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Choose the correct answer. Give a comprehensive explain before answering. Wrap the letter for correct answer in ```answer [your chosen letter]```
Question:
Cleft lip is due to non-union of
Options:
A. Maxillary process with MNP
B. MNP - LNP
C. MNP - MNP
D. All of the above | null | ```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Sickle cell anemia is a -
Options:
A. Gene deletion
B. Gene modification
C. Point mutation
D. Frame shift mutation | null | Answer- c- point mutation.Sickle-cell anemia is caused by a point mutation in the b-globin chain of hemoglobin, causing the hydrophilic amino acid glutamic acid to be replaced with the hydrophobic amino acid valine at the sixth position.It is caused by a point mutation (Base substitution mutation) at the sixth position of the b-globin chain leading to subsitution of a valine residue for a glutamic acid residue resulting in sickle hemoglobin (HbS).Sickle cell anemia is an autosomal recessive disorder.
```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
All are true about widal test except
Options:
A. Base lines differ depending on the endemicity of the disease
B. O antibodies last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
C. H antigen cannot differentiate between subtypes
D. High titre value in a single widal test is not confirmative | null | ```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
What is the name of the given instrument, used for harvesting the graft from healthy area in split thickness skin graft?
Options:
A. Dermatome
B. Silver's knife
C. Catlin amputating knife
D. Humby knife | null | Humby Knife A knife with a roller attached, used for cutting skin grafts of varying thickness The distance between the roller and blade of knife can be varied by means of a calibration device.
```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
A person working in an abattoir presented with a papule on hand, which turned in to an ulcer. Which will best help in diagnosis
Options:
A. Polychrome Methylene blue
B. Carbol Fuschin
C. Acid Fast Stain
D. Calcoflour White | null | ```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
A midwife at a PHC did per vaginal examination of a women in labor with 8 cm cervical dilation and 70% cervical effacement with the fetal head at +1 station. This +1 station implies the position of fetal head is-
Options:
A. 1 cm above the ischial spine
B. 1 cm below the ischial spine
C. At the level of ischial spine
D. 1 cm below the cervical os | null | Answer-B. 1 cm below the ischial spineStation describes descent of the fetal biparietal diameter in relation to a line drawn between maternal ischial spines. Thus+1 station implies fetal head is 1 cm below the ischial spine.
```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
High content of cholesterol is present in:
Options:
A. Coconut oil
B. Egg yolk
C. Hydrogenated fat
D. Ghee (unsaturated) | null | ```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Tooth with smallest root
Options:
A. Mandibular central incisor
B. Mandibular lateral incisor
C. Maxillary lateral incisor
D. Maxillary 1st premolar | null | ```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
The function of a sprue is to
Options:
A. Form an opening for molten metal to enter the mold
B. Help polish cast restorations
C. Eliminate air bubbles on the wax pattern
D. Reproduce fine detail | null | ```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Access cavity of mandibular 1st molar is:
Options:
A. Oval
B. Rounded triangle
C. Rhomboid
D. None of the above | null | 1st choice for access cavity preparation in mandibular 1st molar is trapezoidal.
2nd choice is rounded triangle.
```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
A pier abutment is:
Options:
A. Periodontally weak abutment
B. With an edentulous space on mesial and distal sides of the abutment
C. Edentulous space on one side of the abutment
D. Abutment adjacent to edentulous space | null | ```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
According to the new RNTCP guidelines, the following is not a suspect of tuberculosis
Options:
A. Confirmed extra-pulmonary tuberculosis patient with cough of 2 weeks or more
B. HIV-positive patient with cough of any duration
C. Contacts of sputum positive tuberculosis patient with cough of any duration
D. Any individual having cough of duration 2 weeks or more | null | Ans: A. Confirmed extra-pulmonary tuberculosis patient with cough of 2 weeks or more(Ref: Park 24/e p188-189, 23/e p178: 22/e p 168; htip://tbcindia.nic.in)A contact of confirmed extra-pulmonary tuberculosis patient - TB suspect.If persistent cough of any duration (2 weeks is not required).TB suspects:Pulmonary TB Suspect:Defined as:Any individual having cough of >2 weeks.Contacts of smear positive TB patients having cough of any duration.Suspected/confirmed extra-pulmonary TB patient having cough of any duration.HIV-positive patient having cough of any duration.MDR-TB Suspect:Any TB patient who fails an RNTCP Category failing I or III treatment regimen.Any RNTCP Category II patient with sputum smear positive at end of 4th month of treatment or later.Close contacts of MDR-TB patients with smear positive pulmonary TB.
```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
All are topical hemostatic agents except?
Options:
A. Bone wax & patty
B. HemCon bandage
C. Quikclot
D. Fixclot | null | Ans. D. Fixclot Topical hemostatic agents are used when surgical hemostasis is inadequate or impractical. The majority of routine, elective operations are performed in patients with normal hemostasis and with minimal blood loss.The two main categories of topical hemostatic agents are physical agents, which promote hemostasis using a passive substrate, and biologically active agents, which enhance coagulation at the bleeding site
```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Which of the following pulp horn of primary molar is commonly exposed during restorative procedures:
Options:
A. Mesiobuccal puplhorn of 1st molars.
B. Distobuccal pulp horn of 1st molars.
C. Mesiobuccal pulp horn of 2nd molars.
D. Distobuccal pulp horn of 2nd molars. | null | The mesiobuccal pulphorn of permanent maxillary 1st molar is commonly exposed during cavity preparation.
Mesiolingual pulphorn of permanent mandibular 1st molar is commonly exposed during cavity preparation.
Mesiobuccal pulphorn of primary 1st molars is commonly exposed during restorative procedures on primary molars.
```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Rate of Dentinal fluid permeability depends on all except?
Options:
A. Temperature variation
B. Pressure gradient across dentinal tubule
C. Increase viscosity of dentinal fluid
D. Rate of removal of substances by blood vessels | null | ```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Extraction of disto-angular impaction of mandibular 3rd molar can cause:
Options:
A. Slippage in lingual pouch
B. # of ramus of mandible
C. Excessive Haemorrhage
D. Dry socket | null | ```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Acetazolamide is given to a patient of angle closure glaucoma. It is a non- competitive inhibitor of carbonic anhydrase enzyme. Which of the following should be the effect of this drug?
Options:
A. Decrease in Vmax
B. Decrease in Km
C. Decrease in both Km and Vmax
D. No change in Vmax | null | Enzyme inhibition is of 3 types: Type of inhibition Km Vmax Competitive inhibition Increases No change Non competitive inhibition No change Decreases Uncompetitive inhibition Decreases Decreases In question non competitive inhibitor is given, so answer is decrease in Vmax.
```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Which of the following does not require 5'capping?
Options:
A. tRNA of alanine
B. mRNA for histone
C. U6 snRNA
D. siRNA | null | Ans: A. tRNA of alanineSmall nuclear RNAs contain a unique 5'-caps. Sm-class snRNAs are found with 5'-trimethylguanosine caps, while Lsm-class snRNAs are found with S'-monomethyl phosphate caps.mRNAs do have a 7-methylguanylate cap, abbreted m7G.tRNAs and rRNAs don't require 5' capping. They have other modifications.
```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Peau d'orange in carcinoma breast is due to:
Options:
A. Obstruction of sub-dermal lymphatics
B. Infiltration of Cooper's ligament
C. Hematogenous dissemination
D. Hematogenous dissemination | null | Ans: A. Obstruction of sub-dermal lymphaticsPeau-d-orange is due to cutaneous lymphatic edema.Caused by obstruction of subdermal lymphatics. As the disease advances locally there may be skin involvement with peau d'orange or frank ulceration and fixation to the chest wall. This is described as cancer-en-cuirasse when the disease progresses around the chest wall.
```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
True about adult polycystic kidney disease is all, except:
Options:
A. Autosomal dominant inheritance
B. Hypertension is rare
C. Can be associated with cysts in liver, lungs and pancreas
D. Pyelonephritis is common | null | Hypertension is common in patients with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease. It is present in 75% of adult patients and 25% of children.
```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Propranolol is drug of choice for -
Options:
A. Ulcerated infantile hemangioma
B. Lymphangioma
C. Pyogenic granuloma
D. Capillary malformation | null | Ans. A. Ulcerated infantile hemangiomaRef: <a href=" hemangiomas (IHs) are the most common benign pediatric soft-tissue tumors.</li>Ulceration--the most frequent complication of IH--tends to heal poorly and is associated with pain, bleeding, infection, and scarring.Mainstay treatment modalities include propranolol (b-blocker) and coicosteroids, whose effectiveness is countered by a need for long-term medication and risk of systemic adverse effects and ulcer recurrence.
```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
During pregnancy baby can be affected in utero in all except:
Options:
A. Candida
B. Syphilis
C. Toxoplasmosis
D. Polio | null | In case of polio only feco-oral transmission is known, no placental transmission has been reported yet
All other disease mentioned may be transmitted to fetus by mother
I am in doubt about candida, because although congenital candidiasis can occur, the mode of transmission is not transplacental but ascending infection from external genitals of mother or during parturition.
But as far as the answer is concerned it is undoubtedly “POLIO”.
```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Long term assessment of glucose control can be made by:
Options:
A. Estimation of post prandial blood sugar
B. Estimation of fasting blood sugar
C. Estimation of urine sugar level
D. Estimation of blood level of glycosylated hemoglobin | null | ```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Mosaic pattern of bone is seen in radiographic features of:
Options:
A. Fibrous dysplasia
B. Paget's disease
C. Osteopetrosis
D. Osteogenesis imperfecta | null | ```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Fourth generation meth-acrylate based resin sealer include?
Options:
A. Endorez
B. Resilon
C. Hydron
D. Real Seal E | null | ```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Maternal moality ratio expressed in:-
Options:
A. Maternal death per 10,000 lives
B. Maternal death per 100,000 lives
C. Maternal death per 1,000,000 lives
D. Maternal death per 100 lives | null | ```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Which induction anaesthetic agent has antiemetic effect?
Options:
A. etomidate
B. propofol
C. thiopentone
D. ketamine | null | ```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
A 10 year old boy following a road traffic accident presents to the casualty with contaminated wound over the left leg. He has received his com- plete primary immunization before preschool age and received a booster of DT at school entry age. All of following can be done except :
Options:
A. Injection of TT
B. Injection of human antiserum
C. Broad spectrum antibiotics
D. Wound debridement and cleaning | null | ```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
In Myocardial infarction, the major pathology is
Options:
A. Ischemia caused by dynamic obstruction of a coronary artery.
B. Myocardial necrosis caused by acute occlusion of a coronary artery.
C. Ischemia due to fixed atheromatous stenosis of one or more coronal artery.
D. Altered conduction due to ischemia or infarction. | null | ```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Localized Juvenile Periodontitis- primary pathogen is
Options:
A. Acinobacillus Actinomycetemcomitans
B. Prevotella intermedia
C. Mycoplasma
D. all the above | null | ```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
A male child with Fanconi syndrome with nephrocalcinosis has a variant of dent disease. All are true except :
Options:
A. Hypercalciuria
B. Proteinuria
C. Similar presentation in father
D. Rickets | null | Dent's disease :
Dent's disease, a familial proximal tubular syndrome, is an X-linked recessive disorder of proximal tubules characterized by :
Hypercalciuria and nephrocalcinosis and nephrolithiasis.
Low-molecular-weight proteinuria.
Metabolic bone disease/Rickets.
Progressive renal failure.
Marked inale predominance.
In addition to above features, other renal proximal tubular defect can cause:
(i) Fanconi syndrome (Aminoaciduria, proteinuria, phosphaturia).
(i) Glycosuria, uricosuria and kalliuresis.
(iii) Impaired urinary acidification.
Dent's disease occurs due to mutations that inactivate a voltage-gated chloride transporter, CLC-.5. In some cases, it is associated with mutations in the OCRL-1 gene that is also mutated in the oculocerebral syndrome of Lowe. Coming back to question.
Dent's disease is an X-linked renal tubular disorder.
X-linked disease cannot be transmitted from male to male i.e., from father to son.
```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Which of the following is not involved in blood clotting?
Options:
A. Calcium
B. Prothrombin
C. Fibrinogen
D. Fe+2 | null | ```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
DNA Methylation is not related with?
Options:
A. Mismatch repair
B. DNA Replication
C. Gene silencing
D. Capping | null | Capping of mRNA in eukaryotes: 7-Methyl Guanosine cap is added at the 5' end of mRNA by enzyme Guanylyl Transferase. So, this is RNA methylation, not DNA. DNA methylation Epigenetic mechanism Transfer of methyl group to C5 position of cytosine to form 5-methyl cytosine. DNA replication Dnmt (DNA methyl transferases) during DNA replication to copy DNA methylation pattern from parental strand to daughter strand Mismatch repair -Identify parent strand with help of CH3
```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
While preparing a Class II cavity on a maxillary first molar which of the pulp horns are likely to get exposed:
Options:
A. Mesiolingual and mesiobuccal
B. Distolingual and distobuccal
C. Mesiolingual and distobuccal
D. Distolingual and mesiobuccal | null | ```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Additional period required for enamel calcification after eruption into oral cavity
Options:
A. 1 yr
B. 2 yr
C. 3 yr
D. 4 yr | null | ```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
All are Gp lIbilIla inhibitors except:
Options:
A. Prasugrel
B. Abciximab
C. Tirofiban
D. Eptifibatide | null | Ans: A. Prasugrel(Ref Goodman Gilman 13/e p595, 12/e p870; Katzung 13/e p595, 12Ie p612; KDT 7/e p631)Prasugrel reduce platelet aggregation by inhibiting the ADP pathway of platelets. It irreversibly blocks the ADP receptor on platelets.Targets for platelet inhibitory drugs:Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis (aspirin).Inhibition of ADP- induced platelet aggregation (clopidogrel, prasugrel, ticlopidine).Blockade of glycoprotein Ilb/IIIa receptors on platelets (abciximab, tirofiban, and eptifibatide). Dipyridamole & cilostazol - Additional antiplatelet drugs.
```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
The active principle of white oleander is:
Options:
A. Nicotine
B. Nerin
C. Abrine
D. Pilocarpine | null | Ans. b. NerinNerium odorum (white oleander, kanero) grows wild in India.. Seed pod is slim, cylindrical, ribbed, up to l5 cm. long, tums brown, dries and splits, releasing small seeds tipped withbrown hair.. All pas of the plant including nectar are poisonousq.. It contains several cardiac glycosides, primarily:- Oleandrosidee (Oleandrin) and Nerioside (Nerin), both of which resembles digitalis in action- Folinerin- Rosagenin
```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
The yellowish white soft sticky deposit loosely adherent
present on tooth surface is
Options:
A. Materia alba
B. Food debris
C. Plaque
D. Calculus | null | ```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
A term gestation newborn developed respiratory distress. Which of the following would favour Respiratory distress syndrome (HIVID) ?
Options:
A. History of receiving antenatal corticosteroids
B. Air bronchogram on chest x–ray
C. Onset of distress after 6 hours of birth
D. Term birth | null | chest x-ray of an infant with RDS is characterized by atelectasis, air bronchograms, and a diffuse reticular-granular pattern commonly referred to as "ground glass". The chest x-ray may progress to a complete "white out" with severe disease.
About other options
Antenatal corticosteroids are given in pre-term (pre-mature) pregnancies not in term pregnancies. Further, antenatal corticosteroids are given to prevent RDS (HMD) --> after antenatal corticosteroids administration, risk of HMD is reduced.
Respiratory distress occurs within first 6 hours.
HMD occurs in pre-term neonate.
```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
‘Fleur -de- lys’ term is used for:
Options:
A. Dens invaginatus
B. Denticle
C. Odontome
D. Supernumerary tooth | null | ```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Renal feed for CKD patients-
Options:
A. Low calorie low volume
B. Low calorie high volume
C. High calorie low volume
D. High calorie high volume | null | Answer- C. High calorie low volumeLimiting fluids, eating a low-protein diet, limiting salt, potassium, phosphorous, and other electrolytes, and getting enough calories if you are losing weight.
```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Point used as termination of Root canal procedure is
Options:
A. Apical constriction
B. Apical foramen
C. Both
D. None | null | ```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Kwashiorkar , true is
Options:
A. Deficiency of protein with sufficient calorie intake
B. Occurs in children between 6 months and 3 years of age
C. Subcutaneous fat preserved but atrophy of different tissues
D. All of the above | null | ```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Lenolin is added in ZOE paste to:
Options:
A. Decrease flow
B. Increase flow
C. Accelerate reaction
D. Decrease irritation due to eugenol | null | ```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Which of the following is not transmitted by lice
Options:
A. Q fever
B. Trench fever
C. Relapsing fever
D. Epidemic typhus | null | ```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
What will be the oxygen carrying capacity of an 18-year-old patient with a hemoglobin of 14 g/dL?
Options:
A. 7
B. 14
C. 18
D. 28 | null | Answer- C. 18Each gram of hemoglobin can bind with a maximum of 1.34 milliliters of oxygen (1.39 milliliters when the hemoglobin is chemically pure, but impurities such as methemoglobin reduce this).Here, Hb = 14.Hence, oxygen carrying capacity: l.34 x 14 = 18 mLO2/dL
```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
All the following muscles of larynx are supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve except:
Options:
A. Cricohyoid
B. Cricothyroid
C. Arytenoid
D. Aryepiglotticus | null | ```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Which of the following techniques is based on RNA?
Options:
A. PCR
B. Sanger's technique
C. Next generation sequencing
D. Western blot | null | Ans: A. PCRReverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction (-PCR) It is a laboratory technique combining reverse transcription of RNA into DNA (in this context called complementary DNA or cDNA) and amplification of specific DNA targets using polymerase chain reaction (PCR).It is primarily used to measure the amount of a specific RNA. This is achieved by monitoring the amplification reaction using fluorescence, a technique called real-time PCR or quantitative PCR (qPCR). Combined -PCR and qPCR are routinely used for the analysis of gene expression and quantification of viral RNA in research and clinical settings.A method used to quantitate mRNA levels that rely upon the first step of cDNA copying of mRNAs catalyzed by reverse transcriptase before PCR amplification and quantitation. Sanger sequencing,Also known as the chain termination method, is a technique for DNA sequencing-based upon the selective incorporation of chain-terminating dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPs) by DNA polymerase during in vitro DNA replication.Next-generation sequencing:Modified methods of genome sequencing. It has significantly reduced the cost and time taken for whole-genome sequencing.It is a technique similar to Sanger sequencing, done on DNA
```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Minimum concentration of oxygen needed in NO analgesia
Options:
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40% | null | ```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
In rheumatoid arthritis there is inflammation of:
Options:
A. Cartilage
B. Synovial membrane
C. Sclerosis of joints
D. Articular bone | null | ```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Winged rubber dam retainer in endodontics advantages are all except
Options:
A. Radiographs are good showing full length of canals
B. Stability
C. Provide extra bucco-lingual retraction
D. Dam, clamp and frame placed in one operation | null | ```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
A 11-year-old child comes to the dental office one hour
after injury to a maxillary central incisor. The tooth is
vital and slightly mobile. Radiographic examination
reveals a fracture at the apical third of the root. What is
the best treatment at this point of time:
Options:
A. Render palliative therapy
B. Extract the tooth
C. Relieve the occlusion and splint the tooth
D. Perform immediate root canal treatment and splint | null | ```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Resistance form of endodontics is:
Options:
A. Resists movement of gutta-percha in apical area
B. To allow use of spreader in lateral condensation
C. Fracture of root while vertical condensation
D. None of the above | null | ```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Antibody in chronic allergy ?
Options:
A. IgM
B. IgA
C. IgG
D. IgE | null | Answer- D- IgEWhen someone has allergies, their immune system makes an antibody called immunoglobulin E (IgE). These antibodies respond to allergens. The symptoms that result are an allergic reaction.IgE also has an essential role in type I hypersensitivity, which manifests in various allergic diseases, such as allergic asthma, most types of sinusitis, allergic rhinitis, food allergies, and specific types of chronic uicaria and atopic dermatitis.
```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
While assessing the efficacy of a newly developed drug in comparison to placebo, the 95% confidence interval in clinical trials is used to check for:
Options:
A. Efficacy of the drug
B. Non-efficacy of the drug
C. Both efficacy and non-efficacy of the drug
D. Either efficacy or non-efficacy of the drug | null | Answer- a (efficacy of the drug)
```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Which material is the most difficult to remove from the patient's mouth?
Options:
A. Metallic oxide paste
B. Silicone impression material
C. Reversible hydrocolloid
D. Impression plaster | null | In dentistry, zinc oxide eugenol is popular as an impression material for making impressions of edentulous arches for the construction of complete dentures. It is classified as a rigid, irreversible impression material. It cannot be used for recording impressions of dentate arches and in areas of severe undercuts.
Mannapalli ed 3 page no 166
```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Main cause of RPD failure is:
Options:
A. Improper clasp design
B. Insufficient contact of teeth
C. Insufficient contact of teeth and improper clasp design
D. None of the above | null | ```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
A 40 years old female presented with acute onset shoness of breath. She has a history of nephrotic syndrome 1 year back and recent prolonged air travel. She has a BP of 90/60 mm Hg, hea rate of 115 per minute and sinus tachycardia on ECG. A 2-D echocardiogram revealed dilation of right ventricle with bulging of the interventricular septum to the left. What will be the primary treatment modality?
Options:
A. Thrombectomy
B. Intravenous tissue plasminogen activator
C. Unfractionated heparin
D. d. IVC filter | null | Ans: B. Intravenous tissue plasminogen activator (Ref: Harrison 19/e p1634-1636, 18/2170-2177)Findings indicate patient most probably suffering from massive pulmonary embolism.Management of Massive Pulmonary Embolism:For patients with massive PE & hypotension, replete volume with 500 mL of normal saline.Additional fluid should be infused with extreme caution-Due to excessive fluid administration exacerbates RV wall stress a more profound RV ischemia & worsens LV compliance and filling.Dopamine & dobutamine - 1st line inotropic agents for PE-related shock treatment.Fibrinolysis in Massive Pulmonary Embolism:Preferred fibrinolytic regimen: Recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (tPA).Contraindications: Intracranial disease, recent surgery & trauma.
```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
In multirooted teeth, formation of multiple roots is due to presence of:
Options:
A. Epithelial diaphragm
B. Cell rests of Malassez
C. Toot bud division or bell stage
D. None of the above | null | Prior to beginning of root formation, the HERS forms epithelial diaphragm. The outer and the inner enamel epithelia bend at the future cementoenamel junction into a horizontal plane, narrowing the wide cervical opening of the tooth germ. Differential growth of the epithelial diaphragm in the multi rooted teeth causes the root trunk into two or three roots.
```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
In Down syndrome patient, which teeth have severe periodontitis
Options:
A. Lower Anterior
B. Upper Anterior
C. Upper Molar
D. Lower Molar | null | ```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Folic acid deficiency occurs in:
Options:
A. Aspirin
B. Phenytoin
C. Chloromphenicol
D. Cyclosporine | null | ```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Which of the following will not decrease mother to child transmission of HIV?
Options:
A. Avoid breastfeeding
B. Vaginal delivery
C. Zidovudine given to mother antenataly and to neonate after bih
D. Vitamin A supplementation given to mother | null | Answer- B (Vaginal delievery)Vaginal delivery increases risk of mother to childhood transmission of HIV.'HIV can be transmitted through breast milk, avoiding breast feeding decreases the mother to child transmission of HIV.'
```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
On the day following a formocresol pulpotomy of a
mandibular molar, a three year old patient returned with
a large ulcer near the midline of the lower lip. What is
the probable cause of the ulcer?
Options:
A. Lip biting by the patient
B. Allergy to the anaesthetic solution
C. Pressure by the rubber dam frame
D. Leakage of formocresol on the lip | null | ```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Which of the following conditions is associated with polyhy dramnios?
Options:
A. Posterior urethral valve
B. Cleft palate
C. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
D. Bladder exostrophy | null | ```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Chemotactic cytokine is
Options:
A. IL-1
B. IL-6
C. IL-8
D. TNF | null | ```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
A 38 years old female presented to the emergency with extensive burns. The patient had grade 3 burns on the face, back, upper arms and forearms along with singeing of hairs. Which of the following is not a proof of inhalation burns?
Options:
A. Yellow colored sputum
B. Blackish soot deposit on posterior pa of tongue
C. Hoarseness & stridor of voice
D. Singeing of eyebrows and facial hair | null | Ans: A. Yellow colored sputum(Ref Reddy 33/e p325-326: Parikh 6/e p4. /60)Yellow sputum/ phlegm = Mostly a sign of bacterial infection.In burns takes time to develop.Grade 3 burns:Sputum with carbonaceous colored.Singeing of facial hair, burns on face, soot marks & singed eyebrows or facial hair - Indicative of acute burns inhalational injury.Features of inhalation injury:Characteristic:History of fire in an enclosed space.Burns of face.Singed nasal & facial hair.Inflamed pharyngeal mucosa.Carbonaceous sputum.Evidence of edematous glottis (e.g., hoarseness).
```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
After spleenectomy patient becomes more prone to
Options:
A. Gram +ve & anaerobic
B. Gram -ve & anaerobic
C. Nonencapsulated
D. Encapsulated organisms | null | ```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
All of the following are developed from Meckel's cartilage except:
Options:
A. Zygomatic bone
B. Malleus
C. Incus
D. Stapes | null | ```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
In judicial hanging, the knot is placed at:
Options:
A. Below the chin
B. Angle of the jaw
C. The back of the neck
D. Choice of hangman | null | Ans: B. Angle of the jawJudicial Hanging:Placement of knot beneath the chin (submental position) - Most effective.Ensures quicker death.In India & UK, left sub-aural (below the angle of the jaw) knot - Preferred for hanging.Process:The rope is looped around the neck & person is allowed to drop for 5-7 meters - According to weight, age & build of the person.A sudden stop causes fracture-dislocation usually at the level of C2-C3 or C3-C4 veebra & rupture of brain stem between pons & medulla.Death is instantaneous.Hea-beat may continue for 15-20 minutes & spasmodic muscle jerking may occur for a considerable time.
```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Non-pulsatile dose of GnRH agonist is used in all the following conditions except-
Options:
A. Endometriosis
B. infeility
C. Precocious pubey
D. Prostate cancer | null | Ans.B.Male infeilityGnRH is used in all those conditions where there is increased estrogen as GnRH decrease estrogen secretion.Mnemonic :* A - F and HIP* A = Adenomyosis* B = Irritable Bowel Syndrome (under Trial)* C = Ca Breast (Tamoxifen + GnRH agonist give good result)* D = DUB* E = Endometriosis* F = Fibromyoma uterus.* H = Hirsutism* I = Infeility* P = Precocious Pubey.
```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Eisenmenger syndrome–True are A/E –
Options:
A. Pulmonary veins are not distended
B. RV & LV walls come back to normal size
C. Dilatation of central pulmonary artery
D. Peripheral pruning of pulmonary arteries | null | The characteristic pathological pulmonary vascular changes that develop in a patients with Eisenmenger syndrome are confined to arteries only and involve small pulmonary arterioles and muscular arteries (veins are not involved).
There is right ventricular hypertrophy (RV walls do not come back to normal size).
On x-ray there are dilated and prominent central arteries with rapid tapering (pruning) of the peripheral vasculature.
```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Gap healing, a type of primary healing having gap of 0.8 mm is healed as:
Options:
A. Direct lamellar bone formation.
B. Woven bone formation replaced by lamellar bone.
C. Woven bone formation only.
D. Any of the above. | null | ```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
The radiographic examination of a traumatized tooth is
essential -
Options:
A. To establish baseline data
B. To find associated root fracture
C. To determine stage of root development
D. All of the above | null | ```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
The fifth nerve innervates the following:
Options:
A. Mylohyoid, anterior and posterior belly of digastric
B. Mylohyoid, anterior belly of digastric, and tensor tympani
C. Mylohyoid, posterior belly of digastric and tensor tympani
D. Mylohyoid, posterior belly of digastric, Stapedius and tensor tympani | null | Trigeminal nerve is the 5th cranial nerve. It is a mixed nerve containing both the motor and sensory fibres but predominantly it is sensory.
It is a motor nerve to the muscles of mastication and several small muscles and the principal sensory nerve of the head and face.
It consists of three large nerves: ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular, hence the name trigeminal nerve (L. trigeminus = triplet).
Key concept:
Mandibular nerve supplies muscles of mastication mylohyoid, anterior belly of digastric, and tensor tympani.
Posterior belly of digastric and stapedius are supplied by Facial nerve.
```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
A study was conducted to find average intra-ocular pressure. IOP was measured in 400 people and the mean was found to be 25 mm Hg with a standard detion of 10 mm Hg. What is the range in which 10P of 95% of the population would be lying?
Options:
A. 22-28 mm Hg
B. 20-30 mm Hg
C. 24-26 mm Hg
D. 23-27 mm Hg | null | Ans: C. 24-26 mm HgStandard error, SE = {standard detion / n)}n = sample sizeC= Confidence coefficient = 1.96 for 95% confidence interval = 2.58 for 99% confidence interval= 3.29 for 99.9% confidence intervalHence in this question, n = 400SD = 10SE = 10/400 = 10/20 = 0.5Mean statistic = 25 mm Hg.Now for 95% confidence interval,C = 2 approximately 95%CI = 25 - 2x0.5 to 25 + 2x0.5 = 24-26 mm HgHence, 95% CI of IOP = 24 to 26 mm Hg.
```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
The lag phase of tooth movement usually lasts for:
Options:
A. 2-3 mins
B. 2-3 hrs
C. 2-3 day
D. 2-3 weeks | null | ```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Which of the following is a common osseous lesion in
periodontitis is
Options:
A. Exostosis
B. crater
C. buttressing bone
D. hemiseptum | null | ```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Which of the following groups of fibres are not attached to alveolar bone?
Options:
A. Transseptal
B. Horizontal
C. Oblique
D. Apical | null | ```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
First nerve fiber present in vicinity of dental papilla in
Options:
A. Bud stage
B. Cap stage
C. Bell stage
D. Advanced Bell stage | null | ```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
A 32 years old female came for routine PAP smear testing. The repo came as carcinoma in situ. What is the next step?
Options:
A. HPV-DNA testing
B. Hysterectomy
C. Conization
D. Colposcopy and biopsy | null | Answer- D. Colposcopy and biopsyRegressions typically occur within a 2-year follow-up with cytology & colposcopy.Observation - Biopsy diagnoses of CIN 1 with satisfactory colposcopy and who agree to the evaluation every 6 monthsAblative treatment - lf the lesions progress during follow-up or persist at 2 yearsTreatment options: LEEP & Cryosurgery
```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
The frontal paranasal sinus drains into the:
Options:
A. Superior meatus
B. Middle meatus
C. Inferior meatus
D. Spheno-ethmoidal recess | null | ```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
In the mammalian genome, maximum number of genes code for the receptors of:
Options:
A. Immunoglobulin receptors
B. Interleukins
C. Growth factors
D. Odorants | null | Ans: D. OdorantsIn the mammalian genome, maximum number of genes code for the receptors of odorants."The olfactory receptor (OR) genes constitute the largest gene family in mammalian genomes.Humans have >1,000 OR genes, of which only -40% have an intact coding region and are therefore putatively functional.Odorant receptor genes form the largest gene family in the genome of many animals: for example, the mouse genome contains approximately 1200 of these genes.
```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Pegloticase is used in
Options:
A. Chronic gout
B. Paralytic ileus
C. Psoriatic ahritis
D. Rheumatoid ahritis | null | Pegloticase - It is recombinant uricase, an enzyme which oxidises uric acid to highly soluble allantoin, that is easily excreted by kidney. Humans lack this enzyme. In this preparation, the enzyme has been coupled with methoxy polyethylene glycol (mPEG) which serves to prolong its sojourn in the body, permitting i.v. infusion of the drug to be given every 2 weeks. It is indicated only in rare cases of refractory symptomatic gout because it is immunogenic and carries high risk of infusion reactions, including anaphylaxis.
```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Wave patterns of EEF, ECG and EMG are depicted below. The B pattern belongs to (Figure was not provided in the exam):
Options:
A. NREM sleep
B. REM sleep
C. Wakefulness
D. Quiet wakefulness | null | Answer- C. WakefulnessBeta (B) Wave- Parietal and frontal region. Patients awake, at rest with eyes open.
```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Staphylococcus aureus and pneumoniae are responsible for:
Options:
A. Subacute endocarditis.
B. Acute endocarditis.
C. Post operative endocarditis.
D. None. | null | ```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
First paranasal sinus to develop at bih is:
Options:
A. Maxillary
B. Ethmoidal
C. Frontal
D. Sphenoidal | null | Development of SinusesSinusGestational Month WhenDevelopment StasPresent in ClinicallySignificant SizeFully DevelopedMaxillary2degBihdeg12 yearsdegEthmoid30Bihdeg12 yearsdegFrontal4deg3 yearsdeg18-20 yearsdegSphenoid3deg8 yearsdeg12-15 yearsdeg
```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Which of the following is the best test for assessment of intestinal malabsorption?
Options:
A. Fecal fat estimation
B. Serum lactose levels
C. Serum amylase levels
D. NBT-PABA test | null | Ans: A(Ref: Harrison 19/c p193(S)Fecal fat estimation - Gold standard test for diagnosis of malabsorption.Intestinal malabsorption diagnosis:D-xylose test.Tests for xylose absorption in intestinal villi.Distinguishs intestinal from pancreatic malabsorption.Pancreatic malabsorption diagnosis:NBT-PABA & serum amylase.
```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Primary Colonization of plaque is dominated by
Options:
A. Facultative Aerobic Gram + ve rods
B. Facultative Anaerobic Gram - ve rods
C. Facultative Aerobic Gram - ve cocci
D. Facultative Anaerobic Gram + ve cocci | null | ```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Types of pocket respectively:
Options:
A. Simple pocket, compound pocket, complex pocket.
B. Simple pocket, complex pocket, compound pocket.
C. Compound pocket, simple pocket, complex pocket.
D. Simple pocket, compound pocket, tertiary pocket. | null | ```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Depression of mandible is achieved by:
Options:
A. Digastric
B. Lateral pterygoid
C. Geniohyoid
D. All of the above | null | ```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
18 year old female presents with an ovarian mass, her serum bio marker are found to be normal except for LDH, which is found to be elevated. The most likely diagnosis is:
Options:
A. Dysgerminoma
B. Endodermal sinus tumor
C. Malignant terratoma
D. Mucinous cystadeno carcinoma | null | NOTE :- * Young girls with - Germ cell tumor Ovarian mass * Old women with - Epithelial serous tumor Ovarian mass Biomarkers Dysgerminoma | LDH, | placental alkaline Po4 Endodermal sinus tumor a feto protein and antitrypsin
```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Most common infection post solid organ transplantation
Options:
A. CMV
B. HSV
C. EBV
D. HPV | null | Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is transmitted post solid organ transplantation whereas herpes simplex virus (HSV) is transmitted post solid organ transplantation only within a month. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is a glandular disease so transmitted by close contact where as human papilloma virus (HPV) is transmitted through sexual contact since it is a sexually transmitted disease. So first option is a better option. Infection in Children: Primary infections in older children and adults are usually asymptomatic. However, a heterophile, antibody-negative, infectious mononucleosis may been. This is more common following transfusion of CMV-infected blood (post - transfusion mononucleosis).
```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Tuberculous otitis media is characterized by all except -
Options:
A. Multiple perforations
B. Pale granulations
C. Pain
D. Thin odourless fluid | null | Tubercular Otitis Media
Important points:
––Seen mainly in children and young adult Q
––It is secondary to pulmonary tuberculosis. Q
––Route of spread - Mainly through eustachian tube (not blood borne). Q
Symptoms:
1. Patients often present with chronic painless otorrhoea (usually foul smelling) which is resistant to antibiotic treatment Q
3. Severe conductive type hearing loss Q. (sometimes due to involvement of labyrinth may be SNHL)
4. Facial nerve palsy may be the presenting symptom in childrenQ
5. Cough; fever and night sweats may be present in patients with tuberculous infection in other organ system.
O/E
–– Multiple perforationsQ in tympanic membrane (This feature was once considered characteristic of TB but now is seldom seen).
–– Middle ear and mastoid are filled with pale granulation tissueQ (It is a characteristic of tuberculous otitis media)
Complications: (Early onset of these symptoms is seen)
––Mastoiditis
––Osteomyelitis
––Postauricular fistula
––Facial nerve palsy
```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Child Pugh score put patients into three categories of Score A (<7), Score B (7-9) and Score C (10-15). The following is a type of which scale?
Options:
A. Nominal
B. Ordinal
C. Quantitative
D. Continuous | null | Child Pugh Score' divides the scores into 3 CATEGORIES, hence it is a CATEGORICAL scale. The variables are qualitative and arranged in an order of increasing severity, hence it is an example of ORDINAL scale. Other options: Nominal scale is also a type of categorical scale in which the variables are not arranged in any order. Metric scale is used for quantitative variables. Continuous is a type of variable and not a type of scale.
```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Skin of the entire upper lip is supplied by:
Options:
A. Maxillary nerve.
B. Facial nerve.
C. Mandibular nerve.
D. None. | null | ```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
Options:
A. TTP
B. ITP
C. Senile purpura
D. CML | null | ```answer B``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Treatment of choice for anaphylactic shock is:
Options:
A. Adrenaline 0.5 mL of 1:1000 solution by intramuscular route
B. Adrenaline 1 mL of 1:10000 by intravenous route
C. Atropine 3 mg intravenously
D. Adenosine 12 mg intravenously | null | DOC is adrenaline.Route is intramuscular > subcutaneous.Dose: 0.5 ml of 1:1000(1mg/ml solution).This dose is repeated once gain within 10 minutes.If it's still not improving; then intravenous 1:10,000 dose is given.
```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
The cotton applied to the pulpal stumps in the
formocresol pulpotomy technique should be
Options:
A. Slightly dampened with formocresol
B. Saturated with formocresol
C. Left for 2 hours in the cavity
D. Sealed until the next appointment. | null | ```answer A``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
Which of following is not a tumor suppressor gene?
Options:
A. pRb
B. FHIT
C. PTCH
D. c-erbB1 | null | ```answer D``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |
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Question:
All the following instruments are required for tonsillectomy except:
Options:
A. Coblation wand
B. Bipolar cautery
C. Microdebrider
D. Harmonic scalpel | null | Ans: C. Microdebrider(Ref: Scott-Brown's 7Ie p3576; Cummings Pediatric Otolaryngology By Marci M. Lesperance, Paul W. Flint/p51; Dhingra 6/e p430)All these four instruments are used in different techniques of tonsillectomy.Microdebrider is less commonly used than others as it leaves behind a small amount of tissue covering theconstrictor muscle.Hence, preferred answer would be microdebrider.
```answer C``` | train | en | medmcqa_explain |