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###Rationale: Ans. d. Urrets Zavalia syndrome (Ref: style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif">icles/PMC1770988)A fixed dilated pupil following penetrating keratoplasty is a well recognized if rare postoperative complication.The mydriasis following penetrating keratoplasty was first described by Castroviejo but it was Urrets-Zavalia who first published his observations on a series of six cases and suggested an association of fixed dilated pupil, iris atrophy, and secondary glaucoma.The pupil can become abnormally dilated following penetrating keratoplasty for keratoconus, particularly if dilating drops are used.In addition to the pupil and iris abnormalities, Urrets-Zavalia also described other features--iris ectropion, pigment dispersion, anterior subcapsular cataract and posterior synechiae.Urrets Zavalia SyndromeUrrets Zavalia Syndrome is characterized by triad of: Secondary glaucoma + Iris atrophy + Fixed dilated pupilQUrrets-Zavalia syndrome (UZS) consists of a fixed dilated pupil associated with iris atrophy.It is a poorly understood complication following penetrating keratoplasty for keratoconus.Posner Shlossman syndromeIt is also called as glaucomatocyclitic crisis.Episodic unilateral mild anterior uveitis, photophobia, reduced vision and colored rings around lights (from secondary corneal edema)Benedict's SyndromeIf red nucleus is involved, tremors and jerky movements occur in contralateral side of the body.This condition combined with ipsilateral 3rd nerve paralysis is called as Benedict's syndrome.McKusick-Kaufmann SyndromeMcKusick-Kaufman syndrome: A rare genetic disorder characterized by hydrometrocolpos (fluid buildup in vagina and uterus), extra fingers and congenital heart defects. ###Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
###Question: Patient with fixed dilated pupil, with iris atrophy and secondary glaucoma after penetrating keratoplasty is suggestive of: ###Options: A. Benedict's syndrome B. Posner-Shlossman syndrome C. Kaufmann's syndrome D. Urrets Zavalia syndrome
Being a doctor, your task is to answer the medical questions based on the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: This is a case of Craniopharyngioma. Benign tumour Arise in sellar/suprasellar region Arise from vestigial remnants of Rathke's pouch Bimodal age distribution Presents with headache and visual disturbance May present with sho stature due to GH deficiency (Pituitary hypofunction). Most commonly due to abnormalities in WNT signaling pathway including the activating mutations of the beta-catenin. MRI image shows a mass in the suprasellar region- likely craniopharyngioma OTHER CANCERS DUE TO WNT PATHWAY Mutations in b-catenin are present in: - 50% of hepatoblastomas. 20% of Hepatocellular carcinomas GENES INVOLVED IN: - Melanoma- NRAS, FGF3, HST1 Neuroblastoma- N-MYC, ALK CML- ABL ###Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
###Question: A 10-year-old male child with sho stature presented to the pediatric OPD with complaints of frequent headaches over the past 6 months along with slowly progressive loss of vision of the right eye. Lately the child has also staed having trouble in walking along with frequent mood changes and excessive thirst. MRI brain showed a tumour in the sellar region which was resected. HPE examination showed reticular epithelial cells that have appearances reminiscent of the enamel pulp of developing teeth along with calcifications and wet keratin nodules. The gene involved in causing the above condition is also involved in causing which other condition: - ###Options: A. Hepatocellular carcinoma B. Melanoma C. Neuroblastoma D. CML
Being a doctor, your task is to answer the medical questions based on the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
###Question: A 44-year-old patient comes to his primary care physician complaining of double vision. On examination, he is unable to adduct or abduct his right eye- On further examination, he is also found to be unable to adduct his left eye. The remainder of the physical examination is normal. which of the following is the most likely location of the patient’s lesion? ###Options: A. Left abducens nerve B. Left abducens nucleus and left medial longitudinal fasciculus C. Right abducens nerve D. Right abducens nucleus and right medial longitudinal fasciculus
Your role as a doctor requires you to answer the medical questions taking into account the patient's description. Answer with the best option directly.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Ans. is 'c' i.e., 24 mm o The length of the eyeball is approximately 24 mm, So the distances from the cornea / crystalline lens to the retina and the focal length of optical rays focused by the comea/crystalline lens propagating in the vitreous humor and imaging on the retina, are also about 24 mm.Dimensiosn of an adult eyeAnteroposterior diameter (Length)24 mmHorizontal diameter23-5mmVertical diameter23 mmCircumference75 mmVolume6-5 mlWeight7 gm ###Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
###Question: Normal axial length of the eye - ###Options: A. 18mm B. 20 mm C. 24mm D. 28 mm
Your identity is a doctor, kindly provide answers to the medical questions with consideration of the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Topical antibiotics such as tobramycin or gentamicin or ciprofloxacin QID for 3 days just before surgery is advisable as prophylaxis against endophthalmitis.Ref: Khurana; 4th edition; Pg- 184 ###Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
###Question: Best way to prevent infection after cataract surgery is ###Options: A. Antibiotics B. Eye brow shaving C. Through irrigation D. None of the above
Your role as a doctor requires you to answer the medical questions taking into account the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Simian virus 40 ###Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
###Question: In children which of the following virus has been implicated in the pathogenesis of choroid plexus tumour? ###Options: A. Simian virus 40 B. HIV C. Herpes simplex D. Hepa s B
You're a doctor, kindly address the medical queries according to the patient's account. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Ans. is 'c' i.e., UveitisClinical manifestations of Vogt Kavanadi Harada syndromeOccular involvementC.N.S. involvementAuditory manifestationCutaneous manifestationOccular involvementB/L panuveitis ino Meningismuso Hearing losso VitiligoB/L panuveitis inassociation with serouso Headacheo Tinnituso Alopeciaassociation w'ith serousretinal detachmento C.S.F. Pleocytosis retinal detachmentAccording to American uveitis society the criteria for diagnosis of VKH syndromeo No history' of ocular trauma or surgery.o At least three of four of the following signsBilateral chronic iridocyclitis.Posterior uveitis, including exudative retina! detachment, disc hyperemia or edema and sunset glow fundus.Neurological sign of tinnitus, neck stiffness cranial nerve or CNS problems or CSF pleocytosis.Cutaneous finding of alopecia, poliosis or vitiligo. ###Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
###Question: Vogt Koyanagi Harada syndrome is - ###Options: A. Cataract B. C.N.S. tumour C. Uveitis D. Polycystic kidney
Your identity is a doctor, kindly provide answers to the medical questions with consideration of the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Ans. B: It manifests just after bih Keratoconus is frequently due to a congenital weakness of the cornea, though it manifests itself after pubey. However it can occur secondarily following trauma or Down's syndrome. Keratoconus is divided into mild, moderate, and advanced. Mild keratoconus - External and corneal signs are often absent or minimal. - A history of multiple inadequate spectacle corrections of one or both eyes may be noted and may include oblique astigmatism on refraction as well as moderate-to-high myopia. - Irregularly astigmatic keratometry values (egg-shaped), not necessarily on the steep side of normal (approximately 45 diopters (D)), are consistent with diagnosis. Diagnosis can be confirmed with computer-assisted videokeratography, which may reveal corneal inferior steepening (approximately 80% of keratoconus cases), central corneal astigmatic steepening (approximately 15% of keratoconus cases), or even bilateral temporal steepening (extremely rare). Diagnosis may also be aided by applying a diagnostic rigid contact lens with its base curve equal to the flat keratometry value. One observes a typical nipple pattern by use of sodium fluorescein dye in the underlying tear film. Moderate keratoconus One or more corneal signs of keratoconus are often present. Enhanced appearance of the corneal nerves is noted. Approximately 40% of eyes in patients with moderate keratoconus develop Vogt striae (fine-stress lines) in the deep stroma. Approximately 50% develop the deposition of iron in the basal epithelial cells in a (often paial) ring shape at the base of the conical protrusion called the Fleischer ring. Approximately 20% develop corneal scarring. Superficial corneal scarring can be fibular, nebular, or nodular. Deep stromal scarring may occur, perhaps representing resolved mini-hydrops events. Some patients show scarring at the level of the Descemet membrane (posterior limiting lamina), consistent in appearance with posterior polymorphous corneal dystrophy. Paraxial (usually inferior to the pupil) stromal thinning may be appreciated. Keratometry values typically increase to 45-52 D. Distoion of the retinoscopy and direct ophthalmoscope red pupillary reflex may allow observation of "scissoring" or an inferior distoion termed the oil drop sign. The Munson sign is noted when, upon downgaze, a "V" shape is noted in the cornea's profile against the lower lid margin, an accentuation of the conical shape of the modest to advanced keratoconus cornea. Advanced keratoconus This often results in keratometry values greater than 52 D and enhancement of all corneal signs, symptoms, and visual loss/distoion. Vogt striae are seen in approximately 60% of eyes, and Fleischer ring and/or scarring are seen in approximately 70% of eyes. Acute corneal hydrops can occur. Treatment: In the early stages, vision may be improved with spectacles but contact lens are more beneficial as they eliminate the irregular corneal curvature. If the disease progresses and the cone hydrated, the most satisfactory treatment is corneal transplantation. ###Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
###Question: True about keratoconus are all of the following except: September 2005 ###Options: A. Can be seen in Down's syndrome B. It manifests just after bih C. Munson sign is characteristic D. Corneal transplantation is needed in severe cases
Your role as a doctor requires you to answer the medical questions taking into account the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Ans. Central posterior subcapsular lens changes ###Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
###Question: The early changes in coicosteroid-induced cataract are in the form of: ###Options: A. Central posterior subcapsular lens changes B. Anterior coical lens changes C. Nuclear changes D. Diffuse lens changes
As a healthcare professional, please evaluate the patient's description and offer your expertise in answering the medical questions. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Most common cause of childhood blindness is vitamin A deficiency Refer: Khurana 6th edition page number 382 ###Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
###Question: Blindness in child is most commonly due to ###Options: A. Keratomalacia B. Congenital cataract C. Glaucoma D. Injuries
Considering your role as a medical practitioner, please use the patient's description to answer the medical questions. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Nearly all patients with neurologic involvement in Wilson disease develop eye lesions called Kayser-Fleischer rings, green to brown depositsof copper in Descemet membrane in the limbus of the cornea.Wilson disease is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutation of the ATP7B gene, resulting in impaired copper excretion into bile and a failure to incorporate copper into ceruloplasmin. This disorder is marked by the accumulation of toxic levels of copper in many tissues and organs, principally the liver, brain, and eye.Ref: Robbins Pathology; 9th edition; Page no: 849 ###Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
###Question: In which layer of cornea, copper is deposited to form Kayser-Fleischer ring in Wilsons disease? ###Options: A. Bowman's layer B. Corneal stroma C. Descemet's membrane D. Corneal endothelium
In your capacity as a doctor, it is expected that you answer the medical questions relying on the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
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###Rationale: Von Meyenburg Complexes Close to or within the portal tract, these are small clusters of modestly dilated bile ducts embedded in a fibrous, sometimes hyalinised stroma. Although these "bile duct microhamartomas" may communicate with the biliary tree, they generally are free of the pigmented material tree. They presumably arise from residual embryonic bile duct remnants. Occasionally, a triangular bile duct hamartoma may lie just under Glisson's capsule. Polycystic liver disease There are multiple diffuse cystic lesions in the liver. Congenital hepatic fibrosis Portal tracts are enlarged by irregular, broad bands of collagenous tissue, forming septa that divide the liver into irregular islands. Variable numbers of abnormally shaped bile ducts are embedded in the fibrous tissue and are in continuity with the biliary tree. Caroli disease The larger ducts of the intrahepatic biliary tree are segmentally dilated and contain inspissated bile. ###Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
###Question: Von-Meyenburg's complexes are seen in - ###Options: A. Brain B. Liver C. Kidney D. Spleen
Being a doctor, your task is to answer the medical questions based on the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: This is a case of Niemann-pick disease. 1. Autosomal recessive disease 2. Divided into 2 groups depending on deficiency: - Deficiency of acid sphingomyelinase enzyme- Type A and B Impaired intracellular cholesterol trafficking- Type C and D 3. Normal at bih 4. Presents with hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy and cherry red spot on fundus examination. 5. HPE image shows Niemann-pick cells- These are foam cells with soap suds appearance (Distention of Lysosomes due to sphingomyelin and cholesterol) 6. Electron microscopy shows Zebra bodies - These are concentric lamellated myelin figures (in engorged secondary lysosomes). OTHER ENZYME DEFICIENCIES: - Hexosaminidase A- Tay-sach's disease Alpha-galactosidase A - Fabry's disease Glucocerebrosidase - Gaucher's disease ###Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
###Question: An 8-month-old child presented with reduced appetite, abdominal distension and pain and psychomotor retardation. The child was normal at bih and both parents are normal. O/E: - Hepatosplenomegaly Moderate lymphadenopathy Abnormal posturing of the limbs, trunk, and face Impaired voluntary rapid eye movements Cheery red spot on fundus examination. Bony defects Lymph node-histopathology and electron microscopy. EM findings Which of the following enzymes is most likely deficient in the above disease: - ###Options: A. Hexosaminidase A B. Alpha-galactosidase A C. Glucocerebrosidase D. Sphingomyelinase
Your role as a doctor requires you to answer the medical questions taking into account the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Third nerve palsy can result in ptosis of the eyelid. There is also loss of the ability to open the eye, and the eyeball is deviated outward and slightly downward. With complete lesions, the pupil is dilated, does not react to light, and loses the power of accommodation. In diabetes, the pupil is often spared. The sixth cranial nerve can also be affected by diabetes, but this is much less common. ###Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
###Question: A 60-year-old man with diabetes acutely develops double vision and discomfort in his left eye. On examination, there is ptosis of the left eyelid, the eye is rotated down and out, and the pupil is 3 mm and reactive to light. The right eye is normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? ###Options: A. fourth nerve palsy B. diabetic autonomic neuropathy C. third nerve palsy D. sixth nerve palsy
Given your background as a doctor, please provide your insight in addressing the medical questions based on the patient's account. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Pterygium It presents as a triangular fold of conjunctiva encroaching the cornea in the area of the palpebral apeure, usually on the nasal side, but may also occur on the temporal side. Deposition of iron seen sometimes in corneal epithelium anterior to advancing head of the pterygium called as stocker's line. Pas. A fully developed pterygium consists of three pas: i. Head (apical pa present on the cornea), ii. Neck (limbal pa), and iii. Body (scleral pa) extending between limbus and the canthus. Stocker's line in pterygium. Pterygium is a fibrovascular proliferative disorder in which conjunctival tissue grows medially to cover the clear cornea. On slit-lamp examination showed marked pterygium that extend from the nasal side of bulbar conjunctiva onto the cornea in the left eye Ref: Khurana; 4th ed; Pg 80 ###Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
###Question: Stocker&;s line is seen in ###Options: A. Pinguecula B. Pterygium C. Congenital ocular melanosis D. Conjunctival epithelial melanosis
Considering your role as a medical practitioner, please use the patient's description to answer the medical questions. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Ans. is 'd' i.e., Betaxolol o Among the given options, only betaxolol is 0-1 selective. ###Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
###Question: Glaucoma drug which is b-1 selectve p-blocker is ? ###Options: A. Timolol B. Laevobuno I ol C. Caeolol D. Betaxolol
Given your profession as a doctor, please provide responses to the medical questions using the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: 1. Lids: Ecchymosis, Black eye, avulsion of the lid, traumatic ptosis. 2. Orbit: Fracture of the orbital walls, orbital haemorrhage, orbital emphysemas. 3. Lacrimal apparatus: Laceration of canaliculi, dislocation of lacrimal gland. 4. Conjunctiva: Subconjunctival haemorrhage, chemosis, lacerating tears of the conjunctiva. 5. Cornea: Abrasion, paial or complete corneal tear, deep corneal opacity. 6. Sclera: Scleral tear. 7. Anterior chamber: Traumatic hyphaema, Collapse of the anterior chamber following perforation. 8. Iris, pupil and ciliary body: Traumatic miosis, traumatic mydriasis, radiating tears in iris stroma, iridodialysis, traumatic aniridia, traumatic cyclodialysis, traumatic uveitis. 9. Lens: Vossius ring, Concussion cataract, Early rosette cataract, Late rosette cataract, Total cataract, Subluxation of the lens, Dislocation of the lens. 10. Vitreous: Traumatic vitreous degeneration, Traumatic vitreous detachment, Vitreous haemorrhage. . Retina: Commotio retinae (Berlin's oedema), retinal haemorrhages, retinal tears, retinal detachment, traumatic macular oedema, traumatic macular degeneration. sympathetic Ophthalmities is seen in perforating injuries. Ref.. Khurana 6/e p564 ###Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
###Question: All can occur due to blunt trauma of eye except - ###Options: A. Berlin's edema B. Angle recession C. Sympathetic ophthalmitis D. Rosette cataract
In your capacity as a doctor, it is expected that you answer the medical questions relying on the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: B i.e. Fixed dilated pupil not responding to light Cooling of body & rigor mois is a sign of molecular or cellular death. - Somatic (systemic, clinical or brain) death is cessation of spontaneous breathing, circulation and brain activity (as indicated by flat isoelectric EEG, deep unconsciousness with no response to external stimuli or internal need). Surest sign of brain stem death is fixed dilated pupil not constricting (responding) to light.Q ###Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
###Question: Surest sign of brain stem death ###Options: A. Absent Doll's eye reflex B. Fixed dilated pupil not reacting to light C. Cheyne Stokes breathing D. Decerebrate posture
Considering your role as a medical practitioner, please use the patient's description to answer the medical questions. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Saccades are sudden, jerky conjugate eye movements that occur as the gaze shifts from one object to another. Supranuclear eye movement systems include : Saccadic system Smooth pursuit system Vergence system Vestibular system Optokinetic sysytem Position maintenance system Ref;A.K.Khurana;6th edition; Page no: 341 ###Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
###Question: Which of the following best defines the "Saccade"- ###Options: A. Voluntary slow eye movements B. Involuntary slow eye movement C. Abrupt, involuntary slow eye movements D. Abrupt, involuntary rapid eye movements
You're a doctor, kindly address the medical queries according to the patient's account. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
###Question: Ketocanozole is useful in all except - ###Options: A. T. cruris B. T.versicolor C. T.capitis D. T.corpoiris
Given your background as a doctor, please provide your insight in addressing the medical questions based on the patient's account. Answer with the best option directly.
medmcqa
###Rationale: This is case of Swimming pool conjunctivits/granuloma-Which is adult inclusion conjunctivitis caused by chlamydia trachomatis. Ref: Khurana 7th/e p.73 & 4th/e p.63,68 ###Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
###Question: Swimmer after coming out frm swimming pool presents with redness and mucopurulent discharge. There is no history of contact lens wear. On examination, no corneal involvement seen. Probable diagnosis is - ###Options: A. Acanthamoeba keratitis B. Adul inclusion conjunctivitis C. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis D. Angular conjunctivitis
In your capacity as a doctor, it is expected that you answer the medical questions relying on the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Ans.D.) Ornithine. Ornithine aminotransferase deficiency (also known as gyrate atrophy of the choroid and retina) is an inborn error of ornithine metabolism, caused by decreased activity of the enzyme ornithine aminotransferase. Biochemically, it can be detected by elevated levels of ornithine in the blood. Clinically, it presents initially with poor night vision, which slowly progresses to total blindness. It is believed to be inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. ###Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
###Question: Essential atrophy of the choroid is due to inborn error of metabolism of which amino acid? ###Options: A. Cystine B. Cysteine C. Arginine D. Ornithine
Being a doctor, your task is to answer the medical questions based on the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
###Question: The function of vitamin A is/are related to which of the following? ###Options: A. Retinol B. Retinal C. Retinoic acids D. All of the above
You're a doctor, kindly address the medical queries according to the patient's account. Answer with the best option directly.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Scale 6 Neonatal behavior assessment scale It is a scale developed by T. Berry Brazelton for evaluating the neurological conditions and behavior of newborn by assessing his or her aleness, motor maturity, irritability and interaction with people. Scores SLEEP STATE I)Deep sleep: - Sleep with regular breathing, eyes closed, no spontaneous activity except stales or jerky movements at quite regular intervals. 2)Light sleep: - Sleep with eyes closed: rapid eye movements can often be observed under closed lids; low activity level with random movements and stales. AWAKE STATE 3)Drowsy: - Drowsy or semidozing; eyes may be open but dull and heavylidded, or closed, eyelids fluttering; activity level minimal, Movements are usually smooth, although there may be stales. "Some infants may also show fuss/ cry vocalizations in this state"Q. What distinguishes state 3 from state 5 when both are accompanied by fuss/ cry vocalizations is the minimal movement in state 3 and considerable movement in state 5 4)Quiescent ale: - Ale, eyes open with bright look. Motor activity is minimal there can be a glazed look that is easily changed into a brighter look with appropriate stimulation. 5)Active ale : - Eyes likely to be open; considerable motor activity, with thrusting movements of the extremities, and even a few spontaneous stales reactive to external stimulation with increase in stales or motor activity. 6)Crying:- Crying characterized by intense, loud, rhythmic, and sustained cry vocalizations that are difficult to break through with stimulation; motor activity is hige. Eyes may be tightly closed. ###Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
###Question: . A neonate is seen crying with eyes closed and moving all his limbs. What is the Neonatal Behavioral response scale - ###Options: A. Scale 1 B. Scale 3 C. Scale 5 D. Scale 6
Your role as a doctor requires you to answer the medical questions taking into account the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: For the antemortem diagnosis of rabies, viral antigens can be demonstrated in the corneal smear, skin biopsy from the face or neck or saliva. ###Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
###Question: A 15 year old girl was admitted to the infectious disease hospital with a provisional diagnosis of rabies. The most suitable clinical sample that can confirm the antemortem diagnosis is- ###Options: A. Serum for anti-rabies IgG antibody B. Corneal impression smear for immunofluorescence stain C. CSF sample for viral culture D. Giemsa stain on smear prepared from salivary secretions
As a healthcare professional, please evaluate the patient's description and offer your expertise in answering the medical questions. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: VITREOUS LIQUEFACTION (SYNCHYSIS) Vitreous liquefaction (synchysis) is the most common degenerative change in the vitreous. Causes of liquefaction: 1. Degenerations such as senile, myopic, and that associated with retinitis pigmentosa. 2. Post-inflammatory, paicularly following uveitis. 3. Trauma to the vitreous which may be mechanical (blunt as well as perforating). 4. Thermal effects on vitreous following diathermy, photocoagulation and cryocoagulation. 5. Radiation effects may also cause liquefaction. Ref:- A K KHURANA; pg num:-244 ###Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
###Question: Synchysis refers to ###Options: A. Collapse of the vitreous B. Black spots in front of the eyes C. Liquefaction of the vitreous D. Detachment of the vitreous
Your identity is a doctor, kindly provide answers to the medical questions with consideration of the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Ans. Double perforation ###Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
###Question: All are seen in blunt injury of the eye except: ###Options: A. Hyphema B. Iridocyclitis C. Double perforation D. Retinal detachment
Being a doctor, your task is to answer the medical questions based on the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: (D) Nuchal edemaINCIDENCE OF MAJOR & MINOR DEFECTS/MA Trisomy 21NormalLikelihood ratio for isolated marker* Nuchal Fold33.5%0.6%9.8* Short humerus33.4%1.5%4.1* Short femur41.4%5.2%1.6* Hydronephrosis17.6%2.6%1.0* Echogenic focus in heart28.2%4.4%1.1* Echogenic bowel13.3%0.6%3.0* Major defect21.4%0.65%5.2 ###Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
###Question: Which one of the following ultrasound marker is associated with greatest increased risk for Trisomy 21 in fetus ###Options: A. Echogenic foci in heart B. Hyperechogenic bowel C. Choroid plexus cysts D. Nuchal edema
As a medical professional, your responsibility is to address the medical questions using the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Angle-closure glaucoma can have the appearance of glaucomflecken. Glaucomflecken are small anterior subcapsular opacities secondary to lens epithelial necrosis resulting from acute angle-closure glaucoma. - Signs of Angle closure glaucoma :Stony hard eye, steamy cornea, Veically oval mid-dilated non reacting pupil - Symptoms: Severe pain, coloured halos, sudden drop in vision. Symptoms occurs in late night - Nd-Yag Laser iridotomy is done for management of Angle closure glaucoma ###Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
###Question: Glaucomflecken are seen in: ###Options: A. Open angle glaucoma B. Uveitis C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Angle closure glaucoma
Given your profession as a doctor, please provide responses to the medical questions using the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Ans. B: Affects cornea Mooren's ulcer is a rare, painful, inflammatory condition affecting one or both eyes that results in the destruction of corneal tissue. The cause of Mooren's ulcer is unknown. It is generally agreed that it is an autoimmune condition. Pain is almost always associated with the onset of Mooren's ulcer. One or both eyes may be involved at either the same time or one following the other. Approximately two thirds of cases affect one eye only. Mooren's ulcer is more common in men than women. Damage begins at the edge of the cornea and may progress to involve the central cornea. A serious complication of Mooren's ulcer is formation of a perforation or hole, in the cornea. Conditions that can cause similar eye problems are rheumatoid ahritis, systemic lupus erythematosus and Wegener's granulomatosis. ###Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
###Question: True about Moorens ulcer: March 2007, March 2013 ###Options: A. Painless condition B. Affects cornea C. Sudden loss of vision D. Bilateral in majority of cases
Your identity is a doctor, kindly provide answers to the medical questions with consideration of the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Ans. The infantile nucleus is completely formed by one year of age ###Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
###Question: All are true except: ###Options: A. The infantile nucleus is completely formed by one year of age B. The embryonic nucleus is situated between the two Y sutures C. Congenital blue dot cataracts are associated with development of senile cataract at an early stage D. Zonular cataracts typically affect the outer pa of the fetal or the inner pa of the adult nucleus
You're a doctor, kindly address the medical queries according to the patient's account. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Ans. B: Interstitial keratitis Hutchinson's triad is named after Sir Jonathan Hutchinson. It is a common pattern of presentation for congenital syphilis, and consists of three phenomena: interstitial keratitis, Hutchinson incisors (notching of the two upper central incisors in the permanent dentition), and eighth nerve deafness ###Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
###Question: Corneal lesion seen in Hutchinson triad associated with congenital syphilis is: September 2006 ###Options: A. Disciform keratitis B. Interstitial keratitis C. Phylectenular keratitis D. Mooren ulcer
As a healthcare professional, please evaluate the patient's description and offer your expertise in answering the medical questions. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: A. i.e. Vitreous hemorrhage; B. i.e. Corneal opacity; C i.e. Exudative retinal detachment ###Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
###Question: Traumatic eye lesion can cause: ###Options: A. Vitreous haemorrhage B. Corneal opacity C. Exudative retinal detachment D. All
As a medical professional, your responsibility is to address the medical questions using the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Ocular - a,b,c Cutaneous - cafe-au-lait spots to neurofibromota. ###Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
###Question: Ocular manifestations of neurofibromatosis ###Options: A. Neurofibromas of lids & Orbit B. Glioma of optic nerve C. Congenital glaucoma D. All the above.
Given your background as a doctor, please provide your insight in addressing the medical questions based on the patient's account. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
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###Rationale: REF : AK KHURANA 7TH ED ###Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
###Question: which layer of cornea helps in maintaining hydration OF stroma of cornea ###Options: A. Descement membrane B. Endothelium C. Epithelium D. stroma
Your identity is a doctor, kindly provide answers to the medical questions with consideration of the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Due to anticholinergic action, TCAs should be avoided in glaucoma These agents block muscarinic acetylcholine receptors, resulting in anticholinergic effects (e.g., dry mouth, blurred vision, urine retention, constipation); they are contraindicated in patients with glaucoma. ###Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
###Question: Tricyclic antidepressant are contraindicated in: ###Options: A. Glaucoma B. Brain tumor C. Bronchial asthma D. Hypeension
Given your profession as a doctor, please provide responses to the medical questions using the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Ans. A i.e. Myopia ###Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
###Question: Refractive error concerned most commonly with divergent strasbismus is: September 2012, March 2013 ###Options: A. Myopia B. Astigmatism C. Hypermetropia D. Astigmatism
You're a doctor, kindly address the medical queries according to the patient's account. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor USES: 1. Glaucoma: as an adjuvant to other ocular hypotensives 2. Epilepsy: increases co2 levels- inhibits seizures to some extent- used only for catamenial epilepsy- epilepsy during menses 3. Acute mountain sickness - by increasing co2 and stimulating the breathing center 4. edema 5. alkalinization of urine ( Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, K.D Tripathi,6th edition, page 569 ) ###Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
###Question: Acetazolamide can be used in all except ###Options: A. Epilepsy B. Cute mountain sickness C. Cirrhosis D. Glaucoma
In your capacity as a doctor, it is expected that you answer the medical questions relying on the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Salmon patches (aka nevus simplex or nevus flammeus) are flat vascular lesions that occur in the listed regions and appear more prominent during crying. The lesions on the face fade over the first few years of life. Lesions found over the nuchal and occipital areas often persist. No therapy is indicated. ###Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
###Question: Many rashes and skin lesions can be found first in the newborn period. For each of the descriptions listed below, select the most likely diagnosis. Each lettered option may be used once, more than once, or not at all. An adolescent boy complains of a splotchy red rash on the nape of his neck, discovered when he had his head shaved for football season.The rash seems to become more prominent with exercise or emotion. His mother notes that he has had the rash since infancy, but that it became invisible as hair grew. He had a similar rash on his eyelids that resolved in the newborn period. ###Options: A. Sebaceous nevus B. Salmon patch C. Neonatal acne D. Pustular melanosis
Your role as a doctor requires you to answer the medical questions taking into account the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Most common type of optic nerve glioma is juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma. ###Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
###Question: Most common type of optic nerve glioma is – ###Options: A. Gemistocytic B. Fibrous C. Protoplasmic D. Pilocytic
Your identity is a doctor, kindly provide answers to the medical questions with consideration of the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
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###Rationale: Ans. 8-9 mm behind the limbus ###Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
###Question: 'Safe zone' of the eye ball is: ###Options: A. At the limbus B. 3-4 mm behind the limbus C. 8-9 mm behind the limbus D. 12 mm behind the limbus
You're a doctor, kindly address the medical queries according to the patient's account. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
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###Rationale: Ans. None of the above ###Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
###Question: In a patient predisposed to glaucoma, the drug contraindicated is: ###Options: A. Pilocarpine B. Ecothiopate C. Timolol D. None of the above
Given your profession as a doctor, please provide responses to the medical questions using the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Five structures in lateral wall of cavernous sinus 1. Oculomotor nerve 2. Trochlear nerve 3. Ophthalmic nerve 4. Maxillary nerve 5. Trigeminal ganglion Note: Internal carotid artery wrapped in its venous and sympathetic plexus along with abducent nerve passes through the center of cavernous sinus. ###Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
###Question: Which of the following structure is not related to cavernous sinus: ###Options: A. Abducent nerve B. Optic nerve C. Ophthalmic nerve D. Trochlear nerve
As a medical professional, your responsibility is to address the medical questions using the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
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###Rationale: D i.e. Severe Shock ###Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
###Question: Ketamine is safe in ###Options: A. Raised ICT B. Open eye injury C. Ischemic hea disease D. Severe shock
Your identity is a doctor, kindly provide answers to the medical questions with consideration of the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
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###Rationale: Retina is a pa of CNS and develops from Neuroectoderm. ###Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
###Question: Retina is pa of ? ###Options: A. CNS B. PNA C. ANS D. None
As a medical professional, your responsibility is to address the medical questions using the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Answer- A. Phacomorphic glaucomaPhocomorphic glaucoma :- It occurs in intumescent stage of cataract. The swollen lens leads to relative pupillary block (pupillary block glaucoma), iris bombe and angle closure. It is a type of angle closure glaucoma and anterior chamber is very shallow. ###Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
###Question: Which glaucoma is associated with cataract ###Options: A. Phacomorphic glaucoma B. Neovascular glaucoma C. Phacoanaphylactic glaucoma D. Buphthalmos
Given your profession as a doctor, please provide responses to the medical questions using the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
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###Rationale: Ans. Kingking of optic nerve ###Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
###Question: Which of these features is a classic radiologic feature of optic nerve glioma: ###Options: A. Tram-track appearance of optic nerve B. Kingking of optic nerve C. Multiple cystic spaces in optic nerve D. Adjacent bony erosion
Your role as a doctor requires you to answer the medical questions taking into account the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
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###Rationale: D i.e. Exophotocoagulation Treatment of advanced proliferative diabetic retinopathy with vitreoretinal fibrosis and tractional rectinal detachment involves previtrectomy pan retinal endophoto coagulation (not exophotocoagulation)Q, vitrectomy (pars plana or posterior route), reattachment of detached or torn retina and removal of epiretinal membraneQ. In most cases it is preferable to attempt panretinal photocoagulation, because the more laser a patient has previtrectomy the better he or she usually does after vitrectomy. An uncommon and unfounate complication of panretinal photocoagulation, paicularly in patients with vitreous hemorrhage & preexisting fibrosis, is acceleration or production of a tractional detachment by the laser treatment. Vitrectomy removes the scaffolding & possible stimuli (disintegrated blood products) for neovascular growth. Endophotocoagulation is used exclusively during a vitrectomy procedureQ. The endophotocoagulation probe may have a laser fiber +- an aspirating po to help remove subretinal fluid. To best treat retinal tears by endophotocoagulation, it is impoant that all subretinal fluids be removed from under the retina for the laser to take. If all traction is removed from the tear, once the fluid is removed from under the retina, it usually does not accumulate. Epiretinal membrane is a thin sheet of abnormal scar tissue that grows over the retina and causes distoion of vision due to macular puckering (s/t contracted epiretinal membrane), detachment (secondary to localized retinal traction) and opacification of membrane. ###Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
###Question: Treatment of Advanced Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy with extensive vitreoretinal fibrosis and tractional retinal detachment involves all of the following except. ###Options: A. Reattachment of detached or torn retina B. Removal of epiretinal membrane C. Vitrectomy D. Exophotocoagulation
Given your profession as a doctor, please provide responses to the medical questions using the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
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###Rationale: Ans. Constant blinking ###Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
###Question: Macula is ###Options: A. Optic nerve B. Optic tract C. Periodic bluring of vision D. Constant blinking
Your role as a doctor requires you to answer the medical questions taking into account the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Ans. Zonular ###Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
###Question: Cataract in newborn is: ###Options: A. Zonular B. Coronary C. Snowflake D. Coical
In your capacity as a doctor, it is expected that you answer the medical questions relying on the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
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###Rationale: This is a case of measles. The face is completely erythematous and there is an erythematous maculopapular rash on the trunk and extremities, with large confluent areas on the back. 3RD image shows the classical appearance of the Koplik spots, an exanthem (mucosal rash) that is felt to be pathognomonic (distinctly characteristic) of measles. Complications of measles: - Diarrhoea Otitis media Giant cell pneumonia Croup Malnutrition Mouth ulcers Retrobulbar neuritis SSPE Myocarditis Appendicitis Pneumothorax and Pneumomediastinum ###Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
###Question: A 3 year old boy was admitted to the hospital for high fever and difficulty in breathing. He had been well until 4 days before admission, when he developed sneezing and a runny and stuffy nose followed by a non-productive cough on next day. This was followed by appearance of characteristic rash on face, trunk, extremities and back along with fever. O/E, Shotty anterior cervical and supraclavicular lymph nodes. Hyperaemic conjunctiva Ceain spots on buccal mucosa The white blood cell count was 3,100/ml, with a differential of 70 % polymorphonuclear leukocytes. All of the following are complications of the above disease EXCEPT? ###Options: A. Hecht Giant cell pneumonia B. SSPE C. Orchitis D. Otitis media
Your identity is a doctor, kindly provide answers to the medical questions with consideration of the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
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###Rationale: Indirect ophthalmoscopy can be used to examine the entire retina, even out to its extreme periphery, the ora serrata. This is possible for two reasons. Optical distoions caused by looking through the peripheral lens and cornea interfere very little with the indirect ophthalmoscopic examination compared with the direct ophthalmoscope. In addition, the adjunct technique of scleral depression can be used. Ref : Chang D.F. (2011). Chapter 2. Ophthalmologic Examination. In P. Riordan-Eva, E.T. Cunningham, Jr. (Eds), Vaughan & Asbury's General Ophthalmology, 18e. ###Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
###Question: Periphery of retina is best visualized with : ###Options: A. Direct ophthalmoscopy B. Indirect ophthalmoscopy C. Retinoscopy D. USG
Considering your role as a medical practitioner, please use the patient's description to answer the medical questions. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
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###Rationale: Cataracts REF: Harisson's 18`11 ed chapter 169 Hutchinson's triad is named after Sir Jonathan Hutchinson (1828-1913). It is a common pattern of presentation for congenital syphilis, and consists of three phenomena: interstitial keratitis, Hutchinson incisors, and eighth nerve deafness ###Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
###Question: In Hutchinson's triad in newborn child, what is not seen? ###Options: A. Interstitial keratitis B. Notched incisors C. Deafness D. Cataracts
Being a doctor, your task is to answer the medical questions based on the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
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###Rationale: The first trimester of pregnancy is the most disastrous time for the foetus as the organs are developing. Infection in the second trimester may cause deafness but those infected after week 16 suffer no major abnormalities. Ref: Textbook of Obstetrics By Dutta, 6th Edition, Page 299; Park's Textbook Of Preventive And Social Medicine By K. Park, 18th Edition, Page 128 ###Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
###Question: All of the following statements are true about Congenital Rubella, EXCEPT: ###Options: A. It is diagnosed when the infant has IgM antibodies at bih B. It is diagnosed when IgG antibodies persist from more than 6 months C. Most common congenital defects are deafness, cardiac malformations and cataract D. Infection after 16 weeks of gestation results in major congenital defects
Being a doctor, your task is to answer the medical questions based on the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Unexpected visual loss, 3 weeks after cataract surgery with 'honey comb maculopathy' and 'flower petal' hyperfluorescence on Fluorescin Angiography is characteristic of Cystoid macular Edema. ###Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
###Question: A 70–year–old man presents with deterioration of vision 3 weeks after cataract extraction and IOL implantation. Slit lamp examination shows honeycomb maculopathy and Fluorescein angiography (FA) shows 'flower petal' hyperfluorescence. The most likely diagnosis is – ###Options: A. Age related macular degeneration (ARMD) B. Central serous Retinopathy (CSR) C. Macular Dystrophy D. Cystoid Macular Edema
Considering your role as a medical practitioner, please use the patient's description to answer the medical questions. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
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###Rationale: please upload a reason for this question, if anyone.. ###Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
###Question: Histological finding of Reye's syndrome is ###Options: A. Budding and branching of mitochondria B. Swelling of endoplasmic reticulum C. Paranuclear microdense deposits D. Glycogen depletion
In your capacity as a doctor, it is expected that you answer the medical questions relying on the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Ans. Trabeculitis ###Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
###Question: Secondary glaucoma in early stage of herpes zoster ephthalmicus occurs due to: ###Options: A. Trabeculitis B. Iridocyclitis C. Haemorrhagic hypopyon D. Hypersecretion of aqueous humour
Given your background as a doctor, please provide your insight in addressing the medical questions based on the patient's account. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Ans. is 'b' i.e., Latanoprost Drugs used in open-angle glaucoma MechanismMethods of AdministrationCholinomimetics Pilocarpine, carbachol, physostigmine, echothiophate, demecariumCiliary muscle contraction, opening of trabecular meshwork, increased outflowTopical drops of gel; plastic film slow-release insertAlpha agonists UnselectiveEpinephrine, dipivefrinIncreased outflowTopical dropsAlpha2-selectiveDecreased aqueous secretion ApraclonidineBrimonidine Topical, postlaser only TopicalBeta-blockers Timolol, betaxolol, carteolol, levobunolol, metipranololDecreased aqueous secretion from the ciliary epitheliumTopical dropsDiuretics Dorzolamide, brinzolamideDecreased aqueous secretion due to lack of HCO3TopicalAcetazolamide, dichlorphenamide, Methazolamide OralProstaglandins Lantanoprost, bimatoprost, travoprost, unoprostoneIncreased outflowTopical ###Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
###Question: Antiglaucoma drug which acts by increasing uveo- sclerol outflow - ###Options: A. Apraclonidine B. Latanoprost C. Timolol D. Brinzolamide
Considering your role as a medical practitioner, please use the patient's description to answer the medical questions. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: C i.e. Sudden painless loss of vision In papilloedema there is painless gradually progressive loss of vision which is usually bilateralQ which occurs after a long time only when optic atrophy sets in. "Visual acuity is not affected by Papilloedema unless it is severe, long standing, or accompanied by macular edema & haemorrhage"-Harrison's P 169 In contrast, in papillitis there is U/L sudden & marked painful loss of vision with ocular tenderness at inseion of MR & SRQ (medial & superior rectus), which is accompanied by pain on ocular movements, pulfrich phenomenon & RAPD Q. Papilloedema It is hydrostatic noninflammatory oedema of optic disc or nerve head d/t raised intracranial pressure. Aetiology Pathogenesis Clinical Features * Raised ICT, which may be due * Old concept? * General features of raised ICT ? to compression of central headache, nausea, projectile 1. Congenital condition - retinal veinQ as it vomiting, diplopia & focal aqueductal stenosis, crosses the subdural & neurological deficit craniosynostosis subarachnoid spaces, * Ocular features 2. Intracranial Space Occupying while thicker wall Lit Painless progressive loss of lesions (ICSOLS) - eg brain aery continue to visionQ with the following tumor, gumma, hematoma, transmit blood sequence of symptoms: aneurysm, infection * New Hayreh's theory - Ther are no visual symptoms & - Papilloedema is most frequent - Papilloedema develops acuity is normal in Early with tumors arising in posterior as a result of stasis of papilloedema fossa (cerebellum, mid brain, axoplasm in - Reccurent attacks of transient parieto occipital region)Q which prelaminar regioinQ of black out of vision (amaurosis obstruct aqueduct of sylvius and optic disc due to an fugax)Q precipitated by change in least with pituitary tumors alteration in the posture - Papilloedema due to tumors of pressure gradient - Enlargement of blind spot & anterior fossa is relatively rare and across lamina cribrosa progressive contraction of visual occurs late in the course of - Raised ICT & orbital fieldQ disease lesion produce - Relative scotoma first to green & - ICSOLS in any position (even disturbance in red spinal cord) excepting medulla pressure gradient by - Visual acuity & pupillary oblongataQ may induce increasing tissue reaction remain normal until papilloedema pressure with in the optic atrophy sets inQ which may 3. Intracranial infections retrolaminar region lead to severe lossof central (meningitis, encephaliltis), while ocular hypotony vision intracranial haemorrhages, alters it by lowering - As optic atrophy sets in complete obstruction of CSF absorption the tissue pressure blindness ensues & pupils arachnoid villi with in prelaminar become large & immobile. 4. Systemic conditions eg. malignant hyper tensionQ, toxaemia of pregnancyQ, area Mnemonic- "Blurring Has Reduced * Fundoscopic features Physiological Pulse So 26 Elevated cardiopulmonary insufficiency, blood dyscarasis & nephritis Fans Must Flame the Cotton" 5. Pseudotumor cerebriQ usually due to drugs like Tetracycline, Blurring Blurring of margins of optic discQ vitamin A, Nalidixic acid, Has Hyperaemia of disc Contraceptive (oral) & Reduced - Reduced Physiological cupQ CoicoSteroid Physiological - Pulsation (venous) may be absent() (Memonic - " TANCS") Pulse So Striated appearance d/t prominent small aerioles * Ocular hypotony & 2-6 - 2-6 DQ difference for focusing vessels on disc on Foster Kennedy SyndromeQ retina d/t elevation of disc F.K. Syndrome is associated Elevated Elevated discQ (mushroom or dome shaped)Q with olfactory or sphenoidal Fans Must Macular FanQ - an incomplete star with temporal meningiomata & frontal lobe pa missing tumor. These compress optic Flame - Flame shaped & Punctate haemorrhage() nerve on same side 1/t The pressure optic atrophy C/L papilloedemaQ (d/t raised ICT) Cotton - Cotton wool spotsQ ###Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
###Question: Papilloedema is characterised by all of the following, EXCEPT: ###Options: A. Loss of retinal venous pulsations B. Transient obscurations of vision C. Sudden painless loss of vision D. Disc oedema
Being a doctor, your task is to answer the medical questions based on the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
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###Rationale: Ans. is 'b' i.e. Rheumatoid arthritis Aetiological classification of cataract:Senile CataractDevelopmental or congenitalComplicated cataractTraumaticMetabolicDiabetes*Tetany (hypoparathyroidism)Hypoglycemia*Galactosemia*Galactokinase deficiency*Lowe's syndrome*Wilson's disease*Maternal infectionRubella*Toxoplasma*CMV*ToxicGlucocorticoids *Busulphan*Chlorambucil*Long acting miotics*SyndromesWerner's*Alport's*Rothmund*Downs*Radiation alDermatogenicAtopic dermatitis*Rothmund' s syndrome*Werner's syndrome* ###Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
###Question: Cataract is seen in following except: ###Options: A. Glucocorticoid administration B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Galactosemia
Given your background as a doctor, please provide your insight in addressing the medical questions based on the patient's account. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
###Question: Stellwag'sign is: ###Options: A. Absence of normal winking. B. Failure of convergence of eye balls. C. Exophthalmos. D. None.
Considering your role as a medical practitioner, please use the patient's description to answer the medical questions. Answer with the best option directly.
medmcqa
###Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
###Question: All are true about scleritis except? ###Options: A. painless condition B. glaucoma may occur C. necrotising scleritis is more severe and destructive form D. Anterior scleritis pain worsens at night
Your role as a doctor requires you to answer the medical questions taking into account the patient's description. Answer with the best option directly.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Tardieu's or Bayard's ecchymoses/spots: Round, dark-red, well-defined, pin-head sized spots, found in those pas where capillaries are least Suppoed, e.g. conjunctiva, face, epiglottis, subpleural urface of lungs, hea, meninges and thymus. They tend to be better made out in fair skinned persons, readily visible in fresh bodies. Disappear with putrefaction. They are not pathognomic of asphyxia, and their absence does not exclude asphyxia. It can be seen in other forms of death--electrocution, poisoning, coronary thrombosis, in persons on anticoagulants, with bleeding disorders such as scurvy, leukemia and thrombocytopenia, but distribution is more generalized. ###Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
###Question: Following is true about bayard's spots:- ###Options: A. Due to the rupture of aerioles B. Pathognomic of asphyxia C. Present in putrefaction D. Well defined, dark red spots seen over conjunctiva, subpleural surface of lungs, hea etc.
Your role as a doctor requires you to answer the medical questions taking into account the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: What does 6/6 mean in Snellen's cha * It means that the patient with or without glasses can see the letter at a distance of 6 m which a person normally should have been seeing at 6 m Now you would understand it by next example * 6/12 means a letter which a normal patient should be seeing at 12 metre , this patient can see only when he is nearer, that means 6 metre from Target * 6/24 means that a normal patient should be seeing at 24 metre, but this patient has to be much closer that means 6 metre * This also means that the letter written at 6/24 is big enough that 6/6 vision person can read it at even 24 metre ###Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
###Question: A person came to eye OPD for routine eye check u. On snellen's cha he was found to read 6/6. At what distance he should be able to read 6/24 ###Options: A. 36 m B. 24 m C. 6 m D. 1 m
In your capacity as a doctor, it is expected that you answer the medical questions relying on the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Most common nerve involved in basal skull fracture is Facial nerve. Most common nerve involved in raised intracranial tension is Abducent nerve . Most common nerve affected during spinal anesthesia is also Abducent nerve. Most commonly involved in intracranial aneurysm is Oculomotor nerve ansd not optic nerve. An aneurysm at the junction of the posterior communicating and posterior cerebral aeries compresses parasympathetic nerve fibers of the Oculomotor nerve, causing a dilated pupil. ###Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
###Question: Which of the following is a WRONG pair regarding features of cranial nerves: ###Options: A. Most commonly involved in basal skull fracture: Facial nerve B. Most commonly involved in raised intracranial tension: Abducent nerve C. Most commonly affected in spinal anaesthesia: Abducent nerve D. Most commonly involved in intracranial aneurysm: Optic Nerve
Your identity is a doctor, kindly provide answers to the medical questions with consideration of the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Ans. is 'b' i.e. Timolol eye drops Timolol maleate is the most widely used drug for open angle glaucoma.It is non-selective B blocker (Blocks both B1 and B2B2 is responsible for bronchodilation, therefore blocking B2 would aggravate asthma.Instead of Timolol, Betaxolol can be used because it is a selective B1 blocker and causes less respiratory side effects. ###Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
###Question: A patient of glaucoma with bronchial asthma presents to the emergency with status asthamaticus, causative agent might have been) ###Options: A. Pilocarpine eye drop B. Timolol eye drop C. Betaxolol eye drop D. Levobunolol eye drop
You're a doctor, kindly address the medical queries according to the patient's account. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Foy percent of retinoblastomas are heritable; the child inherits one mutant allele through the germline and a somatic mutation in the other allele occurs, resulting in the loss of function of that gene. This leads to tumor development, often with multiple tumors in both eyes. Penetrance, however, is not complete, since the second mutation is a chance event. Sixty percent of retinoblastomas are sporadic; both alleles are inactivated by somatic mutation. Because this is a rare event, tumors usually are in only one eye and present at a later age. To detect a mutation in the Rb gene and differentiate between heritable and sporadic cases of retinoblastoma, PCR is the most appropriate technique of the choices given. Using the appropriate primers, a deletion can be detected as a change in size of the DNA band amplified. In heritable cases, one chromosome will show the altered length from the deletion or the translocation in any cell in the body. In sporadic retinoblastoma, samples isolated from anywhere other than the tumor should have two normal alleles. DNA footprinting is a protocol used to detect specific protein binding to DNA molecules by comparing the fragmentation patterns of DNA bound with the protein of interest vs. unbound DNA following digestion with DNase I. If the bound protein protects against DNase I digestion, the position of the protein on the DNA can be deduced by the loss of the characteristic fragment. FACS uses antibodies coupled to fluorescent markers to determine cell surface molecules on whole cells. It is very useful for determining the stage of development or activation of cells, but does not give you any insight into the DNA. Nohern blotting, the RNA counterpa to Southern blotting, will determine the size and abundance of mRNA of a specific gene in a given sample of RNA. RNA is not able to be cleaved by restriction enzymes the way the DNA can; however, RNA molecules for different proteins are of different lengths. The sample is separated by agarose gel electrophoresis, transferred to a nitrocellulose membrane, and probed with a specific, labeled probe. This will be exposed to film and the bands will appear, revealing the size and the abundance of specific mRNAs. ###Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
###Question: One of your patients is diagnosed with retinoblastoma. He has a single tumor in one eye. The patient is worried whether his children would suffer from the same condition. What test could be used to determine whether it is a heritable or sporadic tumor? ###Options: A. DNA footprinting B. Fluorescence-activated cell soing (FACS) C. Nohern blotting D. PCR
As a medical professional, your responsibility is to address the medical questions using the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Ans. Lamellar cataract ###Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
###Question: Is the most common type of congenital cataract: ###Options: A. Lamellar cataract B. Cataracta centralis pulverulenta C. Coronary cataract D. Coralliform cataract
In your capacity as a doctor, it is expected that you answer the medical questions relying on the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: *Brolucizumab is a monoclonal antibody against VEGF. *It is recently approved for wet (neovascular) age related macular degeneration.* Istradefylline is adenosine A2 receptor antagonist. It is approved for off episodes in Parkinsonism* Lefamulin is a new antimicrobial that acts by inhibiting protein synthesis. It is approved for community acquired bacterial pneumonia. ###Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
###Question: Which of the following is a new drug recently approved for treatment of neovascular age related macular degeneration? ###Options: A. Brolucizumab B. Istradefylline C. Lefamulin D. Upadacitinib
Given your profession as a doctor, please provide responses to the medical questions using the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Exophthalmos (also called exophthalmos, exophthalmia, proptosis, or exorbitism) is a bulging of the eye anteriorly out of the orbit.Exophthalmos can be either bilateral (as is often seen in Graves' disease) or unilateral (as is often seen in an orbital tumor). ###Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
###Question: Which of the following is not a sign of stellate ganglion block? ###Options: A. Meiosis B. Exophtahalmos C. Nasal congestion D. Conjunctival redness
Your identity is a doctor, kindly provide answers to the medical questions with consideration of the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
###Question: Afferent component of corneal reflex is mediated by: ###Options: A. Vagus nerve B. Facial nerve C. Trigeminal nerve D. Glossopharyngeal nerve
As a medical professional, your responsibility is to address the medical questions using the patient's description. Answer with the best option directly.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Increased length of eyeball ###Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
###Question: Following predispose to glaucoma, except: ###Options: A. Flat cornea B. Increased length of eyeball C. Angular recession D. Big size of cilliary body
In your capacity as a doctor, it is expected that you answer the medical questions relying on the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above ###Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
###Question: Cataract is caused by ? ###Options: A. Hypoparathyroidism B. Cigrate smoking C. Non-ionizing radiation D. All of the above
Being a doctor, your task is to answer the medical questions based on the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: ref : ak khurana 7th ed ###Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
###Question: lesion producing incongrous Homonymous Hemianopia with Wernicke's Hemianopia pupil ###Options: A. Optic tract B. Visual coex C. Optic radiation D. Optic Nerve
You're a doctor, kindly address the medical queries according to the patient's account. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: SURFACE ECTODERM - LENS- Epithelium of the all structures except ciliary body & iris- Glands NEURAL ECTODERM - Epithelium of ciliary body & iris- Retinal pigment epithelium- Optic nerve- Sphincter and dilator pupillae muscles - Smooth muscles of iris MESODERM - EXTRAOCULAR MUSCLES- Endothelium of all the orbit & stroma of iris & ciliary body- Sclera (temporal pa) NEURAL CREST - Stroma of cornea & choroid - Corneal endothelium - Sclera (except temporal pa) -Melanocytes -Corneal keratocytes -Ciliary muscles -Ciliary ganglion -Stroma of iris -Choroid Trabecular meshwork ###Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
###Question: Corneal endothelium is derived from: ###Options: A. Neuroectoderm B. Neural crest cells C. Mesoderm D. Surface ectoderm
Being a doctor, your task is to answer the medical questions based on the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Cornea The cornea is the first and most powerful refracting surface of the eye. Light passes through the transparent cornea on its way to the retina. It has a greater curvature than the rest of the eyeball and a refractive power of approximately 44 dioptres. ###Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
###Question: According to biophysics, in which pa of eye does maximum refraction occur? ###Options: A. Cornea B. Aqueous humor C. Centre of the lens D. Periphery of the lens
As a medical professional, your responsibility is to address the medical questions using the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Treatment of Choice for prophylaxis of healthy eye when follow eye has primary open angle glaucoma is laser trabeculoplasty. ###Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
###Question: Treatment of Choice for prophylaxis of Right eye in case of primary open angle glaucoma of Left eye ###Options: A. Goniotony B. Trabeculectomy C. Laser trabeculoplasty D. Seton Surgery
Given your profession as a doctor, please provide responses to the medical questions using the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: It is seen as feathery lines of Opacities in the posterior cortex. ###Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
###Question: Rosette cataract develops in the ###Options: A. Anterior cortex B. Posterior cortex C. Anterior subcapsule D. Posterior subcapsule
Your role as a doctor requires you to answer the medical questions taking into account the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Ans. Keratoconus ###Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
###Question: Thinning of cornea occurs in: ###Options: A. Megalocornea B. Bullous keratopathy C. Endothelial dystrophy D. Keratoconus
Given your profession as a doctor, please provide responses to the medical questions using the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Acyclovir is the drug of choice for treatment of herpetic infection of eye, skin and genitals. It acts selectively against the herpes. It penetrates the intact corneal epithelium and stroma and produces therapeutic concentration in the aqueous humor. Vidarabine is active against a number of DNA viruses and is indicated in the treatment of herpes keratitis and viral keratoconjunctivitis. It is effective against herpes simplex superficial keratitis but ineffective in stromal disease. It acts by interfering with early steps in the synthesis of DNA. Ref: Textbook of Ophthalmology By H. V. Nema, page 100. ###Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
###Question: Which of the following is the drugs of choice for corneal herpes? ###Options: A. Idoxuridine B. Acyclovir C. Vidarabine D. Amantadine
As a medical professional, your responsibility is to address the medical questions using the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: The rubella virus is one of the causes of devastating prenatal infection. In adults and older children, the virus can cause asymptomatic infection or a relatively mild febrile illness (German measles) with upper respiratory symptoms, lymphadenopathy, maculopapular rash, and sometimes joint symptoms. The effects on the fetus range from apparently asymptomatic infection to multiple anomalies to death in utero. Among the more common abnormalities are intrauterine growth retardation, involvement of the senses and nervous system (meningoencephalitis, cataracts, retinopathy, hearing loss), cardiac involvement (patent ductus aeriosus, pulmonary aerial hypoplasia), hepatosplenomegaly, purpura (due to thrombocytopenia), bluish red skin lesions (secondary to dermal erythropoiesis), and pneumonia. Apparently asymptomatic babies should be monitored for subsequent development of hearing loss, mental retardation, endocrinopathies, and (rarely) progressive encephalitis. Treatment is suppoive, as no specific antiviral therapy is available for this infection. The rubella vaccine should be given to women of childbearing age who are not pregnant at the time. Cytomegalovirus infections can cause asymptomatic to devastating disease in newborns; look for periventricular calcifications and mothers with a flu-like illness. Congenital syphilis can cause devastating disease in newborns and can occur in early forms (look for the rash of secondary syphilis) or late forms (look for bone and teeth abnormalities). Congenital toxoplasmosis can produce devastating infection in newborns; look for a maternal history of cleaning cat litter boxes. ###Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
###Question: A neonate is born at term with multiple problems. He is small for gestational age and has cataract, hepatosplenomegaly and thrombocytopenia with purpura. Fuher studies demonstrate patent ductus aeriosus, bone lucency, pneumonia, and meningoencephalitis. The mother is a 17-year-old girl who had no prenatal care and had a mild maculopapular rash in mid-pregnancy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? ###Options: A. Congenital cytomegalovirus infection B. Congenital rubella C. Congenital syphilis D. Congenital toxoplasmosis
Given your background as a doctor, please provide your insight in addressing the medical questions based on the patient's account. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Wilson disease is an autosomal recessive condition in which excess copper may deposit in the liver and brain. Chronic hepatitis leads to cirrhosis in young people. Ocular lesions, so-called Kayser-Fleischer rings, represent deposition of copper in Descemet membrane in the iris. Lack of coordination and tremor (extrapyramidal neurologic symptoms) are related to degenerative changes in the corpus striatum. Deposition of copper is not observed in the other anatomic regions of the brain.Diagnosis: Wilson disease ###Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
###Question: A 14-year-old boy complains of a 4-month history of fatigue, abdominal pain, and yellowing of his eyes and skin. Physical examination shows tremor of both hands, lack of coordination, and mild jaundice. An ophthalmic examination reveals Kayser-Fleischer rings. Degenerative changes are present in which of the following anatomic regions of the CNS in this patient? ###Options: A. Cerebellum B. Corpus striatum C. Paraventricular white matter D. Pons
Given your background as a doctor, please provide your insight in addressing the medical questions based on the patient's account. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: A i.e. Strict glycemic control; B i.e. Panphotocoagulation; C i.e. Antihypeensive Diabetic retinopathy is treated by - strict glycemic & hypeensive control, antioxidants, photocoagulation (pan retinal, focal argon laser or grid pattern laser burns), intravitreal steroids and anti-VGF (vascular endothelial growth factor)Q and continuous screening. LASIK is refractory surgery for high myopia and phacoemulsification is used for cataract surgery. General measures Strict control of blood glucose Q may delay the onset Control of hypeension Q when associated is essential Antioxidants Q are alsouseful for diabetics Aspirin- an antiplatelet factor has no role Pars plana vitrectomy is indicated for dense persistent vitreous hemorrhage, tractional retinal detachment and epiretinal membranes. Retinal detachment also requires surgery in DR. PDR= Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy NPDR = Non-PDR Screening Yearly Till there is no-DR or there is mild NP-DR 6 monthly In moderate NPDR 3 monthly In severe NPDR 2 monthly In PDR with no high risk characteristic Pan retinal photocoagulation Focal argon laser burn Grid pattern laser burns * It consists of 1200-1600 spots, each 500 pm in It is applied to It is size and 0.1 sec duration individual applied in * It is applied 2-3 disc areas from the centre of microvascular macular macula extending peripherally to equator formations in the area for centre of hard diffuse * It is indicated in PDR (proliferative diabetic exudates' ring in focal macular retinopathy) with one of the high risk exudative edema characteristic maculopathy Photocoagulation ###Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
###Question: Diabetic retinopathy is treated by: ###Options: A. Strict glycemic control B. Panphotococagulation C. Antihypeensive D. All
Your identity is a doctor, kindly provide answers to the medical questions with consideration of the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
###Question: True about measles –a) Rash appear first on legb) Koplik spots are seen in retinac) Long term complication follows in form of SSPEd) Caused by RNA viruse) IP–IS 2–3 day ###Options: A. cd B. bc C. bd D. ac
Your identity is a doctor, kindly provide answers to the medical questions with consideration of the patient's description. Answer with the best option directly.
medmcqa
###Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
###Question: The most predictive and dangerous side effect of propranolol that makes it to be avoided in known patient of COPD is induction of - ###Options: A. Respiratory failure B. Acute asthmatic attack C. Glaucoma D. Pleural effusion
Your identity is a doctor, kindly provide answers to the medical questions with consideration of the patient's description. Answer with the best option directly.
medmcqa
###Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
###Question: Chubby cheeks, eyes are blue and staring at the sky is a feature of ###Options: A. Cherubism B. Fibrous dysplasia C. Ectodermal dysplasia D. Sicca syndrome
You're a doctor, kindly address the medical queries according to the patient's account. Answer with the best option directly.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ankyloblepharon filiforme adnatum * In ankyloblepharon filiforme adnatum the upper and lower eyelids are joined by thin tags; most cases are sporadic. Treatment involves transection with scissors; anaesthesia is not required.* Ablepharon consists of deficiency of the anterior lamellae of the eyelids; treatment involves reconstructive skin grafting.* Euryblepharon refers to horizontal enlargement of the palpebral fissure with associated lateral canthal malposition and lateral ectropion; lagophthalmos and exposure keratopathy may result.* Epiblepharon comprises an extra horizontal fold of skin stretching across the anterior lid margin; it is very common in individuals of Eastern Asian ethnicity. ###Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
###Question: Fusion of two eyelids by thin tags is called- ###Options: A. Ankyloblepharon filiforme adnatum B. Euryblepharon C. Ablepharon D. Epiblepharon
As a medical professional, your responsibility is to address the medical questions using the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
###Question: Hashimoto's thyroiditis-True are all EXCEPT ###Options: A. Follicular destruction B. Increase in lymphocytes C. Oncocytic metaplasia D. Orphan Annie eye nuclei
Your role as a doctor requires you to answer the medical questions taking into account the patient's description. Answer with the best option directly.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Ans. D: Juvenile diabetes Snowflake Cataracts: This type of cataract represents dots of various sizes (and sometimes various colours) distributed throughout the coex surrounding the nucleus for 360deg. This is the most common cataract seen in Down Syndrome (extra copy of chromosome 21 also called trisomy 21) and juvenile diabetes mellitus. These usually have very little effect on vision. Adult diabetic cataract shows coical and/or nuclear and/or subcapsular (same as age related) ###Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
###Question: Snowflake cataract is associated with: September 2008 ###Options: A. Hypeension B. Adult diabetes C. Trauma D. Juvenile diabetes
Being a doctor, your task is to answer the medical questions based on the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Acute dystonia is the earliest side effect seen immediately after the administration of antipsychotics. Acute dystonia is treated using anticholinergics like Benztropine, Promethazine. ###Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
###Question: A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia came with acute exacerbation of symptoms. Inj.Haloperidol was administered in the casuality and suddenly the patient had deviation of eye balls and torticollis. What is the diagnosis? ###Options: A. Akathisia B. Acute dystonia C. Malignant hyperthermia D. Drug induced parkinsonism
Given your background as a doctor, please provide your insight in addressing the medical questions based on the patient's account. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: D i.e. Microaneurysm Microaneurysms are located in the inner nuclear layer and are the earliest and most characteristic ocular lesion Q of diabetic retinopathy. ###Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
###Question: Earliest manifestation of diabetic retinopathy is ###Options: A. Soft exudates/Cotton wool spot B. Dot haemorrhage C. Hard exudates D. Microaneurysm
As a healthcare professional, please evaluate the patient's description and offer your expertise in answering the medical questions. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Measles  Measles is caused by a RNA virus of paramyxovirus. Measles in also known as rubella The only source of infection is a case of measles, carriers are not known to occur. Infective period → 4 days before and 5 days after the appearance of rash. Infective material → Secretions of nose, throat and respiratory tract Age group → 6 month to 3 years. Immunity → One attack of measles generally confers lifelong immunity.  Transmission →  Droplet infection through respiratory tract Infection through conjunctiva. Incubation period → 10 days from exposure to onset of fever. 14 days from exposure to appearance of rash. 7 days for live vaccine of measles. Clinical manifestations 1) Prodromal stage Begins 10 days after the infection and lasts until day 14. Characterized by fever, coryza with sneezing and nasal discharge, redness of the eyes, lacrimation and photophobia. A day or two before the appearance of rash, Koplik's spots appear on buccal mucosa opposite the 1st and 2nd lower molars. Koplik's spots are pathognonzonic of measles. 2)    Eruptive phase Maculopapular rash which begins behind the ear and spread rapidly in a few hour over the face and neck extends doWn the body. 3) Post measles stage Weight loss                       Growth retardation           Diarrhea Cancrum oris         Reactivation of pulmonary TB      Candidiasis ###Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
###Question: All of the following statement regarding measles are true except -a) Rash appears first on legb) Koplik spot are seen on retinac) Long term complication may be seen in form of SSPEd) Caused by RNA viruse) I-P is 2-3 days ###Options: A. abc B. bcd C. cde D. abe
Given your background as a doctor, please provide your insight in addressing the medical questions based on the patient's account. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Some epithelia derived from ectoderm- the epithelium of the skin , hair follicles, sweat glands, sebaceous glands, and mammary glands - the epithelium over cornea and conjunctiva, external acoustic meatus and the outer surface of the tympanic membrane- the epithelium of some pa of the mouth, the lower pa of the anal canal, terminal pa of the male urethra, pas of the female external genitaliaRef: Human Embryology; Inderbir Singh; Tenth Edition; Page No: 95 ###Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
###Question: Which of the following is derived from ectoderm? ###Options: A. Epithelium of iris B. Ciliary muscles C. Vascular endothelium D. Sclera
Your identity is a doctor, kindly provide answers to the medical questions with consideration of the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Ring of sommerring and Elsching's are seen in after cataract. (Ref: Parson's 22nd/e p.285 & 21st/e p.279) ###Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
###Question: Ring of Sommerring is seen in - ###Options: A. Galactosemia B. Dislocztion of lens C. Acute congestive glaucoma D. After cataract
Being a doctor, your task is to answer the medical questions based on the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Ans. Pachymeter ###Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
###Question: Thickness of cornea is best measured by: ###Options: A. Keratometer B. Pachymeter C. Optometer D. Pentoscope
Your identity is a doctor, kindly provide answers to the medical questions with consideration of the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: (A) Amaurosis fugax > Amaurosis Fugax is transient ischemic attack of retina characterized by transient sudden loss of vision lasting for few minutes, due to occlusion by minute emboli. It may be a premonitory symptom of CRAO.> D/D of "cherry red" spot on fundus CRAO, blunt injury (Berhin's edema of macula), Tay-Sach's disease, Niemann-Pick disease, Sandboffs disease & quinine ambliopia.> Cattle-track appearance is other important feature of CRVO, apart from Hol/enhorst plauge. ###Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
###Question: Blockade of Central Retinal Artery leads to temporary blindness is also known as: ###Options: A. Amaurosis fiigax B. Gaze related amaurosis C. Amblyopia ex anopsia D. Amblyopia
Considering your role as a medical practitioner, please use the patient's description to answer the medical questions. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Chlamydiae ###Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
###Question: A patient (pigeon handler) presents with interstitial pneumonitis accompanied by headache, backache, and a dry, hacking cough. A pale, macular rash is also found on the trunk (Horder's spots). Likely organism is: ###Options: A. Histoplasma B. Chlamydiae C. Mycoplasma D. Aspergillus
In your capacity as a doctor, it is expected that you answer the medical questions relying on the patient's description. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: CRVO cause hypoxia and release of VEGF causing neovascularisation of iris and thus neovascular glaucoma in 20% cases within 3 months (also known as 90days/100days glaucoma). ###Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
###Question: 100 day glaucoma is seen in which of the following conditions? ###Options: A. Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) B. Steroid induced glaucoma C. Neovascular glaucoma D. Central retinal aery occlusion (CRAO)
You're a doctor, kindly address the medical queries according to the patient's account. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Ans. is 'c' i.e., Oculocardiac reflex * Oculocardiac reflex is most common in pediatric patients undergoing strabismus surgery. Traction on extraocular muscle (especially medial rectus) causes a wide variety of cardia arrhythmias.Oculocardiac reflex* Traction on the extraocular muscles or pressure on globe (eye ball) causes bradycardia, AV block, ventricular ectopy or asystole. It is especially seen with traction on the medial rectus, but can occur with stimulation of any of the orbital contents, including the periosteum.* The reflex is trigeminovagal, i.e., afferent is via trigeminal and efferent is via vagal pathway.* The oculocardiac reflex is most common in pediatric patients undergoing strabismus surgery. Nonetheless, it can be evoked in all age groups and during a variety of ocular procedures including cataract extraction, enucleation, and retinal detachment repair.* Anticholinergic drugs (atropine, glycopyrrolate) is often helpful in preventing oculocardiac reflex.* Management of oculocardiac reflex includes cessation of surgical stimulus; adequate ventilation, oxygenation & anesthesia; intravenous atropine; infiltration of rectus muscles with local anesthetic. ###Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
###Question: Anesthetics usually check for BP and pulse when ophthalmologist maneuvers medial rectus muscle in squint surgery. This is to prevent? ###Options: A. Vasovagal attack B. Hypotension syndrome C. Oculocardiac reflex D. None
Considering your role as a medical practitioner, please use the patient's description to answer the medical questions. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
###Rationale: Drug toxicity should be suspected in all cases of acute hepatitis. In this case, centrilobular necrosis suggests acetaminophen toxicity. The toxic dose of acetaminophen after a single acute ingestion is in the range of 150mg/kg in children and 7 g in adults. Acetaminophen is rapidly absorbed from the stomach and small intestine and conjugated in the liver to nontoxic agents, which then are eliminated in the urine. In cases of acute overdose, normal pathways of acetaminophen metabolism become saturated. Excess acetaminophen is then metabolized in the liver via the mixed function oxidase P450 system, yielding oxidative metabolites that cause predictable, hepatocellular necrosis. The centrilobular zones are particularly affected (centrilobular necrosis). Centrilobular necrosis is not seen in the other choices. Reye syndrome (choice D) occurs in children. Fatty liver of pregnancy (choice B) features micro vesicular steatosis.Diagnosis: Acetaminophen toxicity, hepatorenal syndrome ###Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
###Question: A 36-year-old, alcoholic woman presents with a 1-week history of yellow skin and sclerae. She has suffered persistent headaches. Her vital signs are normal. Physical examination reveals jaundice. Laboratory studies disclose markedly elevated levels of AST and ALT (956 and 1,400 U/L, respectively). A few days later, she develops hepatic encephalopathy and renal failure. A liver biopsy shows prominent centrilobular necrosis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? ###Options: A. Acetaminophen toxicity B. Fatty liver of pregnancy C. Metastatic carcinoma D. Reye syndrome
Given your background as a doctor, please provide your insight in addressing the medical questions based on the patient's account. Analyze the question and answer with the best option.
medmcqa
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