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Choose the correct answer. Give a comprehensive explain before answering. Wrap the letter for correct answer in ```answer [your chosen letter]```
Question:
Most effective method of assessing breathing is by measuring:
Options:
A. Tidal volume
B. Respiratory rate
C. Alveolar ventilation
D. FEV 1 | null | ```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Major aim of phase 1 clinical trials is:
Options:
A. Safety
B. Efficacy
C. Dose
D. Pharmacokinetics | null | Phase 1 clinical trial : It is first phase in humans. It is conducted mainly on healthy volunteers. In drugs with serious adverse effects and where alternative treatment is not available, phase 1 can be conducted on patients also. Major aim is to know the maximum tolerable dose (MTD). The aim of phase 1 trials should be marked as MTD > Dose > Pharmacokinetics > Safety
```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
The blood pressure data of 200 persons were collected. The first quaile BP of the data was 94 mm Hg and third quaile was 110 mm. How many patients have blood pressures between the 3rd and 4th quaile?
Options:
A. 25
B. 50
C. 100
D. 200 | null | Ans: B. 50Quaile:Type of quantile.In descriptive statistics - Quailes are ranked set of data values.Are 3 points dividing data set into four equal groups.Each group comprising quaer of data.1stquaile (Q1):25' percentile (splits off lowest 25% of data from highest 75%).2ndquaile (Q2):50' percentile (cuts data set in half).3rdquaile (Q3):75" percentile (splits off highest 25% of data from lowest 75%).Interquaile range (IQR):Difference between upper & lower quailes.IQR = Q3 - Q1.Per question:Between every two quailes one/ fouh of total number of patients present.I.e. 200/4 = 50 patients.
```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Which of the following defines the pressure in the vascular system in the absence of blood flow? (Asked twice)
Options:
A. Pulse pressure
B. Critical closing pressure
C. Mean circulatory filling pressure
D. Perfusion pressure | null | Answer- C. Mean circulatory filling pressureMean Circulatory Filling pressure (MCFP) is equilibrium pressure that is reached throughout the cardiovascular system when cardiac output is stopped completely. MCFP can be measured by stopping blood flow (e.g., by stopping hea pumping by giving shock to hea with electricity) and allowing the pressure throughout the circulatory system to reach equilibrium. MCFP is equilibrium pressure everywhere in circulation.
```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Best parameter for ultrasound evaluation of IUGR is:
Options:
A. Placental membrane
B. Length of femur
C. Abdominal circumference
D. BPD | null | “Abdominal circumfernece (AC) is the single most sensitive parameter to detect IUGR. Serial measurements of AC and estimations of fetal weight are more diagnostic to fetal growth restriction.”
Dutta 7/e, p 463
“The biometric parameters, AC is most affected by fetal growth”
Williams 24/e, p 199
```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
According to WHO classification of periapical pathology, sinus to oral cavity comes under:
Options:
A. 4.6
B. 4.6
C. 4.61
D. 4.62 | null | ```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
In a child, surgery was done for biliary stricture with hepatojejunal anastomosis. Postoperative bilirubin level after 2 weeks was 6 mg/dL from a preoperative level 12mg/dL. The reason for this could be:
Options:
A. Normal lowering of bilirubin takes time
B. Anastomotic stricture
C. Delta bilirubin
D. Mistake in lab technique | null | Ans: C. Delta bilirubin(Ref Harrison 19/e p280, 18/e p325)Delta Bilirubin:Albumin-linked bilirubin fraction (delta fraction/biliprotein)Is pa of direct-reacting bilirubin fraction including conjugated bilirubin, covalently linked to albumin.Represents an impoant fraction of total serum bilirubin in patients with cholestasis & hepatobiliary disorders.Clearance rate of albumin-bound bilirubin from serum approximates half-life of albumin (12-14 days) rather than sho half-life of bilirubin (4 hours).Due to tight albumin bonding.
```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
A 2 month old girl has failure to thrive, polyuria and medullary nephrocalcinosis affecting both kidneys. Investigations show blood pH 7.48, bicarbonate 25 mEq/l, potassium 2 mEq/l, sodium 126 mEq/l and chloride 88 mEq/l. The most likely diagnosis is -
Options:
A. Distal renal tubular acidosis
B. Primary hyperaldosteronism
C. Bartter syndrome
D. Pseudohypoaldosteronism | null | Clinical features of the infant --> Polyuria, Growth retardation, Medullary Nephrocalcinosis Electrolyte abnormalities: -
Decreased potassium (Normal 3.5 — 5.0 meq/L) o Normal Bicarbonate (Normal 21-30 meq/L)
Decreased sodium (Normal 136 — 145 ineq/L) o Increased pH (Normal 7.38 — 7.44 meq/L)
Decreased Chloride (Normal 98 — 106 meq/L)
C/F and electrolyte abnormalities in Bartter's syndrome
a Hypokalemia o Polyurea and Nocturea (d/t hypokalemia)
Metabolic alkalosis ❑ Increased urinary chloride (cause Hypochloremia)
Normal to low blood pressure o Hypomagnesemia (seen in minority of patient)
Growth retardation o Hypercalciurea (causes nephrocalcinosis which is visible on ultrasound) Other options
Distal renal tubular acidosis - It can be easily ruled out as it causes acidosis not alkalosis
Primary hyperaldosteronism - In primary hyperaldosteronism, Sodium level is always increased and the B.F. is high.
Pseudo hypoaldosteronism - Aldosterone level is normal or increased but there are features of aldosterone deficiency such as decreased sodium and increased potassium.
```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Resin teeth:
Options:
A. Show a high compressive strength
B. Contraindicated in patients with decreased inter occlusal distance
C. Show crazing
D. Show a high fracture strength | null | ```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
In alpha-thalassemia trait,electrophoresis shows:March 2005
Options:
A. Increased HbF and normal HbA2
B. Normal HbF and normal HbA2
C. Normal HbF and decreased HbA2
D. Decreased HbF and normal HbA2 | null | Ans. B: Normal HbF and normal HbA2Alpha (0) thalassemia -Individuals with this disorder are not able to produce any functional alpha-globin and thus are unable to make any functional hemoglobin A, F, or A2. This leads to the development of hydrops fetalis, also known as hemoglobin Ba, a condition that is incompatible with extra uterine life.Alpha (+) thalassemia - genetic mutations that result in decreased production of alpha-globin usually due to the functional deletion of 1 of the 4 alpha globin genes. Based on the number of inherited alpha genes, it is subclassified into 3 general forms:Thalassemia (-u/ a a) is characterized by inheritance of 3 normal a-genes. These patients are referred to clinically as silent carrier of alpha thalassemia. Other names for this condition are alpha thalassemia minima, alpha thalassemia-2 trait, and heterozygosity for alpha (+) thalassemia minor. The affected individuals exhibit no abnormality clinically and may be hematologically normal or have mild reductions in red cell mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH).Inheritance of 2 normal alpha genes due to either heterozygosity for alpha (0) thalassemia (u a/ --) or homozygosity for alpha (+) thalassemia (-u/-a) results in the development of alpha thalassemia minor or alpha thalassemia-1 trait. The affected individuals are clinically normal but frequently have minimal anemia and reduced mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH).Inheritance of one normal alpha gene (-a/ --) results in abundant formation of hemoglobin H. This condition is known as ElbH disease. The affected individuals have moderate to severe lifelong hemolytic anemia, modest degrees of ineffective erythropoiesis, splenomegaly and variable bony changesPersons with alpha-thalassemia traits have normal HbA2 and HbF levels whereas beta- thalassemia patients have elevated HbA2
```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Zone of stimulation contains all except:
Options:
A. Fibroblasts
B. Osteoclasts
C. Osteoblasts
D. New bone formation | null | The reaction of the periradicular tissues to noxious products of tissue necrosis, bacterial products and antigenic agents from the root canal has been described by Fish.
The four zones
Zone of infection
Zone of contamination
Zone of irritation
Zone of stimulation
Zone of Infection:
This is present in the center of the lesion.
It is characterized by PMNL's.
Zone of Contamination:
It is characterized by round cell infiltration.
It demonstrates cellular destruction due to toxins from the central zone or zone of infection. Because of autolysis and death of bone cells, the lacunae were empty.
Lymphocytes are prevalent everywhere.
Zone of Irritation:
This zone is characterized by macrophages and osteoclasts.
The collagen framework was digested by phagocytic cells, the macrophages, while osteoclasts attacked the bone tissue. This opens a gap in the bone all around the center of lesion. That space becomes filled with PMNL's.
This zone demonstrates much activity preparatory to repair.
Zone of Stimulation: (Peripheral zone)
This zone is characterized by fibroblasts and osteoblasts.
In this zone, the effects of toxins were mild enough to be stimulant which results in laying down of collagen fibers around the zone of irritation that acts both as a wall of defense and as a scaffolding on which the osteoblasts built new bone.
This new bone was built in an irregular fashion.
```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Minimum number of lobes require to form a tooth
Options:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4 | null | ```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
In the odontoblastic layer the following connections is/are found
Options:
A. Zona adherens
B. Gap junctions
C. Zonula occludens
D. All of the above | null | ```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
All are features of Neonatal Tetanus except –
Options:
A. Refusal to feed is common initial symptom
B. Caused by clostridium tetani
C. Usually occurs in 1st 2 days of life
D. Mortality is 50–75%. | null | Neonatal Tetanus
It is caused by clostridium tetani
Clinical features
Symptoms of neonatal tetanus starts by 5-15 days after birth, never in the first 2 days of life and rarely after the age of 2 weeks. (ft is commonly k/a as 811! day disease)
Common initial symptoms are Excessive unexplained crying, Refusal of feeds, Apathy
Prognosis —> Mortality rate varies from 50-75%.
```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
In assessing infant deaths, Ploucquet's test involves:
Options:
A. Change in specific gravity of lungs
B. Presence of air in stomach and duodenum
C. Change in paial weight of lungs
D. Air in middle ear | null | Ans: C. Change in paial weight of lungs(Ref: Reddy 34/e p411, 33/e p439).In assessing infant deaths, Ploucquet's test involves change in paial weight of lungs.Ploucquet's test:The blood flow in the lung beds is so increased after breathing that their weight is almost doubled from 1/70 of the body weight before respiration to 1/35 after respiration.This increase in weight is not constant and is not a reliable indication of breathing.
```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Scammon's growth curve. False is
Options:
A. Neural tissues-Most of the growth is completed by 6 years
B. Lymphoid tissues — growth reaches 200% by age 13 and regresses afterwards
C. Genital tissues — most of the growth is completed by the age of puberty
D. None of the above | null | ```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
The transport of CO is diffusion limited because
Options:
A. Binds avidly with Hb
B. Partial pressure of CO is less
C. CO is less absorbed in water
D. Alveolar membrane is less permeable | null | ```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Acetazolamide is given to a patient of angle closure glaucoma. It is a non-competitive inhibitor of carbonic anhydrase enzyme. Which of the following should be the effect of this drug?
Options:
A. Decrease in Vmax
B. A.Decrease in Km
C. Increase in both Km and Vmax
D. No change in Vmax | null | * Enzyme inhibition is of 3 types: Type of inhibition Km Vmax Competitive inhibition Increases No change Non competitive inhibition No change Decreases Uncompetitive inhibition Decreases Decreases * In question non competitive inhibitor is given, so answer is decrease in Vmax.
```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
All are true about rapid sequence induction done in a cardiac patient in emergency except:
Options:
A. Inducing agent and neuromuscular relaxant are administered together
B. The patient is pre-oxygenated for 3 minutes before the procedure
C. Cricoid pressure has to be applied till the endotracheal tube has been secured with a cuff
D. Induction should be done with thiopentone sodium and succinylcholine for muscle relaxation | null | Ans: D. Induction should be done with thiopentone sodium and succinylcholine for muscle relaxation(Ref Miller 7/e p34, 887)Thiopentone induction is contraindicated in cardiac patients because of direct negative inotropic effects on the hea and depressant effects on systemic BR.Etomidate is the preferred induction agent in such a patient.
```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
A 25-year-old lady presents with sudden severe bilateral loss of vision, more so on the right side, with no perception of light. Rest of the examination including pupillary reflexes, fundus and optokinetic nystagmus are normal. She was able to touch the tips of her fingers with her right eye closed but not with her left eye closed. The most like1 tgnosis is:
Options:
A. Optic neuritis
B. Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy
C. CMV retinitis
D. Functional vision loss | null | Ans. d. Functional vision loss (Ref Kanski 6/e p 477, 790, 792-793)The most likely diagnosis in this young lady who presents with sudden severe bilateral loss of vision, more so on the right side, with no perception of light and normal examination findings including pupillary reflexes, fundus and optokinetic nystagmus, who is able to touch tips of her finger with right eye closed but not with left eye closed, is functional vision loss.
```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
A 60-year old male presents with painful, 141 oupet. vesicles over erythematous plaques in T3 dermatome region of trunk. Which of the following would be the most likely causative organism?
Options:
A. Varicella zoster
B. Herpes simplex
C. Pox virus
D. Papilloma virus | null | Ans. a. Varicella zosterA 60-year-old male presents with painful, grouped vesicles over erythematous plaques in T dermatome region of trunk. Varicella zoster is the most likely causative organism.
```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
A patient is administered 200 mg of a drug. 75 mg of the drug is eliminated from the body in 90 minutes. If the drug follows first order kinetics, how much drug will remain after 6 hours?
Options:
A. 12.5 mg
B. 25 mg
C. 30 mg
D. 50 mg | null | Answer- C. 30 mgDrug remains in the body at the end of 4th 90 minutes (6 hours) : 48.7 -18.3 = 30.4 (Approx. 30 mg)
```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
The most common side effect of the oral administration of ampicillin is
Options:
A. Anaphylactic shock
B. Diarrhoea
C. Oral candidiasis
D. Renal failure | null | ```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Adverse effects of salbutamol are all except
Options:
A. Tremors
B. Tachycardia
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Hypokalemia | null | Salbutamol is a beta 2 agonist. Adverse effects of beta 2 agonists: Tremors Tachycardia Tolerance Hypokalemia (by enhancing potassium uptake into muscles) Hypoxia Hyperglycemia (by stimulating glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis) Note: Tolerance occurs to only long acting beta 2 agonists .
```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Most common extraradicular microorganism is/ are:
Options:
A. Actinomyces species.
B. Propioni bacterium.
C. Propionicum.
D. All of the above. | null | ```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Ludwig's angina is characterized by
Options:
A. Raised tongue
B. Elevation of ear lobe
C. Trismus
D. Unilateral swelling | null | ```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Least condensation pressure is required in:
Options:
A. Spherical amalgam alloy, high copper
B. Admixed amalgam alloy, high copper
C. Admixed amalgam alloy, low copper
D. Lathe cut alloy | null | A spherical amalgam contains small, round alloy particles that are mixed with mercury to form the mass that is placed into the tooth preparation. Because of the shape of the particles, the material is condensed into the tooth preparation with little condensation pressure. This advantage is combined with its high early strength to provide a material that is well suited for very large amalgam restorations, such as complex amalgams or foundations.
Sturdevant ed 4 pg 654
```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Denominator in perinatal moality rate
Options:
A. Total bihs
B. Total live bihs
C. Live bihs + Still bih
D. Total number of newborns | null | Ans: A. Total bihs* PERINATAL MOALITY RATE is the sum of the number of resident fetal deaths of 28 or more weeks gestation plus the number of resident newborns dying under 7 days of age in a specified geographic area (country, state, county, etc.) divided by TOTAL BIHS includes the sum of the number of resident live bihs plus the number of resident fetal deaths of 28 or more weeks gestation for the same geographic area (for a specified time period, usually a calendar year) and multiplied by 1,000.
```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
A child spends 8 years of life in a temperate climate where the drinking water had fluoride of 3 ppm. The teeth that are effected are:
Options:
A. All primary teeth
B. All permanent teeth, except third molars
C. Incisors, canines, premolars and third molars
D. Only molars | null | Enamel fluorosis is a developmental phenomenon due to excessive fluoride ingestion during amelogenesis. Once the crowns of the teeth are formed, no further fluorosis can be induced by additional intake of fluoride or by posteruptive topical applications of fluoride.
```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
The ideal instrument that is used to widen the canal is
Options:
A. Broach
B. File
C. Fissure bur
D. Reamer | null | ```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
According to instrument formula given by G.V. Black, primary cutting edge angle should be:
Options:
A. More than 50 degree
B. More than 90 degree
C. Less than 50 degree
D. Less than 90 degree | null | The second number of a four-number code indicates the primary cutting edge angle, measured from a line parallel to the long axis of the instrument handle in clockwise centigrade.
The centigrade angle is expressed as a percent of 360 degrees (e.g., 85 = 85% × 360 degrees = 306 degrees). The instrument is positioned so that this number always exceeds 50.
Sturdevants operative dentistry 7th edition page e2
```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Which of the following is not true for incubation period?
Options:
A. For determining isolation period of a disease
B. To prevent infection among contacts
C. For quarantine of disease
D. To differentiate among secondary cases and co-primary cases | null | ```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Treatment of ANUG utilizes all except:
Options:
A. Debridement
B. Oral hygiene
C. Penicillin
D. Topical steroid | null | ```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Median rhomboid glossitis is associated with:
Options:
A. Burning mouth syndrome
B. Fungal infection
C. Bacterial infection
D. Absence of filiform papillae | null | ```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
A young male present with loose motions and intermittent abdominal pain over the past 1 year. Wet mount stool specimen showed the presence of multiple ova which are more than 100u in diameter. The causative organisms for the disease shall not include?
Options:
A. Fasciola gigantica
B. Gastrodiscoides hominis
C. Echinostoma ilocanum
D. Opisthorchis viverrini | null | ```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Concentric teeth bite mark on forearm, what to do next?
Options:
A. 2 swab technique for saliva collection
B. Keep scale for measuring below the mark and take photo in the plane of bite
C. Complete description of injury as seen
D. Prepare cast using vinyl polysiloxane | null | Ans: C. Complete description of injury as seenRef KSN Reddy's The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology 33' edn; Page no. 97Impoant: The order of Bite mark investigation: C > B > A> DBite Mark InvestigationComplete description of injury as seenPhotograph: Keep scale for measuring below the mark and take photo from different angle.Swabbing of saliva: To identify or exclude assailant from secretor status who exude blood group substance in the saliva.Impression of bite mark: Plastic substance (rubber or silicone based) or plaster of Paris is laid over the bite mark that hardens and produces permanent negative cast of the lesion.Skin carrying the bite is removed and preserved in formalin during autopsy.
```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
A patient believes he is the most impoant person in the world than anyone so his neighbors and family is trying to harm him as they are jealous of him. His wife says otherwise and says he behaves like this recently only before he was working as a school-teacher peacefully and brought to OPD. He is suffering from:
Options:
A. Delusion of grandiosity
B. Delusion of persecution
C. Delusion of grandiosity and persecution
D. Delusion of grandiosity, persecution and reference | null | Ans. d. Delusion of grandiosity, persecution and reference The given description suggests that the patient is having delusion of grandiosity, persecution and reference.Delusion of grandeurExaggerated conception of one's impoance, power, or identity.Delusion of persecutionFalse belief of being harassed or persecuted; often found in litigious patients who have a pathological tendency to take legal action because of imagined mistreatment.MC delusion.Delusion of referenceFalse belief that behavior of others refers to oneself or that events, objects, or other people have a paicular & unusual significance, usually of a negative natureDerived from idea of reference, in which persons falsely feel that others are talking about them (e.g., belief that people on television or radio are talking to or about the person).
```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Measuring variation between two different units is done through
Options:
A. Variance
B. Standard deviation
C. Coefficient of variation
D. Range | null | ```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Which of the following diseases is diagnosed with the help of the flowcytometry pattern?
Options:
A. Bruton disease
B. Bare lymphocyte syndrome
C. Hyper IgM syndrome
D. Severe combined immunodeficiency disease | null | Flow cytometry can rapidly and quantitatively measure several individual cell characteristics, but is mainly used to identify cellular antigens expressed by liquidtumors , those that arise from blood forming tissues. Hyper IgM syndrome - In this disorder the affected patients make IgM antibodies but are deficient in their ability to produce IgG, IgA and IgE antibodies. There is problem in Ig class switching. Approximately 70%of individuals with hyper lgM syndrome have the X linked form of the disease , caused by mutations in the gene coding CD40L located on Xq26. In remaining patients,the disease is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. Most of these patients have loss of function mutation involving either CD40 or enzyme called AID. So, B-cells can be detected by flowcytometryhaving low expression of CD40. Bruton's disease -In this disease, there is defect in B-cell tyrosine kinase enzyme. This leads to hypogammaglobulinemia. Bare lymphocyte syndrome- In this disorder, There is defect in MHC-2 molecule which is required for CD4 T-cell formation. SCID - This is both X-linked and autosomal recessive disorder.
```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Best indicator of developing cardiovascular disease is
Options:
A. LDL cholesterol level more than 120 mg/dl
B. History of salt intake of more than 6 gm/day
C. LDL/HDL ratio
D. All of the above | null | ```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Pulp proper contains
Options:
A. Large Blood vessels
B. Nerve fibers
C. Fibroblasts
D. All of the above | null | ```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Which of the following is used as a bio-degradable membrane in "guided tissue regeneration" process?
Options:
A. Polylactic acid
B. Poly tetrafluoroethylene
C. Millipore
D. Core membrane | null | ```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Pulmonary-renal syndromes include-
Options:
A. Goodpasture
B. Leptospirosis
C. Hantavirus and Wegner's
D. All | null | Answer-D. AllPulmonary-renal syndromes are most commonly caused by an underlying autoimmune disease. PRS is most commonly due to ANCA-associated vasculitides (e.g., granulomatosis with polyangiitis) or due to anti-basement membrane diseases (e.g., Goodpasture's syndrome). Other etiologies include toxic injury such as paraquat poisoning, infection with hantavirus, leptospirosis, or legionella, or vascular, as seen in nephrotic syndrome when a renal vein thrombosis embolism to the lungs.
```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Bone sounding done in modern times is performed by which method?
Options:
A. RVG
B. Probing
C. CBCT
D. Radiovisiography | null | ```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Oil red '0' stain is used for:
Options:
A. Glutaraldehyde fixed specimen
B. Alcohol fixed specimen
C. Formalin fixed specimen
D. Frozen specimen | null | Ans: D. Frozen specimenFor Connective Tissue and LipidsName of stainElements stainedTrichrome StainCollagenVerhoeff-Van Gieson stain (Best for Elastin)Elastic fibersLuna stainElastin & Mast cellsSilver Methenamine stainReticulinOil red '0' stain (on Fresh specimen)Sudan black (on fixed specimen)FatMallory's PTAH stainMuscle striationsMaius scarlet blue (MSB)FibrinPAS, Silver Methenamine stainBasement membraneBielschowsky (silver stain)Neurofibrillary tangles senile plaquesLuxol fast blueMyelin(Ref Netter :s* Essential Histology 2/e p479)
```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Jaw or tooth apart swallow is:
Options:
A. Infantile swallow.
B. Mature swallow.
C. Both
D. None. | null | ```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
A female with suspected child abuse was brought to the casualty with severe bleeding from the perineum. What should be the first line of management?
Options:
A. Airway maintenance
B. Internal iliac aery ligation
C. Whole blood transfusion
D. Inform police before staing the treatment | null | Ans. a. Airway maintenanceThe primary survey aims to identify and manage the most immediately life-threatening pathologies first and follows ABCDE.c- exsanguinating external hemorrhageA- Airway maintenanceB- Breathing & ventilationC- Circulation & hemorrhageD- DisabilityE- Exposure
```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Classify the class of recession:
Options:
A. Class 1
B. Class 2
C. Class 3
D. Class 4 | null | ```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Method of choice for a New born child not passing urine for 36 hours :
Options:
A. Ultrasound of kidney & bladder
B. CT Scan
C. Cystoscopy
D. X–ray pelvis | null | A history of Anuria suggests Acute Renal failure.
Ultrasonography is the ideal imaging tool in Renal failure because of its non dependence on Renal function.
As it allows visualization of :
Pelvicalyceal system ofAssessment of Renal Size o Structural anomalies and calculi .
Note - In this question DTPA scan has not been provided as an option. So, the best answer is USG.
```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Bacteria free zone of dentinal caries is
Options:
A. a)Zone of decomposed dentin
B. Zone of bacterial invasion
C. Zone of decalcification
D. Zone of dentinal sclerosis | null | ```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Which is not a type of Gracey curvettes?
Options:
A. # 1-2
B. # 11-12
C. # 13-14
D. # 5-16 | null | ```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Which ion of hydroxyapatite crystals is substituted by Fluoride imparts more strength?
Options:
A. Hydroxyl ion
B. Calcium ion
C. Phosphate ion
D. None | null | ```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Cleaning of base metal alloy is done by
Options:
A. Warm HCl
B. Cold HF
C. Cold H2 So4
D. Sand blasting with aluminium oxide | null | ```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Estimation of the blood sugar is relevant in all except –
Options:
A. Birth asphyxia
B. Large for date baby
C. Baby of hypothyroid mother
D. Rh Incompatibility | null | ARDS (Birth asphyxia), Rh incompatibility (if causes erythroblastosis fetalis) and large for date baby of diabetic mother are prone for hypoglycemia.
```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
All are true about isolated aoic stenoses except:
Options:
A. Pulsus bisferiens
B. Cardiac apex is displaced laterally to left
C. Thrill in carotid aery
D. Blood pressure maintained in initial phase | null | Ans: A. Pulsus bisferiens(Ref Harrison 19/e p15.31, 1536, 18/e p1939)Pulsus bisferiens is seen in a patient of aoic stenosis (AS) along with aoic regurgitation (AR) and is rare in isolated AS.The cardiac apex is usually displaced to left because of left ventricular hyperophy.In some patients with AR or with combined AS and AR, the carotid aerial pulse may be bisferiens, i.e., with two systolic waves separated by a trough.
```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Which of the following is the most common site for the
occurrence of a basal cell carcinoma?
Options:
A. Buccal mucosa
B. Hard palate
C. Skin of the lower lip
D. Dorsum of the tongue | null | ```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Who was associated with second amalgam war?
Options:
A. G V Black
B. Charles bell
C. Huggins
D. Alfred stock | null | ```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Reticular fibers of collagen tissues are present in all of the following except:
Options:
A. Thymus
B. Spleen
C. Bone marrow
D. Lymph node | null | Ans: A. ThymusReticular fibers of collagen tissues are present in Spleen, Bone marrow & Lymph node but not in thymus.Reticulin:Type of fiber in connective tissue.Composed of type III collagen.Secreted by reticular cells.Reticular fibers crosslink to form a fine meshwork.Acts as a suppoing mesh in soft tissues such as liver, bone marrow & tissues and organs of lymphatic system.
```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Which of the following muscle is not supplied by the nerve marked in the diagram?
Options:
A. Superior oblique
B. Medial rectus
C. Inferior rectus
D. Inferior oblique | null | The nerve marked in the diagram is oculomotor nerve. It supplies superior rectus, inferior rectus, medial rectus and inferior oblique. Superior oblique is supplied by Trochlear nerve.
```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Which is a direct content of cavernous sinus?
Options:
A. Ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve
B. Trochlear nerve
C. Abducent nerve
D. Oculomotor nerve | null | Abducent nerve: Only cranial nerve passing through the centre of cavernous sinus.
```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
In Mount and Hume classification, what will be the site size of the following lesion?
Options:
A. 2.1
B. 2.2
C. 3.1
D. 3.2 | null | MOUNT AND HUME CLASSIFICATION 1998
```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Keeping in Jack-knife position for long leads to death by:
Options:
A. Wedging
B. Burking
C. Positional asphyxia
D. Traumatic asphyxia | null | Answer- C. Positional asphyxiaKeeping in Jack-knife position for long leads to death by positional asphyxia."Postural or Positional Asphyxia":Occasionally, it results from indirect compression, when the body is subjected to force in such a manner that his thighs and the knees are driven against his chest, the so-called "Jack-Knife" position. There is usually marked congestion, cyanosis, and petechiae in the face and neck.This occurs when the individual acquires a ceain body position in which breathing is impaired, often because of neck twisting with kinking or compression of trachea and/or elevation of the tongue into the posterior hypopharynx. Normal venous return to the hea may be impaired.The body is typically inveed (upside-down) & weight of abdominal contents press against the diaphragm pushing it upwards, thus compressing the thoracic organs, which combined with decreased respiratory movements, leads to cardiorespiratory failure & death.It is always accidental
```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Extraction of 3rd molar tooth bud in 7-9 yr old child:
Options:
A. Improves growth of maxilla
B. Causes excessive damage to the mandible
C. Results of future orthodontic treatment are improved anterior teeth
D. Results in less crowding | null | ```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Which of the following statements is false in relation to myofacial pain dysfunction syndrome?
Options:
A. Mainly affects young females
B. Is caused by muscle fatigue due to chronic oral habits as grinding and clenching
C. Treatment involves construction of occlusal guard and stress free emotional condition
D. The perioral musculature becomes hypotonic | null | ```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Which of the following features is not seen in Crouzon syndrome?
Options:
A. Midface hypoplasia
B. Syndactyly
C. Beak shaped nose
D. Ocular hypertelorism | null | Crouzon syndrome can have following appearances/conditions
```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
The best finish line for anterior metal ceramic crown is
Options:
A. Chamfer with bevel
B. Heavy chamfer
C. Shoulder
D. Shoulder with bevel | null | ```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Kamlesh, a 2 year old girl, has Down's syndrome. Her karyotype is 21/21 translocation. What is the risk ofrecurrence in subsequent pregnancies if the father is a balanced translocation carrier :
Options:
A. 100%
B. 50%
C. 25%
D. 0% | null | Down Syndrome– (Trisomy 21)
Seen in 11n 800 to 1000 newborns
M/C Nonlethal trisomy
Risk of Down syndrome increases with increase in maternal age
At maternal age of 35 years, the risk of having a baby with Down syndrome is 1:365. to 1:400.
Recurrent Risk of Down’s syndrome
```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Which of the following are the predominant connective tissue cells of the periodontal Ligament?
Options:
A. Cementoblasts
B. Fibroblasts
C. Osteoblasts
D. Rests of Malassez | null | ```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Which of the following is characterized by Apple Jelly Nodules?
Options:
A. Scrofula
B. Lupus vulgaris
C. Ghon’s focus
D. Ghon's complex | null | Granulomatous skin diseases may have a characteristic appearance under diascopy, such as in lupus vulgaris (cutaneous tuberculosis), in which ‘apple jelly nodules’ are typically seen on diascopy.
Ref: Davidson Ed 23 Pg 1214
```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
A 50 years okl smoker and hypeensive was diagnose to have non-small cell lung carcinoma with brain metastases. He is on enalapril and hydrochlorothiazide for hypeension. On investigation, he had a serum Sodium 120 mg/dl|, Urinary Sodium ll0 mg/dl, Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL, Serum osmolarity 285 mOsm/L, Urinary osmolarity 35l mOsm/L, Urinary K+ 9 mg/dl, Blood sugar ll2 mgldL and BP of 150/90 mm Hg. Which of the following is the mnst probable cause for his hyponatremia?
Options:
A. Cerebral salt wasting
B. Diuretic induced
C. SIADH
D. Pseudohyponatremia | null | Answer-C. SIADHHyponatremia is a common electrolyte abnormality in cancer patients, and SIADH is the most common cause among patients with cancer.The term SIADH is applied to conditions with vasopressin excess.Vasopressin excess is termed inappropriate as this increase occurs despite decreased plasma osmolality.Increased vasopressin acts on renal tubules, resulting in increased absorption of water (increased total body water), concentrated urinec and decreasing serum osmolalityEUR and hyponatremiao.Edema does not occur despite increased total body waterg (due to unknown reasons)-Clinical euvolemia
```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
A 40 year male complaining of hot flushes each time he baths. Hb: 20%gm, Platelet: 89,000/mL, WBC: 30,000/mL, Investigation revealed JAK2 mutation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
A. PMF
B. CML
C. PCV
D. Essential thrombocytosis | null | diagnosis Polycythemia Vera Polycythemia | platelet | WBL | | RBC | JAK2 mutation Polycythemia Vera | WBC | Basohils | histamine release - contribute to hot flushes or itching Every time patient takes bath (aquagenic pruritis) impoant diagnostic feature: Serum erythropoietin level below normal. Impoant diagnostic feature: Serum erythropoietin level below normal. Rx=Hydroxyurea Cells count control Option A- PMF Should show SplenoHepatomegaly Pancytopenia No TLC RBC drop mentioned Option B- CML ||| WBL upto 1 lakh Jak2 must along with bcr-abl fusion transcription present. Option D- Essential thrombocytosis Leads to |only platelet count initially other counts will increase Later significant increase in platelet count upto 5-6 lakh approx.: less in our of answer.
```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
A 55- year old diabetic patient presents with transient obscuration in vision for 2-3 days followed by sudden loss of vision. Which of the following would be the best test to evaluate the symptoms?
Options:
A. Serum ACE levels
B. Quantiferon-Gold TB test
C. Elevated homocysteine levels
D. Serum creatinine levels | null | Answer- D. Serum creatinine levelsDM can lead to both retinopathy and nephropathy, Serum creatinine levels would be the best for kidney function and evaluation of patient symptoms.
```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
One of the most common side effects of phenytoin is
Options:
A. Gingival Hyperplasia
B. Gingival Necrosis
C. Dental stains
D. Hypertension | null | ```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
A 38-years old patient who had a total abdominal hysterectomy presents 2 months postop complaining of leakage of urine from the vagina. On examination, no fistula can be identified. Dilute methylene blue (100mL) is injected into the bladder through a Foley catheter and a tampon is placed in the vagina. The patient is asked to walk for about 15 minutes, after which the patient is found to be wet, but there is no blue stain anywhere on the tampon. Which of the following is true:-
Options:
A. 100mL was probably not enough methylene blue, and the test should be repeated with a higher volume
B. The patient probably has stress incontinence not a fistula
C. The patient probably has a ureterovaginal fistula
D. The patient most likely has small apical vesicovaginal fistula that was too small to leak the dye in 15 minutes | null | Methylene blue Swab Test-- A catheter is introduced into the bladder through the urethra, The vaginal cavity is packed with three sterile swabs, 50-100 mL of dilute methylene blue dye is injected into the bladder through the catheter. If there is a VVF present, the methylene blue dye stains the uppermost swab.If the lowermost swab gets stained, the leak is from the urethra--> urethrovaginal fistula Swabs do not take up the stain, but get wet with urine, the leak is from the ureter-->ureterovaginal fistula
```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Freedom of centric relation correlates with
Options:
A. 0.15 - 1.5 mm
B. 0.20 - 0.40 mm
C. 0.5 to 1.5 mm
D. 1 to 2 mmm | null | ```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Ganglionic transmission is mediated by:
Options:
A. Presynaptic alpha-receptors
B. Postsynaptic beta-receptors
C. Postsynaptic dopaminergic receptors
D. Postsynaptic nicotinic receptors | null | Ans: D .Postsynaptic nicotinic receptors(Ref: Goodman Gilman 13/e p108, 12Ie p255; Katzung 13Ie p108, 12/e p98).Ganglionic transmission is mediated by nicotinic receptors present post-synaptically.Nicotinic acetylcholine (ACh) receptor mediates neurotransmission post-synaptically at the neuromuscular junction and peripheral autonomic ganglia.In CNS, controls release of neurotransmitters from presynaptic sites.The receptor is called the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor - Due to both alkaloid nicotine & neurotransmitter ACh can stimulate the receptor.
```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Which of the following is not an example of a syndrome caused by uniparental disomy?
Options:
A. Prader-Willi syndrome
B. Angelman syndrome
C. Russell-Silver syndrome
D. Bloom syndrome | null | Answer- D. Bloom syndromeUniparental disomy is the term used when both chromosome of a pair of chromosome is a person with normal number of chromosome, have been inherited from only one parent (Normally one chromosome of a pair is inherited from only one parent).The two chromosomes inherited from the same parent maybe identical (Uniparental isodisomy) or different (Uniparental heterodisomy).In Uniparental isodisomy, both chromosomes in the pair are identical; consequently the genes on both chromosomes are also identical.Angelman syndrome, Prader-Willi syndrome and Russell-Silver syndrome are ossociated with uniparental disomy.
```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
One of the many mechanisms of adverse events is its increased binding to secondary targets, usually proteins. With respect to the primary target, the secondary target:
Options:
A. Should be present in the same tissue as the primary target
B. Should have similar binding sites
C. Should have absolutely identical secondary structure
D. Should have a similar primary structure | null | Ans. b. Should have similar binding sites (Ref: vvww'plosone'org)Secondary site compared to the primary site has the same sequence of binding site.
```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
School based dental health care for whole country is adopted by which of the following country?
Options:
A. USA
B. NewZealand
C. Sweden
D. Australia | null | ```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Postrenal transplant patient presents with diarrhoea after 3 months; it was showing organism measuring 2-6 micron meter and kinoyn stain positive. Most likely it is caused by:
Options:
A. Balantidium coli
B. Clostridium difficile
C. Cystoisospora belli
D. Cryptosporidium hominis | null | Ans. d. Cryptosporidium hominisOppounistic infections are extremely common post-transplant in the period staing from 1 month post-transplant to 6 months post-transplant.Clostridium difficle is usually seen within 1 month post-transplant because of profound antibiotic use.Kinoyn stain (Modified acid fast) positivity rules out Balantidium.Now it is between cryptosporidium vs cycloisospora. Size (smaller i.e., 2-6 microns) tells us that the organism is undoubtedly cryptosporidium hominis (previously parvum).
```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Iron entry into enterocytes occurs which of the following?
Options:
A. DMT-1
B. Ferropoin
C. Transferrin
D. Hepcidin | null | GI Luminal non-heme iron is mostly in the Fe3+ (ferric) state and must first be reduced to Fe2+ ferrous) iron by ferrireductases, such as b cytochromes and STEAP3. Fe2+ iron is then transpoed across the apical membrane of enterocytes by divalent metal transpoer-1 (DMT1).
```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
An elderly male patient presented with fever, chest pain, and dry coughp; sputum culture showed growth on Charcoal Yeast Extract Medium, the organism is
Options:
A. H. influenza
B. Moraxella catarrhalis
C. Legionella
D. Burkholderia cepacia | null | ```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Ashley-Howe model analysis is used to predict:
Options:
A. Tooth material excess
B. Maxillo-mandibular relationships
C. Basal bone-transverse relationship
D. Growth prediction | null | ```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
A neonate on routine examination at bih was found to have hepatomegaly. Rest of the examination was essentially unremarkable. On investigations, Anti-HCMV antibodies were found to be positive. What sequelae in later life is the child at risk of?
Options:
A. Renal failure
B. Mental retardation
C. Hepatic fibrosis
D. Sensorineural hearing loss | null | Ans: D. Sensorineural hearing loss (Ref: (Ghai 8/e p272 ; Nelson 20/e p 592-1594)Positive human cytomegalovirus (HCMV) antibodies at bih - Suggestive of congenital asymptomatic CMV infection.Symptomatic child at increased risk a Develops mental retardation.Asymptomatic child is at as high as 7% risk a Develop sensorineural hearing loss.Congenital CMV infection:Characteristic signs & symptoms:Clinically manifested infections - Intrauterine growth restriction, prematurity, hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice, blueberry muffin--like rash, thrombocytopenia and purpura, microcephaly & intracranial calcifications.Neurologic problems:Chorioretinitis, sensorineural hearing loss & mild increases in cerebrospinal fluid protein.
```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Patient is a known case of epilepsy, taking levetiracetam 1 gm BD. He is now seizure free from 2 years but he developed agitation and anger issues interfering with day to day activities as a result of the drug intake. What should be the next best step?
Options:
A. Stop levetiracetam and sta on a different antiepileptic
B. Discontinue the drug as he is seizure free
C. Slowly taper the drug over next 6 months
D. Continue levetiracetam since a 5-year seizure free interval is needed | null | Answer- C. Slowly taper the drug over next 6 monthsStopping or switching an antiepileptic is based on seizure free period & compliance or adverse effects of the drug.Withdrawal of therapy should be gradual over 2-3 monlhs, in the question 6 months. Anti-epileptic drug therapy shouldnever he stopped abruptly. Even if new drug is to be added/replaced, the previous drug should be gradually stoppedotherwise it can lead to breakthrough seizures.
```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Which of the following statements regarding the National Programme for Non-communicable diseases-Cancer, Diabetes, Cardiovascular diseases (CVD) and stroke (NPCDCS) is true?
Options:
A. The plan is to implement the programme in 10 districts across the 5 states during 2010-2012
B. The diagnosis or treatment of non-communicable diseases to be carried out at the subcentre level
C. Coronary care unit and cancer care facility to be established at the district level hospital
D. All the components of the programme to be addressed separately- cancer, diabetes, CVD and stroke | null | Ans. c. Coronary care unit and cancer care facility to be established at the district level hospital (Ref: NPCDCS Operational Guidelines, DGHS, GOI, Page 6)The NPCDCS program has two components viz. (i) Cancer and (ii) Diabetes, CVDs and Stroke.
```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Contractile element in myofibril is:
Options:
A. H band
B. Sarcoplasm
C. Sarcomere
D. A line | null | ```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
All of the following complications are more common in ventouse assisted delivery than forceps except:
Options:
A. Subgaleal hemorrhage
B. Cephalhematoma
C. Intracranial hemorrhage
D. Transient lateral rectus palsy | null | Answer- D. Transient lateral rectus palsyTransient lateral rectus palsy is more common inforceps assisted delivery.Subgaleal hemonhage, cephalhematoma and intracranial hemonhage are more common in ventouse assisted delivery.
```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
All of the following are true about aspiration pneumonia except:
Options:
A. Aspiration of 20-30 mL of contents with pH < 2.5 is required
B. Fungal infection is the common cause of pneumonia
C. Posterior segment of the right upper lobe is most commonly affected in the recumbent position
D. Aspiration responsible for 5-15% of community acquired pneumonia | null | Answer- B.Fungal infection is the common cause of pneumoniaMixed polymicrobial infection involving both aerobes and anaerobes are the common cause of aspiration pneumonia, not the fungal infection.Incidence: It is common and may account for up to 15% of patients with community-acquired pneumonia.Gastric pH of 2.5 or less with a gastric contents volume greater than 25 ml are critical values for causing aspiration pneumonia.The posterior segments of the upper lobe and apical segments of lower lobes are most commonly involved when aspiration occurs in a supine position.The basal segments of the lower lobes are usually affected in patients who aspirate in an upright or semirecumbent position.
```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Which of the following is not associated with haemorrhage?
Options:
A. Ecchymosis
B. Petechiae
C. Melanosis
D. Purpura | null | ```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Dapsone is used for treatment of bacterial and fungal infections as well as for immunomodulatory actions. What is mechanism of dapsone for these indication?
Options:
A. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
B. Inhibition of ergosterol in cell membranes
C. Inhibition of protein synthesis
D. Competition with PABA in folic acid synthesis | null | Sulfonamides (including Dapsone and PAS) : Competitively inhibit folic acid synthase enzyme as these are PABA analogues. Trimethoprim, Pyrimethamine : Inhibit Dihydro folate reductase enzyme (DHFRase). Inhibition of ergosterol in cell membrane (in fungus and leishmania): Amphotericin B.
```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
In processing methyl methacrylate, the resin may show porosity if the flask is placed too soon. Porosity most likely occur
Options:
A. Throughout the denture
B. Near the borders
C. In the thickest part
D. On the denture surface | null | ```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Pre-maxillary hard palate is supplied by which nerve
Options:
A. Nasopalatine nerve
B. Pharyngeal branch of glossopharyngeal nerve
C. Greater palatine nerve
D. Tensor palatine nerve | null | ```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
23 serotypes pneumococcal vaccine Most useful in
Options:
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Recurrent otitis media & sinusitis
C. Child less than 2 years
D. Sickle cell anaemia | null | Ans-D. Sickle cell anaemia* PPSV23 (Pneumovax or Pnu-Immune) is the most widely available formulation and contains 23 pneumococcal polysaccharides* A single dose of the 23-valent pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV23) is indicated for adults (ages 19 to 64 years)* Vaccination with both PCV13 and PPSV23 is indicated in individuals with impaired splenic function for eg- Sickle cell disease or other hemoglobinopathy
```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Fourth generation apex locater based on
Options:
A. Resistance
B. lmpedence
C. Frequency
D. Multiple frequency ratio | null | ```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Biopsy specimens removed for examinations are immediately placed in:
Options:
A. 10% ethanol
B. 10% formalin
C. Hydrogen peroxide
D. 1% formalin | null | ```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
True open bite is caused by
Options:
A. Horizontal fracture of the maxilla
B. Unilateral fracture of mandibular angle
C. Fracture of the coronoid process of left side of mandible
D. Fracture of mandibular symphysis | null | ```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Greatest potential hazard of mercury toxicity occurs due to:
Options:
A. Skin contact with mercury
B. Inhalation of mercury vapours
C. During amalgam restoration
D. Ingestion of amalgam scrap during removal | null | ```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Which of the following is an indiction for tonsillectomy –a) Rheumatic feverb) Glomerulonephritisc) Recurrent upper respiratory infectiond) Persistent carrier of diptheria bacilli
Options:
A. ab
B. cd
C. bd
D. ac | null | Indications of tonsillectomy
Recurrent sore throat —› If more than six attacks of tonsillitis in a year for two consecutive years.
Tonsillar or peritonsillar abscess o Retention cyst of tonsil o Diphtheria carriers
Tonsillolith o Suspicious malignancy o Obustructive sleep apnea
```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Which of the following is not an effect of efferent aeriole constriction :
Options:
A. Decreased GFR
B. Increased glomerular hydrostatic pressure
C. Decreased blood flow in peritubular vessels
D. Increased oncotic pressure in peritubular vessels | null | Constriction of efferent aeriole has biphasic effect on GFR. At moderate levels of constriction, It increases glomerular hydrostatic pressure resulting in increasing GFR If efferent aeriolar constriction is severe; It decreases renal blood flow; filtration fraction & glomerular colloid osmotic pressure increases as efferent aeriolar resistance increases resulting in colloid osmotic pressure exceeds increase in glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure resulting in decrease in GFR. Blood from efferent aerioles enter peritubular capillaries, so if efferent aeriole is constricted, less blood enters peritubular capillaries, which results in increase in oncotic pressure in peri tubular capillaries.
```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |