. role confusion', '(B) Industry vs. inferiority', '(C) Initiative vs. guilt', '(D) Autonomy vs. shame and doubt', '(E) Trust vs. mistrust']

(E) According to Erikson, the first stage of psychosocial development is trust versus mistrust, and it occurs from infancy to approximately 18 months. Trust is built with caregiver reliability and attention, allowing a child to trust that the caregiver will take good care of him or her. Mistrust can occur in circumstances with neglectful, abusive, or disorganized caregivers.

Which nonmedical factor plays a key part in cognitive functioning

['(A) Mental stimulation', '(B) Biological predisposition for Alzheimer’s disease', '(C) Quality of caregivers', '(D) Circulatory decline', '(E) Social capital']

(A) Mental stimulation is a key nonmedical factor related to sustained cognitive functioning in older adulthood. Two of the choices, biological predisposition for Alzheimer’s disease (B) and circulatory decline (D) are medical factors associated with cognitive functioning. Although social capital (E) can influence mental stimulation, mental stimulation does not need to be social.

Which three senses tend to decline as one reaches old age?

['(A) Taste, smell, sight', '(B) Taste, smell, hearing', '(C) Smell, hearing, sight', '(D) Taste, hearing, sight', '(E) Smell, hearing, touch']

(C) Smell, hearing, and sight tend to decline with old age. These changed sensory experiences can drastically change the way one operates in the world. For example, driving skills and ability to live alone can be impacted with declines in sight, hearing, and smell.

When an infant gauges an adult’s facial expressions to gain data

['(A) Mirroring', '(B) Imitating', '(C) Interacting', '(D) Social referencing', '(E) Face recognition']

(D) By engaging in social referencing, infants gain information about their surroundings. The process of social referencing demonstrates that infants engage in their social world very early on. The other choices are also social-related behaviors of infants, but they do not specifically refer to using facial expressions to gain information.

A permissive-indifferent parenting style is to

['(A) dependent; impulsive', '(B) impulsive; dependent', '(C) independent; impulsive', '(D) dependent; independent', '(E) impulsive; independent']

(A) A permissive-independent parenting style is associated with dependent or needy children. A permissive-indulgent parenting style is associated with impulsive children. There are many other qualities of children who are raised in these types of parenting styles, as well as different qualities associated with different parenting styles.

All of the following occur at approximately three years of age

['(A) language with short sentences', '(B) cooperative play', '(C) gender identity', '(D) early preoperational stage', '(E) menarche']

(E) Menarche is the first menstrual period experienced by girls who are in puberty. This occurs many years past the age of three. The other choices do occur at approximately three years of age. It is important to use “approximately” when referring to developmental milestones, as many do not occur at fixed moments in time.

Studies show that the impact of the initial arrival of babies into

['(A) increased marital satisfaction', '(B) decreased marital satisfaction', '(C) stable marital satisfaction', '(D) increased sexual drive', '(E) decreased sexual drive']

(B) Young children, especially before they become school aged, can negatively impact the reports of marital satisfaction. This may be due to the increased pressures, changed roles and responsibilities, and divided attention brought into the family with the arrival of a baby. Although marital dissatisfaction may be at its highest when raising teenagers, it does tend to bounce back as children get older.

Which of the following is NOT one of Kübler-Ross’s stages of dying?

['(A) Anger', '(B) Denial', '(C) Bargaining', '(D) Stress', '(E) Acceptance']

(D) Stress is not a stage of dying according to Kübler-Ross’s five stages of dying. That is not to say that those dying will not experience stress. Many times one will experience high stress. The other choices are part of Kübler-Ross’s model, as is depression. Theses stages are not linear; people may pass through each stage differently and also return to previous stages.

Which of Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development occurs during

['(A) Industry versus inferiority', '(B) Identity versus role confusion', '(C) Intimacy versus isolation', '(D) Generativity versus stagnation', '(E) Ego integrity versus despair']

(B) Identity versus role confusion occurs during adolescence and is greatly impacted by peer relationships. During this phase teens attempt to develop a sense of self, and this occurs with the help of peer and other social relationships.

Which parenting style is associated with children who are socially

['(A) Authoritative parenting', '(B) Authoritarian parenting', '(C) Permissive-indulgent parenting', '(D) Permissive-independent parenting', '(E) Disengaged parenting']

(B) Authoritarian parenting is associated with children who are socially responsible and self-sufficient. This parenting style includes setting firm boundaries but also listening to children and clarifying parental decisions.

Developing peer relationships impacts all of these arenas EXCEPT

['(A) level of social support', '(B) level of emotional support', '(C) temperament', '(D) problem-solving abilities', '(E) positive play experiences']

(C) Temperament is thought to be inborn or developed very early on in infants. Temperament may be related to how or why some children are accepted or rejected in peer circles. For example, his or her peers may not accept a child with a difficult temperament. Children gain social and emotional support (A and B), learn problem-solving abilities (D), and have positive play experiences (E) within peer relationships.

Primary sexual characteristic is to ____________________ as

['(A) pubic hair growth; breast development', '(B) breast development; pubic hair growth', '(C) testes growth; facial hair growth', '(D) facial hair growth; testes growth', '(E) beginning of menstruation; testes growth']

(C) Testes growth is a primary sexual characteristic that occurs during puberty. It is considered primary because the growth of the testes is directly involved in reproduction. Facial hair growth, a secondary sexual characteristic, occurs during puberty and indicates sexual maturity but is not involved in reproduction.

Increased insecurities related to self-esteem and self-image may

['(A) depression', '(B) anxiety', '(C) personality disorders', '(D) social phobia', '(E) panic attacks']

(A) Adolescence is correlated with increased depression for individuals. The issues around self-esteem and self-image that emerge during this time can cause quite challenging feelings for young people. Because of the increased levels of depression as well as rates of suicide, it is important to pay attention to what is happening with youth during this period.

Which of the following is NOT expected in the adolescent

['(A) Impulsivity', '(B) Lack of feelings of vulnerability', '(C) Belief that they are central focus', '(D) Formation of bonds exclusively with caregivers', '(E) Attraction to very exciting stimuli']

(D) Bonding exclusively with caregivers is not a quality of the adolescent experience. In fact, bonding with peers is more present during adolescence, and adolescents may in fact seek increased privacy and distance from parents.

Industry versus inferiority is to ___________________________ as

['(A) school aged; preschool', '(B) preschool; school aged', '(C) school aged; middle aged', '(D) middle aged; school aged', '(E) preschool; middle aged']

(C) Industry versus inferiority occurs during school-aged years. During this stage children develop school-based skills, social skills, and physical agility skills. Generativity versus stagnation occurs in middle-aged years, when an individual has developed a life path of some sort and fulfills goals that he or she had set out to fulfill. Failure to meet the goals of either stage can lead to difficult feelings and experiences of the world.

All of the following are included in the Big Five personality

['(A) extroversion', '(B) openness', '(C) conscientiousness', '(D) cognition', '(E) neuroticism']

(D) Although thoughts may influence personality, cognition is not a part of the Big Five personality traits. Agreeableness is the other personality dimension in the Big Five not listed in these choices.

Peter demonstrates similar patterns of behaving, feeling, and

['(A) States', '(B) Traits', '(C) Factors', '(D) Genetics', '(E) Learning']

(B) Traits are considered relatively stable patterns of behaving, thinking, and feeling. People tend to display their traits across situations. For example, someone who is generally calm may display calmness at school, at work, and with friends.

The idea that psychological factors exist outside of consciousness

['(A) humanistic theory', '(B) cognitive-social learning theory', '(C) psychodynamic theory', '(D) positive psychology theory', '(E) Big Five dimensions']

(C) Psychodynamic theories focus on experiences outside of consciousness. One example is defense mechanisms. There is also a lens toward early childhood experiences in these types of theories.

According to Freudian theory, an individual who is guided only by

['(A) overdeveloped ego', '(B) overdeveloped id', '(C) overdeveloped superego', '(D) underdeveloped superego', '(E) underdeveloped id']

(B) The id is the “pleasure principle.” Therefore, one who is guided only by pleasure could be seen as having an overdeveloped id. The id is thought to be the first structure to develop, with the ego and superego developing after the id.

The concept of the collective unconscious comes from

['(A) humanistic theory', '(B) psychoanalytic theory', '(C) positive psychology', '(D) social-cognitive theory', '(E) Jungian theory']

(E) Carl Jung, the founder of Jungian theory, identified the collective unconscious as shared images and stories that are present in all human beings. These images and stories are inherited and not based on individual experiences.

All of the following are patterns of attachment EXCEPT

['(A) confused', '(B) disorganized', '(C) secure', '(D) anxious resistant', '(E) anxious avoidant']

(A) Confused is not a pattern of attachment. The other choices are patterns of attachment that have been well researched and written about in the literature. Patterns of attachment are thought to influence the way people interact in relationships.

Who is responsible for the theory that individuals develop a secure

['(A) Karen Horney', '(B) Sigmund Freud', '(C) Erik Erikson', '(D) Carl Rogers', '(E) Carl Jung']

(C) Erik Erikson is responsible for identifying stages of development. Progress through the stages does have a large impact on personality and especially one’s sense of self.

The self-actualizing tendency is one that encourages people to

['(A) create relationships', '(B) reach their potential', '(C) minimize anxiety', '(D) maximize superego', '(E) create autonomy']

(B) The self-actualization tendency states that people are driven toward reaching their potential. According to Rogers, those who reach their inborn potential are considered fully functioning and self-actualized.

A theory of psychological functioning that steers away from

['(A) Jungian theory', '(B) psychodynamic theory', '(C) positive psychology', '(D) self psychology', '(E) ego psychology']

(C) Positive psychology generally focuses on factors that make people happy rather than paying attention to problems or difficulties. Positive psychology focuses on both positive traits and positive states.

Which of the following is characteristic of psychodynamic theory?

['(A) Mental representations of ourselves, sometimes unconscious, inform', '(B) All behavior is driven only by drives.', '(C) Therapeutic focus is only on the present and the future.', '(D) Individuals are driven to grow and function at higher levels.', '(E) Behavior is guided by thought, previous experiences, and learning.']

(A) Psychodynamic theory has a strong focus on the unconscious and on the unconscious patterns that contribute to our roles in relationships. Sometimes these unconscious factors are driven by defense mechanisms and sexual and aggressive urges.

According to Freud, which structure of personality acts as a guide

['(A) Id', '(B) Ego', '(C) Superego', '(D) Defense', '(E) Repression']

(C) The superego guides moral behavior according to Freudian theory. This is the last aspect of the personality structure to develop. The superego includes guidelines that are internalized from the social universe.

The ______________________ mediates between the

['(A) id; ego; superego', '(B) ego; id; superego', '(C) superego; id; ego', '(D) superego; ego; id', '(E) ego; superego; ego']

(B) The ego is known as the “reality principle” of the personality, and it mediates between the id and superego. The id is known as the “pleasure principle,” and the superego is known as the conscious or “moral principle.”

The belief of humans as naturally self-actualizing beings, the

['(A) Psychodynamic theory', '(B) Attachment theory', '(C) Drive theories', '(D) Behaviorism', '(E) Humanism']

(E) Humanism, or humanistic theory, is rooted in the belief of human good and the inborn drive to strive toward self-actualization. Unconditional positive regard is the acceptance of another despite his or her behaviors or actions.

Which stage of psychosexual development of Freudian theory is

['(A) Oral stage', '(B) Anal stage', '(C) Phallic stage', '(D) Latency stage', '(E) Genital stage']

(D) The latency stage of the psychosexual development is characterized by no interest in the opposite sex. According to Freudian theory, it occurs between approximately age 5 and approximately age 12.

According to Freudian theory, what is the purpose of defense

['(A) To protect the individual from the criticism of others', '(B) To mediate between the id and the superego', '(C) To protect the individual from the anxiety caused by the inability', '(D) To defend the individual from dealing with his or her sexual drives', '(E) To defend the individual from his or her id-related pleasure by']

(C) Generally, Freudian theory states that defense mechanisms are created in order to protect the ego from the anxiety created during an inability to regulate id drives and the moral ideal of the superego. Defense mechanisms can serve to protect the ego in certain ways but not regarding criticism from others.

An individual whose ego does not live up to the expectations or

['(A) pride', '(B) guilt', '(C) depression', '(D) joy', '(E) self-importance']

(B) The superego represents internalized standards of morality and conscious. Because of this, if the ego attempts to regulate needs of the id with expectations of the superego and does not live up to the superego, guilt may ensue. An individual may experience guilt that he or she did not behave according to what his or her superego expected.

Which defense mechanism is characterized by keeping painful

['(A) Regression', '(B) Repression', '(C) Projection', '(D) Identification', '(E) Denial']

(B) Repression is the defense mechanism used to exclude difficult memories or feelings from consciousness. Defense mechanisms are unconscious strategies to protect the ego or lessen anxiety.

Erikson is to __________________ as Rogers is to

['(A) eight stages of development; psychosexual development', '(B) parent-child relationship quality; self-actualization', '(C) self-actualization; parent-child relationship quality', '(D) personal and collective unconscious; self-actualization', '(E) self-actualization; personal and collective unconscious']

(B) For Erikson, the parent-child relationship quality is a key factor in personality development. This relationship allows a child to progress through the eight stages of development. For Rogers, the search for self-actualization, as well as the belief in human good, are key factors in personality development.

According to Horney, what is the main motivating force for

['(A) Libido', '(B) Relationships', '(C) Anxiety', '(D) Social mores', '(E) Perfection']

(C) A tenet of Horney’s theory is the motivating factor of anxiety. Anxiety is a reaction to threats that are real or imagined, and people develop strategies of coping that are then seen in personality styles.

According to Jung, which type of individual is mainly concerned

['(A) Introvert', '(B) Extrovert', '(C) Rational', '(D) Irrational', '(E) Neurotic']

(A) Introverts are thought to be mainly concerned with their own internal private worlds, while extroverts are concerned with the social universe. The concepts of introvert and extrovert come from Jungian theory.

An individual who expresses outward disdain for homosexuality but

['(A) sublimation', '(B) reaction formation', '(C) displacement', '(D) intellectualization', '(E) projection']

(B) Reaction formation is a defense mechanism characterized by an outward expression of feelings or emotions that are opposite from the internal feelings of an individual. In this case, the individual expresses and in ways consciously believes the negative feelings about homosexuality as a way to deal with his or her internal homosexual feelings.

According to Freudian theory, boys experience _____________ and

['(A) Oedipal complex; penis envy', '(B) Oedipal complex; oral fixation', '(C) Electra complex; Oedipal complex', '(D) Electra complex; oral fixation', '(E) Oedipal complex; Electra complex']

(E) According to Freudian theory the Oedipal complex is young boys’ attraction and attachment to their mothers and, therefore, jealousy toward their fathers. On the other hand, the Electra complex is experienced by young girls and is jealousy of the mother and intense attraction and attachment to the father.

All of the following are criticisms of psychodynamic theories

['(A) lack of empirical evidence', '(B) subjectivity', '(C) lack of evidence of importance of relationships', '(D) culture bound', '(E) gender biased']

(C) Psychodynamic thought does have an emphasis on human relationships. There is evidence that relationships are important and that patterns of relationships play out in many parts of peoples lives. The other choices are criticisms of psychodynamic theories.

The archetypes of the anima and animus are part of the

['(A) personal unconscious', '(B) collective archetypes', '(C) collective unconscious', '(D) persona', '(E) phenomenology']

(C) The concept of the collective unconscious comes from Jungian theory. The collective unconscious is shared across individuals and cultures according to the theory. The collective unconscious includes shared mental images.

What type of theories are object relations and ego psychology?

['(A) Humanistic theories', '(B) Jungian theories', '(C) Social-cognitive theories', '(D) Psychodynamic theories', '(E) Behavioral theories']

(D) Object relations and ego psychology are considered psychodynamic theories. These theories have some focus on the unconscious patterns of relating and thinking. Ego psychology focuses on the functioning of the ego. The focus of object relations is on self and objects, which are typically other individuals or objects that make up mental representations for others.

The social-cognitive approach to personality includes all of the

['(A) cognitions', '(B) past experiences', '(C) the unconscious', '(D) learning', '(E) experience in the social universe']

(C) The unconscious is not a part of the social-cognitive approach to personality. The hallmarks of the social-cognitive approach include cognitions (A), past experiences (B), learning (D), and the experience in the social universe (E).

An individual who demonstrates a belief that events are a result of

['(A) external locus of control', '(B) internal locus of control', '(C) disbelief in self-efficacy', '(D) set of personal constructs', '(E) sense of expectancies']

(B) An internal locus of control indicates a belief that the individual can control one’s fate by one’s actions. One with a high internal locus of control may behave in ways that are internally motivating and not leave circumstances up to chance.

Which contribution do cognitive-social approaches bring to the

['(A) Treatment without time limits', '(B) Attention on motivation', '(C) Projective personality assessment', '(D) Integration of cognitions and the unconscious', '(E) Scientifically testable']

(E) Many aspects of the cognitive-social approaches are testable, as are the therapies that have emerged from these theories. Testable approaches can lead to increased understanding of psychological treatments.

The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI-2) is an

['(A) Unstructured interview', '(B) Semistructured interview', '(C) Self-report objective', '(D) Projective self-report test', '(E) Direct observation']

(C) The MMPI, a widely used personality assessment, is a self-report objective test. Although it is easy to score, the self-report nature of the test does leave room for testing errors.

Bandura’s concept of behaviors being influenced by internal

['(A) locus of control', '(B) cognitive behavioral therapy', '(C) self-efficacy', '(D) social learning', '(E) self-determination']

(C) The concept of self-efficacy involves an individual’s belief in one’s abilities to accomplish certain things and the influence of these beliefs on one’s behaviors. An individual with high self-efficacy may try more options to succeed in a task because of his or her belief in his or her abilities to accomplish the task.

A psychologist sees a client who reports a belief that he can do

['(A) Low self-esteem', '(B) High self-esteem', '(C) Internal locus of control', '(D) External locus of control', '(E) Positive attributional style']

(D) This client demonstrates having an external locus of control. The client displays a belief that the circumstances he or she is experiencing are beyond control and others, or other external circumstances, are ultimately in control.

Which perspective on personality has a focus on an individual’s

['(A) Humanistic approach', '(B) Cognitive-social approach', '(C) Cognitive behavioral therapy', '(D) Psychodynamic approach', '(E) Rogerian approach']

(B) A cognitive-social approach is centered around individual experiences, thoughts and feelings about self and the experiences, and beliefs about the amount of control one has around the experiences. Learning is also an important construct in a cognitive-social approach, and much of learning comes from experiences.

Which assessment uses interpretations of inkblots to assess

['(A) MMPI', '(B) TAT', '(C) IQ test', '(D) Rorschach test', '(E) SCID']

(D) The key assessment tool in a Rorschach test is preconceived inkblots that people are asked to react to. Psychodynamically oriented psychologists use this tool more often than other psychologists. Reliability, validity, and overall usage of the Rorschach have been frequently questioned, but regardless it is a key assessment tool in the field of psychology.

Which of the following is NOT a factor of the Big Five personality

['(A) Impulse control', '(B) Agreeableness', '(C) Anxiety', '(D) Achievement orientation', '(E) Emotional stability']

(D) An individual’s level of achievement orientation is related to conscientiousness, rather than neuroticism. The other choices are related to neuroticism.

The historical somatogenic hypothesis of mental disorders is most

['(A) Psychoanalytic model', '(B) Cognitive behavioral model', '(C) Diathesis-stress model', '(D) Biological model', '(E) Systems theory']

(D) The somatogenic hypothesis of mental disorders found mental disorders to be rooted organically or in the body of individuals. Similarly, the biological model sees mental disorders as being based in biochemical or physiological bases.

Patient reports are to _____________________ as clinician

['(A) signs; symptoms', '(B) symptoms; signs', '(C) signs; affect', '(D) affect; symptoms', '(E) behaviors; symptoms']

(B) Symptoms are reported by the patient. Examples of symptoms include lack of appetite, sadness, or nerves. Signs are observed by the clinician. Examples of signs include body tension, anxious affect, or minimal eye contact.

Which of the following is NOT a criticism of the DSM and

['(A) Reinforcing stigma', '(B) Labeling', '(C) Disease model', '(D) Treatment guidance', '(E) Generic symptom description']

(D) With the emergence of DSM diagnosis and, therefore, categorizing psychological disorders came the ability to study and treat people with similar conditions when outcomes were positive. Empirical studies of psychological treatments often include specific diagnostic categories. The other choices list criticisms of the DSM and of psychological diagnosing in general.

The definition of mental disorders that comes from the Diagnostic

['(A) behavioral or psychological distress', '(B) increased risk of suffering', '(C) not a result of bereavement', '(D) of biological origin', '(E) not a culturally accepted response to a stressor']

(D) The definition of mental disorders does not include a biological origin. That said, some mental disorders are believed to be biologically based. The other choices are aspects of the definition.

Which of the following individuals is experiencing compulsions?

['(A) A young woman feels shortness of breath and a racing heart in a', '(B) A young woman thinks constantly about dirt and germs.', '(C) A young woman sees images that other people do not see.', '(D) A young woman feels intense cravings for a particular substance.', '(E) A young woman washes her hands more than 50 times a day to avoid']

(E) Compulsions are characterized by behaviors that are repetitive and, at times, ritualistic in nature. In this case, the young woman is demonstrating repetitive behavior around hand washing.

Which psychological disorder is associated with symptoms of

['(A) Acute stress disorder', '(B) Posttraumatic stress disorder', '(C) Substance abuse disorder', '(D) Substance dependence', '(E) Schizophrenia']

(B) Symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder are generally in these three categories: hyperarousal, avoidance, and re-experiencing. An example of re-experiencing is flashbacks. An example of hyperarousal is experiencing increased heart rate at the thought of the incident or the conglomerate of incidents. An example of avoidance is an attempt to avoid all things that provide any reminder of the incident or incidents.

A mental disorder characterized by frequent worry about many things

['(A) generalized anxiety disorder', '(B) panic disorder', '(C) specific phobia', '(D) agoraphobia', '(E) obsessive-compulsive disorder']

(A) Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by frequent and free-floating worry. People who experience generalized anxiety disorder may worry about one thing, and once that is resolved they may worry about the next thing. Sometimes these worries can be around personal or a loved one’s safety, perception of competency, or general overarching things.

Terry’s roommate has been barely sleeping for days, talking quite

['(A) Depression', '(B) Insomnia', '(C) Mania', '(D) Psychosis', '(E) Obsessions']

(C) Decreased need for sleep, pressured speech, grandiose thoughts, and impaired judgment (including excessive spending) are associated with mania. Terry’s roommate may be having a manic episode. Manic episodes are associated with bipolar disorder.

All of the following are symptoms of depression EXCEPT

['(A) excessive sadness', '(B) decreased interest in pleasurable activities', '(C) euphoric feelings', '(D) excessive guilt', '(E) fatigue']

(C) Euphoric feelings are feelings of elatedness. These feelings are not associated with depression. The other choices are associated with depression.

Which description is an example of the diathesis-stress model of

['(A) A teenaged boy has an organic brain disorder leading to psychosis.', '(B) A teenaged boy has no history of psychological disorders but has a', '(C) A teenaged boy experiments with drugs and has a psychotic break', '(D) A teenaged boy has unconscious conflicts related to early', '(E) A teenaged boy believes himself to be “stupid”; therefore, he is not']

(B) The basis of the diathesis-stress model of psychological disorders is the biological predisposition to psychological disorders that is then activated by stressors. In this case, the teenage boy may have a biological predisposition to psychosis that was not uncovered until the stress of divorce allowed it to emerge.

When making a DSM diagnosis, on which axis would one assess social

['(A) Axis I', '(B) Axis II', '(C) Axis III', '(D) Axis IV', '(E) Axis V']

(D) Axis IV is where social and environmental problems are listed. For example, difficulties with occupation, finances, housing, and other social circumstances may be listed. At times, clinicians assess severity of these symptoms by noting mild, moderate, or severe or by using other rating scales.

What is the likely diagnosis for an individual who experiences

['(A) Depression', '(B) Major depressive disorder', '(C) Panic disorder', '(D) Schizophrenia', '(E) Bipolar disorder']

(E) Bipolar disorder is characterized by states of depressed mood and of mania. The question describes some symptoms of depressed mood (sadness, hopelessness, low mood) and mania (euphoria, racing thoughts, pressured speech), but both of these states can have other symptoms as well.

Dylan experiences intense worry and discomfort about many things in

['(A) Mood disorder', '(B) Substance abuse disorder', '(C) Anxiety disorder', '(D) Personality disorder', '(E) Thought disorder']

(C) Anxiety disorders are characterized by intense worry or discomfort. Those suffering from anxiety disorders may avoid certain situations or let their behavior be guided by avoiding or limiting the discomfort.

Which psychological symptom is characterized by frequent and

['(A) Compulsions', '(B) Panic attacks', '(C) Hypomania', '(D) Obsessions', '(E) Pressured speech']

(D) Obsessions are disturbing thoughts that are frequent and recurrent. Obsessive thoughts frequently lead to compulsive behaviors.

A man who has negative automatic thoughts about himself, feels he

['(A) self-esteem', '(B) cognitive distortions', '(C) beliefs', '(D) genetic factors', '(E) all-or-nothing thinking']

(B) Cognitive distortions are distorted views of self or the world, likely based on early childhood experiences, that influence the way one thinks about oneself and acts in the world. Cognitive distortions include things like catastrophizing and discounting the positive factors of oneself. All-or-nothing thinking (E) is also an example of a cognitive distortion.

Which factor is associated with the fact that men are more likely

['(A) Lethality of methods', '(B) Mental disorder', '(C) Increased likelihood of hospitalization', '(D) Longevity of suffering', '(E) Number of attempts']

(A) Men tend to use methods that are more lethal when attempting suicide. For example, men may use guns or jumping methods, while women may use pill overdoses that are less likely to be successful. Women are statistically more likely to attempt suicide, but men are statistically more likely to complete suicide.

Which tool might a clinician use to assess the diagnostic category

['(A) MMPI', '(B) BDI', '(C) SCID', '(D) DSM-IV-TR', '(E) ICD-9']

(C) The SCID, Structured Clinical Interview for Diagnosis, is a semistructured interview that leads the clinician and interviewee through a number of questions geared around the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders diagnoses.

Which model of the causes of psychological disorders is inclusive

['(A) Psychoanalytical model', '(B) Diathesis-stress model', '(C) Systems theory', '(D) Learning model', '(E) Ecological model']

(C) Systems theory, sometimes called the biopsychosocial approach, is one that includes a biological, social, and psychological lens toward mental disorders. This is an inclusive approach that considers many aspects of human functioning and can assist in explaining why some people in the same circumstances have vastly different psychological outcomes.

After an intake, a psychologist makes the following notes: “patient

['(A) Patient’s symptoms', '(B) Patient’s diagnosis', '(C) Patient’s signs', '(D) Psychologist’s impressions', '(E) Psychologist’s theoretical background']

(C) Signs are what the patient displays and are observed by the psychologist. In this case, nothing that is noted by the psychologist is about what the patient describes. Rather the notes are the psychologist’s observations about the patient’s condition. Therefore, the psychologist is describing signs in the notes.

On which axis of a five-axes diagnosis would you list current

['(A) Axis I', '(B) Axis II', '(C) Axis III', '(D) Axis IV', '(E) Axis V']

(A) Axis I is where current psychological disorders are listed. Individuals often seek treatment for Axis I disorders. Personality disorders and mental retardation are mental disorders that are not diagnosed on Axis II (B).

What term may be used by a legal expert, not a psychologist, to

['(A) Mentally ill', '(B) Psychotic', '(C) Insane', '(D) Schizophrenic', '(E) Diagnosable']

(C) Insane, or insanity, is a word from the legal profession that is sometimes used by the general population, but psychologists do not use this word. Psychologists use clinical terms that appropriately describe people’s conditions. For example, psychologists typically do not use schizophrenic (D) to describe a person. Instead, they may use the phrase “individual with schizophrenia.”

Which mood disorder is characterized by a long period of a

['(A) Major depressive disorder', '(B) Dysthymia', '(C) Bipolar disorder', '(D) Hypomania', '(E) Mania']

(B) Dysthymia is characterized by a long period of low-level depression. It is not as severe as a major depressive disorder (A), but it may last much longer. Mania (E) and hypomania (D) are symptoms of bipolar disorder (C), which is also a mood disorder.

Which of the following are cognitive symptoms of depression?

['(A) Feelings of hopelessness and guilt', '(B) Fatigue and loss of appetite', '(C) Concentration and memory impairment', '(D) Depressed mood and lack of interest in pleasurable activities', '(E) Low libido and insomnia']

(C) Concentration and memory impairment are cognitive symptoms, which means they are related to thought and brain functioning. Although some other symptoms may be organic and treated by medication, concentration and memory impairment are specifically cognitive.

Which mental disorder is most commonly associated with successful

['(A) Major depression', '(B) Schizophrenia', '(C) Panic disorder', '(D) Obsessive compulsive disorder', '(E) Bipolar disorder']

(E) An individual with bipolar disorder is at higher risk for suicide than one with any other disorder. Although the data change, approximately 20 percent of individuals with bipolar disorder commit suicide, and many more than that attempt suicide.

Which neurotransmitter is most closely associated with depression?

['(A) Dopamine', '(B) Serotonin', '(C) Norepinephrine', '(D) GABA', '(E) Glutamate']

(B) In some cases, depression is thought to arise from a lack of serotonin in the synaptic cleft. Therefore, Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs), also called antidepressants, seek to keep serotonin in the synaptic cleft. Generally, serotonin is the neurotransmitter most frequently associated with depression, although other neurotransmitters are sometimes associated with depression.

An individual who has a false belief that he or she is being

['(A) delusion', '(B) hallucination', '(C) paranoia', '(D) compulsion', '(E) obsession']

(A) A delusion is a false belief. Delusions are at times persecutory, as in this case where an individual believes he or she is being followed. Delusions of grandeur are false beliefs of one’s status or power.

Which neurotransmitter is associated with psychosis and, therefore,

['(A) Serotonin', '(B) GABA', '(C) Dopamine', '(D) Norepinephrine', '(E) Epinephrine']

(C) Excessive amounts of dopamine are associated with psychosis. Schizophrenia is also associated with psychosis.

Which of the following is NOT a subtype of schizophrenia?

['(A) Paranoid schizophrenia', '(B) Catatonic schizophrenia', '(C) Recurrent schizophrenia', '(D) Undifferentiated schizophrenia', '(E) Disorganized schizophrenia']

(C) Although symptoms of schizophrenia are sometimes more active in individuals than at other times, there is not a subtype called recurrent schizophrenia. All of the subtypes of schizophrenia have different symptom presentations that fall under the larger category of schizophrenia.

Schizoid, antisocial, and borderline are examples of

['(A) psychological symptoms', '(B) personality disorders', '(C) patterns of relating', '(D) signs of schizophrenia', '(E) developmental disorders']

(B) Schizoid, antisocial, and borderline are examples of personality disorders. The current version of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders includes 10 personality disorders, but this is likely to change in future versions. Because they are believed to be pervasive, personality disorders are not diagnosed on the same axis as other clinical conditions.