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dasein philosophy definition
[ "Dasein is a German word which literally means being there often translated in English with the word existence. It is a fundamental concept in the existential philosophy of Martin Heidegger particularly in his magnum opus Being and Time.Heidegger uses the expression Dasein to refer to the experience of being that is peculiar to human beings.Thus it is a form of being that is aware of and must confront such issues as personhood, mortality and the dilemma or paradox of living in relationship with other humans while being ultimately alone with oneself.eidegger uses the expression Dasein to refer to the experience of being that is peculiar to human beings. Thus it is a form of being that is aware of and must confront such issues as personhood, mortality and the dilemma or paradox of living in relationship with other humans while being ultimately alone with oneself." ]
[ "1. any philosophy based upon the doctrine that the principles of reality are to be discovered only through the analysis of the processes of thought, as Kantianism. 2. a philosophy emphasizing the intuitive and spiritual above the empirical, as the philosophy of Emerson. Cf. descendentalism.", "noun, (sometimes lowercase) 1. (in philosophical Taoism) that in virtue of which all things happen or exist. 2. the rational basis of human activity or conduct. 3. a universal, regarded as an ideal attained to a greater or lesser degree by those embodying it." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
Do natural Head Postures of Patients With Facial Asymmetry in Frontal View Are Corrected After Orthognathic Surgeries?
[ "Although orthognathic surgeries focus on adjustment of facial asymmetry (FA), many clinicians know by experience that the natural head posture (NHP) also is corrected after the surgery. The authors examined whether this was indeed the case by the measuring the NHP during the course of orthognathic treatment. Factors associated with NHP correction also were evaluated. In this retrospective study, clinical features, including the NHP, of patients with FA and those with facial symmetry (FS) were compared. They were outpatients of a private orthodontic dental clinic from December 2008 to March 2012. The degree of NHP tilt was evaluated using an interpupillary (IP) horizontal angle. The NHP of patients with FA were analyzed further before presurgical orthodontic treatment, after presurgical orthodontic treatment, after orthognathic surgery and postsurgical orthodontic treatment, and 1 year after completion of postsurgical orthodontic treatment. The NHP difference at each time point was analyzed using 1-way analysis of variance. An analysis of factors that influence NHP tilt correction was performed by linear regression" ]
[ "PURPOSE: Unilateral or bilateral ankylosis can lead to severe micrognathia and facial deformity that requires multiple, often, staged surgical corrections. To date, there is no ideal treatment modality that satisfactorily corrects the complex anatomy, restores the ramal height, and corrects the micrognathia and microgenia. Distraction osteogenesis has been acclaimed as a successful modality for the treatment of such deformities. It is a cost-effective approach with low morbidity and less relapse thus providing better functional and esthetic outcomes. It allows the surgeon to correct the deformity in various planes by using various devices by changing osteotomy designs and vectors, with simultaneous hard tissue and soft tissue reconstruction.PATIENTS AND METHODS: Here, we present a series of five cases where different types of distraction osteogenesis were combined with various other procedures to correct post-ankylotic facial asymmetry. In one case, simultaneous maxillo-mandibular distraction [Molina's technique] was used.RESULTS: All patients showed significant improvement in function and esthetics. Outcome assessment was made using clinical photographs and radiographs.CONCLUSION: Pre-arthroplastic distraction osteogenesis is a versatile cost effective approach that can be customized for every patient based on their needs.", "BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: There is limited literature discussing the residual nasolabial deformity of adult patients prior to undergoing orthognathic surgery. The purpose of this study is to determine the site and severity of the residual nasolabial soft tissue deformity between adult unilateral cleft lip and palate (UCLP) patients and a non-cleft reference group, prior to orthognathic surgery.MATERIAL AND METHODS: Sixteen adult male UCLP patients, who all received primary lip and palate surgery according to a standardised Hong Kong protocol were recruited for this study. Facial images of each individual were captured using three-dimensional (3D) stereophotogrammetry and compared to a previous published Hong Kong non-cleft reference group of 48 male adults. Using two-sample t-tests differences in linear and angular measurements and asymmetry scores were evaluated between the two groups. In addition a \"conformed\" average UCLP facial template was superimposed and compared to conformed average non-cleft reference group facial template. Reproducibility of the measurements were assessed using Students paired t-tests and coefficients of reliability.MAIN FINDINGS: Significant differences in linear and angular measurements and asymmetry scores were observed between the two groups (p < 0.05). Adult UCLP patients showed significantly narrower nostril floor widths, longer columella length on the unaffected side, a wider nose, shorter cutaneous lip height, shorter upper lip length and shorter philtrum length. Prior to orthognathic surgery adult UCLP patients showed significantly more facial asymmetry. Superimposition of the average facial meshes clearly showed the site and severity of the deficiency in the x, y and z-directions.CONCLUSIONS: Many of the nasolabial characteristics reported to be present in children following primary UCLP repair continue into adulthood. The detrimental soft tissue effects of orthognathic surgery for UCLP patients may be different to non-cleft individuals; and as such the site and severity of the residual deformity should be assessed prior to surgery." ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
intermittent hot spring that erupts jets of hot water and steam
[ "In active volcanic zones such as Yellowstone National Park, water may be heated by coming into contact with magma (molten rock). The high temperature gradient near magma may cause water to be heated enough that it boils or becomes superheated. If the water becomes so hot that it builds steam pressure and erupts in a jet above the surface of the Earth, it is called a geyser. If the water only reaches the surface in the form of steam, it is called a fumarole. If the water is mixed with mud and clay, it is called a mud pot. Note", "Geyser A geyser (, ) is a spring characterized by intermittent discharge of water ejected turbulently and accompanied by steam. As a fairly rare phenomenon, the formation of geysers is due to particular hydrogeological conditions that exist only in a few places on Earth. Generally all geyser field sites are located near active volcanic areas, and the geyser effect is due to the proximity of magma. Generally, surface water works its way down to an average depth of around where it contacts hot rocks. The resultant boiling of the pressurized water results in the geyser effect of hot water and" ]
[ "Takhini Hot Springs Takhini Hot Springs (tɑːkiːniː) is a natural hot springs located just outside the border of Whitehorse, Yukon (28 km from city centre). It is a locally run business which incorporates two pools at different temperatures and has a campground with over 80 sites. It is a historic site and a very popular destination for tourists and locals. The hot springs flows from the earth to the surface at a rate of 385 litres (86 gallons) per minute. The temperature from the source is 46.5° Celsius (118° Fahrenheit). The pool is divided into two sections: the hot side", "a cave system, with the water surging upwards under relatively high pressure. It is named after the Fontaine de Vaucluse in southern France. Submarine karst springs, also known as , occur worldwide, and are most numerous in shallow waters of the Mediterranean Sea. The main feature of karst springs results from the fact that water is rapidly transported by underground caverns. This means that there is minimal filtering of the water and little separation of different sediments. Groundwater emerges at the spring within a few days. Storms, snowmelt, and general seasonal changes in rainfall have a very noticeable and rapid" ]
Given a question, retrieve Wikipedia passages that answer the question
nq
are tertiary centers safe after cardiac arrest
[ "BACKGROUND: Studies have found higher survival rates after out-of-hospital cardiac arrest and admission to tertiary heart centers. The aim was to examine the level-of-care at tertiary centers compared with nontertiary hospitals and the association with outcome after out-of-hospital cardiac arrest.METHODS AND RESULTS: Consecutive out-of-hospital cardiac arrest patients (n=1078) without ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction admitted to tertiary centers (54%) and nontertiary hospitals (46%) were included (2002-2011). Patient charts were reviewed focusing on level-of-care and comorbidity. Survival to discharge differed significantly with 45% versus 24% of patients discharged alive (P<0.001), and after adjustment for prognostic factors admissions to tertiary centers were still associated with lower 30-day mortality (hazard ratio, 0.78 [0.64-0.96; P=0.02]), independent of comorbidity. The adjusted odds of predefined markers of level-of-care were higher in tertiary centers: admission to intensive care unit (odds ratio [OR], 1.8 [95% confidence interval, 1.2-2.5]), temporary pacemaker (OR, 6.4 [2.2-19]), vasoactive agents (OR, 1.5 [1.1-2.1]), acute (<24 hours) and late coronary angiography (OR, 10 [5.3-22] and 3.8 [2.5-5.7]), neurophysiological examination (OR, 1.8 [1.3-2.6]), and brain computed tomography (OR, 1.9 [1.4-2.6]), whereas no difference in therapeutic hypothermia was noted. Patients at tertiary centers were more often consulted by a cardiologist (OR, 8.6 [5.0-15]), had an echocardiography (OR, 2.8 [2.1-3.7]), and survivors more often had implantable cardioverter defibrillator's implanted (OR, 2.1 [1.2-3.6]).CONCLUSIONS: Admissions to tertiary centers were associated with significantly higher survival after out-of-hospital cardiac arrest in patients without ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction in the Copenhagen area even after adjustment for prognostic factors including comorbidity. Level-of-care seems higher in tertiary centers both in the early phase, during the intensive care unit admission, and in the workup before discharge. The varying level-of-care may contribute to the survival difference; however, differences in comorbidity do not seem to matter significantly." ]
[ "AIM: Cardiac arrest (CA) is still associated with high mortality and morbidity. Data on the changes in management and outcomes over a long period of time are limited. Using data from a single emergency department (ED), we assessed changes over two decades.METHODS: In this single-center observational study, we prospectively included 4133 patients receiving cardiopulmonary resuscitation and being admitted to the ED of a tertiary care hospital between January 1992 and December 2012.RESULTS: There was a significant improvement in both 6-month survival rates (+10.8%; p < 0.001) and favorable neurological outcome (+4.7%; p < 0.001). While the number of witnessed CA cases decreased (-4.7%; p < 0.001) the proportion of patients receiving bystander basic life support increased (+8.3%; p < 0.001). The proportion of patients with initially shockable ECG rhythms remained unchanged, but cardiovascular causes of CA decreased (-9.6%; p < 0.001). Interestingly, the time from CA until ED admission increased (+0.1 hours; p = 0.024). The use of percutaneous coronary intervention and therapeutic hypothermia were significantly associated with survival.CONCLUSIONS: Outcomes of patients with CA treated at a specialized ED have improved significantly within the last 20 years. Improvements in every link in the chain of survival were noted.", "Despite advances in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), survival remains low after out-of-hospital cardiac arrest (OOHCA). Acute coronary ischemia is the predominating precipitant, and prompt delivery of patients to dedicated facilities may improve outcomes. Since 2011, all patients experiencing OOHCA in London, where a cardiac etiology is suspected, are systematically brought to heart attack centers (HACs). We determined the predictors for survival and favorable functional outcomes in this setting. We analyzed 174 consecutive patients experiencing OOHCA from 2011 to 2013 brought to Harefield Hospital-a designated HAC in London. We analyzed (1) all-cause mortality and (2) functional status using a modified Rankin scale (mRS 0 to 6, where mRS0-3(+) = favorable functional status). The overall survival rates were 66.7% (30 days) and 62.1% (1 year); and 54.5% had mRS0-3(+) at discharge. Patients with mRS0-3(+) had reduced mortality compared to mRS0-3(-): 30 days (1.2% vs 72.2%, p <0.001) and 1 year (5.3% vs 77.2%, p <0.001). Multivariate analyses identified lower patient comorbidity, absence of cardiogenic shock, bystander CPR, ventricular tachycardia/ventricullar fibrillation as initial rhythm, shorter duration of resuscitation, prehospital advanced airway, absence of adrenaline and inotrope use, and intra-aortic balloon pump use as predictors of mRS0-3(+). Consistent predictors of increased mortality were the presence of cardiogenic shock, advanced airway use, increased duration of resuscitation, and absence of therapeutic hypothermia. A streamlined delivery of patients experiencing OOHCA to dedicated facilities is associated with improved functional status and survival. Our study supports the standardization of care for such patients with the widespread adoption of HACs." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
how does genetic variation affect abcg2
[ "OBJECTIVES: The expression and activity of the breast cancer resistance protein (ABCG2) contributes toward the pharmacokinetics of endogenous and xenobiotic substrates. The effect of genetic variation on the activity of cis-regulatory elements and nuclear response elements in the ABCG2 locus and their contribution toward ABCG2 expression have not been investigated systematically. In this study, the effect of genetic variation on the in vitro and in vivo enhancer activity of six previously identified liver enhancers in the ABCG2 locus was examined.METHODS: Reference and variant liver enhancers were tested for their ability to alter luciferase activity in vitro in HepG2 and HEK293T cell lines and in vivo using a hydrodynamic tail vein assay. Positive in vivo single-nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) were tested for association with gene expression and for altered protein binding in electrophoretic mobility shift assays.RESULTS: Multiple SNPs were found to alter enhancer activity in vitro. Four of these variants (rs9999111, rs12508471, ABCG2RE1*2, and rs149713212) decreased and one (rs2725263) increased enhancer activity in vivo. In addition, rs9999111 and rs12508471 were associated with ABCG2 expression in lymphoblastoid cell lines, lymphocytes, and T cells, and showed increased HepG2 nuclear protein binding.CONCLUSION: This study identifies SNPs within regulatory regions of the ABCG2 locus that alter enhancer activity in vitro and in vivo. Several of these SNPs correlate with tissue-specific ABCG2 expression and alter DNA/protein binding. These SNPs could contribute toward reported tissue-specific variability in ABCG2 expression and may influence the correlation between ABCG2 expression and disease risk or the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of breast cancer resistance protein substrates." ]
[ "Cryptic genetic variation (CGV) refers to genetic variants whose effects are buffered in most conditions but manifest phenotypically upon specific genetic and environmental perturbations. Despite having a central role in adaptation, contribution of CGV to regulation of quantitative traits is unclear. Instead, a relatively simplistic architecture of additive genetic loci is known to regulate phenotypic variation in most traits. In this paper, we investigate the regulation of CGV and its implication on the genetic architecture of quantitative traits at a genome-wide level. We use a previously published dataset of biparental recombinant population of Saccharomyces cerevisiae phenotyped in 34 diverse environments to perform single locus, two-locus, and covariance mapping. We identify loci that have independent additive effects as well as those which regulate the phenotypic manifestation of other genetic variants (variance QTL). We find that whereas additive genetic variance is predominant, a higher order genetic interaction network regulates variation in certain environments. Despite containing pleiotropic loci, with effects across environments, these genetic networks are highly environment specific. CGV is buffered under most allelic combinations of these networks and perturbed only in rare combinations resulting in high phenotypic variance. The presence of such environment specific genetic networks is the underlying cause of abundant gene–environment interactions. We demonstrate that overlaying identified molecular networks on such genetic networks can identify potential candidate genes and underlying mechanisms regulating phenotypic variation. Such an integrated approach applied to human disease datasets has the potential to improve the ability to predict disease predisposition and identify specific therapeutic targets.", "The impact of the gout-causing C421A (Q141K) single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) on ABC transporter ABCG2 expression and function has been extensively characterized. However, the influence of the C421A SNP on 3'-UTR-dependent ABCG2 regulation has not been analysed so far. To elucidate this matter, we generated vectors for expression of either the ABCG2 coding sequence (ORF) or the ABCG2 ORF fused to its 3'-UTR, inserted the C421A mutation via site-directed mutagenesis and expressed wild-type and C421A-mutated ABCG2 transcripts in HEK293-Tet-On cells. As shown previously, the C421A SNP significantly reduced ABCG2 protein levels in ABCG2 ORF-transfected HEK293-Tet-On cells. Interestingly, the presence of the 3'-UTR in the ABCG2 transcript dramatically reduced ABCG2 protein content in cells transfected with the C421A variant but not significantly in those transfected with ABCG2 wild-type sequence, whereas ABCG2 mRNA levels were similar. siRNA-mediated DICER1 knockdown to reduce cellular microRNA biogenesis and selective mutation of putative microRNA binding sites within the ABCG2 3'-UTR partially antagonized C421A-associated reduction of ABCG2 protein content but did not significantly affect wild-type ABCG2 protein levels. In addition, antagomir-mediated inhibition of two microRNAs (hsa-miR-519c and hsa-miR-328) again partially reversed C421A-associated ABCG2 translational repression, thereby indicating that the C421A SNP may facilitate microRNA-dependent repression of ABCG2 protein translation. We conclude from our results that the C421A SNP may lead to reduced ABCG2 protein levels not only by affecting cellular protein stability but also via enhanced microRNA-dependent ABCG2 repression. Moreover, tissue-specific variation in ABCG2 3'-UTR processing may profoundly affect ABCG2 expression levels in individuals carrying the C421A mutation." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
you know be at the end of their rope you know and be looking for uh uh a salvation in the sense or looking for a uh saving grace you know i
[ "Some people are looking for a saving grace." ]
[ "People don't want a saving grace." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
current time in oranjestad, aruba
[ "Current local time in Oranjestad, Aruba : Friday, 26 Jan 2018 06:58 PM : Standard Time Zone: GMT/UTC - 04:00 hour: Daylight Saving Time: DST not applied: Oranjestad. Map of location. See other cities of Aruba : View travel resources for Aruba" ]
[ "Oranjestad, Aruba Lat Long Coordinates Info. The latitude of Oranjestad, Aruba is 12.510052, and the longitude is -70.009354. Oranjestad, Aruba is located at Aruba country in the Cities place category.ranjestad is a wonderful city, the capital and the largest city of Aruba, a small state situated to the north of Venezuela in southern Caribbean Sea. The population of the city exceeds 30,000 people. It is a very popular tourist spot and the place for a huge number of cruise ships to land.", "Oranjestad on the map. Oranjestad is the capital of Aruba. Latitude: 12.524. Longitude: -70.027; Population: 30,000; Elevation: 10 m" ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
is k2ca2(SO4)3:eu osl sensitive?
[ "This paper investigates the optically stimulated luminescence (OSL) response of BaFCl:Eu and K2Ca2(SO4)3:Eu phosphors for different doses and bleaching durations. The results have also been compared with the commercially available Landauer Al2O3:C (Luxel) dosemeter. Nanocrystalline K2Ca2(SO4)3:Eu is known to be a sensitive thermoluminescent phosphor, but its OSL response is hardly reported. At first, pellets of nanocrystalline K2Ca2(SO4)3:Eu powder were prepared by adding Teflon as a binder. Their OSL signal was compared with that of the material in pure form, i.e. without adding the binder (in 100:1 ratio). It was observed that adding the binder does not appreciably affect the OSL intensity. On comparison with the commercially available Al2O3:C from Landauer, it was found that K2Ca2(SO4)3:Eu is around 15 times less sensitive than Al2O3:C. 'Homemade' BaFCl:Eu phosphor has also been studied. The intensity of BaFCl:Eu was ?20 times more than the standard Al2O3:C dosemeter and ?200 times more sensitive than K2Ca2(SO4)3:Eu in the dose range of 13-200 cGy. OSL dosemeters are believed to give luminescence signal even if they are read before, i.e. multiple reading may be possible under suitable conditions after single exposure. This was also checked for all the prepared dosemeters and it was found that Al2O3:C showed the least decrease of <2 %, followed by BaFCl:Eu of 15 % and K2Ca2(SO4)3:Eu with 20 %. Finally, Al2O3:C and BaFCl:Eu phosphors were also studied for their optical bleaching durations to which the respective signals get completely removed so that the phosphor can be re-used. It was observed that BaFCl:Eu is bleached faster and more easily than Al2O3:C." ]
[ "To study the adverse effects of N-(3-oxododecanoyl)-l-homoserine-lactone (ODHL), a quorum sensing molecule, on mammalian host cells, its effect on membrane potential was examined in rat thymic lymphocytes using flow cytometric techniques with a voltage-sensitive fluorescent probe. As 3-300 M ODHL elicited hyperpolarization, it is likely that it increases membrane K+ permeability because hyperpolarization is directly linked to changing K+ gradient across membranes, but not Na+ and Cl- gradients. ODHL did not increase intracellular Ca2+ concentration. ODHL also produced a response in the presence of an intracellular Zn2+ chelator. Thus, it is unlikely that intracellular Ca2+ and Zn2+ are attributed to the response. Quinine, a non-specific K+ channel blocker, greatly reduced hyperpolarization. However, because charybdotoxin, tetraethylammonium chloride, 4-aminopyridine, and glibenclamide did not affect it, it is pharmacologically hypothesized that Ca2+-activated K+ channels, voltage-gated K+ channels, and ATP-sensitive K+ channels are not involved in ODHL-induced hyperpolarization. Although the K+ channels responsible for ODHL-induced hyperpolarization have not been identified, it is suggested that ODHL can elicit hyperpolarization in mammalian host cells, disturbing cellular functions.", "From a technological point of view, yeast resistance to sulfite is of great interest and represents an important technological character for winemaking. Several mechanisms are involved, and strain-dependent strategies to obtain SO2 resistance can deeply influence wine quality, although this choice is less relevant in determining the technological performance of the strain during fermentation. In this study, to better understand the strain-specific mechanisms of resistance, 11 Saccharomyces cerevisiae strains, whose genomes have been previously sequenced, were selected. Their attitude towards sulfites, in terms of resistance and production, was evaluated, and RNA-sequencing of four selected strains was performed during fermentation process in synthetic grape must in the presence of SO2. Results demonstrated that at molecular level, the physical effect of SO2 triggered multiple stress responses in the cell and high tolerance to general enological stressing condition increased SO2 resistance. Adaptation mechanism due to high basal gene expression level rather than specific gene induction in the presence of sulfite seemed to be responsible in modulating strain resistance. This mechanism involved higher basal gene expression level of specific cell wall proteins, enzymes for lipid biosynthesis, and enzymes directly involved in SO2 assimilation pathway and efflux." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
what is ddx6 in cancer
[ "Human DEAD-box RNA helicase gene DDX6 was cloned from B-cell lymphoma cell line RC-K8. Previously, we reported that DDX6 acts as oncogene in several cancers such as colorectal cancer and hepatocellular carcinoma. However, the detailed mechanism of DDX6 action in carcinogenesis is largely unknown. In this study, we examined the functions of DDX6 in clinical gastric cancer (GC) samples and GC cells. DDX6 protein expression levels of cancer samples were higher than those of the adjacent normal tissues in 25 clinical GC samples (median value: 1.4 times higher). Also, the results of an RNA immunoprecipitation-assay (RIP-assay) showed that DDX6 associated with c-Myc mRNA. Moreover, enforced overexpression of DDX6 promoted both mRNA and protein expression of c-Myc in GC cells. On the other hand, the gene silencing of DDX6 induced growth suppression through down-regulation of c-Myc in GC cells grown in either two or three dimensions. Furthermore, c-Myc mRNA expression levels of cancer samples were higher than those of the adjacent normal tissues in DDX6 up-regulated-GC clinical samples. Our findings in this study suggested that DDX6 acted as oncogene in GC cells through promotion of c-Myc expression by association with the mRNA of c-Myc." ]
[ "DDX3, a subunit of CK1, phosphorylates Dvl2 to promote -catenin activation. Overexpression of the Dvl2 protein results in potent activation of -catenin/TCF signaling in colorectal cancer. Therefore, we hypothesized that DDX3 might promote tumor invasion via the CK1/Dvl2 axis due to -catenin/TCF activation. Western blotting showed that -catenin expression was decreased by DDX3 knockdown and increased by DDX3 overexpression in colorectal cancer cells. The TCF promoter activity and invasion capability were concomitantly increased and decreased by DDX3 manipulation in these cells. The invasion capability in colon cancer cells and xenograft lung tumor nodules induced by a DDX3-overexpressing T84 stable clone in tail-vein injection model were nearly suppressed by inhibitors of CK1 (PF4800567) and -catenin/TCF signaling (XAV939). Among colorectal cancer patients, DDX3 expression was positively correlated with the expression of pDvl2 and nuclear -catenin in tumor tissues. The expression of pDvl2 occurred more frequently in high-nuclear than in low-nuclear -catenin tumors. A prognostic significance of DDX3, pDvl2, and nuclear -catenin on overall survival and relapse free survival was observed in this study population. We therefore suggest CK1 or -catenin/TCF signaling as potential targets for improving tumor regression and outcomes in colorectal cancer, particularly tumors with high-DDX3/high-nuclear -catenin or high-DDX3/high-pDvl2/high-nuclear -catenin expression.", "UNLABELLED: Protein Tyrosine Kinase 6 (PTK6) is a non-receptor-type tyrosine kinase known to be expressed in various cancers, including pancreatic cancer. The role of PTK6 in cancer chemoresistance remains unclear. Therefore, it was hypothesized that PTK6 mechanistically regulates gemcitabine resistance in pancreatic cancer. Gemcitabine treatment stimulated endogenous PTK6 overexpression in MIAPaCa2 and Panc1 cells. PTK6 gene silencing increased cell survival after gemcitabine treatment and decreased apoptosis, whereas PTK6 overexpression decreased cell survival and increased apoptosis. Selection for gemcitabine resistance revealed substantially lower PTK6 expression in the gemcitabine-resistant subclones compared with the parental lines, while restoring PTK6 rescued gemcitabine sensitivity. Gemcitabine induced phosphorylation of H2AX (-H2AX) and ataxia-telangiectasia mutated kinase (pATM), specific markers for DNA double-strand breaks. Both gemcitabine-induced phosphorylation of H2AX and ATM were reduced by PTK6 knockdown and increased by PTK6 overexpression. PTK6 overexpression also increased the S-phase fraction 48 hours after gemcitabine treatment. Although gemcitabine activated both caspase-8 (CASP8) and caspase-9 (CASP9), the effect of PTK6 on gemcitabine-induced apoptosis required CASP8 but not CASP9. In mouse xenografts, PTK6 overexpression in subcutaneous tumors attenuated tumor growth after gemcitabine treatment. In conclusion, PTK6 prolongs S-phase and increases the ability of gemcitabine to cause DNA damage in vitro and in vivo.IMPLICATIONS: PTK6 affects cell cycle and DNA damage, thus making it an important therapeutic target to improve the outcomes of patients with pancreatic cancer." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
labile iron in photoprotection
[ "Mitochondria are the principal destination for labile iron, making these organelles particularly susceptible to oxidative damage on exposure to ultraviolet A (UVA, 320-400 nm), the oxidizing component of sunlight. The labile iron-mediated oxidative damage caused by UVA to mitochondria leads to necrotic cell death via adenosine triphosphate depletion. Therefore, targeted removal of mitochondrial labile iron via highly specific tools from these organelles may be an effective approach to protect the skin cells against the harmful effects of UVA. In this work, we designed a mitochondria-targeted hexadentate (tricatechol-based) iron chelator linked to mitochondria-homing SS-like peptides. The photoprotective potential of this compound against UVA-induced oxidative damage and cell death was evaluated in cultured primary skin fibroblasts. Our results show that this compound provides unprecedented protection against UVA-induced mitochondrial damage, adenosine triphosphate depletion, and the ensuing necrotic cell death in skin fibroblasts, and this effect is fully related to its potent iron-chelating property in the organelle. This mitochondria-targeted iron chelator has therefore promising potential for skin photoprotection against the deleterious effects of the UVA component of sunlight." ]
[ "The present study aims to assess the removal of 3-amino-5-methylisoxazole (AMI), a recalcitrant by-product resulting from the biological breakdown of some pharmaceuticals, applying a solar photo-Fenton process assisted by ferrioxalate complexes (SPFF) (Fe3+/H2O2/oxalic acid/UVA-Vis) and classical solar photo-Fenton process (SPF) (Fe2+/H2O2/UVA-Vis). The oxidation ability of SPFF was evaluated at different iron/oxalate molar ratios (1:3, 1:6, and 1:9, with [total iron] = 3.58 ? 10-2mM and [oxalic acid] = 1.07 ? 10-1, 2.14 ? 10-1 and 3.22 ? 10-1mM, respectively) and pH values (3.5-6.5), using low iron contents (2.0mg Fe3+ L-1). Additionally, the use of other organic ligands such as citrate and ethylenediamine-N,N'-disuccinic acid (EDDS) was tested. The oxidation power of the classical SPF was assessed at different pH values (2.8-4.0) using 2.0mg Fe2+ per liter. Furthermore, the effect of AMI concentration (2-20mgL-1), presence of inorganic ions (Cl-, SO42-, NO3-, HCO3-, NH4+), and radical scavengers (sodium azide and D-mannitol) on the SPF method at pH 3.5 was also assessed. Experiments were done using a lab-scale photoreactor with a compound parabolic collector (CPC) under simulated solar radiation. A pilot-scale assay was conducted using the best operation conditions. While at near neutral pH, an iron/oxalate molar ratio of 1:9 led to the removal of 72% of AMI after 90min of SPFF, at pH 3.5, an iron/oxalate molar ratio of 1:3 was enough to achieve complete AMI degradation (below the detection limit) after 30min of reaction. The SPF process at pH 3.5 underwent a slower AMI degradation, reaching total AMI degradation after 40min of reaction. The scale up of SPF process showed a good reproducibility. Oxalic and oxamic acids were identified as the main low-molecular-weight carboxylic acids detected during the pilot-scale SPF reaction. Graphical abstract ?.", "Iron accumulation is a potential pathogenic event often seen in age-related macular degeneration (AMD) patients. In this study, we focused on the relationship between AMD pathology and concentrations of ferrous ion, which is a highly reactive oxygen generator in biological systems. Murine cone-cells-derived 661 W cells were exposed to white fluorescence light at 2500 lx for 1, 3, 6, or 12 h. Levels of ferrous ions, reactive oxygen species (ROS), and hydroxyl radicals were detected by RhoNox-1, a novel fluorescent probe for the selective detection of ferrous ion, 5-(and-6)-chloromethyl-2',7'-dichlorodihydrofluorescein diacetate, acetyl ester (CM-H2DCFDA), and 3'-p-(aminophenyl) fluorescein, respectively. Reduced glutathione, total iron levels and photoreceptor cell death were also measured. Two genes related to iron metabolism, transferrin receptor 1 (TfR1) and H ferritin (HFt), were quantified by RT-PCR. The effects of ferrous ion on cell death and hydroxyl radical production were determined by treatment with a ferrous ion chelating agent, 2,2'-bipyridyl. We found that the ferrous ion level decreased with light exposure in the short time frame, whereas it was upregulated during a 6-h light exposure. Total iron, ROS, cell death rate, and expression of TfR and HFt genes were significantly increased in a time-dependent manner in 661 W cells exposed to light. Chelation with 2,2'-bipyridyl reduced the level of hydroxyl radicals and protected against light-induced cell death. These results suggest that light exposure decreases ferrous ion levels and enhances iron uptake in photoreceptor cells. Ferrous ion may be involved in light-induced photoreceptor cell death through production of hydroxyl radicals." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
when did the nba playoffs start in 2017
[ "2017 NBA Playoffs The 2017 NBA Playoffs began on April 15, 2017. It concluded with the Golden State Warriors defeating the Cleveland Cavaliers 4 games to 1 in the NBA Finals, their third consecutive meeting at the Finals. Kevin Durant was named the NBA Finals MVP in his first year on the team. The Warriors set the record for the longest playoff winning streak (15) and the best record (16-1) in NBA playoff history. The Golden State Warriors began the finals with a playoff record of 12–0. The first two finals' games were blowouts by Golden State, game three was" ]
[ "Selection Show. The following teams declined an invitation to the 2017 CBI: Source: \"\"Home teams listed first\"\". 2017 College Basketball Invitational The 2017 College Basketball Invitational (CBI) was a single-elimination tournament of 16 National Collegiate Athletic Association (NCAA) Division I teams that did not participate on the 2017 NCAA Men's Division I Basketball Tournament or the NIT. The opening games were held on March 15 and the quarterfinals were held on March 20 on campus sites. After the quarterfinals, the brackets were reseeded for the semi-finals which was held on March 22. A best of three championship series closed out", "2018. <section begin=R16 /> The first legs will be played on 27–28 March, and the second legs will be played on 3–4 April 2018. <section begin=QF /> 2017–18 Basketball Champions League Playoffs The 2017–18 Basketball Champions League Playoffs will begin on 6 March, and will end on 6 May, with the Final, which will decide the champions of the 2017–18 season of the Basketball Champions League. 16 teams compete in the play-offs. The playoffs involved the sixteen teams which qualified between the four first teams of each of the four groups in the 2017–18 Basketball Champions League Regular season. The" ]
Given a question, retrieve Wikipedia passages that answer the question
nq
what shingles greek
[ "Shingles, or herpes zoster, is a virus that causes nerve roots near the spinal cord to become inflamed. This inflammation causes painful blisters on the skin, typically in a band on the chest and abdomen." ]
[ "Shingles is the reactivation of a viral infection in the nerves to the skin that causes pain, burning, or a tingling sensation, along with an itch and blisters in the skin supplied by the affected nerve. It is caused by the varicella zoster virus[1] , or VZV—the same virus that causes chickenpox.erpes zoster —the medical term for shingles; an infection caused by the varicella-zoster virus, one of the herpesviruses family of viruses. herpes simplex —the medical term for a related but different virus that causes repeated mild blisters of the skin or mucous membrane.", "This is a picture of herpes zoster (shingles) on the neck and cheek. The same virus that causes chickenpox is responsible for outbreaks of shingles. Outbreaks of shingles often follow the distribution of nerves in the skin. This distribution pattern is called a dermatome (see the dermatomes picture)." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
Does adiponectin alleviate genioglossal mitochondrial dysfunction in rats exposed to intermittent hypoxia?
[ "Genioglossal dysfunction is involved in the pathophysiology of obstructive sleep apnea hypoxia syndrome (OSAHS) characterized by nocturnal chronic intermittent hypoxia (CIH). The pathophysiology of genioglossal dysfunction and possible targeted pharmacotherapy for alleviation of genioglossal injury in CIH require further investigation. Rats in the control group were exposed to normal air, while rats in the CIH group and CIH+adiponectin (AD) group were exposed to the same CIH condition (CIH 8 hr/day for 5 successive weeks). Furthermore, rats in CIH+AD group were administrated intravenous AD supplementation at the dosage of 10 µg, twice a week for 5 consecutive weeks. We found that CIH-induced genioglossus (GG) injury was correlated with mitochondrial dysfunction, reduction in the numbers of mitochondrias, impaired mitochondrial ultrastructure, and a reduction in type I fibers. Compared with the CIH group, impaired mitochondrial structure and function was significantly improved and a percentage of type I fiber was elevated in the CIH+AD group. Moreover, compared with the control group, the rats' GG in the CIH group showed a significant decrease in phosphorylation of LKB1, AMPK, and PGC1-α, whereas there was significant rescue of such reduction in phosphorylation within the CIH+AD group" ]
[ "Obesity can lead to pathological growth of adipocytes by inducing inflammation and oxidative stress. Genistein could be a potential candidate for the treatment of obesity due to its antioxidant properties. Specific kits were used to examine the effects of genistein vs adiponectin on human visceral pre-adipocytes differentiation, cell viability, mitochondrial membrane potential, and oxidative stress in pre-adipocytes and in white/brown adipocytes. Western Blot was performed to examine changes in protein activation/expression. Genistein increased human visceral pre-adipocytes differentiation and browning, and caused a dose-related improvement of cell viability and mitochondrial membrane potential. Similar effects were observed in brown adipocytes and in white adipocytes, although in white cells the increase of cell viability was inversely related to the dose. Moreover, genistein potentiated AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK)/mitofusin2 activation/expression in pre-adipocytes and white/brown adipocytes and protected them from the effects of hydrogen peroxide. The effects caused by genistein were similar to those of adiponectin. The results obtained showed that genistein increases human visceral pre-adipocytes differentiation and browning, protected against oxidative stress in pre-adipocytes and white/brown adipocytes through mechanisms related to AMPK-signalling and the keeping of mitochondrial function.", "Obstructive sleep apnea is a risk factor for dyslipidemia and atherosclerosis, which have been attributed to chronic intermittent hypoxia (CIH). Intermittent hypoxia inhibits a key enzyme of lipoprotein clearance, lipoprotein lipase, and up-regulates a lipoprotein lipase inhibitor, angiopoietin-like 4 (Angptl4), in adipose tissue. The effects and mechanisms of Angptl4 up-regulation in sleep apnea are unknown. To examine whether CIH induces dyslipidemia and atherosclerosis by increasing adipose Angptl4 via hypoxia-inducible factor-1 (HIF-1). ApoE(-/-) mice were exposed to intermittent hypoxia or air for 4 weeks while being treated with Angptl4-neutralizing antibody or vehicle. In vehicle-treated mice, hypoxia increased adipose Angptl4 levels, inhibited adipose lipoprotein lipase, increased fasting levels of plasma triglycerides and very low density lipoprotein cholesterol, and increased the size of atherosclerotic plaques. The effects of CIH were abolished by the antibody. Hypoxia-induced increases in plasma fasting triglycerides and adipose Angptl4 were not observed in mice with germline heterozygosity for a HIF-1α knockout allele. Transgenic overexpression of HIF-1α in adipose tissue led to dyslipidemia and increased levels of adipose Angptl4. In cultured adipocytes, constitutive expression of HIF-1α increased Angptl4 levels, which was abolished by siRNA. Finally, in obese patients undergoing bariatric surgery, the severity of nocturnal hypoxemia predicted Angptl4 levels in subcutaneous adipose tissue" ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
Is discharge knee range of motion a useful and relevant clinical indicator after total knee replacement?
[ "Knee range of motion (ROM) at discharge from acute care is used as a clinical indicator following total knee replacement (TKR) surgery. This study aimed to assess the clinical relevance of this indicator by determining whether discharge knee ROM predicts longer-term knee ROM and patient-reported knee pain and function. A total of 176 TKR recipients were prospectively followed after discharge from acute care. Outcomes assessed included knee ROM and Oxford knee score post rehabilitation and 1 year post surgery. Discharge ROM and other patient factors were identified a priori as potential predictors in multiple linear regression modelling. A total of 133 (76%) and 141 (80%) patients were available for follow-up post rehabilitation [mean postoperative week 8.1 (SD 2.7)] and at 1 year [mean postoperative month 12.1 (SD 1.4)], respectively. Greater discharge knee flexion was a significant (P<0.001) predictor of greater post-rehabilitation flexion but not 1-year knee flexion (P<0.083). Better discharge knee extension was a significant predictor of better post-rehabilitation (P = 0.001) and 1-year knee extension (P = 0.013). Preoperative Oxford score and post-rehabilitation knee flexion independently predicted post-rehabilitation Oxford score, and gender predicted 1-year Oxford score. Discharge ROM did not significantly predict Oxford score in either model", "Knee range of motion (ROM) at the point of discharge from acute care is used as a clinical indicator to benchmark performance between hospital services after total knee replacement (TKR). The utility of the current benchmark, including whether discharge ROM varies between hospitals, is unknown. This study aimed to determine whether the benchmark [≥80 degrees flexion and ≤5 degrees fixed flexion (extension)] is realistic and whether the service provider is a predictor of knee ROM. A prospective, observational cohort study was conducted involving 176 TKR patients from four hospitals. Knee ROM was photographically assessed preoperatively and at discharge. 'Hospital', typical patient demographic data and preoperative ROM were identified a priori as potential predictors of knee ROM. Overall, 2% [95% CI (confidence interval) 1-6] of patients attained the ROM benchmark. Individual hospital attainment of the benchmark ranged 0-7% with a significant difference (P = 0.047) evident between the best performer and the remaining hospitals. The overall rates of attainment of the individual flexion (25%, 95% CI 19-32) and extension (15%, 95% CI 10-21) components were similarly low, although the scatter between hospitals was large [flexion (2-47%); extension (8-44%)]. Preoperative flexion and hospital were significant (P = 0.002) predictors of discharge flexion, explaining 21% of the variance. Similarly, hospital and preoperative extension together with gender were significant (P<0.001) predictors of discharge extension, explaining 26% of the variance" ]
[ "BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: Total knee arthroplasty (TKA) is one of the most frequently performed orthopaedic procedures in Canada. Despite the frequency at which TKAs are performed, few studies have examined the association between postoperative outcomes and long-term functional outcomes following group-based rehabilitation in Canada. The primary objective of the present study was to examine changes in flexion and extension from intake to discharge from rehabilitation in patients in Saskatchewan, Canada. A secondary objective was to explore the demographic and medical predictors of range of motion in TKA patients, and treatment duration.METHODS: A retrospective chart review from an outpatient rehabilitation clinical database was conducted between September 2014 and December 2016, and assessed demographic and medical variables.RESULTS: A total of 672 patient charts were included in the study. Significant improvements (p < 0.001) were noted from intake to discharge from rehabilitation for flexion and extension. Right-side TKA, flexion at intake and the length of treatment predicted flexion at discharge from rehabilitation (R2  = 0.23). Gender, right side TKA, extension at intake and the length of treatment predicted extension at discharge from rehabilitation (R2  = 0.23). Lastly, age, flexion at intake and extension at intake predicted length of treatment in the rehabilitation programme (R2  = 0.21).CONCLUSIONS: Patients who participated in rehabilitation following TKA experienced improvements in flexion and extension. Those with decreased flexion and extension after TKA may be less likely to experience a desirable range of motion, indicating a need for more intensive targeted rehabilitation in this group, and adjustments in hospital and community care.", "AIMS: To evaluate the influence of discharge timing on 30-day complications following total knee arthroplasty (TKA).PATIENTS AND METHODS: We identified patients aged 18 years or older who underwent TKA between 2005 and 2016 from the American College of Surgeons' National Surgical Quality Improvement Program (NSQIP) database. We propensity score-matched length-of-stay (LOS) groups using all relevant covariables. We used multivariable regression to determine if the rate of complications and re-admissions differed depending on LOS.RESULTS: Our matched cohort consisted of 76 246 TKA patients (mean age 67 years (sd 9)). Patients whose LOS was zero and four days had an increased risk of major complications by an odds ratio (OR) of 1.8 (95% confidence interval (CI) 1.0 to 3.2) and 1.5 (95% CI 1.2 to 1.7), respectively, compared with patients whose LOS was two days. Patients whose LOS was zero, three, and four days had an increased risk of minor complications (OR 1.8 (95% CI 1.3 to 2.7), 1.2 (95% CI 1.0 to 1.4), and 1.6 (95% CI 1.4 to 1.9), respectively), compared with patients whose LOS was two days. In addition, a LOS of three days increased the risk of re-admission by an OR of 1.2 (95% CI 1.0 to 1.3), and a LOS of four days increased the risk of re-admission by an OR of 1.5 (95% CI 1.3 to 1.6), compared with a LOS of two days.CONCLUSION: Patients discharged on days one to two postoperatively following TKA appear to have reduced major and minor complications compared with discharge on the day of surgery, or on days three to four. Prospective clinical data are required to confirm these findings. Cite this article: Bone Joint J 2019;101-B(7 Supple C):70-76." ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
constant nose congestion
[ "How Can I Differentiate Between Allergic Rhinitis and Chronic Sinusitis? Perspective > Medscape Nurses > Ask the Experts > Primary Care for Advanced Practice Nurses How Can I Differentiate Between Allergic Rhinitis and Chronic Sinusitis? Judith Shannon Lynch, MS, MA, APRN-BC, FAANPDisclosures January 31, 2002Question I see many patients with chronic nasal congestion. I am often confused: Do they have allergic rhinitis or chronic sinusitis? How can I tell the difference? Response From the Expert Judith Shannon Lynch, MS, MA, APRN, FAANPChronic nasal congestion is one of the most common complaints seen in primary care settings. Etiologies include bacterial and viral infections, allergy, abuse of decongestant nasal sprays, certain hormonal disorders (pregnancy and hypothyroid states), various anatomic abnormalities (deviated septum), and rarely neoplasia. Often symptoms are so similar that there is a real possibility of error in diagnosis and, thus, inappropriate treatment. The most common causes of chronic nasal congestion are allergic rhinitis, from environmental allergens or irritants, and chronic rhinosinusitis. Chronic rhinosinusitis is defined as a sinus infection of greater than 12 weeks' duration that includes 2 or more major sinus symptoms or at least 1 major and 2 minor symptoms. [ 1]Major symptoms include:facial pain or pressurenasal congestion or fullnessnasal obstruction or blockage from a deviated septum or nasal polypsnasal discharge/purulence/discolored postnasal dischargehyposmia/anosmia (impairment or loss of the sense of smell)purulence in the nasal cavity Minor symptoms include:headachefeverhalitosisfatiguedental paincoughear pain/pressure/fullness Complications of untreated chronic rhinosinusitis include persistent chronic airway obstruction, obstructive sleep apnea and snoring, exacerbation of lower respiratory problems, anterior headache, diminished sense of smell and taste, orbital problems, meningitis, mucocele, premalignant inverted nasal papilloma, and nasal or sinus malignancy. [ 2]References Next Medscape Nurses. 2002;4 (1) © 2002 Medscape Cite this article: Judith Shannon Lynch. How Can I Differentiate Between Allergic Rhinitis and Chronic Sinusitis? - Medscape - Jan 31, 2002." ]
[ "Top 30 Doctor insights on: Constant Drainage In Back Of Throat \"Top 30 Doctor insights on: Constant Drainage In Back Of Throat Share Follow @Health Tap </> Embed Dr. Yash Khanna1 What could cause constant drainage down back of throat? Allergies: Post nasal drip is mostly caused by allergies ... Read more Dr. Walter Husar Discharge (Definition)Discharge can be a noun or a verb; it has multiple meanings in physics, chemistry, military, and legal usage. The most common medical meaning is a substance that is being excreted. Examples: pus is the discharge from a pimple; a vaginal discharge can mean infection; an ear discharge can mean an infection of the outer ear tract; a nasal discharge ... Read more Dr. Suzanne Galli ENT - Head & Neck Surgery17 years in practice Get help from a real doctor now Continue Dr. Anna Flor Salcedo1 doctor agreed:2 What can I do to stop my constant drainage down the back of my throat? Possible allergy: Allergies produce mucus in our nasal passages that can cause constant swallowing of mucus. Some people respond to oral antihistamines as temporary relief, however, nasal steroid sprays is used to help treat this. Evaluation by your doctor and possible tests can be done to see if this is from ... Read more Dr. Stephen Rothstein1 doctor agreed:3 Bloody nose last night now constant clear drainage down the back of throat but not a runny nose. Why? Drip: May be dryness leading to postnasal drip, less likely the onset of a cold or silent acid reflux. With the bloody nose, consider a humidifier at night. That may help the drip as well ... Read more Dr. Nancy Mellow4 Sinus drainage, all clear mucous, post nasal drip in back of throat, clearing throat constantly, just started getting body aches, but no fever? What's the question? : The symptoms sound like a viral respiratory infection (\"\"cold\"\"). Unless you develop a high fever, severe cough, chest pain, or shortness of breath, no antibiotics or specific medicines will help. The best treatments are rest, lots of fluids, a nasal decongestant or antihistamine if you are ... Read more Dr. Donald Colantino2 doctors agreed:5 Unusual headache left side, stiff shoulder and neck, nausea, constant cramp, minor pain in lower back and abdomen, brown discharge. What is cause? Multiple symptoms: The neck and shoulder symptoms may be due to muscular inflammation or a pinched nerve. The headache is probably a muscle contraction, stress one and nausea may be secondary to the headache. The other symptoms are nonspecific and if they worsen or persist you should consult your ... Read more Dr. Julian Henley ENT - Head & Neck Surgeryyears in practice Get help from a specialist now Continue Dr. Lynne Weixel1 doctor agreed:6 I have sinus drainage in back of throat and when I clear my throat I spit out green bloody mucus. Is this a indication of a sinus infection or cold?#1 Sinus infection: When mucus is not clear or white, you've probably got infection. The green tells me it's been awhile and blood that it's very badly irritated. See a doctor - I'm cautious w/ antibiotics but this is a green light. Clear it up and discuss ways to prevent recurrence. It's why your face hurts too. You'll ... Read more Dr. Martin Tamler1 doctor agreed:7 Constant drainage that migrates down to throat which makes it hard to eat and drink due to swelling in kneck. What could be causing this? Drainage: Could be sinus disease or allergies. See an allergist or an ENT doctor for help. ... Read more Dr. Heidi Fowler2 doctors agreed:8 Every morning (for the past 2 years)I wake up with severe drainage feeling and clogged up mucus in the the back of my throat. What could this be? Possibly: Post Nasal drip that collects when supine. Have you considered use of a Neti pot? ... Read more Dr. Oscar Novick2 doctors agreed:9 I have scratchy sore like feeling in my throat, keep feeling the need to swallow for the drainage in throat. Constantly swallowing? Scratchy throat: You may have a sinus problem which is causing a post nasal drip. Use saline nose drops and a vaporizer while sleeping. Taking an antihistamine like claritin at bedtime may also be helpful ... Read more Dr. Steven Machtinger4 doctors agreed:10 I have drainage down the back of my throat, is it allergies or sinus? Either...or both: Not enough information to make a diagnosis but I suspect some friends and relatives are trying. Here's a clue: allergic noses itch & sneeze while coughing is a sign of sinusitis. Watery runny nose? Think allergy. Thick goopy stuff? Sinusitis. Allergic rhinitis predisposes to sinusitis. Time to see your ... Read more Dr. Vahe Yetimyan11 When I sniff hard, feel thickish drainage go into back of throat, urge to cough out. Greenish, but just got off strong meds, can't it just be snots? Post nasal drip: Caused by some sort of upper respiratory infection such as sinus infection. It will probably turn to clear color gradually since you took medications assuming antibiotic included. ... Read more Dr. Robert Devin12 Constant sinus drainage in throat make glands hurt or is it an infection? Sinus drainage: Sinus react to stimulus that cause the lining to release fluids in the attempt to clear them out. Concurrently throat pain indicates a wider area of stimulus to the body by an allergy, cold or virus. This needs evaluation by a md. ... Read more Dr. Louis Gallia13 I am constantly having this 'lump' in my throat feeling. Water isn't helping in making the feeling go away. It THINK it might be drainage. Globus: Could be globus: http://patient. Info/health/globus-sensation-leaflet See an ENT doc if you are concerned. ... Read more Dr. David Kam1 doctor agreed:14 I'm having a real bad dry throat and in the very back of my throat I can see sinus drainage plus blood. I can't cough (or hack) it out.? Post nasal drip: Try saline irrigation of your nasal passage and spit it out of your mouth. See an ENT doctor to locate the source of bleeding and treatment of your possible sinusitis . ... Read more Dr. Hugh Sims1 doctor agreed:15 Hello! I recently have had drainage running down my throat the past week and now have three white sores appear in the back of my throat. Any idea of what it could be? Post nasal drainage: Typically, Post Nasal Drainage (PND) is either allergic or viral in origin. In most cases conservative treatment with a mucolytic medicine or antihistamine will help. The white areas - depending on where they are - might be small viral ulcers, tonsil debris or inflammatation. Worsening of symptoms like ... Read more Dr. Ofer Jacobowitz2 doctors agreed:16 How can I stop post-nasal drip? I have continual drainage down the back of my throat which causes me to cough. How can I get it to stop? No cold or anything. Good health otherwise. If it wouldn't drain I wouldn't cough. Worse at night as it feels lik Post: Post nasal drip can occur when one has excess drainage or if the natural drainage changes in properties. Irritants and allergens may cause it. It is best to see an ENT (otolaryngologist) who can examine the nose completely. Often rinsing the nose with saline using a squeeze bottle is advised and prescription ... Read more Dr. James Okamoto2 doctors agreed:17 Have white spots on both side of throat. Not on tonsils, in the back on the side of throat. Could it be sinus drainage? Could be...: Although sinus drainage tends to be more like mucous and not \"\"spots\"\". Other causes include thrush, leukoplakia, aphthous ulcers (if it's painful). Try gargling with warm water with a bit of epson salt - gargle then spit out. If that clears it, then it probably is just sinus drainage! :) Thanks for using Healthtap! ... Read more Dr. Jon Aoki18 Can constant sinus drainage cause tonsillitis with white patches on tonsils and slight burning sensation in throat? See long answer: Not exactly. Tonsillitis actually an infection of the tonsils by bacteria or viruses. White patches in tonsils can be accumulation of food or mucous in the crypts of the tonsils when you swallow. When you have a lot of mucous such as when you have a cold or allergies the white debris increases in the ... Read more Dr. Ralph Morgan Lewis19 I have mucus drainage that has a bad taste in the back of my throat and am now getting a sore throat. Do you know why this could possibly be? See below: Bad-tasting mucus drainage might come from infected sinuses (do u have any pain or pressure over sinus areas? ), throat infection, dental abscess. Any fever? If u have any tooth decay, see dentist. Otherwise, see pcp if fever &/or sinus pain /pressure. May be viral in origin in which case antibiotics are useless but ... Read more Dr. Linda Green1 doctor agreed:20 Back from jamaica w/sore throat, sinus cong, drainage, and dry cough -7 days now. Cold? Could be: It could be a cold or a sinus infection. See a doctor for appropriate diagnosis and treatment. ... Read more Dr. Devin Cunning21 What can I do to keep the nasal drainage from going down the back of my throat and choking me and causing me to clear my throat and sniff causing SOA? Allergy: Although there are other treatments, the triad of treatment for allergic rhinitis and post nasal drip includes: 1. Nasal saline 2. Nasal steroid spray 3. Antihistamine. If symptoms persist an allergy skin test may be helpful for identification. ... Read more Dr. Ed Friedlander3 doctors agreed:22 Is a constant sore throat & drainage a chronis sinus infection? Usually not: It may be due to anything from acid refluxing from your stomach while you sleep to allergies to an early, easy-to-treat throat cancer. A physician office visit is indicated if it lasts two weeks or more. I'm glad you're taking a pro-active approach to your health and I wish you luck. ... Read more Dr. Jalal Zuberi23 Got a cold 1 wk ago. Having constant drainage causing throat congestion and coughing. No fever. Is it sinus infection? Possible: If your symptoms of congestion have lasted beyond a week, it usually result in secondary bacterial infection of the sinuses. For now you can try OTC sinus congestion relief, Vicks vaporub, Claritine or Zyrtec, ( cetirizine) but should plan to get examined in a couple of days if still congested. Feel better! ... Read more Dr. David Reynoso24 Clear sinus drainage down back of throat, fever, body aches, fatigue. Cant take Nsaids or OTC meds, What else can I do for some relief. Treat symptoms: Use tylenol for fever, headache or body aches. Use a netti pot or nasal rinses with water or saline for congestion. Use non-prescription antihistamines and/or steroid nasal spray for congestion. Honey, lime and whisky in hot water for sore throat. ... Read more Dr. David Earle25 Stuffy nose hardly any drainage or color back of nose in throat stays dry. No fever or cough. Where I work it's 40 deg all day and it makes it worse? Cold or allergy: Sounds like a cold virus. Could also be allergies. In the winter, when we are inside a lot, dust can contribute to this. See your primary care provider for info about over the counter decongestants and allergy meds. Hope this helps! ... Read more Dr. Oscar Novick1 doctor agreed:26 Ok I have a stuffed nose and I blew out in a tissue and blood came out (not a lot) then I spit out the drainage in the back of throat blood inthesink? Stuffy nose: You may either have an allergy or sinus infection see an ENT specialist for help. ... Read more Dr. Martin Raff27 My nose not stuffy but have sinus headache and sinus drainage back of throat and fever how to treat this? Sinusitis: Short of seeing an ENT doctor you can do saline irrigation of the nose using a neti-pot, or a saline nasal spray. Use a decongestant like pseudoephedrine, and possibly a steroid nasal spray. If this continues you may require antibiotics. Pain control can be with Ibuprofen or acetaminophen. Good luck. ... Read more Dr. Laura Anissian28 Constant throat and right airway clearing and congestion, been treated for sinus drainage and GERD but has not resolved. CT and xrays are clear? Allergy? : This could be an allergy. Have you noticed a difference between environments, time of day variation? ... Read more Dr. Jack Mutnick1 doctor agreed:29 I have non allergic rhinitis. & post nasal drip. Constant drainage in throat. Constantly clearing throat and swallowing. What can I do to treat this? Non-Allergic Rhiniti: Start with salt water washes squeeze bottle twice daily. Follow up with either a nasal steroid or nasal antihistamine. Consider addition of oral tablets only if this simple regimen doesn't work. ... Read more Dr. Stephen Rothstein30 DRAINAGE FROM NOSE NO COLD NO STUFFY NOSE NO SORE THROAT BUT HAVE BACK PAIN? Nose: You may be at the onset of a cold (viral illness) but the two may not be related. You should check it out with your doctor. If the nose drainage has been going on for awhile and started after your brain surgery you should see an ENT to check it out. ... Read more Dr. Eric Weisman Pharynx (Definition)It is the connection between the mouth and the throat. The 3 parts are the oropharynx, nasopharynx, and hypo-pharynx. The pharynx leads into the ... Read more \"" ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant documents that answer the query
msmarco_doc
what is a small molecule inhibitor of myb
[ "The transcription factor MYB plays key roles in hematopoietic cells and has been implicated the development of leukemia. MYB has therefore emerged as an attractive target for drug development. Recent work has suggested that targeting MYB by small-molecule inhibitors is feasible and that inhibition of MYB has potential as a therapeutic approach against acute myeloid leukemia. To facilitate the identification of small-molecule MYB inhibitors we have re-designed and improved a previously established cell-based screening assay and have employed it to screen a natural product library for potential inhibitors. Our work shows that teniposide and etoposide, chemotherapeutic agents causing DNA-damage by inhibiting topoisomerase II, potently inhibit MYB activity and induce degradation of MYB in AML cell lines. MYB inhibition is suppressed by caffeine, suggesting that MYB is inhibited indirectly via DNA-damage signalling. Importantly, ectopic expression of an activated version of MYB in pro-myelocytic NB4 cells diminished the anti-proliferative effects of teniposide, suggesting that podophyllotoxins disrupt the proliferation of leukemia cells not simply by inducing general DNA-damage but that their anti-proliferative effects are boosted by inhibition of MYB. Teniposide and etoposide therefore act like double-edged swords that might be particularly effective to inhibit tumor cells with deregulated MYB." ]
[ "Azoles and pyridines are commonly incorporated into small molecule inhibitor scaffolds that target cytochromes P450 (CYPs) as a strategy to increase drug binding affinity, impart isoform-dependent selectivity, and improve metabolic stability. Optical absorbance spectra of the CYP-inhibitor complex are widely used to infer whether these inhibitors are ligated directly to the heme iron as catalytically inert, low-spin (type II) complexes. Here, we show that the low-spin complex between a drug-metabolizing CYP2C9 variant and 4-(3-phenylpropyl)-1H-1,2,3-triazole (PPT) retains an axial water ligand despite exhibiting elements of \"classic\" type II optical behavior. Hydrogens of the axial water ligand are observed by pulsed electron paramagnetic resonance (EPR) spectroscopy for both inhibitor-free and inhibitor-bound species and show that inhibitor binding does not displace the axial water. A (15)N label incorporated into PPT is 0.444 nm from the heme iron, showing that PPT is also in the active site. The reverse type I inhibitor, LP10, of CYP125A1 from Mycobacterium tuberculosis, known from X-ray crystal structures to form a low-spin water-bridged complex, is found by EPR and by visible and near-infrared magnetic circular dichroism spectroscopy to retain the axial water ligand in the complex in solution.", "UNLABELLED: Multiple myeloma pathogenesis is driven by the MYC oncoprotein, its dimerization with MAX, and the binding of this heterodimer to E-Boxes in the vicinity of target genes. The systemic utility of potent small molecule inhibitors of MYC-MAX dimerization was limited by poor bioavailability, rapid metabolism, and inadequate target site penetration. We hypothesized that new lipid-based MYC-MAX dimerization inhibitor prodrugs delivered via integrin-targeted nanoparticles (NP) would overcome prior shortcomings of MYC inhibitor approaches and prolong survival in a mouse model of cancer. An Sn 2 lipase-labile prodrug inhibitor of MYC-MAX dimerization (MI1-PD) was developed which decreased cell proliferation and induced apoptosis in cultured multiple myeloma cell lines alone (P < 0.05) and when incorporated into integrin-targeted lipid-encapsulated NPs (P < 0.05). Binding and efficacy of NPs closely correlated with integrin expression of the target multiple myeloma cells. Using a KaLwRij metastatic multiple myeloma mouse model, VLA-4-targeted NPs (20 nm and 200 nm) incorporating MI1-PD (D) NPs conferred significant survival benefits compared with respective NP controls, targeted (T) no-drug (ND), and untargeted (NT) control NPs (T/D 200: 46 days vs.NT/ND: 28 days, P < 0.05 and T/D 20: 52 days vs.NT/ND: 29 days, P = 0.001). The smaller particles performed better of the two sizes. Neither MI1 nor MI1-PD provided survival benefit when administered systemically as free compounds. These results demonstrate for the first time that a small molecule inhibitor of the MYC transcription factor can be an effective anticancer agent when delivered using a targeted nanotherapy approach." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
japanese war crimes hong sa-ik
[ "Hong Sa-ik. This is a Korean name; the family name is Hong. Hong Sa-ik (hangul 홍사익;hanja 洪思翊; 2 February 1887 – 26 September 1946) was a lieutenant general in the Imperial Japanese Army, and the top-ranking ethnic Korean in Japan to be charged with war crimes relating to the conduct of the Empire of Japan in World War II.", "Hong Sa-Ik was one of the Koreans who did not change his name, and he also achieved the highest rank of any Korean serving in the Japanese military forces. Lieutenant General Hong Sa-Ik was placed in charge of all prisoner of war camps in the Philippines." ]
[ "Later, a U.S. Congress war crimes investigation, the United States Senate Subcommittee on Korean War Atrocities of the Permanent Subcommittee of the Investigations of the Committee on Government Operations, reported that two-thirds of all American prisoners of war in Korea died as a result of war crimes.", "One of the most famous concentration camps operated by the Japanese during World War II was at the University of Santo Tomas in Manila, the Philippines, the Santo Tomas Internment Camp.uring the Japanese occupation, the grounds of the prison were used as part of Stanley Internment Camp. Nearly 600 prisoners of war and civilians, killed by the Japanese during the occupation, are buried in the nearby Stanley War Cemetery (which is NOT part of the prison itself but adjacent to it)." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
benefits of burning sage incense
[ "Burning sage is also believed to help people heal from psychic and emotional trauma. The smoke can be fanned around the body to remove emotional blocks in the energy field. Chakra Balancing" ]
[ "The Native American tribes were known to use sage for multiple purposes such as healing, clearing space and ceremonies. Many benefits can be gained in utilizing sage for smudging. If you're not familiar with smudging, it's Native American ritual that's like a spiritual house cleaning or spiritual purification.", "While sage offers quite a lot of other benefits, there are no proven evidences to support the same. A well-appreciated remedy for diarrhea and asthma, sage is also known to offer solutions to those with excessive sweating issues. The presence of fiber in this herb is known to soothe digestive disorders." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
can multiple viral coinfections cause fatal gastroenteritis
[ "Abstract We report a fatal case of acute gastroenteritis in a child with autism spectrum disorder. Multiple viral coinfections were detected by PCR in the patient’s stool and digestive biopsy specimens. As viral detection is not necessarily associated with symptomatic disease, a semi-quantitative approach using cycle treshold values was proposed for the clinical interpretation of PCR. We discuss whether concomitant viral infections could be a risk factor for severe outcome in gastroenteritis cases. Individual risk factors are also addressed." ]
[ "UNLABELLED Rotaviruses (RVs) are 11-segmented, double-stranded RNA viruses that cause severe gastroenteritis in children. In addition to an error-prone genome replication mechanism, RVs can increase their genetic diversity by reassorting genes during host coinfection. Such exchanges allow RVs to acquire advantageous genes and adapt in the face of selective pressures. However, reassortment may also impose fitness costs if it unlinks genes/proteins that have accumulated compensatory, coadaptive mutations and that operate best when kept together. To better understand human RV evolutionary dynamics, we analyzed the genome sequences of 135 strains (genotype G1/G3/G4-P[8]-I1-C1-R1-A1-N1-T1-E1-H1) that were collected at a single location in Washington, DC, during the years 1974 to 1991. Intragenotypic phylogenetic trees were constructed for each viral gene using the nucleotide sequences, thereby defining novel allele level gene constellations (GCs) and illuminating putative reassortment events. The results showed that RVs with distinct GCs cocirculated during the vast majority of the collection years and that some of these GCs persisted in the community unchanged by reassortment. To investigate the influence of protein coadaptation on GC maintenance, we performed a mutual information-based analysis of the concatenated amino acid sequences and identified an extensive covariance network. Unexpectedly, amino acid covariation was highest between VP4 and VP2, which are structural components of the RV virion that are not thought to directly interact. These results suggest that GCs may be influenced by the selective constraints placed on functionally coadapted, albeit noninteracting, viral proteins. This work raises important questions about mutation-reassortment interplay and its impact on human RV evolution. IMPORTANCE Rotaviruses are devastating human pathogens that cause severe diarrhea and kill >450,000 children each year. The virus can evolve by accumulating mutations and by acquiring new genes from other strains via a process called reassortment. However, little is known about the relationship between mutation accumulation and gene reassortment for rotaviruses and how it impacts viral evolution. In this study, we analyzed the genome sequences of human strains found in clinical fecal specimens that were collected at a single hospital over an 18-year time span. We found that many rotaviruses did not reassort their genes but instead maintained them as specific sets (i.e., constellations). By analyzing the encoded proteins, we discovered concurrent amino acid changes among them, which suggests that they are functionally coadapted to operate best when kept together. This study increases our understanding of how rotaviruses evolve over time in the human population.", "Noroviruses are the major cause of nonbacterial gastroenteritis in humans. However, little is known regarding the norovirus life cycle, including cell binding and entry. In contrast to human noroviruses, the recently discovered murine norovirus 1 (MNV-1) readily infects murine macrophages and dendritic cells in culture. Many viruses, including the related feline calicivirus, use terminal sialic acids (SA) as receptors for infection. Therefore, we tested whether SA moieties play a role during MNV-1 infection of murine macrophages. Competition with SA-binding lectins and neuraminidase treatment led to a reduction in MNV-1 binding and infection in cultured and primary murine macrophages, suggesting a role for SA during the initial steps of the MNV-1 life cycle. Because SA moieties can be attached to glycolipids (i.e., gangliosides), we next determined whether MNV-1 uses gangliosides during infection. The gangliosides GD1a, GM1, and asialo-GM1 (GA1) are natural components of murine macrophages. MNV-1 bound to ganglioside GD1a, which is characterized by an SA on the terminal galactose, but not to GM1 or asialo-GM1 in an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay. The depletion of gangliosides using an inhibitor of glycosylceramide synthase (d-threo-P4) led to a reduction of MNV-1 binding and infection in cultured and primary murine macrophages. This defect was specifically rescued by the addition of GD1a. A similar phenotype was observed for MNV field strains WU11 (GV/WU11/2005/USA) and S99 (GV/Berlin/2006/DE). In conclusion, our data indicate that MNV can use terminal SA on gangliosides as attachment receptors during binding to murine macrophages." ]
Given a query on COVID-19, retrieve documents that answer the query
synthetic
How Do Large Ocean Viruses Form Their Own Organelles? Several large viruses (Arslan 2011) form their own organelles within the amoebae they invade. How do these organelles form? Reference: Arslan, D., Legendre, M., Seltzer, V., Abergel, C., Claverie, J-M. (2011) Distant Mimivirus relative with a larger genome highlights the fundamental features of Megaviridae. PNAS 108(42): 17486-17491 [DOI
[ "The organelle form in the same way they would if they were coded for by the host's genome, except in this case the virus uses its own genome to specify the type of organelle. \n\nThe article you link to indicates this. The \"systems\" in the quote are in part the organelle that it needs\n\n\n A study of the giant virus’s DNA shows it to have over a thousand genes, the biochemical instructions it uses to build the systems it requires to replicate once inside its host." ]
[ "Viruses; ssRNA viruses; ssRNA negative-strand viruses; Arenaviridae; Mammarenavirus \nLassa virus belongs to Arenaviridae. The Arenaviridae are a family of viruses whose members are generally associated with rodent-transmitted diseases in humans (zoonotic). Each virus usually is associated with a particular rodent host species in which it is maintained.\nLassa virus is an enveloped, single-stranded, bisegmented, ambisense RNA virus.\nLassa virus genome is contained in two RNA segments, each of which encodes 2 viral proteins (total 4 viral proteins) The large segment encodes RNA polymerase (L) and a small zinc-binding protein (Z) that regulates transcription and replication The small segment encodes the nucleoprotein (NP) and the surface glycoprotein precursor (GP or viral spike). The GP protein is cleaved into the envelope glycoproteins, GP1 and GP2, that bind to the alpha-dystroglycan receptor and mediate host cell entry Nucleotide studies of the genome have shown that Lassa has four lineages: Three in Nigeria and a fourth in Guinea, Liberia, and Sierra Leone. The Nigerian strains are thought to be ancestral to the others. .", "With the modern rise of meta-genomics, symptom-less viruses can be identified by the presence of their genomes. Certainly, there is more interest in pathogenic viruses than in harmless passengers, but today it's not necessary to have symptoms to identify viruses. For example: \n\n\n Investigators can now go beyond pathogenic viruses and have access to the thousands of viruses that inhabit our bodies without causing clinical symptoms. By studying their interactions with each other, with other microbes, and with host genetics and immune systems, we can learn how they affect health and disease. This article reviews current knowledge of the composition and diversity of the human virome in physiologically healthy individuals. It focuses on recent results from metagenomics studies and discusses the contribution of bacteriophages and eukaryotic viruses to human health.\n\n\n--Metagenomics and the Human Virome in Asymptomatic Individuals.\n\nEven prior to metagenomics, some \"silent viruses\" were identified: \n\n\n Viruses are the most abundant obligate intracellular entities in our body. Until recently, they were only considered to be pathogens that caused a broad array of pathologies, ranging from mild disease to deaths in the most severe cases. However, recent advances in unbiased mass sequencing techniques as well as increasing epidemiological evidence have indicated that the human body is home to diverse viral species under non-pathological conditions.\n\n\n--Describing the Silent Human Virome with an Emphasis on Giant Viruses" ]
Given a medical question from the stackexchange, retrieve replies that best answer the question
exchange
One program was told to restructure its capacity for telephone advice and brief service so that clients would not have to personally come to the office for an intake interview.
[ "One program was told to restructure its capacity" ]
[ "One program wasn't told to restructure its capacity" ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
what is a custom insole designed to address a diabetic ulcer
[ "Around the world, over 400 million people suffer from diabetes. In a chronic diabetic condition, the skin underneath the foot often becomes extremely soft and brittle, resulting in the development of foot ulcers. In literature, a plethora of footwear designs have been developed to reduce the induced stresses on a diabetic foot and to consequently prevent the incidences of foot ulcers. However, to date, no insole design exists which can handle post-ulcer diabetic foot conditions without hindering the mobility of the patients. In the current work, a novel custom insole design with arch support and ulcer isolations was tested for effective stress reduction in a diabetic foot with ulcers using finite element modeling. A full-scale model of the foot was developed with ulcers of different geometries and sizes at the heel and metatarsal regions of the foot. The stresses at the ulcer locations were quantified for standing and walking with and without the novel custom insole model. The effect of material properties of the insole on the ulcer stress reduction was quantified extensively. Also, the effectivity of a novel synthetic skin material as the insole material was tested for stress offloading at the ulcers and the rest of the foot. From the analyses, peak stress reductions were observed at the ulcers up to 91.5% due to the ulcer isolation in the novel custom insole design and the skin-like material. Specifically, the ulcer isolation feature in the insole was found to be approximately 25% more effective in peak stress reduction for commonly occurring ulcers with irregular geometry, over the tested regular circular ulcer geometry. Also, a threshold material stiffness was found for the custom insole, below which the peak stresses at the ulcers did not decrease any further. Based on this information, a working prototype of the custom insole was developed with custom ulcer isolations, which will be subjected to further testing. The results of this study would inform better custom insole designing and material selection for post-ulcer diabetic conditions, with effective stress reduction at the ulcers, and the possibilities of preventing further ulceration." ]
[ "INTRODUCTION: Risk assessment for development foot ulcer in diabetics is a key aspect in any plan and program for prevention of non-traumatic amputation of lower extremities.MATERIAL AND METHODS: In the prospective research to assessed diabetic neuropathy in diabetic patients, to determined the dynamic function of the foot (plantar pressure), by using pedobarography (Group I), and after the use of orthopedic insoles with help of pedobarography, to determined the connection between the risk factors: deformity of the foot, limited joint movements, diabetic polyneuropathy, plantar pressure in effort preventing changes in the diabetic foot.RESULTS: Out of 1806 patients, who are registered in one Team of family medicine examined 100 patients with diabetes mellitus Type 2. The average age of subjects was 59.4, SD11.38. The average HbA1c was 7.78% SD1.58. Combining monofilament and tuning fork tests, the diagnosis of polyneuropathy have 65% of patients. Comparing Test Symptom Score individual parameters between the first and second measurement, using pedobarography, in Group I, statistically significant difference was found for all of the assessed parameters: pain, burning sensation, paresthesia and insensitivity (p<0,05). The measurements of peak pressure, both first and the second measurement, for all of the subjects in Group I(45) show values above 200kPa. That's a level of pressure that needs to be corrected. The study finds correlation between the foot deformation, diabetic polyneuropathy and plantar pressure (p>0,05).CONCLUSION: A detail clinical exam of diabetic food in a family doctor office equipped with pedobarography (plantar pressure measurements), use of orthopedic insoles, significantly reduces clinical symptoms of diabetic polyneuropathy in patients with diabetes.", "BACKGROUND: Despite its efficacy in healing neuropathic diabetic foot ulcers (DFUs), total contact cast (TCC) is often underused because of technical limitations and poor patient acceptance. We compared TCC to irremovable and removable commercially available walking boots for DFU offloading.METHODS: We prospectively studied 60 patients with DFUs, randomly assigned to 3 different offloading modalities: TCC (group A), walking boot rendered irremovable (i-RWD; group B), and removable walking boot (RWD; group C). Patients were followed up weekly for 90 days or up to complete re-epithelization; ulcer survival, healing time, and ulcer size reduction (USR) were considered for efficacy, whereas number of adverse events was considered for safety. Patients' acceptance and costs were also evaluated.RESULTS: Mean healing time in the 3 groups did not differ (P = .5579), and survival analysis showed no difference between the groups (logrank test P = .8270). USR from baseline to the end of follow-up was significant (P < .01) in all groups without differences between the groups. Seven patients in group A (35%), 2 in group B (10%), and 1 in group C (5%) (Fisher exact test P = .0436 group A vs group C) reported nonsevere adverse events. Patients' acceptance and costs were significantly better in group C (P < .05).CONCLUSIONS: Our results suggest that a walking boot was as effective and safe as TCC in offloading the neuropathic DFUs, irrespective of removability. The better acceptability and lesser costs of a removable device may actually extend the possibilities of providing adequate offloading.LEVEL OF EVIDENCE: Level II, prospective comparative study." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
marginal cost system
[ "Accounting Details. Marginal Costing System Marginal costing system is defined as division of cost on the basis of cost behavior that divides into two costs that is fixed & variable cost. Marginal costing system is a simple method as it focuses on one aspect of organization matter.Marginal costing system includes fixed cost as time based and it is the reason it is linked with output of units.arginal Costing System Marginal costing system is defined as division of cost on the basis of cost behavior that divides into two costs that is fixed & variable cost." ]
[ "The change in total cost that comes from making or producing one additional item. The purpose of analyzing marginal cost is to determine at what point an organization can achieve economies of scale.", "The change in total cost that comes from making or producing one additional item. The purpose of analyzing marginal cost is to determine at what point an organization can achieve economies of scale. The calculation is most often used among manufacturers as a means of isolating an optimum production level." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
who sings the song ooh child things are gon na get easier
[ "O-o-h Child \"\"O-o-h Child\"\" is a 1970 single recorded by Chicago soul family group the Five Stairsteps and released on the Buddah label. The Five Stairsteps had previous peripheral success recording in Chicago with Curtis Mayfield; when Mayfield's workload precluded his continuing to work with the group they were reassigned to Stan Vincent, an in-house producer for Buddah Records, who had recently scored a Top Ten hit with the Lou Christie single \"\"I'm Gonna Make You Mine\"\". The Five Stairsteps' debut collaboration with Vincent was originally formatted with the group's rendition of \"\"Dear Prudence\"\" as the A-side with Vincent's original" ]
[ "Ooh Ahh (GRITS song) \"\"Ooh Ahh\"\" is a single by American Christian hip hop group GRITS featuring TobyMac. It was recorded for their fourth studio album, \"\"The Art of Translation\"\". It was produced by Ric \"\"DJ Form\"\" Robbins and Otto Price for Incorporated Elements. The song was written by Ric Robbins, Otto Price, Coffee and Bone of Grits, and Toby Mac. It is sometimes referred to as \"\"My Life Be Like\"\" or \"\"My Life Be Like (Ooh Ahh)\"\". A cut from the song is featured on tobyMac's song, \"\"Catchafire (Whoopsi-Daisy)\"\" from his album \"\"Welcome to Diverse City\"\". To date, \"\"Ooh", "Ooh! \"\"Ooh!\"\" is a song by American recording artist Mary J. Blige, taken from her sixth studio album, \"\"Love & Life\"\" (2003). Sampling interpolations of the 1991 hip-hop classic, \"\"I Gotta Have It\"\" by Ed OG, which itself sampled Hamilton Bohannon's 1973 track \"\"Singing a Song for My Mother\"\", it was released as the album's second single in 2003. The Diddy-produced single reached number 29 on the \"\"Billboard\"\" Hot 100. A remix, officially titled the \"\"G-Unit Remix\"\", that featured 50 Cent, Lloyd Banks, and Young Buck, was later released. A video for the song was directed by Sanji. It portrayed" ]
Given a question, retrieve Wikipedia passages that answer the question
nq
what is a normal vitamin d level for women
[ "The new 2010 recommended daily allowance (RDA) is 600 IU for those 1-70 years of age and pregnant or breastfeeding women, and 800 IU for those over 71 years of age. An adequate blood level of vitamin D is 20 nanograms per milliliter, which can be achieved through daily skin exposure to sunlight." ]
[ "Normal Levels. Normal hemoglobin levels for women range from 12 to 15.5 g of hemoglobin per deciliter of blood. Hemoglobin levels below 12 g/dL for non-pregnant women and 11 g/dL for pregnant women are a sign of iron deficiency, according to the National Anemia Action Council.", "Laboratory Tests Reference Ranges 1,25-Dihydroxyvitamin D (1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol), serum See Vitamin D metabolites 17-Hydroxyprogesterone, serum Female, follicular Less than 80 ng/dL Female, luteal Less than 285 ng/dL Female, postmenopausal Less than 51 ng/dL Male (adult) Less than 220 ng/dL 25-Hydroxyvitamin D" ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
Is eR-α36 , a novel isoform of ER-α66 , commonly over-expressed in apocrine and adenoid cystic carcinomas of the breast?
[ "ER-α36 is a novel 36 kDa isoform of the full-length oestrogen receptor alpha (ER-α66). ER-α36 primarily localises to the cytoplasm and the plasma membrane, and responds to membrane-initiated oestrogen and antioestrogen signalling pathways. To examine the expression of ER-α36 in apocrine and adenoid cystic carcinoma of the breast, both of which are consistently ER-α66 negative and currently lack effective targeted therapeutic options. 19 pure apocrine carcinomas (17 invasive and two in-situ carcinomas) and 11 adenoid cystic carcinomas of the breast were evaluated for ER-α36 expression, along with expressions of ER-α66, progesterone receptor (PR) and androgen receptor (AR) using immunohistochemical methods. All pure apocrine carcinomas showed a characteristic steroid receptor expression profile (ER-α66 and PR negative, AR strongly positive). ER-α36 expression was detected in 18/19 pure apocrine carcinomas (94.7%, 95% CI 75.1 to 98.7) in predominantly membranous and cytoplasmic distribution. When positive, pure apocrine carcinomas uniformly (100% of cells) expressed ER-α36. All adenoid cystic carcinomas were uniformly negative for all three classic steroid receptors, but ER-α36 was detected in 8/11 cases (72.7%, 95% CI 42.8 to 90) with the similar sub-cellular pattern of expression as in the pure apocrine carcinomas. When positive, adenoid cystic carcinomas expressed ER-α36 in the majority of cells (average 76%)" ]
[ "Oestrogen receptor (ER) determination in breast cancer (BC) is a major yardstick for the prognosis and for response to hormonal therapy (HT). As several techniques have been proposed for ER quantification, the purpose of our study was to assess whether the qualitative or quantitative analysis of ER expression might influence the prognosis and response to treatment. We analysed overall survival (OS) and disease-free survival (DFS) in 797 primary BC cases with ER determination by enzyme immunoassay (EIA) and immunohistochemistry (IHC). The clinical impact according to qualitative or quantitative analysis of ER expression was assessed. Response to HT was evaluated according to quantitative EIA-determined ER expression levels. According to the qualitative analysis of ER expression, patients with EIA-determined and IHC-determined ER-positive tumours had significantly longer OS and DFS (p<0.001). The analysis stratified on quartiles of ER levels showed significantly different outcomes according to EIA- and IHC-determined subgroups. In the group of patients who received adjuvant treatment, 5-year OS was significantly different between the groups, with a clear benefit for the highest EIA-determined ER quartiles (p<0.001). Comparatively, in terms of 5-year DFS, a clear separation was noted between groups for adjuvant treatment (p<0.001). The group with moderate ER+ values was clearly distinct from the ER-negative population. Quantitative ER expression helped to better distinguish the beneficial or detrimental effect of HT within quartiles of ER-expressing tumours. Based on the STEPP analysis which showed a trend towards an ER effect on DFS as a function of HT assignment, we confirm the benefit of HT in patients with a very high EIA-determined ER level and a detrimental impact on negative and weakly positive groups", "Elevated Cyr61 levels have been reported in various malignancies. Elevation of Cyr61 protein levels contributes to the proliferation, metastasis, and chemotherapy resistance of malignant cells. Previously, it was discovered that Cyr61 is elevated in both the plasma and the bone marrow supernatants of patients with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), promoting ALL cell survival. However, the role of Cyr61 in the chemotherapeutic resistance of ALL cells remains unknown. The aim of the current study was to investigate the role of Cyr61 in regulating ALL cell chemosensitivity to Ara‑C. It was found that Cyr61 is overexpressed in bone marrow mononuclear cells from patients with ALL. Increased Cyr61 effectively decreased Ara‑C‑induced apoptosis of ALL cells, and its function was blocked by the use of the anti‑Cyr61 monoclonal antibody 093G9. Furthermore, Cyr61 increased the level of Bcl‑2 in Ara‑C‑treated ALL cells. Mechanistically, it was shown that Cyr61 affected ALL cell resistance to Ara‑C partially via the NF‑êB pathway. Taken together, the present study is the first, to the best of our knowledge, to reveal that Cyr61 is involved in ALL cell resistance through the NF‑êB pathway. The findings support a functional role for Cyr61 in promoting chemotherapy resistance, suggesting that targeting Cyr61 directly or its relevant effector pathways may improve the clinical responses of patients with ALL." ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
radiology tech assistant salary mi
[ "Salaries for Radiologists. The average annual salary for a radiologic technologist in Michigan is $52,790, with an average hourly wage of $25.38. While this is below the national average annual salary of $58,520, many Michigan towns and cities enjoy relatively low costs of living." ]
[ "$58,000. Average Radiology salaries for job postings in Florida are 7% lower than average Radiology salaries for job postings nationwide.verage Radiology salaries for job postings in Florida are 7% lower than average Radiology salaries for job postings nationwide.", "Salary Range. Radiographer’s minimum pay is $45,500 a year – $16,040 higher compared to the median income of Americans. A radiology technologist can make more than $87,160 a year depending on many factors like work place, education, experience, performance, etc.Working at schools ($74,810) or specialty hospitals ($72,410) would help you make more money than other industries. Massachusetts is one of the best state based on annual income.ad Tech Salary: $64,450 a year. Average pay for rad techs is $64,450 per annum, which is 35% higher than the US median income. A radiographer makes an average of $5,371 per month; $1,239 a week and $30.99 an hour." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
Why can't camera phones always film in landscape mode no matter what direction they are being held?
[ " Because the camera sensor is rectangular. You could have such a setting, but you'd have to lower the resolution of the final image.\nUsing this as an illustration:\n_URL_0_\n\nBlack outline is the phone, blue outline is the sensor (though it's far smaller in real life). The red outline is what would need to be used if filming horizontal video while phone was being held vertically." ]
[ " If you're using a phone, it's because the lens has a wide field of view. \n\nSome lenses have the opposite effect.", " Your phone camera has a wide angle lens. This allows you to fit more stuff into a single shot, but the side effect is that everything in the distance becomes smaller to fit into the frame.\n\nThe same thing happens with the moon. Since it is far away, it becomes smaller on a cell phone camera picture.\n\nThe opposite is also true: if you take a picture of the moon using a telephoto lens, the moon can appear absolutely massive relative to the foreground." ]
Given a question, retrieve the highest voted answers on Reddit forum
eli5
when should i start taking birth control pill
[ "Now, as for your question about when to start taking oral contraceptives, there's really no hard-and-fast rule about when to start taking birth control pills. Starting in the first few days of your cycle is the surest way to prevent inadvertently taking pills while you are pregnant." ]
[ "There is no change in fertility with the use of birth control pills. However, if your periods were irregular before you started taking the Pill, it’s likely that your periods will be irregular again when you stop taking it. No, the Pill does not cause birth defects nor does it affect the health of future children.", "Remember: 1 Some people call emergency contraceptive pills morning after pills , but you don't have to wait until the morning after. 2 You can use pills labeled for emergency contraception or certain brands of daily birth control pills to prevent pregnancy after sex." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
The feeling began to grow that the only way out of the crisis was to open the country to foreign trade and new ideas.
[ "It felt that without allowing the country to participate in foreign trade, the country would never have an economic revival." ]
[ "Most critics saw a bright future for the country so long as nothing changed." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
Does leptin and insulin response to long-term total parenteral nutrition depend on body fat mass?
[ "Circulating leptin and insulin concentrations are physiologically representing energy homeostasis. However, the artificial situation of long-term total parenteral nutrition (TPN) and its effects on serum leptin and insulin is not fully understood. We studied 42 gastroenterological patients who received TPN for 19+/-11 days. Serum leptin and insulin levels as well as body composition assessed by bioelectrical impedance analysis were evaluated on days 0, 7 and 14. Insulin sensitivity was estimated by calculating the QUICKI. Before the start of TPN, leptin correlated positively with female gender (P<0.03), BMI (P<0.02), fat mass (P<0.02), insulin levels (P<0.001) and QUICKI (P<0.001). Within the first week of TPN, an increase of leptin levels was found only in patients with a body fat mass of >30% (P<0.02). As these were predominantly women, their leptin levels increased likewise (P<0.003). In regression analysis, fat mass (P<0.001), female gender (P<0.04), insulin levels (P<0.03), and i.v. glucose supply rates (P<0.05) were independently associated to leptin levels" ]
[ "The effects of alpha-2A (A2A)-, beta-2 (B2)- and beta-3 (B3)-adrenergic receptor (ADR) gene polymorphisms on adiposity, fat distribution and plasma insulin and leptin changes in response to long-term overfeeding were explored. Twenty four men (mean (+/-s.d.) age 21+/-2 y) who constituted 12 pairs of identical twins ate a 4.2 MJ/day energy surplus, 6 days a week, for a period of 100 days. Total body fat was assessed by hydrodensitometry and total subcutaneous fat by the sum of eight skinfolds. Abdominal fat areas were measured by computerized tomography (CT). Plasma glucose and insulin during fasting and in response to an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) were assayed. The insulin and glucose areas were computed using the trapezoidal method. Plasma leptin was measured with an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay. The ADR polymorphisms were identified by PCR or Southern blot technique. The ADRB2 Gln27Gln genotype (n=10) was associated with a larger gain (percentage change) in weight (P<0.001) and total subcutaneous (P<0.005) fat than the Glu27Glu/Gln27Glu genotype (n=14). In addition, overfeeding induced greater increases in the insulin areas under the curve during the OGTT and the fasting plasma level of leptin (P<0.01 and <0.03, respectively) among Gln27Gln than in the Glu27Glu/Gln27Glu subjects. The body composition and metabolic changes among the ADRB2 BanI 3.7/3.4 kb subjects (n=10) were similar to those of Gln27Gln subjects. ADRA2A DraI (n=4) 6.3/6.3 kb subjects experienced a decrease (-8%) while 6.7/6.3 kb subjects (n=20) registered an increase (+10%; P=0.017) of OGTT glucose area after the 100-day caloric surplus. The four carriers of the ADRB3 variant (Trp64Arg) experienced the same magnitude of changes as the 20 homozygotes for the Trp allele. In general, comparisons based on the 24 subjects considered as unrelated men and the mean values for each of the 12 pairs yielded similar results.", "Leptin, important for body weight regulation, may be involved in the pathogenesis of the insulin resistance syndrome, associated with cardiovascular disease. We tested to determine whether leptin is a risk marker for first-ever stroke in a nested case-referent study. We identified 113 patients with first-ever stroke (94 with ischemic and 19 with hemorrhagic stroke) who, before the stroke, had participated in population-based health surveys in northern Sweden. Referents were matched for sex, age, date and type of health survey, and geographic region. Blood pressure (BP), body mass index (BMI), and presence of smoking, diabetes, and hypertension were recorded. Total cholesterol, insulin, and leptin were analyzed in stored samples. Risk markers for first-ever stroke were analyzed by conditional logistic regression analysis. Patients with hemorrhagic stroke had higher levels of BMI and systolic and diastolic BPs. Leptin levels were 72% and 59% higher in males and females, respectively, with hemorrhagic stroke versus referents. Patients with ischemic stroke more often had hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and higher fasting glucose and insulin levels. A diagnosis of hypertension and elevated systolic and diastolic BPs were significant risk markers for first-ever hemorrhagic stroke in univariate analysis. High leptin (OR=20.55; 95% CI, 1.12 to 376.7) levels together with hypertension (OR=16.28; 95% CI, 1.49 to 177.3) remained as significant risk markers in a multivariate model. The combination of high leptin and high systolic or diastolic BP were associated with a profoundly increased risk for hemorrhagic stroke (OR=22.11; 95% CI, 1.57 to 310.9). Diabetes, hypertension, and obesity (BMI >/=27), together with high levels of insulin, glucose, systolic and diastolic BP, were significant risk markers for first-ever ischemic stroke in univariate analysis. Hypertension (OR=2.10; 95% CI, 1.14 to 3.86) remained as an independent risk marker in a multivariate model" ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
unconditional standard for fetal size
[ "BACKGROUND: Diagnosis of intrauterine fetal growth restriction and prediction of small-for-gestation age are often based on fetal abdominal circumference or estimated fetal weight (EFW). The present study aims to create unconditional (cross-sectional) and conditional (longitudinal) standards of fetal abdominal circumference and EFW for use in an ethnic Chinese population.METHODS: In the Growing Up in Singapore Towards healthy Outcome (GUSTO) birth cohort study in Singapore, fetal biometric measurements were obtained at enrolment to antenatal care (11-12 weeks) and up to three more time points during pregnancy. Singleton pregnancies with a healthy profile defined by maternal, pregnancy and fetal characteristics and birth outcomes were selected for this analysis. The Hadlock algorithm was used to calculate EFW. Mixed effects model was used to establish unconditional and conditional standards in z-scores and percentiles for both genders pooled and for each gender separately.RESULTS: A total of 313 women were included, of whom 294 had 3 and 19 had 2 ultrasound scans other than the gestational age dating scan. Fetal abdominal circumference showed a roughly linear trajectory from 18 to 36weeks of gestation, while EFW showed an accelerating trajectory. Gender differences were more pronounced in the 10(th) percentile than the 50(th) or 90(th) percentiles. As compared to other published charts, this population showed growth trajectories that started low but caught up at later gestations.CONCLUSIONS: Unconditional and conditional standards for monitoring fetal size and fetal growth in terms of abdominal circumference and EFW are available for this ethnic-Chinese population. Electronic spreadsheets are provided for their implementation." ]
[ "OBJECTIVES: There is evidence that in fetuses with congenital heart defects (CHDs), head growth is affected. However, scanty data are available on longitudinal growth patterns of other biometric parameters such as abdominal circumference (AC) and femur length (FL). The aim was to evaluate growth patterns in fetuses with isolated CHD diagnosed prenatally in different categories of lesions.METHODS: Fetuses with isolated CHD seen between 2008 and 2013 at the Fetal Medicine Unit of 2 tertiary referral centers were retrospectively included in the study. CHD was classified into 7 categories. Fetal biometry parameters were assessed at 4 variable time points between 18 and 35weeks' gestation and transformed into Z scores. Linear mixed modeling was performed to analyze repeated measurements and construction of growth models.RESULTS: Two hundred forty-six live births with CHD were analyzed. Linear growth modeling showed a slight decrease in head circumference (HC) in the second half of pregnancy, whereas AC and FL growth were not significantly affected. The model predicted a significantly smaller HC at 36weeks' gestation in fetuses with conotruncal heart defects.CONCLUSIONS: Fetuses with CHD showed a modest but significant linear decrease in HC growth, whereas AC and FL growth trajectories remained stable.", "PURPOSE: The purpose of this study was to compare the sizes of the placenta and umbilical cord in women with natural pregnancy versus those undergoing in vitro fertilization (IVF).METHODS: Overall, 1610 cases of uncomplicated single pregnancies with vaginal delivery at ? 37weeks of gestation were included in this study. The patients were divided into two groups: natural pregnancy group (n = 1453) and IVF pregnancy not including intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) treatment (n = 157). The groups were compared in terms of gestational week, maternal age, parity, maternal weight gain, prepregnancy maternal BMI, infant weight at birth, infant head circumference, placental weight, cross section of the placenta, cross section of the umbilical cord, insertion site of the umbilical cord, and umbilical cord length. Stepwise selection and multivariate logistic regression were used for statistical analysis to correct the result as an independent factor.RESULTS: There was no difference in the size of the placenta and umbilical cord between women with natural pregnancy and with IVF, but the incidence of velamentous insertion of the cord was significantly increased in women with IVF pregnancy (adjusted odd ratio [AOR] 1.72, 95% confidence interval [CI] 1.08-2.72, p = 0.026).CONCLUSIONS: Although there is no difference in placental weight and cord size, velamentous insertion of the umbilical cord increases in IVF pregnancy and needs careful observation during the delivery process." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
what is a baby registry
[ "A baby registry is like a wedding registry and is more appropriately named a baby gift registry (or a wedding gift registry) since it is a way for expecting parents to register with a store (e.g. Babies R Us or Amazon.com) for items that they want/need in advance of their baby arriving." ]
[ "To manage a Baby Registry in any store: You can make the same changes to a Registry in any store from our kiosk/terminal in the Baby Depot department. And, if you want to shop around to add products to your registry, that’s easy too. A store associate will be happy to assist you.", "The New York State Department of Health Adoption Information Registry is the only official registry for people born or adopted in New York State. We are the only registry authorized to access sealed information. We advise you not to share your confidential information and documents with outside entities." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
how long to bake a pork tenderloin
[ "Transfer the pork tenderloin to the hot skillet and cook until brown on all sides. 3. Roast the tenderloin for 15 to 20 minutes. Take the ovenproof skillet off the stovetop and transfer the entire pan, tenderloin included, to the oven. Cook until the juices run clear and the meat is no longer pink, roughly 20 minutes." ]
[ "Directions. 1 Salt and pepper pork loin and place in crock pot. 2 Add garlic and onion. 3 Pour BBQ sauce over meat. 4 Add hot sauce and stir to evenly distribute. 5 Cook on LOW for 6-7 hours.irections. 1 Salt and pepper pork loin and place in crock pot. 2 Add garlic and onion. 3 Pour BBQ sauce over meat. 4 Add hot sauce and stir to evenly distribute. 5 Cook on LOW for 6-7 hours.", "1 You will know when the pan is ready when the oil shimmers. 2 Add the pork tenderloins and cook, turning occasionally, until evenly browned all over. 3 This should take about 12 minutes.Transfer the browned pork to a large plate or cutting board. 4 Check the pan, if it looks dry add 2 to 3 teaspoons of additional oil." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
can stepholidine reduce cocaine
[ "BACKGROUND: Dopamine receptors are implicated in cocaine reward and seeking. We hypothesize that (-)-stepholidine, a dopamine D1/D2/D3 multi-receptor agent, would be effective in reducing cocaine reward and seeking in an animal model. We investigated the effects of (-)-stepholidine in cue-induced reinstatement of cocaine seeking and cocaine self-administration (reward).METHODS: Cue-induced reinstatement experiment: Rats were trained to press a lever reinforced by cocaine (1 mg/kg/injection) for 15 consecutive daily sessions, after which the response was extinguished by withholding cocaine and cocaine-paired cues (light and pump activation). This was followed by a cue-induced reinstatement test where subjects were exposed to two cocaine cue presentations and presses on the active lever produced cues. Subjects were treated with one of four (-)-stepholidine doses prior to the reinstatement test. Cocaine self-administration (reward) experiment: Rats were trained to self-administer cocaine under a progressive ratio schedule of reinforcement. After stable breakpoints were established, rats were injected with four doses of (-)-stepholidine prior to testing; each dose was injected prior to a separate test session with no-treatment sessions intervening to re-establish break points.RESULTS: (-)-Stepholidine significantly reduced cue-induced reinstatement of cocaine seeking in a dose-related manner. Additionally, (-)-stepholidine significantly reduced break points for cocaine reward. (-)-Stepholidine did not significantly affect locomotor activity.CONCLUSIONS: (-)-Stepholidine reduces cue-induced reinstatement of cocaine seeking and cocaine reward, suggesting that it may be useful in treating relapse in cocaine addiction." ]
[ "We investigated whether protein kinase C (PKC) mediates cocaine-induced hepatotoxicity in mice. Cocaine treatment (60 mg/kg, i.p.) significantly increased cleaved PKC expression in the liver of wild-type (WT) mice, and led to significant increases in oxidative parameters (i.e., reactive oxygen species, 4-hydroxylnonenal and protein carbonyl). These cocaine-induced oxidative burdens were attenuated by pharmacological (i.e., rottlerin) or genetic depletion of PKC. We also demonstrated that treatment with cocaine resulted in significant increases in nuclear factor erythroid-2-related factor 2 (Nrf-2) nuclear translocation and increased Nrf-2 DNA-binding activity in wild-type (WT) mice. These increases were more pronounced in the rottlerin-treated WT or PKC knockout mice than in the saline-treated WT mice. Although cocaine treatment increased Nrf-2 nuclear translocation, DNA binding activity, and -glutamyl cysteine ligases (i.e., GCLc and GCLm) mRNA expressions, while it reduced the glutathione level and GSH/GSSG ratio. These decreases were attenuated by PKC depletion. Cocaine treatment significantly increased alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST) levels in the serum of WT mice signifying the hepatic damage. These increases were also attenuated by PKC depletion. In addition, cocaine-induced hepatic degeneration in WT mice was evident 1 d post-cocaine. At that time, cocaine treatment decreased Bcl-2 and Bcl-xL levels, and increased Bax, cytosolic cytochrome c, and cleaved caspase-3 levels. Pharmacological or genetic depletion of PKC significantly ameliorated the pro-apoptotic properties and hepatic degeneration. Therefore, our results suggest that inhibition of PKC, as well as activation of Nrf-2, is important for protecting against hepatotoxicity induced by cocaine.", "Relapse to drug use is often cited as the major obstacle in overcoming a drug addiction. Whereas relapse can occur for a myriad of reasons, it is well established that complex neuroadaptations that occur over the course of addiction are major factors. Cocaine, as a potent dopamine transporter blocker, specifically induces alterations in the dopaminergic as well as other monoaminergic neurotransmissions, which lead to cocaine abuse and dependence. Evidence also suggests that adaptations in the endogenous opioids play important roles in pathophysiology of cocaine addiction. Following this evidence, we investigated a combination medication, levo-tetrahydropalmatine (l-THP) and low dose naltrexone (LDN), targeting primarily dopaminergic and endogenous opioid systems as a cocaine-relapse-prevention treatment. In the present study Wistar rats were used to assess the effects ofl-THP and LDN on cocaine self-administration, drug-seeking behavior during cocaine reinstatement, spontaneous locomotion, and effects on the endogenous opioid system. We determined that the combination ofl-THP and LDN reduces drug-seeking behavior during reinstatement more potently thanl-THP alone. Additionally, the combination ofl-THP and LDN attenuates the sedative locomotor effect induced byl-THP. Furthermore, we revealed that treatment with the combination ofl-THP and LDN has an upregulatory effect on both plasma-endorphin and hypothalamic POMC that was not observed inl-THP-treated groups. These results suggest that the combination ofl-THP and LDN has great potential as an effective and well-tolerated medication for cocaine relapse prevention." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
who is jasmine burke
[ "Mini Bio (1). Jasmine Burke is an actress and filmmaker from Atlanta, Georgia, who studied theatre and business, on a full scholarship, at Kennesaw State University." ]
[ "Stacy Burke (aka Kat Lieber) was born on May 27, 1975, in Pomona, California.She was raised by her grandparents in a strict household and was an only child.tacy Burke did some mainstream modeling and a bit of acting for several years before model Tasha Welch approached her about fetish and bondage modeling. It wasn't long before producers from companies like Harmony Concepts, Inc., Close-Up Concepts and DT Wrestling were vying for Stacy's attention (and work).", "Currently Stars. Description: Alexandra Imelda Cecelia Ewan Burke was born on August 25, 1988 in Islington, London, England. is an English singer and winner of the fifth series of UK television singing talent show The X Factor." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
what type of dna is adenovirus in Turkey
[ "Adenoviruses are a common cause of conjunctivitis. Genotypes are diverse and differ according to population and geographical distribution of the virus. There is limited data regarding ocular adenoviral infections and genotype distribution in Turkey. This study aimed to determine the adenovirus genotypes and their epidemiological features among patients with conjunctivitis between 2006 and 2010, in Izmir, Turkey. Adenoviral DNA was detected by PCR in 213 of 488 (44%) of the ocular samples collected from patients with viral conjunctivitis during the 5-year study period. Of these, 101 (47%) were randomly chosen and genotyped by sequence analysis. Seven genotypes were identified, including 3, 4, 8, 11, 19, 37, and 53. Genotype 8 and 4 were the dominant types detected in 67 (66.3%) and 25 (24.7%) of the samples, respectively. Other five genotypes (3, 11, 19, 37, 53) were detected in 9 (8.9%) samples. Genotype and seasonal differences observed throughout the study. Human adenoviruse (HAdV)-8 was the most frequent type, except 2008. The prevalence of genotype 4 increased starting from 2006, became dominant in 2008 and decreased in the following years. The peak season was mostly spring months, although it was possible to detect positive samples throughout the year. In conclusion, genotype 8 followed by genotype 4 was the most frequent adenoviral types causing conjunctivitis during the 5-year study period. Findings suggest that there is a slow shift between genotypes throughout the years." ]
[ "BACKGROUND: Human adenoviruses (HAdVs) cause a wide range of diseases worldwide, including respiratory infections. Studies on HAdV molecular epidemiology are limited in Cameroon. The purpose of this study is to document the different types HAdV circulating in Cameroon in children with acute respiratory infections.METHODS: Nasopharyngeal swabs were collected from 811 children under 15years from 2011 to 2014. The HAdV detection was assessed by semi-quantitative generic PCR r-gene. The HAdV-positive samples were typed by amplification and sequencing of partial hexon gene and a real-time PCR. Demographic data were collected and analyzed. The infection and hospitalization risk factors were assessed thought the Chi-square test.RESULTS: A total of 137/220 HAdV-positive samples were amplified successfully. Six species of HAdV (Mastadenovirus A to F) were detected with B (108/220) and C (47/220) being the predominant strains. Hospitalization and age were significantly associated to HAdV-B and HAdV-C respectively. Phylogenetic analysis of HAdV-B3 virus (18) and B7 (5) shows a conserved and a significant temporal stability in relation to the reference sequence (99.1 to 100% of similarity).CONCLUSION: This study reported HAdV species and types detected in children with acute respiratory infections in Cameroon between September 2011 and July 2014. These results support further evaluation of the spatio-temporal circulation pattern of HAdV species and types in Cameroon.", "A human adenovirus (HAdV) species D, was isolated from a hospitalised child with severe lower respiratory infection. It was initially detected in the nasopharyngeal aspirate of the child followed by conventional PCR amplification of the hexon, penton base, and fibre genes. Sanger DNA sequencing and phylogenetic analyses showed characteristics of a recombinant genome not described before. Next Generation Sequencing analysis was performed to reconstruct its complete DNA genome after viral isolation in adenocarcinoma human cell line (A549). A complete genomic sequence of 35.2 kb in length, with a G+C content of 57 % was obtained, related to HAdV-D29 (96 % identity). Imputed serology analysis demonstrated its novel type with a nucleotide sequence identity of 95.3 % (hexon loop 1) and 96 % (hexon loop 2) to HAdV-D9. The penton base gene showed a novel sequence, distantly related to HAdV-D44. The E3 and E4 regions evolved significantly from their ancestors. The fibre gene was almost identical to the knob region of HAdV-D15 but showed an unrelated shaft sequence. In conclusion the genomics of this novel HAdV, designated the HAdV-D83 [P83H9F15] prototype and bearing a new penton base gene, supports the importance of viral evolution to understand modified tissue tropism, enhanced transmission, or altered virulence." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
how many salivary glands does a person have?
[ "The three major salivary glands are the parotid gland, submandibular gland (also called the submaxillary gland), and sublingual glands. Saliva drains into the mouth through small tubes called ducts. The parotid gland makes 25% of the saliva and drains into the mouth near the upper teeth. The submandibular gland makes 70% of the salvia and drains into the mouth from under the tongue. The sublingual gland makes 5% of the saliva and drains into the floor of the mouth." ]
[ "1 The parotid gland makes 25% of the saliva and drains into the mouth near the upper teeth. The submandibular gland makes 70% of the salvia and drains into the mouth from under the tongue.", "There are also thousands of small (minor) or microscopic salivary glands in the lining of the mouth, nose, and throat. The most common place to develop a salivary gland tumour is in one of the parotid glands. Most salivary gland tumours are benign (not cancerous) and do not spread to other parts of the body." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
anthropometric analysis of competitive characteristics in table tennis
[ "The aim of the study was to characterize the anthropometric profile and somatotype of a sample of 50 players table tennis competitive with an average age 21.6 ( 3.1) years belonging to the Chilean team and institutions of higher education in the region of Valparaiso. The evaluation was conducted under the protocol marking the International Society for the Advancement of Kinanthropometry (ISAK) for the measurement procedure 25 restricted profile variables described by Drinkwater, Norton and Olds. Order to determine the body composition, fat, muscle, bone, skin and tissue residual was considered, using the equations proposed by Kerr. The body shape is characterized through somatotype method proposed by Carter. The sample was divided into 4 groups; Chilean Selection, Traditional Private Universities, State Universities and Private Universities Traditional Nontraditional. Regarding body composition; the Chilean team has the highest values of muscle tissue (45.6 1.7%) and the lowest values of adipose tissue (25.2 1.8%), also presenting lesser value in the 6 skinfolds (mm) . The results showed no significant differences between groups in the aforementioned variables. In general somatotype compared by analyzing SANOVA no significant differences between groups (p = 0.409) was observed. The results show a biotype with such a characterization of endo-mesomorph with average values (4,1-4,9-1,8). This study provides updated data biotypological reference for this sport that can be used for decision-making." ]
[ "Prediction of adult performance from early age talent identification in sport remains difficult. Talent identification research has generally been performed using univariate analysis, which ignores multivariate relationships. To address this issue, this study used a novel higher-dimensional model to orthogonalize multivariate anthropometric and fitness data from junior rugby league players, with the aim of differentiating future career attainment. Anthropometric and fitness data from 257 Under-15 rugby league players was collected. Players were grouped retrospectively according to their future career attainment (i.e., amateur, academy, professional). Players were blindly and randomly divided into an exploratory (n = 165) and validation dataset (n = 92). The exploratory dataset was used to develop and optimize a novel higher-dimensional model, which combined singular value decomposition (SVD) with receiver operating characteristic analysis. Once optimized, the model was tested using the validation dataset. SVD analysis revealed 60 m sprint and agility 505 performance were the most influential characteristics in distinguishing future professional players from amateur and academy players. The exploratory dataset model was able to distinguish between future amateur and professional players with a high degree of accuracy (sensitivity = 85.7%, specificity = 71.1%; p<0.001), although it could not distinguish between future professional and academy players. The validation dataset model was able to distinguish future professionals from the rest with reasonable accuracy (sensitivity = 83.3%, specificity = 63.8%; p = 0.003). Through the use of SVD analysis it was possible to objectively identify criteria to distinguish future career attainment with a sensitivity over 80% using anthropometric and fitness data alone. As such, this suggests that SVD analysis may be a useful analysis tool for research and practice within talent identification.", "Considering that anthropometric parameters are important factors in the performance of the soccer players, the aim of this study was to explore the differences in anthropometric and somatotype characteristics of Italian young soccer players. Weight, height, body mass index, and somatotype of 112 young soccer players, grouped in Giovanissimi \"A\" (14 years), \"B\" (13 years), and \"C\" (12 years) as well as Allievi \"B\" (15 years) and \"A\" (16 years) and \"Juniores\" (older than 17 years), were evaluated. Statistical analysis tests were computed at p ? 0.05, and an analysis of variance for each somatotype was calculated to analyze the main effects and interactions of the factors: categories, subcategories, and playing position. Bonferroni's post hoc analysis was used to identify differences among mean values. Considering all subjects, we have found significant differences in categories, subcategories, and playing position between anthropometric values and a somatotype value of 2.8-3.8-2.9. Significant differences have found among goalkeepers and the others playing position in endomorphy (p ? 0.001) and with defenders and midfielders in ectomorphy (p < 0.01) components, whereas no differences in mesomorphy. Analyzing the interaction between subcategories and playing position factors, a significant effect was found only in the endomorphy component (p = 0.05). The analysis of anthropometric characteristic of Italian young soccer players indicates that players have high muscularity value and low adiposity. This study showed the presence of somatotype differences for playing position within categories also in the youngest categories and subcategories, in particular, in the endomorphy component. Young soccer players should be trained with more appropriate and specific training load to avoid the increased injury risk during adolescence." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
what antibody to test for spontaneous resolution of chlamydia trachomatis
[ "Chlamydia trachomatis elementary body enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) was used to investigate serum anti-CT immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1; long-lived response) and immunoglobulin G3 (IgG3; short-lived response indicating more recent infection) from treatment (enrollment) and 6-month follow-up visits in 77 women previously classified as having spontaneous resolution of chlamydia. Of these women, 71.4% were IgG1+IgG3+, consistent with more recent chlamydia resolution. 15.6% were IgG3- at both visits, suggesting absence of recent chlamydia. Using elementary body ELISA, we demonstrated approximately 1 in 6 women classified as having spontaneous resolution of chlamydia might have been exposed to C. trachomatis but not infected. Further, we classified their possible infection stage." ]
[ "BACKGROUND: Chlamydia trachomatis is an obligate intracellular human pathogen and is the most common cause of sexually transmitted diseases affecting both men and women. The pathogen can cause prostatitis and epididymitis in men. In women, cervicitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, ectopic pregnancy and acute or chronic pelvic pain are frequent complications. More than half of C. trachomatis-positive patients have minimal or no symptoms, providing an ongoing reservoir for the infection. The lack of sensitive large-scale applicable point- of- care (POC) tests for C. trachomatis detection makes it difficult to diagnose chlamydia infection efficiently in resource-limited environments.METHODS: A rapid and sensitive assay based on loop-mediated isothermal amplification method (LAMP) was combined with antimicrobial peptide lysis, which is able to detect at least 7 C. trachomatis pathogens per reaction directly from urine samples.RESULTS: Our study comprising 91 first-void urine samples showed that specificity of the assay is 100% and sensitivity 73% when using antimicrobial peptide lysis mix. Additionally we demonstrate that our assay does not give any cross-reactivity with 30 pathogen's DNA potentially present in the urine samples. Furthermore, the assay's novel approach does not require purification or extraction of DNA from clinical sample prior to amplification, so the need for specialized equipment is eliminated.CONCLUSIONS: The whole procedure is significantly less laborious, less time-consuming and consequently less expensive for early detection and identification of infectious disease. C. trachomatis specific LAMP assay is relatively simple to perform and could therefore be applied in numerous POC settings.", "There is a need for more accurate Chlamydia trachomatis (CT) IgG antibody tests for tubal factor infertility (TFI) diagnostics. We evaluated the predictive value for TFI of Medac ELISA plus (MOMP) and multitarget Mikrogen ELISA (MOMP-CPAF-TARP). Based on Medac ELISA plus results, 183 subfertile women underwent either hysterosalpingography or laparoscopy to diagnose TFI. TFI was defined as extensive adhesions and/or distal occlusion of at least one tube. Women not fulfilling the definition of TFI served as controls. Serum was subsequently tested with Mikrogen ELISA and results were compared. 48 patients had TFI, 135 were controls. Mikrogen ELISA tested 125 patients positive/borderline of which 32% had TFI. Medac ELISA plus tested 77 patients positive/borderline of which 29.9% had TFI. Mikrogen tested 40 out of 48 TFI patients positive/borderline, Medac 23 out of 48. Kappa value was 0.34. PPV of Mikrogen ELISA and Medac ELISA plus were respectively 32% (95% CI 26%-39%) and 30% (95% CI 24%-37%), and NPV 86% (95% CI 81%-91%) and 76% (95% CI 70%-82%). Both tests were comparable in the prediction of TFI. However, Mikrogen ELISA had a higher NPV and might be more reliable in identifying patients without TFI. Kappa-value showed limited concordance between both tests." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
A man in tan pants and a blue shirt is staking on a public trashcan.
[ "A man is wearing tan pants and a blue shirt." ]
[ "A man wearing green shorts and red shirt is buying ice cream." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
Are patients with familial abdominal aortic aneurysms at increased risk for endoleak and secondary intervention following elective endovascular aneurysm repair?
[ "A recent investigation has documented an increased risk of aneurysm-related complications after endovascular aneurysm repair (EVAR) of familial abdominal aortic aneurysms (fAAAs). We hypothesized that fAAA patients are not at increased risk for complications following open AAA repair or EVAR when compared with sporadic abdominal aortic aneurysm (spAAA) patients. To this end, we performed a single institution retrospective review. Epidemiologic data were collected through the electronic medical record. Family history data were obtained from a questionnaire administered at the initial vascular surgery consultation. Major adverse events were defined as myocardial infarction, respiratory failure, renal failure, bowel ischemia, limb ischemia, multisystem organ failure, intracranial hemorrhage, paraplegia, hemorrhage, or death. Endoleaks were classified in accordance with the standardized reporting practices of the Society for Vascular Surgery. AAA-related complications were defined as the need for a secondary intervention due to endoleak, limb ischemia, or postimplantation rupture. A total of 392 patients with complete clinical data underwent elective AAA repair from 2004 to 2014. Of these 392 patients, 89 (23%) were classified as fAAA patients and 303 (77%) were classified as spAAA patients. With the exception of increased rates of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (P = .0009) and pack-years smoked (P = .03) in spAAA patients, demographics did not differ. Sixty-two percent (n = 55) of fAAA patients and 68% (n = 205) of spAAA patients underwent EVAR (P = .30). fAAA patients did not incur any significant difference in major adverse events following open AAA repair (fAAA, 9% vs spAAA, 11%; P = .75). Additionally, fAAA patients did not incur any significant difference in major adverse events following EVAR (fAAA, 4% vs spAAA, 5%; P = .70). Patients with fAAA did have a significantly increased rate of endoleak (fAAA, 24% vs spAAA, 12%; P = .03) and secondary intervention following EVAR (fAAA, 21% vs spAAA, 12%; P = .04)" ]
[ "BACKGROUND: We investigated the potential association between perioperative fibrinogen levels and outcome in patients undergoing elective endovascular abdominal aneurysm repair (EVAR) of abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAAs).METHODS: Consecutive patients with an intact AAA undergoing elective EVAR with a specific bifurcated endograft (Endurant, Medtronic) were recruited between December 2012 and October 2016. Preoperative and 24-hr postoperative fibrinogen levels were recorded, and potential associations with outcome were tested. Primary outcome measures included endoleaks, lower limb ischemic complications, including endograft limb occlusion, and aneurysm-related reinterventions.RESULTS: Ninety-four patients (91 male, mean age 71.8 ± 8.0 years) with an intact AAA were enrolled in the study. The technical success was 98% (2 failures: 1 type Ia endoleak on completion angiography, 1 lower limb ischemia immediately postoperatively requiring femoral endarterectomy). There was 1 death during the first 30 days due to myocardial infarction (1%). Another patient died 15 months after the procedure from cardiac causes. During the existing follow-up (mean 14.8 ± 14.3 months), 14 patients (15%) developed an endoleak (4, type Ia endoleak and 10, type II endoleak), 6 patients (6.3%) had lower limb ischemia/endograft limb occlusion, and 10 patients (10.6%) required reintervention. Compared with the preoperative values, no significant change occurred with regard to the fibrinogen levels 24 hr after procedure (mean preoperative fibrinogen 360 ± 101 mg/dl vs 24-hr postoperative fibrinogen 349 ± 105 mg/dl, P = 0.1). Neither preoperative nor 24-hr postoperative fibrinogen levels were significantly associated with the development of endoleaks, lower limb ischemia, or reinterventions. However, the difference in fibrinogen levels (baseline to 24 hr after procedure) was significantly higher in patients with endoleaks (median -65 mg/dl vs. 15 mg/dl, P = 0.04).CONCLUSIONS: Perioperative fibrinogen levels may play a role in predicting midterm outcomes in patients undergoing elective EVAR and appears to be associated, directly or indirectly, with the development of endoleaks. Further studies are needed to investigate these findings and explore future therapeutic implications.", "BACKGROUND: Endovascular aneurysm repair (EVAR) has decreased the perioperative mortality for patients undergoing abdominal aortic aneurysm repair and has increased the rates of elective aneurysm repair in the elderly. However, Medicare will not cover abdominal aortic aneurysm screening for beneficiaries over 75 years of age. Consequently, abdominal aortic aneurysm treatment in this population depends on incidental detection. Targeted coverage for screening in this population, however, might be beneficial for a subgroup of patients.METHODS: To identify a subset of elderly patients who would potentially benefit from an expanded screening policy, we reviewed all patients greater than 75 years old undergoing elective EVAR in the Vascular Quality Initiative between 2003 and 2016. We used Cox regression with multivariable fractional polynomials to construct a risk model for 5-year survival in elderly patients to identify a subpopulation who might benefit the most from screening and performed internal validation using the bootstrapping technique.RESULTS: We identified 10,676 patients greater than 75 years old undergoing elective EVAR. Although perioperative mortality varied with age, it was only 2.1% in the oldest group of patients (>85 years). Significant predictors included in our final risk model for 5-year survival in the elderly included age, aortic diameter, hemoglobin, current smoking, white race, body mass index, renal function, congestive heart failure, statin use, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and ejection fraction. The risk model produced risk scores ranging from a possible -2 to 33. The mean and median risk score were 6.9 and 6.0, respectively, with a right skew. We categorized the risk scores into four groups: -2 to 4 points, 5-8 points, 9-13 points, and more than 13 points, with associated 5-year survivals of 88%, 79%, 68%, and 49%, respectively. The model showed adequate discrimination and calibration, with a C-statistic of 0.69 and a calibration score of 0.99 (predicted 5-year survival of 0.78 compared with an observed 5-year survival of 0.77) and a Brier score of 0.15. Internal validation demonstrated an optimism-corrected C-statistic of 0.69 and a calibration slope of 1.0.CONCLUSIONS: Elective EVAR in elderly patients chosen to undergo repair is associated with acceptable perioperative mortality. Our risk score can be used to define optimal patients for expanded screening into all but the highest risk group based on expected postoperative 5-year survival to justify removing this Medicare coverage restriction." ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
Is discrepancy between heart rate and makers of hypoperfusion a predictor of mortality in trauma patients?
[ "Tachycardia is an important early sign of shock in trauma. Although the base deficit (BD) and lactate are indicative of hypoperfusion and known to predict mortality, some cases show a discrepancy between heart rate (HR) and BD or lactate; such cases have poor prognosis. The objective of this study was to examine whether lack of tachycardia after hypoperfusion is associated with increased mortality. Retrospective data were collected on 1,742 adult trauma patients. Mortality was compared with different levels of BD, lactate, and HR on admission. Multivariate logistic regression was used to identify significant risk factors for mortality. Significantly increased mortality was observed in patients with hypoperfusion (BD less than -5 mmol/L or lactate more than 5 mmol/L). Among these patients, those with a normal HR (<80 bpm) were associated with a higher mortality rate than those with tachycardia (HR, 80-100 or>100 bpm). However, systolic blood pressure (SBP) was not significantly different between the different HR groups. Logistic regression analysis revealed that discrepancy between HR and indicators of hypoperfusion (Dis BD: BD less than -5 mmol/L and HR less than 80 bpm; or Dis lac: lactate more than 5 mmol/L and HR less than 80 bpm) are independent predictors of mortality after controlling for age, SBP, Injury Severity Score, head Abbreviated Injury Scale, HR, and BD or lactate (Dis BD: odds ratio, 2.67; 95% confidence interval, 1.07-6.61; p<0.05 and Dis lac: odds ratio, 4.11; 95% confidence interval, 1.57-10.74; p<0.01, respectively)" ]
[ "Severity of hypoperfusion on initial perfusion-weighted imaging -magnetic resonance did not differ among groups. Thrombolysis resulted in successful reperfusion in all groups. Anticoagulated animals had significantly more secondary hemorrhage and a higher mortality rate compared with nonanticoagulated animals. PCC rapidly reversed the increased international normalized ratio. Although PCC failed to prevent hemorrhage in the strongly anticoagulated, it reduced the incidence of severe hemorrhage in moderately anticoagulated rats (INR, 2-3) to the level of nonanticoagulated controls", "Decreasing manpower available to care for trauma patients both in and out of the ICU has led to a number of proposed solutions, including increasing involvement of emergency medicine-trained physicians in the care of these patients. We performed a descriptive comparative study in an effort to define the role of fellowship-trained emergency medicine physicians as full-time traumatologists. We performed a retrospective review of concurrent and prospectively collected data comparing process of care and outcomes for the resuscitative phase of trauma patients cared for by full-time fellowship-trained trauma surgeons (TS), a fellowship-trained emergency medicine physician (ET), and a first-year fellowship-trained trauma surgeon (TS1). Patient age, Revised Trauma Score, and Injury Severity Score were similar between groups. Process of care, defined by transfusion of uncrossmatched blood, prevalence of hypotension in patients receiving uncrossmatched blood, time spent in the emergency department, frequency of ICU admission, severity of injury for ICU admission, and time between emergency department and operating room for patients requiring surgery, was equivalent between groups. Outcomes evaluated by mortality and length of stay in the hospital and ICU did not differ between groups, and provider group was not predictive of mortality in stepwise logistic regression" ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
Does cardiac diastolic dysfunction predict in-hospital mortality in acute ischemic stroke with atrial fibrillation?
[ "The aim of this study was to identify whether diastolic dysfunction predicts in-hospital death in ischemic stroke patients with atrial fibrillation. We retrospectively analyzed data from enrolled patients with ischemic stroke patients with atrial fibrillation who presented within 24h of onset. All patients underwent transthoracic echocardiography to evaluate diastolic filling pressure estimated as the ratio of early transmitral flow velocity (E) to mitral annular velocity (e') within 24h of admission. We evaluated initial ischemic lesion volume and National Institute of Health Stroke Scale (NIHSS) score. Two hundred and sixty-six patients were enrolled. During hospitalization, 30 patients (11%) died. The deceased group had a higher NIHSS score, a higher D-dimer level, a higher creatinine level, a larger initial ischemic lesion volume and a higher E/e' ratio than those in the survival group. In a multivariate analysis, a higher E/e' ratio was an independent predictor of in-hospital death. The cutoff value for the E/e' ratio for prediction in-hospital death was 20 with the sensitivity of 75% and specificity of 86%" ]
[ "The aim of this study was to prove that the incidence of the more unusual and largely under-researched cardiac dysfunction, i.e. diastolic, is more frequent in patients with alcoholic cirrhosis. Comparison of the incidence of left ventricular diastolic dysfunction in medical-ward patients with no prior history of cardiovascular disease to that of the patients with hepatic cirrhosis caused by alcohol abuse was carried out. The study is original from the point of view of examination of patients with cirrhosis of solely alcoholic aetiology in one Central-European university hospital. Three methods of echocardiographic examination were used: (i) pulse Doppler echocardiography to assess blood flow through the mitral valve and in the pulmonary veins, (ii) tissue Doppler imaging (TDI) to assess mitral annular motion, and (iii) colour M-mode Doppler echocardiography to assess blood flow from the left atrium into the left ventricle. The results found confirmed that the incidence of left ventricular diastolic dysfunction in patients with alcohol-related liver cirrhosis, classified as Child-Pugh grade A and B, was significantly higher than in the controls without any prior liver disease. Furthermore, our research team has newly noticed how the severity of diastolic dysfunction affects the morbidity and mortality of patients undergoing such treatments as the transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS), liver transplantation and other surgical interventions resulting from different indications", "Little is known about the factors associated with in-hospital mortality following total anterior circulation stroke (TACS). We examined the characteristics and comorbidity data for TACS patients in relation to in-hospital mortality with the aim of developing a simple clinical rule for predicting the acute mortality outcome in TACS. A routine data registry of one regional hospital in the UK was analyzed. The subjects were 2,971 stroke patients with TACS (82% ischemic; median age=81 years, interquartile age range=74-86 years) admitted between 1996 and 2012. Uni- and multivariate regression models were used to estimate in-hospital mortality odds ratios for the study covariates. A 6-point TACS scoring system was developed from regression analyses to predict in-hospital mortality as the outcome. Factors associated with in-hospital mortality of TACS were male sex [adjusted odds ratio (AOR)=1.19], age (AOR=4.96 for ≥85 years vs. <65 years), hemorrhagic subtype (AOR=1.70), nonlateralization (AOR=1.75), prestroke disability (AOR=1.73 for moderate disability vs. no symptoms), and congestive heart failure (CHF) (AOR=1.61). Risk stratification using the 6-point TACS Score [T=type (hemorrhage=1 point) and territory (nonlateralization=1 point), A=age (65-84 years=1 point, ≥85 years=2 points), C=CHF (if present=1 point), S=status before stroke (prestroke modified Rankin Scale score of 4 or 5=1 point)] reliably predicted a mortality outcome: score=0, 29.4% mortality; score=1, 46.2% mortality [negative predictive value (NPV)=70.6%, positive predictive value (PPV)=46.2%]; score=2, 64.1% mortality (NPV=70.6, PPV=64.1%); score=3, 73.7% mortality (NPV=70.6%, PPV=73.7%); and score=4 or 5, 81.2% mortality (NPV=70.6%, PPV=81.2%)" ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
acetate methane production rate
[ "The inhibitory effects of ammonium and sulfide on the methane production using acetate or propionate as a carbon source were investigated under different pH and temperature conditions. The methane production rate, duration of the lag phase, and inhibition threshold limit during methane production were estimated using the Gompertz equation and inhibitor mathematical model. The methane production rates at 53C were 2.3-2.7 times higher than those at 35C in the case of non-inhibitors. Increasing the NH4+ and/or S2- concentration decreased the methane production rate and increased the duration of the lag phase. For methane fermentation that was not acclimated to high NH4+ concentration, the critical NH4+ concentration beyond which methane fermentation would stop was 4000-5650mg/L, depending on the pH, temperature, and carbon source. When NH4+ and S2- were coexistent, the critical NH4+ concentration decreased to approximately 3800mg/L when propionate was used and to approximately 4450mg/L when acetate was used. However, no synergistic effect of NH4+ and S2- on the methane production rate was found at an NH4+ concentration of < 5000mg/L and S2- concentration of 50mg/L." ]
[ "Wetlands contribute to 30% of global methane emissions due to an imbalance between microbial methane production and consumption. Methanogenesis and methanotrophy have mainly been studied separately, and little is known about their potential interactions in aquatic environments. To mimic the interaction between methane producers and oxidizers in the environment, we co-cultivated the methanogenic archaeon Methanosarcina barkeri with aerobic Methylocystaceae methanotrophs in an oxygen-limited bioreactor using acetate as methanogenic substrate. Methane, acetate, dissolved oxygen, available nitrogen, pH, temperature, and cell density were monitored to follow system stability and activity. Stable reactor operation was achieved for two consecutive periods of 2months. Fluorescence in situ hybridization micrographs indicated close association between both groups of microorganisms. This association suggests that the methanotrophs profit from direct access to the methane that is produced from acetate, while methanogens are protected by the concomitant oxygen consumption of the methanotrophs. This proof of principle study can be used to set up systems to study their responses to environmental changes.", "This study used carbon isotope ((13)C)-based calculations to quantify the specific methanogenic pathways in a two-stage experimental biogas plant composed of three thermophilic leach bed reactors (51-56 C) followed by a mesophilic (36.5 C) anaerobic filter. Despite the continuous dominance of the acetoclastic Methanosaeta in the anaerobic filter, the methane (CH4) fraction derived from carbon dioxide reduction (CO2), fmc, varied significantly over the investigation period of 200 days. At organic loading rates (OLRs) below 6.0 gCOD L(-1) d(-1), the average fmc value was 33%, whereas at higher OLRs, with a maximum level of 17.0 gCOD L(-1) d(-1), the fmc values reached 47%. The experiments allowed for a clear differentiation of the isotope fractionation related to the formation and consumption of acetate in both stages of the plant. Our data indicate constant carbon isotope fractionation for acetate formation at different OLRs within the thermophilic leach bed reactors as well as a negligible contribution of homoacetogenesis. These results present the first quantification of methanogenic pathway (fmc values) dynamics for a continually operated mesophilic bioreactor and highlight the enormous potential of (13)C analysis for a more comprehensive understanding of the anaerobic degradation processes in CH4-producing biogas plants." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
phone number for hulu tv
[ "You can visit Hulu Tv on the address mentioned above and ask your queries or register your complaints.(Please call before visit Hulu Tv) Email address to send mail to Hulu Tv support@hulu.com. Send mail to Hulu Tv using the email address mentioned above and Hulu Tv may not be reply back. Call Hulu Tv Phone Numbers for Help: +1-310-571-4700, Fax: 1-310-571-4883. Call to Hulu Tv for any help. You can visit Hulu Tv Website for more information: www.hulu.com Contact Hulu Tv Hulu Tv resides at Los Angeles, California, United States provides here all the necessory details like contact number +1-310-571-4700, Fax: 1-310-571-4883 by which customers can reach to Hulu Tv Go to www.hulu.com and get more information from there. Some More Phone Numbers Related To Hulu Tv" ]
[ "On the left, you can click Give Us a Call to have Hulu's customer service team call you. Simply click the box labelled Phone Number and type in a phone number that you can be reached at. Then click Submit. You should receive a call from Hulu's customer service team shortly. Note that they are available 7 days a week, but only from 5:00 AM to 10:00 PM Pacific Time.", "On the left, you’ll see the option called “Give Us a Call“. This will make the Hulu customer service to give you a call back. On this type in your phone number and click “Submit“. Note that they’re available 7 days a week, at the timings 5:00 AM to 10:00 PM Pacific Time. There’s also a “Send us an email” option. Which you can use to get Hulu customer service on email." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
Do the healing effect of nettle extract on second degree burn wounds?
[ "Numerous studies were carried out to develop more sophisticated dressings to expedite healing processes and diminish the bacterial burden in burn wounds. This study assessed the healing effect of nettle extract on second degree burns wound in rats in comparison with silver sulfadiazine and vaseline. Forty rats were randomly assigned to four equal groups. A deep second-degree burn was created on the back of each rat using a standard burning procedure. The burns were dressed daily with nettle extract in group 1, silver sulfadiazine in group 2, vaseline in group 3 and without any medication in group 4 as control group. The response to treatment was assessed by digital photography during the treatment until day 42. Histological scoring was undertaken for scar tissue samples on days 10 and 42. A statistically significant difference was observed in group 1 compared with other groups regarding 4 scoring parameters after 10 days. A statistically significant difference was seen for fibrosis parameter after 42 days. In terms of difference of wound surface area, maximal healing was noticed at the same time in nettle group and minimal repair in the control group" ]
[ "Burn is one of the common wounds in the world and using modern methods such as cell therapy can be considered as an effective strategy in the treatment of these wounds. The aim of this study is investigating the effects of using graphene quantum dots (GQDs) associated fibroblasts on treating third-degree burns in Wistar rats. In this experiment, cells were obtained by isolating fibroblasts from 13-day embryos of Wistar rats. MTT assay was performed to determine the dose of nanoparticle and cell tracker. For this study, 40 Wistar rats were burned and randomly divided into two groups of control and treatment. The treatment group was divided into three groups of daily injection of GQD nanoparticle with a concentration of 100 ìg/ml, cell therapy, and cell therapy + GQDs. On days 20 and 40, skin tissue sections were prepared and stained with hematoxylin-eosin (H&E) and trichrome Masson for microscopic examination. Macroscopic and microscopic observations showed that in the treatment groups, the recovery was higher than the control. Also, cell therapy and GQD injection and simultaneous injection of cell therapy + GQDs accelerated the wound healing process and the cell therapy + GQDs were significantly more effective than nanoparticles and cell injection alone after 20 and 40 days. Histological studies indicated a significant increase in angiogenesis, number of cells, collagen synthesis, thickness of skin layers, and ultimately acceleration wound healing in treatment samples compared to controls. Based on these results, it can be concluded that simultaneous cell therapy and GQDs accelerate the repair of skin lesions in the animal models more significantly.", "TWEAK acts by engaging with Fn14 to regulate inflammatory responses, fibrosis, and tissue remodeling, which are central in the repair processes of wounds. This study aims to explore the potential role of the TWEAK/Fn14 pathway in the healing of cutaneous burn wounds. Third-degree burns were introduced in wild-type and Fn14-deficient BALB/c mice, followed by evaluation of wound areas and histological changes. The downstream cytokines including growth factors were also examined in lesional skin. Moreover, human dermal microvascular endothelial cells and dermal fibroblasts were analyzed in vitro upon TWEAK stimulation. The healing of burn wounds was delayed in Fn14-deficient mice and was accompanied by the suppression of inflammatory responses, growth factor production, and extracellular matrix synthesis. Moreover, TWEAK/Fn14 activation enhanced the migration and cytokine production of both dermal microvascular endothelial cells and dermal fibroblasts. TWEAK also facilitates the expression of á-SMA and palladin in dermal fibroblasts. Furthermore, transfection of Fn14 small interfering RNA abrogated such promotion effect of TWEAK on these cells. In conclusion, TWEAK/Fn14 signals mediate the healing of burn wounds, possibly involving TWEAK regulation of the function of resident cells." ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
which plasmid is able to transfer hyaluronic acid (ha) in dogs
[ "OBJECTIVE To evaluate gene transfer of recombinant adeno-associated viral (rAAV) vectors with AAV2 or AAV5 capsid and encoding hyaluronic acid (HA) synthase-2 (HAS2) into joints of healthy dogs. ANIMALS 22 purpose-bred Beagles. PROCEDURES Plasmid expression cassettes encoding canine HAS2 (cHAS2) were assessed in vitro for concentration and molecular size of secreted HA. Thereafter, rAAV2-cHAS2 vectors at 3 concentrations and rAAV5-cHAS2 vectors at 1 concentration were each administered intra-articularly into the left stifle joint of 5 dogs; 2 dogs received PBS solution instead. Synovial fluid HA concentration and serum and synovial fluid titers of neutralizing antibodies against AAV capsids were measured at various points. Dogs were euthanized 28 days after treatment, and cartilage and synovium samples were collected for vector DNA and mRNA quantification and histologic examination. RESULTS Cell transfection with plasmids encoding cHAS2 resulted in an increase in production and secretion of HA in vitro. In vivo, the rAAV5-cHAS2 vector yielded uniform genome transfer and cHAS2 expression in collected synovium and cartilage samples. In contrast, rAAV2-cHAS2 vectors were detected inconsistently in synovium and cartilage samples and failed to produce clear dose-related responses. Histologic examination revealed minimal synovial inflammation in joints injected with rAAV vectors. Neutralizing antibodies against AAV capsids were detected in serum and synovial fluid samples from all vector-treated dogs. CONCLUSIONS AND CLINICAL RELEVANCE rAAV5-mediated transfer of the gene for cHAS2 into healthy joints of dogs by intra-articular injection appeared safe and resulted in vector-derived cHAS2 production by synoviocytes and chondrocytes. Whether this treatment may increase HA production by synoviocytes and chondrocytes in osteoarthritic joints remains to be determined." ]
[ "The essential pathophysiological roles of hyaluronic acid (HA) strongly depend on HA binding and HA size. Here we deployed the atomic vision of molecular dynamics (MD) simulation to experimentally investigate the influence of C-terminal mutations of Streptococcus equisimilis hyaluronan synthase (SeHAS) on HA product synthesis in Escherichia coli. R413 was vital for HA production, as the removal or mutation of R413 led to inactivation of SeHAS. MD simulations indicated that R406-R413 constituted an HA-binding pattern that stabilized the HA-SeHAS complex. We further increased HA product size via site-directed mutation of the SeHAS C-terminal residues 414-417 based on the hypothesis that higher binding affinity between the SeHAS C-terminus and HA would lead to larger HA size, underlying the important role of the HA-SeHAS interaction in HA size control. W410A and T412A mutations also completely deactivated SeHAS. Moreover, a catalysis-transformation-translocation model was proposed for the HA synthesis and translocation processes.", "Efficient gene release after intracellular uptake is very important for non-viral gene delivery systems. To construct a glutathione-responsive gene delivery system, we developed gold-cysteamine (AuCM)/plasmid DNA (pDNA)/poly TAT (pTAT)/hyaluronic acid (HA) nanocomplexes (AuCM/pDNA/pTAT/HA) in this study. The AuCM/pDNA/pTAT/HA nanocomplexes possessed a small size less than 200 nm and negative zeta potential of -17 4 mV. The multilayer structure was verified by UV-Vis spectra, surface charges, dynamic light scattering. Morphology was observed by transmission electron microscope. The AuCM/pDNA/pTAT/HA nanocomplexes could completely protect pDNA against enzymatic degradation. These nanocomplexes showed effective cellular uptake in CD44 receptors over-expressed HepG 2 cells in a HA/CD44 interaction dependent manner. Moreover, transfection efficacy was significantly enhanced in AuCM/pDNA/pTAT/HA treated HepG 2 cells compared with AuCM/pDNA/pTAT, and was further enhanced in the presence of GSH, indicating that AuCM/pDNA/pTAT/HA was glutathione-responsive. Biodistribution revealed that AuCM/pDNA/pTAT/HA nanocomplexes mainly accumulated in liver. In conclusion, AuCM/pDNA/pTAT/HA nanocomplexes may serve as glutathione-responsive gene carriers for actively targeting gene delivery to CD44 receptors over-expressed liver cancers." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
Parting Glances was shot.
[ " Parting Glances Parting Glances is an American film shot in 1984 and released in 1986 . With its realistic look at urban gay life in the Ronald Reagan era and at the height of the AIDS crisis , many film critics consider it an important movie in the history of gay cinema . It was also one of the first American films to address the AIDS pandemic . First-time director Bill Sherwood died of complications due to AIDS in 1990 without ever completing another film ." ]
[ " Dissolve (filmmaking) In the post-production process of film editing and video editing , a dissolve is a gradual transition from one image to another . The terms fade-out ( also called fade to black ) and fade-in are used to describe a transition to and from a blank image . This is in contrast to a cut where there is no such transition . A dissolve overlaps two shots for the duration of the effect , usually at the end of one scene and the beginning of the next , but may be used in montage sequences also . Generally , but not always , the use of a dissolve is held to indicate that a period of time has passed between the two scenes .", " Close-up A close-up or closeup in filmmaking , television production , still photography and the comic strip medium is a type of shot , which tightly frames a person or an object . Close-ups are one of the standard shots used regularly with medium shots and long shots ( cinematic techniques ) . Close-ups display the most detail , but they do not include the broader scene . Moving in to a close-up or away from a close-up is a common type of zooming ." ]
Given a claim, retrieve documents that support or refute the claim
fever
define endocrinologist duties
[ "Endocrinologist Job Description. Endocrinologists provide specialized health care and are charged with treating and caring for endocrine glands and the hormones they secrete. Patients are referred to the endocrinologist when the general practitioner detects a problem in the glandular system. As such, the typical day-at-work for the endocrinologist involves examining and making diagnoses for illnesses in the thyroid, pituitary, adrenal and hypothalamus glands." ]
[ "Your job duties as an endoscopy technician will center on preparing and caring for the medical instruments and equipment used during endoscopic procedures. You're also responsible for maintaining clean examination areas by setting up rooms, cleaning instruments, and maintaining GI diagnostic equipment.", "Do You Need an Endocrinologist? Is An Endocrinologist the Best Doctor for All Thyroid Patients by Mary Shomon Many people write in asking if they need to see an endocrinologist -- the medical speciality that includes thyroid specialists." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
Does longer term health of young and middle-aged adults following unintentional fall at home resulting in hospitalisation?
[ "Unintentional falls at home are a common cause of admissions to hospital amongst young and middle-aged adults. This population-based study investigated the longer-term health, physical and psychological outcomes following such injuries, and the predictors of these sequelae. Individuals aged 25-60 years admitted to hospital in the Auckland region between July 2005 and June 2006 following an unintentional fall at home were interviewed soon after the injury (baseline) and 15-months following the injury. Information collected at baseline on pre-injury status was analysed in relation to changes in general health and functioning, psychological outcomes, and role limitations at follow-up. Of the 328 participants eligible for study, 251 (77%) completed the follow-up interview. Reductions in general health and overall functioning (compared with pre-injury status) were reported by 25% and 43% of participants, respectively. In multivariate analyses, predictors of specific adverse outcomes at follow-up included increasing age (reduction in functioning), lower limb injuries (reductions in general health and functioning); female gender (psychological sequelae); injury severity score ≥9 (anxiety and depression); and length of hospital stay (fear of falling and post-traumatic stress symptoms)" ]
[ "BACKGROUND: Falls are a leading reason for older people presenting to the emergency department (ED), and many experience further falls. Little evidence exists to guide secondary prevention in this population. This randomised controlled trial (RCT) investigated whether a 6-month telephone-based patient-centred program-RESPOND-had an effect on falls and fall injuries in older people presenting to the ED after a fall.METHODS AND FINDINGS: Community-dwelling people aged 60-90 years presenting to the ED with a fall and planned for discharge home within 72 hours were recruited from two EDs in Australia. Participants were enrolled if they could walk without hands-on assistance, use a telephone, and were free of cognitive impairment (Mini-Mental State Examination > 23). Recruitment occurred between 1 April 2014 and 29 June 2015. Participants were randomised to receive either RESPOND (intervention) or usual care (control). RESPOND comprised (1) home-based risk assessment; (2) 6 months telephone-based education, coaching, goal setting, and support for evidence-based risk factor management; and (3) linkages to existing services. Primary outcomes were falls and fall injuries in the 12-month follow-up. Secondary outcomes included ED presentations, hospital admissions, fractures, death, falls risk, falls efficacy, and quality of life. Assessors blind to group allocation collected outcome data via postal calendars, telephone follow-up, and hospital records. There were 430 people in the primary outcome analysis-217 randomised to RESPOND and 213 to control. The mean age of participants was 73 years; 55% were female. Falls per person-year were 1.15 in the RESPOND group and 1.83 in the control (incidence rate ratio [IRR] 0.65 [95% CI 0.43-0.99]; P = 0.042). There was no significant difference in fall injuries (IRR 0.81 [0.51-1.29]; P = 0.374). The rate of fractures was significantly lower in the RESPOND group compared with the control (0.05 versus 0.12; IRR 0.37 [95% CI 0.15-0.91]; P = 0.03), but there were no significant differences in other secondary outcomes between groups: ED presentations, hospitalisations or falls risk, falls efficacy, and quality of life. There were two deaths in the RESPOND group and one in the control group. No adverse events or unintended harm were reported. Limitations of this study were the high number of dropouts (n = 93); possible underreporting of falls, fall injuries, and hospitalisations across both groups; and the relatively small number of fracture events.CONCLUSIONS: In this study, providing a telephone-based, patient-centred falls prevention program reduced falls but not fall injuries, in older people presenting to the ED with a fall. Among secondary outcomes, only fractures reduced. Adopting patient-centred strategies into routine clinical practice for falls prevention could offer an opportunity to improve outcomes and reduce falls in patients attending the ED.TRIAL REGISTRATION: Australian New Zealand Clinical Trials Registry (ACTRN12614000336684).", "INTRODUCTION: Falls and fall-related injuries are a serious cause of morbidity and cost to society. Environmental hazards are implicated as a major contributor to falls among older people. A recent Cochrane review found an environmental assessment, undertaken by an occupational therapist, to be an effective approach to reducing falls. However, none of the trials included a cost-effectiveness evaluation in the UK setting. This protocol describes a large multicentre trial investigating the clinical and cost-effectiveness of environmental assessment and modification within the home with the aim of preventing falls in older people.METHODS AND ANALYSIS: A two-arm, modified cohort randomised controlled trial, conducted within England, with 1299 community-dwelling participants aged 65 years and above, who are at an increased risk of falls. Participants will be randomised 2:1 to receive either usual care or home assessment and modification. The primary outcome is rate of falls (falls/person/time) over 12 months assessed by monthly patient self-report falls calendars. Secondary self-reported outcome measures include: the proportion of single and multiple fallers, time to first fall over a 12-month period, quality of life (EuroQoL EQ-5D-5L) and health service utilisation at 4, 8 and 12 months. A nested qualitative study will examine the feasibility of providing the intervention and explore barriers, facilitators, workload implications and readiness to employ these interventions into routine practice. An economic evaluation will assess value for money in terms of cost per fall averted.ETHICS AND DISSEMINATION: This study protocol (including the original application and subsequent amendments) received a favourable ethical opinion from National Health Service West of Scotland REC 3. The trial results will be published in peer-reviewed journals and at conference presentations. A summary of the findings will be sent to participants.TRIAL REGISTRATION NUMBER: ISRCTN22202133; Pre-results." ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
what age can child be left home alone
[ "The National SAFEKIDS Campaign recommends that no child under the age of 12 be left at home alone. However, consider a child's age and maturity level. For example, if a child is extremely impulsive, it might be best to wait until he or she is older than 12.he following is a state by state listing of specific age restrictions on home alone children. This list was obtained from information on the web as well as contacts within certain state agencies. Where no information can be found, the age restriction is listed as unknown." ]
[ "Working parents should think about how a child will spend his or her time alone before deciding that children are old enough to stay home. A child may be thrilled with the newfound lack of structure, but staying home alone should not be an excuse to veg out for three months.", "Most authorities agree that leaving a 12 year old alone at home for an hour or two is acceptable, but they should not be responsible for other children. LEGAL Age (Updated) There are very few states in the U.S. with legal minimum ages, but many state agencies have published guidelines." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
Why, when making a bank deposit, does it take a few days for a check to clear yet direct cash deposit seems almost instantaneous?
[ " When you deposit a check at a bank or credit union, at that moment your bank does not know whether or not the check is good. There might be a stop payment on the check, or insufficient funds, or the account may be blocked, or half a dozen other possibilities. Your bank needs to contact the other bank first, and that can take a day or two (used to take longer, but nowadays the info is passed back and forth electronically instead of the physical checks themselves like they did ten years ago). \n \nSo, why does the bank usually make some of the money available right away? Well, that's because a federal law (Reg. CC) requires the bank to make some of the money available on a set schedule, even if the bank is not sure whether or not the check is good. Also, if your account is in good standing and you've been with the bank for a while, they will also make some money available right away based on you being a good credit risk. \n \nOkay, then, we live in the modern age, you ask, why can't the bank just contact the other bank at the time you are depositing your check to make sure it is good? Good question, but that's not really the way bank accounts really work. Banks and credit unions will \"batch\" all the transactions for the same business day, and then re-order the transactions based on a set of rules and policies. \n\nSo, for example, on Wednesday you have an ACH debit to your gas company at 9AM, a bill payment comes out of your account at 11AM, a check is presented against your account at 1PM, and you make a deposit at 3PM. At the end of the day, the bank reorders the transactions so the deposit counts first, then the other three transactions in order from smallest to largest. (FYI, that's just an example, other banks may have different ordering policies). \n \nBecause of this, if you contact the bank at a *specific* time of the day to check whether the account is in good standing, they can't really answer at that very moment - because the transactions could be reordered and there might be other transactions that happen after the call that may count first. \n \nThere's some more stuff (like the ability to place a stop payment *after* the check is presented, believe it or not, or force paying the item on the next day), but that's getting a bit more complicated." ]
[ " They send you a fake check, per various laws, the bank must give you the money in your account before the check clears. Most people think that the money showing up in the account means it cleared, that's not true, you don't really know for about 2-3 weeks, and it can be even longer. The scammers tell you that 3 days is enough.\n\nThey either overpay and ask for some cash back, or just take the item your selling. A few weeks later it bounces and the bank takes all the money back, you're left with minus any cash you gave them, and without whatever item you were selling.", " > When I paid for the early upgrade they got this payment almost instantly\n\nNo, they didn't. The money left your account instantly, but it took 3-5 working days for it to show up in their account.\n\nLikewise, when a refund was issued, the money left their account instantly, but takes 3-5 working days to show up in your account.\n\nThis all comes down to how banks operate. When money is transferred between accounts at different banks, it takes several days for the transaction to be verified before the money is released on the other side of the transaction.\n\nMost people just aren't aware of this, because most people aren't on the receiving end of this type of transaction very frequently." ]
Given a question, retrieve the highest voted answers on Reddit forum
eli5
what type of government is belgium
[ "Belgium's government is a Constitutional Monarchy and Parliamentary Democracy with 150 members in its legislature. Executive elections are every 4 years. The percent of seats in Belgian parliament held by women is 2.2 times higher than the global average, 17% ." ]
[ "Belgium's independence (1830 - present time) Revolution and independence. At the Congress of Vienna, in 1815, Belgium (The Southern Netherlands) and the Northern Netherlands (Holland) were united to form one State. This new state was ruled by King William I. Although his policy was beneficial to the Belgian bourgeoisie, there was protest.", "Share. Belgium is a small country in northwest Europe that joined Europe's race for colonies in the late 19th century. Many European countries wanted to colonize distant parts of the world in order to exploit the resources and civilize the inhabitants of these less-developed countries.Belgium gained independence in 1830.elgium wanted to grant independence over a thirty year span, but under pressure from the United Nations, and in order to avoid a long, deadly war, Belgium decided to grant independence to the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) on June 30, 1960." ]
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msmarco
which chromosome is huntington's disease found on
[ "Huntington disease-caused by mutations in the HTT gene. The inherited mutation that causes Huntington disease is known as a CAG trinucleotide repeat expansion. This mutation increases the size of the CAG segment in the HTT gene. People with Huntington disease have 36 to more than 120 CAG repeats.he inherited mutation that causes Huntington disease is known as a CAG trinucleotide repeat expansion. This mutation increases the size of the CAG segment in the HTT gene. People with Huntington disease have 36 to more than 120 CAG repeats." ]
[ "The HTT gene provides instructions for making a protein called huntingtin. Although the function of this protein is unknown, it appears to play an important role in nerve cells (neurons) in the brain. The HTT mutation that causes Huntington disease involves a DNA segment known as a CAG trinucleotide repeat.his segment is made up of a series of three DNA building blocks (cytosine, adenine, and guanine) that appear multiple times in a row. Normally, the CAG segment is repeated 10 to 35 times within the gene. In people with Huntington disease, the CAG segment is repeated 36 to more than 120 times.", "A signature feature of Huntington’s disease is the expansion of trinucleotide CAG repeats in the Huntingtin (HTT) gene. Although we’ve named a few, there are of course many more diseases associated with mutations that may have originated with an error in DNA replication." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
how to remove sulphur ggbs
[ "Ground granulated blast furnace slag (GGBS) amended soil has been found able to remove gaseous hydrogen sulfide (H2S). However, how H2S is removed by GGBS amended soil and why GGBS amended soil can be regenerated to remove H2S are not fully understood. In this study, laboratory column tests together with chemical analysis were conducted to investigate and reveal the mechanisms of H2S removal process in GGBS amended soil. Sulfur products formed on the surface of soil particle and in pore water were quantified. The test results reveal that the reaction between H2S and GGBS amended soil was a combined process of oxidation and acid-base reaction. The principal mechanism to remove H2S in GGBS amended soil was through the formation of acid volatile sulfide (AVS), elemental sulfur and thiosulfate. Soil pH value decreased gradually during regeneration and reuse cycles. It is found that the AVS plays a significant role in H2S removal during regeneration and reuse cycles. Adding GGBS increased the production of AVS and at the same time suppressed the formation of elemental sulfur. This mechanism is found to be more prominent when the soil water content is higher, leading to increased removal capacity." ]
[ "Mercury and its species are toxic and therefore strategies to immobilize them or to impede the formation of bioaccumulative MeHg are a hot topic of ongoing research. Biochar (BC) and sugar beet factory lime (SBFL) are suggested to have the potential to meet these goals. However, their ability to restrain the mobilization of total Hg (Hgt), methylmercury (MeHg), and ethylmercury (EtHg) or the formation of MeHg and EtHg has not been examined to date. Moreover, the effect of systematically altered redox conditions on the release dynamics of Hgt, MeHg, and EtHg in a contaminated floodplain soil as affected by these soil amendments has not been studied. Therefore, we investigated the impact of pre-defined redox conditions on the release dynamics of Hgt, MeHg, and EtHg in a contaminated floodplain soil (CS) and the soil amended with either BC (CS+BC) or SBFL (CS+SBFL). The mobilization of Hgt, MeHg, and EtHg was generally higher at low redox potential (EH) and decreased with increasing EH, irrespective of soil treatment. Both BC and SBFL diminished the release of Hgt from soil but not the methylation and ethylation of Hg. In CS+SBFL approximately half of Hgt was found in solution compared to CS. However, higher methylation efficiency (MeHg/Hgt ratio) was found in CS+SBFL counterbalancing this benefit. Abundances of specific phospholipid fatty acids suggest the presence of sulfate-reducing bacteria, which are considered as primary Hg methylators. The results indicate that both BC and SBFL have the potential to curtail the release of Hgt from inundated soils, while SBFL was more efficient. However, these amendments had no marked effect on the MeHg and EtHg concentrations. Therefore, further research should be conducted to identify soil additives that are capable to reduce the release and formation of these Hg species.", "In this study, the sorption of Hg(II), Cd(II), and Au(III) onto Bacillus subtilis biomass with an elevated concentration of sulfhydryl sites, induced by adding excess glucose to the growth medium (termed 'High Sulfhydryl Bacillus subtilis' or HSBS) was compared to that onto B. subtilis biomass with a low concentration of sulfhydryl sites (termed 'Low Sulfhydryl Bacillus subtilis' or LSBS) and to sorption onto a commercially available cation exchange resin. Our results show that HSBS exhibits sorption capacities for the three studied metals that are two to five times greater than the sorption capacities of LSBS for these metals. After blocking the bacterial cell envelope sulfhydryl sites using a qBBr treatment, the sorption of the metals onto HSBS was significantly inhibited, indicating that the enhanced sorption onto HSBS was mainly due to the elevated concentration of sulfhydryl sites on the bacteria. A direct comparison of the removal capacity of the HSBS and that of the cation exchange resin for the three metals demonstrates that HSBS, compared to this commercially available resin, exhibits superior sorption capacity and selectivity for the removal of Hg(II), Cd(II), and Au(III), especially in systems with dilute metal concentrations. These results suggest that bacterial sulfhydryl sites control the sorption behavior of these three metals, and therefore biomass with induced high concentrations of sulfhydryl sites represents a promising and low cost biosorbent for the effective removal and recovery of chalcophile heavy metals from aqueous media." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
Hi,My platelate count is around 6lacs n blood test shows iron deficiency. Dr advised me to take livogen 1 hr before lunch n dinner. Sometimes it happens I couldn t take before lunch. Can I take after lunch. How much time will it take to reduce the level of platelets.
[ "It takes about 2 months for hemoglobin to normalize after you have started iron replacement therapy. If you find it difficult to take Limoges before food, it is OK to take it after food. There is some reduction in absorption when you take it along with or after food, but is fine. You have to take iron tablets for total of 6 months." ]
[ "I can understand your concern. If you don't have any other symptoms then it can be due to platelets aggregates that happen due to sampling error. So you should repeat your platelet count after two days. If it becomes normal then nothing to worry. If it is low then you need further investigations.", "I understand your health concern, if I am your doctor I suggest you should start with oral iron therapy. Tab Liven Z is the good treatment tablet you should initially be started with two tablets than with the one once the hemoglobin increases above 12 gm. Continue the treatment for additional 3 months to replenish the load further. I will be happy to answer all your future concern. Thank you, ChatDoctorInfectious disease specialist. Wish you the best heal" ]
Given a question with context from online medical forums, retrieve responses that best answer the question
dialogue
definition of maim
[ "(mām) tr.v. maimed, maim·ing, maims. 1. To injure, disable, or disfigure, usually by depriving of the use of a limb or other part of the body. See Synonyms at mangle." ]
[ "Definition of per diem from the Collins English Dictionary Quotation marks (‘ ’) or (“ ”) Direct speech Direct speech gives the actual words that a speaker used.", "(rɛm; rem) noun Word forms: plural rem a basic unit used to measure the amount of biological damage caused by various types of ionizing radiation, equal to the dose that produces the same amount of damage in human tissue as one roentgen of X-rays or gamma rays (0.01 sievert)" ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
rai thyroid tumor targetable gene
[ "Objective Gene alterations leading to activation of the MAPK pathway are of interest for targeted therapy in patients with advanced radioactive iodine refractory (RAI-R) thyroid carcinoma. Due to technical reasons gene fusion analysis in RNA isolated from formalin-fixed tumor tissues has till now been limited. The objective of the present study was to identify targetable gene rearrangements in RNA isolated from formalin-fixed RAI-R thyroid carcinomas. Design Retrospective study in 132 patients with RAI-R thyroid carcinoma (59 papillary-, 24 follicular-, 35 H?rthle cell- and 14 anaplastic thyroid carcinoma). Methods Total nucleic acid (undivided DNA and RNA) was isolated from formalin-fixed tissue. Extensive gene fusion analysis was performed in all samples that tested negative for pathogenic BRAF, NRAS, HRAS and KRAS variants. Results Seven targetable gene fusions were identified in the remaining 60 samples without known DNA variants. This includes frequently reported gene fusions such as CCDC6/RET (PTC1), PRKAR1A/RET (PTC2) and ETV6/NTRK3 , and gene fusions that are less common in thyroid cancer (TPM3/NTRK1, EML4/ALK and EML4/NTRK3). Of note, most gene fusions were detected in papillary thyroid carcinoma and MAPK-associated alterations in H?rthle cell carcinomas are rare (2/35). Conclusion Targetable gene fusions were found in 12% of RAI-R thyroid carcinoma without DNA variants and can be effectively identified in formalin-fixed tissue. These gene fusions might provide a preclinical rationale to include specific kinase inhibitors in the treatment regimen for these patients. The latter intends to restore iodine transport and/or take advantage of the direct effect on tumor cell vitality once progressive disease is seen." ]
[ "The purpose of this study was to demonstrate the utility of a personalized risk stratification and radioactive iodine (RAI) selection protocol (PRSP) using post-operative stimulated thyroglobulin (Stim-Tg) and neck ultrasound in low- and intermediate-risk papillary thyroid carcinoma (PTC) patients. Patients with PTC tumors ?1 cm were prospectively followed after total thyroidectomy and selective therapeutic central compartment neck dissection. Low/intermediate risk was defined as PTC confined to the thyroid or central (level VI) lymph nodes. Stim-Tg and neck ultrasound were performed approximately 3 months after surgery and used to guide RAI selection. Patients with Stim-Tg < 1 g/L did not receive RAI, while those with Stim-Tg >5 g/L routinely did. Those with Stim-Tg 1-5 g/L received RAI on the basis of several clinical risk factors. Patients were followed for >6 years with serial neck ultrasound and basal/stimulated thyroglobulin. Among the 129 patients, 84 (65 %) had undetectable Stim-Tg after initial surgery, 40 (31 %) had Stim-Tg of 1-5 g/L, and 5 (4 %) had Stim-Tg >5 g/L. RAI was administered to 8 (20 %) patients with Stim-Tg 1-5 g/L and 5 (100 %) with Stim-Tg >5 g/L. Using this approach, RAI therapy was avoided in 17/20 (85 %) patients with tumors >4 cm, in 72/81 (89 %) patients older than 45 years, and in 6/9 (67 %) patients with central lymph node involvement. To date, 116 (90 %) patients in this cohort have not received RAI therapy with no evidence of residual/recurrent disease, whereas among the 13 patients who received RAI, 1 (8 %) had pathologic residual/recurrence disease. Using the proposed PRSP, RAI can be avoided in the majority of low/intermediate-risk PTC patients. Moreover, traditional risk factors considered to favor RAI treatment were not always concordant with the PRSP and may lead to overtreatment.", "The incidence of thyroid cancer has increased the past few decades, the most frequent type has been identified to be the papillary thyroid carcinoma (PTC). Following thyroidectomy, radioiodine ablation treatment on PTC is routinely performed. However, many patients do not benefit from radioiodine therapy. Therefore, novel targeted therapies to suppress tumor growth and improve radioiodine uptake are required. La ribonucleoprotein domain family member (LARP)7 is a member of the LARP family and functions as a potential suppressor of the progression of carcinoma. In the present study, the expression status of LARP7 in PTC tissues and cell lines was investigated, and the cell viability, proliferation and apoptotic rate, radioiodine uptake ability of PTC cells with overexpression of LARP7 invitro was determined. Expression levels of LARP7 were significantly downregulated in PTC tissues and cell lines. Overexpression of LARP7 inhibited the proliferation and increased the radioiodine uptake ability of PTC cells invitro and inhibited the tumor growth invivo. Furthermore, LARP7 overexpression inhibited the sonic hedgehog (SHH) signaling pathway and increased sodium/iodide symporter (NIS) expression. However, treatment with recombinant human SHH partially reduced radioiodine uptake ability and NIS expression induced by LARP7. In conclusion, LARP7 may act as a tumor suppressor in PTC by inhibiting the SHH signaling pathway and may be a promising therapeutic target in patients with PTC." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
what does mental flexibility do for rheumatoid arthritis
[ "OBJECTIVE: To examine whether mental flexibility moderates the relationship between illness representations of control and coping behaviour in individuals suffering from rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).DESIGN: Recently, diagnosed RA (N = 80) and SLE (N = 75) patients completed questionnaires about illness representations of personal and treatment control and four coping behaviours: instrumental coping, adherence to medical advice, palliative coping and wishful thinking. Mental flexibility was assessed with the Trail Making Test Part B (TMT-B), while visuomotor processing speed, as a confounder, was assessed with the Trail Making Test Part A (TMT-A). Moderated mediation models were tested within a bootstrapped multiple regression framework.RESULTS: TMT-A scores had no statistically significant moderation effects on the relation between representations and coping behaviour. Conversely, in those participants with SLE, TMT-B scores moderated the relation of personal control to wishful thinking and palliative coping, as well as the relation of treatment control to both wishful thinking and palliative coping. All significant effects were restricted to the SLE group.CONCLUSION: Interactions between neurocognitive factors and the process of illness adaptation may emerge early during the course of SLE. The present findings highlight the role of cognitive functioning as an integral part of the illness-related self-regulation mechanism." ]
[ "OBJECTIVE: Yoga may improve physical function and reduce disease symptoms in adults with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). However, little is known about how patients with RA are practicing yoga in the community. The objective of this qualitative study was to explore community yoga practice characteristics and thoughts about yoga practice for adults with RA.DESIGN: Participants completed a semi-structured telephone interview with open-ended questions. Thematic analysis was used to analyze interview transcripts.PARTICIPANTS: A convenience sample of 17 adults with rheumatologist-diagnosed RA who had participated in yoga within the past year were asked about the decision to start, continue, and stop yoga; the perceived benefits of yoga; components of yoga sessions; and general thoughts about yoga as it relates to RA.RESULTS: Although eight different styles of yoga were practiced, commonalities in yoga class components (such as stretching, strengthening, deep breathing, meditation, and positive messaging from the instructor) reveal examples of preferred types of yoga for patients with RA. Three main themes emerged, each with multiple subthemes: (1) motivators (physical fitness, influence of others, reduced price), (2) barriers (cost, symptom burden, class difficulty), and (3) benefits of yoga practice (mind-body, a tool for coping, pride/achievement, social, and \"yoga meets you where you are\").CONCLUSION: In this study, patients with RA described how yoga practice helped improve physical and psychosocial symptoms related to their disease. Yoga practice, a dynamic exercise, encompassing many different styles, can provide many benefits for adults with RA; however, yoga may not be beneficial for every adult with RA.", "OBJECTIVE: Negative body image is prevalent in women with rheumatoid arthritis and can affect other areas of well-being. Patients have expressed desire for body image to be addressed in treatment. Yet, it is not routinely addressed and no experimental intervention research has been conducted, until now. This randomized trial evaluated a brief online body image intervention for women with rheumatoid arthritis, with a focus on body functionality (everything the body is capable of doing) as the primary technique.METHOD: Women with rheumatoid arthritis and who wanted to feel better about their body (N = 84; Mage = 44.82) were randomized to the Expand Your Horizon intervention (comprising 3 writing exercises focusing on body functionality) or a waitlist control group. Primary outcomes concerned body image and secondary outcomes related to rheumatoid arthritis; these outcomes were assessed at pretest, posttest, and at 1-week and 1-month follow-up.RESULTS: Multilevel modeling analyses showed that, relative to control, participants in the intervention experienced improvements in various aspects of body image (functionality appreciation, body appreciation, body satisfaction, body-self alienation) and decreases in depression, with effects persisting at 1-week and 1-month follow-up. No intervention effects were found for body-self harmony, rheumatoid arthritis-specific disability, pain-related disability, and anxiety.CONCLUSIONS: Focusing on body functionality can improve body image and reduce depression in women with rheumatoid arthritis. The intervention technique is easy and affordable to deliver and could be a fruitful addition to extant treatments for rheumatoid arthritis. (PsycINFO Database Record" ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
what year did jayne mansfield die
[ "Jayne Mansfield. Jayne Mansfield died way too young on June 29, 1967 at the age of 34 in a gruesome car wreck, She was killed instantly but contrary to urban legend she was not decapitated. Jayne was called the poor man's Marilyn Monroe. She had enjoyed about a four year stint of popularity on Broadway and in Hollywood from 1954 until 1958." ]
[ "Born Vera Jayne Palmer in Bryn Mawr, Pennsylvania, Mansfield arrived in Hollywood as a young wife and mother (to daughter Jayne Marie) in 1954, determined to become an actress.", "Jayne Mansfield was born Vera Jayne Palmer on April 19, 1933, in Bryn Mawr, Pennsylvania. She was the only child of Herbert William Palmer (1904–1936), who was of German and English ancestry, and Vera (Jeffrey) Palmer (1903–2000), of English origin." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
which functional area of the cerebrum is responsible for memory
[ "These functional areas of the cerebral cortex integrate information sensory, motor and other information from other brain areas; thus enabling higher order mental processes such as language, thinking, problem solving, etc." ]
[ "Speech and language brain regions. The visual cortex is the part of the cerebral cortex that is responsible for processing visual information. The auditory cortex in the cerebral cortex processes auditory information and as part of the sensory system for hearing, performs both basic and higher hearing functions.", "Cerebral cortex contains three functional areas: Motor areas - control voluntary motor function. Sensory areas - provide for conscious awareness of sensation. Association areas - integrate all other information. Each hemisphere is concerned with the sensory and motor functions of the opposite side of the body." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
Denver but i don't like the Broncos there's
[ "Denver, but I am not a fan of the Bronco's." ]
[ "Denver, and I am the biggest fan of the Broncos." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
is staphylococcin in chemotherapy
[ "OBJECTIVE: Breast cancer is the most frequently diagnosed cancer among women in over 75% of countries worldwide accounting for one in four of all cancers in women. Highly agglutinative staphylococcin (HAS), a mixture of Staphylococcus aureus culture filtrates, has been used clinically as an immunomodifier in the treatment of a number of tumors for many years. The aim of present study is to evaluate the therapeutic effects and safety of treating advanced breast cancer patients with a combined therapy of HAS and vinorelbine-based chemotherapy compared to patients who receive standard chemotherapy alone.PATIENTS AND METHODS: A total of 62 patients with advanced breast cancer were divided into 2 study groups. One group received intravenous injections of HAS and vinorelbine-based chemotherapy (n=31) compared to a control group assigned to receive vinorelbine-based standard chemotherapy (n=31).RESULTS: Patients with advanced breast cancer who received HAS combined therapy showed a significantly higher overall response rate (Complete Response + Partial Response) of 67.7% compared with patients who received systemic chemotherapy alone (51.6%; p < 0.05). Overall, the occurrence of adverse effects was not significantly different between study groups. HAS was able to remedy the immunosuppressing effects of standard chemotherapy in these patients.CONCLUSIONS: Treatment of advanced breast cancer with of HAS - in combination with vinorelbine-based chemotherapy - was generally more effective and just as safe compared to treatment with vinorelbine-based standard chemotherapy alone." ]
[ "The purpose of this study was to improve the physicochemical and biological properties of chloramphenicol (CP) by multicomponent complexation with -cyclodextrin (-CD) and N-acetylcysteine (NAC). The present work describes the ability of solid multicomponent complex (MC) to decrease biomass and cellular activity of Staphylococcus by crystal violet and XTT assay, and leukocyte toxicity, measuring the increase of reactive oxygen species by chemiluminescence, and using 123-dihydrorhodamine. In addition, MC was prepared by the freeze-drying or physical mixture methods, and then characterized by scanning electron microscopy and powder X-ray diffraction. Nuclear magnetic resonance and phase solubility studies provided information at the molecular level on the structure of the MC and its association binding constants, respectively. The results obtained allowed us to conclude that MC formation is an effective pharmaceutical strategy that can reduce CP toxicity against leukocytes, while enhancing its solubility and antibiofilm activity.", "The success of Staphylococcus aureus, as both a human and animal pathogen, stems from its ability to rapidly adapt to a wide spectrum of environmental conditions. Two-component systems (TCSs) play a crucial role in this process. Here, we describe a novel staphylococcal virulence factor, SpdC, an Abi-domain protein, involved in signal sensing and/or transduction. We have uncovered a functional link between the WalKR essential TCS and the SpdC Abi membrane protein. Expression of spdC is positively regulated by the WalKR system and, in turn, SpdC negatively controls WalKR regulon genes, effectively constituting a negative feedback loop. The WalKR system is mainly involved in controlling cell wall metabolism through regulation of autolysin production. We have shown that SpdC inhibits the WalKR-dependent synthesis of four peptidoglycan hydrolases, SceD, SsaA, LytM and AtlA, as well as impacting S. aureus resistance towards lysostaphin and cell wall antibiotics such as oxacillin and tunicamycin. We have also shown that SpdC is required for S. aureus biofilm formation and virulence in a murine septicemia model. Using protein-protein interactions in E. coli as well as subcellular localization in S. aureus, we showed that SpdC and the WalK kinase are both localized at the division septum and that the two proteins interact. In addition to WalK, our results indicate that SpdC also interacts with nine other S. aureus histidine kinases, suggesting that this membrane protein may act as a global regulator of TCS activity. Indeed, using RNA-Seq analysis, we showed that SpdC controls the expression of approximately one hundred genes in S. aureus, many of which belong to TCS regulons." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
how is ultrasound of vein done
[ "You also may need an ultrasound test to see if the valves in your veins are functioning normally or if there's any evidence of a blood clot. In this noninvasive test, a technician runs a small hand-held device (transducer), about the size of a bar of soap, against your skin over the area of your body being examined." ]
[ "A vein mapping examination is used to assist the physician in determining. if the veins can be used as a bypass. Examples of this include open heart. surgery, bypass grafts in the legs and the creation of a fistula for dialysis. How your exam is performed. • You will be asked a brief history relating to the exam.", "1 Echocardiogram with bubble study: A bubble echocardiogram is the same procedure as an echocardiogram, except an IV is placed in the patient's arm. 2 During certain portions of the imaging, saline with bubbles is injected into the vein." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
what to do for pap smear
[ "The Pap test is done during a pelvic exam. A doctor uses a device called a speculum to widen the opening of the vagina so that the cervix and vagina can be examined. A plastic spatula and small brush are used to collect cells from the cervix.After the cells are taken, they are placed into a solution.he Pap test is done during a pelvic exam. A doctor uses a device called a speculum to widen the opening of the vagina so that the cervix and vagina can be examined. A plastic spatula and small brush are used to collect cells from the cervix. After the cells are taken, they are placed into a solution." ]
[ "One of these tests is a colposcopy examination. During a colposcopy, the doctor uses a speculum to hold open the vaginal walls and then uses a magnifying device (called a colposcope) to examine the vagina and cervix for problems. 4 If the colposcopy is inconclusive, the doctor will generally perform a cervical biopsy.", "An abnormal Pap smear means that the cells of your cervix have shown some slightly abnormal changes. Some abnormal cells are more likely than others to be cancerous. If your Pap smear is abnormal, ask your doctor which of the following changes you have." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
Does silencing of int6 gene restore function of the ischaemic hindlimb in a rat model of peripheral arterial disease?
[ "Intermittent claudication (IC) is one of the serious symptoms of peripheral arterial disease (PAD) and is characterized by pain in the legs or buttocks that worsens with exercise and subsides with rest. The concept of 'therapeutic angiogenesis' for PAD has been widely proposed; however, the methodology, including cell transplantation, is still unclear. In this study, we examined the clinical efficacy of silencing the int6 gene, which encodes a protein that stabilizes hypoxia-inducible factor (HIF)-2α, on angiogenesis in PAD. An animal model for IC was established in Sprague-Dawley rats by external iliac artery ligation and evaluated by quantitative analysis of gait disturbance. Next, we explored the therapeutic effects of int6 siRNA injected into the adductor magnus muscle on IC. Recovery of hindlimb function occurred in the early stages after int6 siRNA injection. The number of blood vessels showed an obvious increase in the int6 siRNA-treated muscles. Angiography revealed the recovery of peripheral circulation at the affected sites. Early up-regulation of HIF-2α and other angiogenic factors, including basic fibroblast growth factor and hepatocyte growth factor, was also apparent in the int6 siRNA-treated sites. We also confirmed the up-regulation of HIF-2α and its translocation to the nucleus in the int6 siRNA-injected muscle" ]
[ "Hind limb ischemia-reperfusion (I/R) injury increases gut permeability, and resultant endotoxemia is associated with an amplified systemic inflammatory response syndrome leading to multiple organ dysfunction syndrome. We studied the potential role of recombinant bactericidal/permeability-increasing protein (rBPI(21) ), a novel antiendotoxin therapy, in modulating endotoxin-enhanced systemic inflammatory response syndrome in hind limb I/R injury. In this prospective, randomized, controlled, experimental animal study, 48 male Wistar rats, weighing 300 to 350 g, were randomized to a control group (sham) and five groups undergoing 3 hours bilateral hind limb ischemia with 2 hours reperfusion (I/R) (n = 8 per group). The control and untreated I/R groups received thaumatin, a control-protein preparation, at 2 mg/kg. Treatment groups were administered rBPI(21) intravenously at 1, 2, or 4 mg/kg body weight at the beginning of reperfusion; an additional group was administered rBPI(21) intravenously at 2 mg/kg after 1 hour of reperfusion. Plasma interleukin-6 concentration was estimated by bioassay as a measure of systemic inflammation. Plasma endotoxin concentration was determined by use of an amebocyte lysate chromogenic assay. Crossreactive immunoglobulin G and M antibodies to the highly conserved inner core region of endotoxin were measured by use of an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay. The lung tissue wet-to-dry weight ratio and myeloperoxidase concentration were used as markers of edema and neutrophil sequestration, respectively", "Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is a common disease accounting for about 12% of the adult population, and causes significant morbidity and mortality. Therapeutic angiogenesis using angiogenic factors has been considered to be a potential treatment option for PAD patients. In this study, we assessed the potential of a new angiogenic factor AGGF1 for therapeutic angiogenesis in a critical limb ischemia model in mice for PAD. We generated a unilateral hindlimb ischemia model in mice by ligation of the right common iliac artery and femoral artery. Ischemic mice with intrasmuscular administration of DNA for an expression plasmid for human AGGF1 (AGGF1 group) resulted in increased expression of both AGGF1 mRNA and protein after the administration compared with control mice with injection of the empty vector (control group). Color PW Doppler echocardiography showed that the blood flow in ischemic hindlimbs was significantly increased in the AGGF1 group compared to control mice at time points of 7, 14, and 28 days after DNA administration (n = 9/group, P = 0.049, 0.001, and 0.001, respectively). Increased blood flow in the AGGF1 group was correlated to increased density of CD31-positive vessels and decreased necrosis in muscle tissues injected with AGGF1 DNA compared with the control tissue injected with the empty vector. Ambulatory impairment was significantly reduced in the AGGF1 group compared to the control group (P = 0.004). The effect of AGGF1 was dose-dependent. At day 28 after gene transfer, AGGF1 was significantly better in increasing blood flow than FGF-2 (P = 0.034), although no difference was found for tissue necrosis and ambulatory impairment" ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
changed you know my thinking on this i don't know i really don't know
[ "my thoughts on this matter have changed, i really don't know" ]
[ "my thoughts about this are the same as they've always been" ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
Does the methylenetetrahydrofolate reductase C677T polymorphism associate with susceptibility to abdominal aortic aneurysm?
[ "To test whether the T variant of the C677T polymorphism in the gene for 5,10-methylenetetrahydrofolate reductase (MTHFR) would associate with three distinct forms of vascular disease, abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA), coronary artery disease (CAD) and peripheral vascular disease (PVD). Increases in homocysteine induce elastolytic activity in the arterial wall, a condition which may favour vascular pathogenesis including aneurysm formation. Homozygosity of the common T variant of the C677T polymorphism in the gene for MTHFR has been shown to associate with increased levels of homocysteine. Thus, this functional polymorphism may lead to an increased propensity to develop cardiovascular disease and, in particular, AAA. An association study was conducted across 1207 subjects; 428 patients with AAA, 271 CAD patients, 226 PVD patients and 282 controls being genotyped for the C667T variants of MTHFR. There were no significant differences in the frequency of the MTHFR C677T variant between any of the groups examined. AAA patients who were homozygotes for the 677T allele did, however, appear to have significantly larger aneurysms than C allele carriers" ]
[ "Many studies have reported that MTHFR C677T (rs 1801133) polymorphism is associated with the risk of alcohol dependence(AD). However, there are conflicting results regarding this relationship. In this article, we performed a meta-analysis of case-control studies to assess synthetically the influence of MTHFR C677T polymorphism on the risk of AD. All relevant studies were searched from Cochrane Library, EmBase, PubMed, and Web of science. 7 studies were included to evaluate the strength of associations between the MTHFR C677T polymorphism and AD by pooled odds ratios (ORs) and 95% confidence intervals (CIs). The present meta-analysis evaluated a total of 1066 AD patients and 1049 controls and showed that MTHFR C677T polymorphism was not significantly associated with AD susceptibility in all five genetic models (Allelic, T vs C: OR = 1.04,95% CI: 0.83-1.31, P = 0.73; Homozygous, TT vs CC: OR = 0.98,95% CI: 0.57-1.68, P = 0.94; Heterozygous, TT vs CT: OR = 0.87,95% CI: 0.64-1.19, P = 0.39; Dominant, TT + CT vs CC: OR = 1.12,95% CI: 0.92-1.35, P = 0.26; Recessive, TT vs CT + CC: OR = 0.93,95% CI: 0.58-1.47, P = 0.74). On subgroup analysis by ethnicity, there was still insignificant association was detected in the Caucasians and Asians under the five genetic models respectively. In conclusion, the present data revealed that MTHFR C677T polymorphism may not be associated with AD susceptibility. Further well designed studies in a larger population and biological functional analysis of MTHFR are needed to elucidate the role of MTHFR C677T Gene polymorphism in AD.", "The 677C>T mutation in the methylenetetrahydrofolate reductase (MTHFR) gene is an important cause of mild hyperhomocysteinaemia." ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
what medication is used for covid 19
[ "The COVID‐19 outbreak has disrupted global health care networks and caused thousands of deaths and an international economic downturn. Multiple drugs are being used on patients with COVID‐19 based on theoretical and in vitro therapeutic targets. Several of these therapies have been studied, but many have limited evidence behind their use, and clinical trials to evaluate their efficacy are either ongoing or have not yet begun. This review summarizes the existing evidence for medications currently under investigation for treatment of COVID‐19, including remdesivir, chloroquine/hydroxychlorquine, convalescent plasma, lopinavir/ritonavir, IL‐6 inhibitors, corticosteroids, and angiotensin‐converting enzyme inhibitors." ]
[ "WHAT IS KNOWN AND OBJECTIVE: Understanding investigational medications is important. Many older drugs are being investigated for repurposing against COVID-19. We comment on various drugs currently undergoing such trials to optimize their safe use. COMMENT: We describe medications used during early COVID-19 outbreaks in South Korea, focusing on practice aspects including the method of drug administration, drug formulation, patient-monitoring for adverse reactions and drug interactions informed by our experience during the 2015 outbreak of Middle East respiratory syndrome (MERS). We comment on hydroxychloroquine, chloroquine, lopinavir/ritonavir with zinc supplement, remdesivir, tocilizumab, ciclesonide, niclosamide and high-dose intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG). WHAT IS NEW AND CONCLUSION: Effective therapies are urgently needed to manage COVID-19, and existing drugs such as antivirals and antimalarials are under investigation for repurposing to meet this need. This process requires up-to-date drug information to ensure optimum use, particularly safety and efficacy profiles of the medications, until convincing evidence is reported.", "Chloroquine (CQ) and hydroxychloroquine (HCQ) were both employed in the treatment of COVID‐19 in China. Based on unpublished anecdotal positive results in China, CQ is now implemented in China and the Netherlands in moderate to severe COVID‐19." ]
Given a query on COVID-19, retrieve documents that answer the query
synthetic
People discriminate even when it's against their own self-interest.
[ "People will always have prejudices no matter what." ]
[ "There is never a time when people ever discriminate others." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
why is it necessary to have a nurse phone number to do an endoscopy
[ "BACKGROUND AND AIMS: Preventing missed appointments, or \"no-shows,\" is an important target in improving efficient patient care and lowering costs in gastrointestinal endoscopy practices. We aimed to investigate whether a nurse telephone call would reduce no-show rates for endoscopic appointments, and to determine if hiring and maintaining a nurse dedicated to pre-endoscopy phone calls is economically advantageous. Our secondary aim was to identify predictors of no-shows to endoscopy appointments.METHODS: We hired and trained a full-time licensed nurse to make a telephone call to patients 7 days before their scheduled upper endoscopy or colonoscopy. We compared this intervention with a previous reminder system involving mailed reminders. The effect of the intervention and impact of other predictors of no-shows were analyzed in 2 similar preintervention and postintervention patient cohorts. A mixed effects logistic regression model was used to estimate the association of the odds of being a no-show to the scheduled appointment and the characteristics of the patient and visit. An analysis of costs was performed that included the startup and maintenance costs of the intervention.RESULTS: We found that a nurse phone call was associated with a 33% reduction in the odds of a no-show visit (odds ratio, 0.67; 95% confidence interval, 0.50-0.91), adjusting for gender, age, partnered status, insurer type, distance from the endoscopy center, and visit type. The recovered reimbursement during the study period was $48,765, with net savings of $16,190 when accounting for the maintenance costs of the intervention; this resulted in a net revenue per annum of $43,173.CONCLUSIONS: We found that endoscopy practices may increase revenue, improve scheduling efficiency, and maximize resource utilization by hiring a nurse to reduce no-shows. Predictors of no-shows to endoscopy included unpartnered or single patients, commercial or managed care, being scheduled for colonoscopy as opposed to upper endoscopy, and being scheduled for a screening or surveillance colonoscopy." ]
[ "Nuclear medicine imaging is not generally well understood by nurses who work outside this area. Consequently, nurses can find themselves unable to answer patients' questions about nuclear medicine imaging procedures or give them proper information before they attend for a test. This article aims to explain what is involved in some common diagnostic nuclear medicine imaging procedures so that nurses are able to discuss this with patients. It also addresses some common issues about radiation protection that nurses might encounter in their usual working routine. The article includes links to videos showing some typical nuclear medicine imaging procedures from a patient's point of view and links to an e-Learning for Healthcare online resource that provides detailed information for nurses.", "Unison Scotland has launched an app that allows nurses and midwifes to register concerns about care in Scotland's hospitals." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
what is malrotation of the femoral joint
[ "BACKGROUND: Malrotation of the femur is a frequent complication in the management of a diaphyseal fracture. It is often responsible for pain and adverse functional results. Among these complications, contact stress effects on the patellofemoral joint are recognized as predictive factors of impaired results. The purpose of this study was to analyze the effect of malrotation on stress distribution on the patellofemoral joint, using radiological measurement and three-dimensional finite element models.METHODS: Functional analysis of the patellofemoral joint was evaluated in eight knee pairs from patients with unilateral femoral fractures and subsequent femoral malrotation. A computed tomography-based protocol allowed patellofemoral joint analysis. A finite element model of the healthy (contralateral) knee was then created from 3D reconstruction at 30 flexion. In a finite element model, incremental rotational malalignment was simulated to observe changes in stress distribution on the patellar surface.RESULTS: Femoral malrotation was associated with anomalies of patellofemoral joint rotational alignment. Internal rotation resulted in increased stress on the lateral side of the patella, and external rotation increased inferior medial side stress.CONCLUSIONS: Rotational disorders of the distal femur resulted in increased stress on the patellofemoral joint and alignment changes. Malrotation in internal and external rotation might cause patellofemoral pain syndrome from rotations <10. Care should be taken especially for internal malrotation in the management of femoral shaft fracture." ]
[ "Malposition of the acetabular and femoral component has long been recognized as an important cause of dislocation after total hip replacement (THR) surgeries. In order to help surgeons improve the positioning accuracy of the components, a visual-aided system for THR surgeries that could estimate orientation and depth of femoral component is proposed. The sensors are fixed inside the femoral prosthesis trial and checkerboard patterns are printed on the internal surface of the acetabular prosthesis trial. An extended Kalman filter is designed to fuse the data from inertial sensors and the magnetometer orientation estimation. A novel image processing algorithm for depth estimation is developed. The algorithms have been evaluated under the simulation with rotation quaternion and translation vector and the experimental results shows that the root mean square error (RMSE) of the orientation estimation is less then 0.05 degree and the RMSE for depth estimation is 1mm. Finally, the femoral head is displayed in 3D graphics in real time to help surgeons with the component positioning.", "BACKGROUND: Intestinal malrotation is a congenital anomaly of the intestinal rotation and fixation, and usually occurs in the neonatal age.OBJECTIVE: Description of a clinical case associated with acute occlusive symptoms.CLINICAL CASE: A case of intestinal malrotation is presented in a previously asymptomatic woman of 46 years old with an intestinal obstruction, with radiology and surgical findings showing an absence of intestinal rotation.CONCLUSIONS: Intestinal malrotation in adults is often asymptomatic, and is diagnosed as a casual finding during a radiological examination performed for other reasons. Infrequently, it can be diagnosed in adults, associated with an acute abdomen." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
what is the role of b7-h4 in cholangiocarcinoma
[ "B7-H4, as a member of the costimulatory B7 family, serves a critical role in the negative regulation of T cell-mediated antitumor immune responses. Cholangiocarcinoma (CCA) has a poor prognosis due its invasiveness and associated metastasis. The present study investigated the expression of B7-H4 in patients with CCA and its association with patient prognosis. The correlation between B7-H4 expression and CD4+ and CD8+ tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes was also investigated. The results demonstrated that high B7-H4 expression was detected in cancer tissues (54/110; 49.1%) compared with that noted in chronic inflammatory bile duct tissues (4/19; 21.1%). Furthermore, all 8biliary adenoma samples showed negative staining. The expression of B7-H4 was significantly associated with adverse clinical and pathological features including histologic grade (P<0.001), tumor status (P=0.025), lymph node metastasis (P=0.035) and 6th Union for International Cancer Control stage (P=0.019). Kaplan‑Meier survival analysis and Cox regression analysis indicated that aberrant B7-H4 expression was a significant independent predictor of poor overall survival and early recurrence. In addition, the present study demonstrated that B7-H4 expression in tumor cells was negatively correlated with the density of CD8+Tcells in the tumor stroma. Co-culture assays indicated that knockdown of B7-H4 increased CD8+ T cell-mediated cytotoxicity invitro, suggesting that the expression of B7-H4 may serve a role in shielding tumors from immune surveillance by suppression of tumor-infiltrating CD8+Tlymphocytes in CCA. In conclusion, the present study showed that aberrant expression of B7-H4 was correlated with poorer prognosis and suppressed CD8+ tumor‑infiltrating lymphocytes in CCA." ]
[ "Bone morphogenetic protein-4 (BMP4) plays a crucial role in carcinogenesis, but the effects and signaling mechanisms of BMP4 in hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) are not clearly clarified. The present study aimed to identify the roles of BMP4 in the proliferation of human HCC. In this study, BMP4 expression and its correlation with clinicopathological characteristics and the survival of HCC patients were analyzed in two independent cohorts consisting of 310 subjects. Functional analysis of BMP4 on HCC proliferation was performed in vitro and in vivo in human HCC specimens, HCC cells of Bel-7402 and HCCLM3, and subcutaneous tumor model. The downstream signaling targets of BMP4 in HCC were investigated by PCR Array and Western blot. The results indicated that BMP4 expression was significantly increased in HCC tissues and closely related with unfavorable prognosis of HCC. BMP4 treatment increased cell proliferation and promoted G1/S cell cycle progression. In vivo subcutaneous tumor of nude mice model supported that BMP4 overexpression promoted the growth of HCC cells and BMP4 knockdown hold the opposite trend. Id2 was directly upregulated by BMP4, resulting in the mediated expression of cell cycle regulatory protein of CDKN1B. Blocking of Id2 attenuated BMP4-induced proliferation, confirming the important roles of Id2 in BMP4-mediated proliferation in HCC. So BMP4 is overexpressed in HCC tissues and acts as a poor prognostic factor of HCC patients. BMP4-induced ID2/CDKN1B signaling facilitates proliferation of HCC.", "B7 homologue 6 (B7-H6) is a new member of the B7family molecules and is selectively expressed on tumor cells, especially in hematologic malignancies. However, the role of B7-H6 in lymphoma progression and chemosensitivity remains unclear. We determined the effects of downregulating B7-H6 expression on tumorigenesis and chemosensitivity in B-cell lymphoma. Stable B7-H6 knockdown in CA46 cells was established with a lentiviral system. The expression of mRNA was measured by PCR while protein expression was detected by western blotting and flow cytometry. Cell viability, apoptosis and cell cycle distribution were analyzed using CCK-8, colony formation and flow cytometry assays, respectively. Cell migration and invasion were determined using the Transwell chamber assay. B7-H6 was widely expressed in B-cell lymphomas. Knockdown of B7-H6 inhibited cell proliferation, colony formation and migration and invasion of lymphoma cells. After B7-H6 silencing, CA46 cells were arrested in G0/G1 phase. Moreover, the silencing of B7-H6 increased cell apoptosis and sensitivity to vincristine and dexamethasone. Investigation of expression of downstream targets of STAT3 supported a theory in which B7-H6 knockdown may confer an antitumor effect via abrogation of the STAT3 pathway. This study demonstrates that B7-H6 plays an important role in the pathogenesis and chemosensitivity of lymphoma. B7-H6 is therefore a potential clinical biomarker and therapeutic target in B-cell lymphomas." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
what does BRANDT mean
[ "Brandt /brandt/ [1 syll.] as a name for boys. Brandt's name origins are Old Norse and Old English, and the name Brandt means sword; fiery torch, beacon.Brandt is an alternate spelling of Brand (Old Norse, Old English). Brandt is also a variant of Brant (Old English). Kreatif forms: Bibrandt, Brandtbi, Brandtou.randt /brandt/ [1 syll.] as a name for boys. Brandt's name origins are Old Norse and Old English, and the name Brandt means sword; fiery torch, beacon." ]
[ "The different meanings of the name Klaus are: The meaning of the name “Klaus” is different in several languages, countries and cultures and has more than one possibly same or different meanings available. .adslot_1 { width: 336px; height: 280px; } @media (max-width:350px) { .adslot_1 { width: 300px; height: 250px; } }.t has same or different meanings in other countries and languages. The different meanings of the name Klaus are: 1 Greek meaning: Victory of the people. 2 German meaning: Leader in Victory, Pet form of Nikolaus.", "As an adjective it means sour, but it also means acidic (like a citrus fruit or acid rain). Aswell there is the expression to be sauer, which means to be cross or annoyed. Note: Sauerstoff means Oxygen. 3 people found this useful." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
how many tenses exist in french
[ "There are 17 tenses in Spanish (as in French) with two options in two of the tenses. On top of that, and as opposed to English, each tense has six different conjugations, according to the subject pronoun -- that's why we don't have to use these pronouns if we don't want to." ]
[ "With a little practice and a little mindfulness, using the French subjunctive can actually be painless. The vast majority of the use of the French subjunctive in spoken French is in the present tense, and so that is what this article will be focusing on.", "1 In the nous and vous forms, the subjunctive form is identical to the imperfect for the vast majority of verbs; 2 Other forms sound identical to the third person plural of the present tense for the vast majority of verbs, but are spelled with-e(s) in the singular;" ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
They had carefully burnt away a portion of the thick, stiff covering and it was obvious that the height from which they were suspended was a killing one.
[ "They were at a very high height." ]
[ "They would not die if they had fallen." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
what is probability model for tlpd
[ "AIMS: To develop a prediction model for tooth loss due to periodontal disease (TLPD) in patients following periodontal maintenance (PM), and assess its performance using a multicentre approach.MATERIAL AND METHODS: A multilevel analysis of eleven predictors of TLPD in 500 patients following PM was carried out to calculate the probability of TLPD. This algorithm was applied to three different TLPD samples (369 teeth) gathered retrospectively by nine periodontist, associating several intervals of probability with the corresponding survival time, based on significant differences in the mean survival time. The reproducibility of these associations was assessed in each sample (One-way ANOVA and pairwise comparison with Bonferroni corrections).RESULTS: The model presented high specificity and moderate sensitivity, with optimal calibration and discrimination measurements. Seven intervals of probability were associated with seven survival time and these associations contained close to 80% of the cases: the probability predicted the survival time at this percentage. The model performed well in the three samples, as the mean survival time of each association were significantly different within each sample, while no significant differences between the samples were found in pairwise comparisons of means.CONCLUSIONS: This model might be useful for predicting survival time in different TLPD samples." ]
[ "An experimental design approach is presented for individualized therapy in the special case where the prior information is specified by a nonparametric (NP) population model. Here, a NP model refers to a discrete probability model characterized by a finite set of support points and their associated weights. An important question arises as to how to best design experiments for this type of model. Many experimental design methods are based on Fisher information or other approaches originally developed for parametric models. While such approaches have been used with some success across various applications, it is interesting to note that they largely fail to address the fundamentally discrete nature of the NP model. Specifically, the problem of identifying an individual from a NP prior is more naturally treated as a problem of classification, i.e., to find a support point that best matches the patient's behavior. This paper studies the discrete nature of the NP experiment design problem from a classification point of view. Several new insights are provided including the use of Bayes Risk as an information measure, and new alternative methods for experiment design. One particular method, denoted as MMopt (multiple-model optimal), will be examined in detail and shown to require minimal computation while having distinct advantages compared to existing approaches. Several simulated examples, including a case study involving oral voriconazole in children, are given to demonstrate the usefulness of MMopt in pharmacokinetics applications.", "We introduce stochasticity into the deterministic differential equation model for the spread of HIV amongst people who inject drugs (PWIDs) studied by Greenhalgh and Hay (1997). This was based on the original model constructed by Kaplan (1989) which analyses the behaviour of HIV/AIDS amongst a population of PWIDs. We derive a stochastic differential equation (SDE) for the fraction of PWIDs who are infected with HIV at time. The stochasticity is introduced using the well-known standard technique of parameter perturbation. We first prove that the resulting SDE for the fraction of infected PWIDs has a unique solution in (0, 1) provided that some infected PWIDs are initially present and next construct the conditions required for extinction and persistence. Furthermore, we show that there exists a stationary distribution for the persistence case. Simulations using realistic parameter values are then constructed to illustrate and support our theoretical results. Our results provide new insight into the spread of HIV amongst PWIDs. The results show that the introduction of stochastic noise into a model for the spread of HIV amongst PWIDs can cause the disease to die out in scenarios where deterministic models predict disease persistence." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
why is kcl a strong electrolyte
[ "Potassium chloride, KCl, is an electrolyte, because in water it dissociates into solvated potassium and chloride ions." ]
[ "Weak acids dissociate partially, while strong acids dissociate completely in water. One of the most notable strong acids is hydrochloric acid (HCl or hydrogen chloride). Let's discuss HCl and its properties as a strong acid. Chemical Properties of HCl. Hydrochloric acid is a strong acid and is made of hydrogen and chlorine atoms. Hydrogen and chlorine atoms participate in covalent bonding, which means that hydrogen will share a pair of electrons with chlorine.", "Elson Haas M. MD ©. Potassium is a very significant body mineral, important to both cellular and electrical function. It is one of the main blood minerals called electrolytes (the others are sodium and chloride), which means it carries a tiny electrical charge (potential).agnesium helps maintain the potassium in the cells, but the sodium and potassium balance is as finely tuned as those of calcium and phosphorus or calcium and magnesium. Research has found that a high-sodium diet with low potassium intake influences vascular volume and tends to elevate the blood pressure." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
why is sandstone used for things?
[ "Interesting Sandstone Facts: Sandstone is found in a variety of places depending on its type. Brownstone, a type of sandstone, was used to build homes in certain areas after the Civil War. Sandstone is a type of sedimentary rock. Sandstone has been used to make housewares since prehistoric time. Sandstone is a versatile building structure and has been used to construct buildings, statues, and fountains. Sandstone is popular in constructing buildings because it is resistant to weathering. Sandstone can form under the sea or on land. It is common to find natural gas in sandstone because sandstone is porous and traps it. Grindstone wheels, which are used for sharpening, are made of sandstone. Sandstone can be categorized into three groups: arkosic, quartzose, and argillaceous." ]
[ "49,340 Contributions. Sandstone is a clastic sedimentary rock that is made up of cemented sand grains (usually quartz) and has a gritty feel to it. this is the term uesed when sand has be … en compacted together under such force so as to be turned into a solid mass rather than individual grains of sand.it looks weird.andstone is a type of rock composed on sand sized particles of sand and minerals. Sandstone is typically found in the desert, or dry climates.", "Sandstone, simply put, is sand cemented together into rock - this is easy to tell just by looking closely at a specimen. But beyond that simple definition lies an interesting makeup of sediment, matrix and cement that can (with investigation) reveal a great deal of valuable geologic information." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
is zombie cafe on pc?
[ " Zombie Café is a Free to play, Time-Management, and Single-player video game developed and published by Beeline Interactive Inc. ... While playing the game, the player can control his zombie workers to steal the secret recipes of rival restaurants." ]
[ " Generally speaking, the titles that launched on PC as Epic Games Store exclusives did so on a limited-time basis. ... Provided that was the case with World War Z, that would have placed its Steam release date on or around April 16, 2020, as the title launched on the Epic Games Store on the same day in 2019.", " Based on its hourly rate, HG TNC-Predator Café deviates from the usual P15- to P30-per-hour rate and four-hour to 10-hour gaming promos offered by standard computer shops in the country." ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant passages that answer the question
gooaq
can an intraneural injection cause nerve damage
[ "BACKGROUND & OBJECTIVES: Most anesthesiologists use the injection of a test dose of local anesthetic in order to evaluate the final needle tip position. Thus, the intraneural injection of a full dose can be avoided. The aim of this study was to analyze whether an intraneural injection of a test dose of bupivacaine could trigger histological changes.METHODS: Intraneural injections under direct vision were performed in 40 brachial plexus nerves in seven anesthetized pigs. Tibial nerves served as positive and negative controls. Two milliliter of bupivacaine 0.5% was injected in three nerves on the left brachial plexus. For control of local anesthetic's toxicity Ringer's solution was applied intraneurally on the right side. After maintaining 48 h of general anesthesia, the nerves were resected. The specimens were processed for histological examination and assessed for inflammation (hematoxylin and eosin stain, CD68-immunohistochemistry) and myelin damage (Kluver-Barrera stain). The degree of nerve injury was rated on a scale from 0 (no injury) to 4 (severe injury).RESULTS: Statistical analysis showed no significant differences between the bupivacaine group [median (interquartile range) 1 (1-1.5)] and the Ringer's solution group [1 (0.5-2) P = 0.772]. Mild myelin alteration was found in 12.5% of all specimens following intraneural injection, irrespective of the applied substance.CONCLUSIONS: \"In our experimental study, intraneural injection of 2 ml of bupivacaine or Ringer's solution showed comparable mild inflammation. Nevertheless, inflammation can only be prevented by strictly avoiding nerve perforation followed by intraneural injection, as mechanical nerve perforation is a key factor for evolving inflammation." ]
[ "BACKGROUND: Even as the use of peripheral nerve blockade in the perioperative setting is increasing, neural injury secondary to accidental intraneural injection remains a significant patient safety concern. Current modalities, including electrical stimulation and ultrasound imaging, still lack consistency and absolute reliability in both the detection and prevention of this complication. The measurement of electrical impedance (EI) could be an easy and valuable additional tool to detect intraneural needle placement. Our objectives in this study were to measure the change in EI with intraneural needle advancement in recently amputated human limbs.METHODS: The study was conducted within 45 minutes of amputation. The nerves that were studied were the sciatic nerve in the popliteal fossa in above-knee amputations or the tibial nerve below the calf in below-knee amputations. The amputated limb was placed on a tray and under ultrasound imaging guidance, an insulated peripheral block needle connected to a nerve stimulator was placed extraneurally and subsequently advanced intraneurally. The experiment was repeated on the same nerve after exposure by surgical dissection. The differences in impedance measurements between intraneural and extraneural needle placement were compared.RESULTS: In the below-knee amputated extremity (tibial nerve, n = 6) specimens based on the ultrasound methods, mean SD for ultrasound-guided intraneural impedance was 10 2 k compared with an extraneural impedance of 6 1.6 k (P = 0.005). The difference between intraneural and extraneural impedance after open dissection was also significant when we repeated the analysis based on the same specimens (P = 0.005). Similarly, in the above-the-knee amputated extremity (sciatic nerve, n = 5) specimens, mean intraneural impedance was 35.2 7.9 k compared with an extraneural impedance of 25.2 5.3 k (P = 0.037). The difference between intraneural and extraneural impedance obtained after open dissection was also significant when we repeated the analysis based on the same specimens (P = 0.0002). The impedance values were consistent and similar to those obtained after open dissection.CONCLUSIONS: There is no reliable \"gold standard\" to predict or prevent intraneural needle placement during peripheral nerve blockade. This small sample-sized study demonstrated that there is a change in EI with intraneural needle advancement. In clinical practice, measurement of the EI in conjunction with nerve stimulation may serve as another tool to use for identifying intraneural needle placement during peripheral nerve blockade.", "BACKGROUND AND OBJECTIVES: When one is performing ultrasound-guided peripheral nerve blocks, it is common to inject a small amount of fluid to confirm correct placement of the needle tip. If an intraneural needle tip position is detected, the needle can then be repositioned to prevent injection of a large amount of local anesthetic into the nerve. However, it is unknown if anesthesiologists can accurately discriminate intraneural and extraneural injection of small volumes. Therefore, this study was conducted to determine the diagnostic accuracy of ultrasound assessment using a criterion standard and to compare experts and novices in ultrasound-guided regional anesthesia.METHODS: A total of 32 ultrasound-guided infragluteal sciatic nerve blocks were performed on 21 cadaver legs. The injections were targeted to be intraneural (n = 18) or extraneural (n = 14), and 0.5 mL of methylene blue 1% was injected. Cryosections of the nerve and surrounding tissue were assessed by a blinded investigator as \"extraneural\" or \"intraneural.\" Ultrasound video clips of the injections were reviewed by 10 blinded observers (5 experts, 5 novices) independently who scored each injection as either \"intraneural,\" \"extraneural,\" or \"undetermined.\"RESULTS: The mean sensitivity of experts and novices was measured to be 0.84 (0.80-0.88) and 0.65 (0.60-0.71), respectively (P = 0.006), whereas mean specificity was 0.97 (0.94-0.98) and 0.98 (0.96-0.99) (P = 0.53).CONCLUSIONS: Discrimination of intraneural or extraneural needle tip position based on an injection of 0.5mL is possible, but even experts missed 1 of 6 intraneural injections. In novices, the sensitivity of assessment was significantly lower, highlighting the need for focused education." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
who played the girl in true grit
[ "Ross and Cogburn are joined by Texas Ranger LaBoeuf, played by Matt Damon, who has ulterior motives for hunting down the unsuspecting killer. The role of the young girl, Mattie Ross, is played by 14-year old Hailee Steinfeld with the film set to be her breakout role." ]
[ "Josh Brolin has little screen time as Tom Chaney and he seems a bit overly charismatic for someone who is after all just a stupid killer; but he is otherwise excellent in the role. This version of True Grit was a surprise success at the box office. The first $100 million western since the 1990s; it eventually passed Dances With Wolves to become the highest-grossing western ever made.", "Was hand-picked by actor John Wayne to play alongside him in the western film True Grit (1969), which gave Campbell a Golden Globe nomination for Most Promising Newcomer, and had a hit with the title song which was nominated for an Academy Award." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
the effect of hypoenergetic diet on diet quality
[ "INTRODUCTION: the prevalence of obesity has increased, especially among women.AIM: the aim of this study was to assess the effect of a hypoenergetic diet combined with coconut flour on anthropometric and biochemical data and the quality of the diet.METHODS: we carried out a crossover clinical trial involving a step with hypoenergetic diet only and another with the diet associated with coconut flour consumption (26 g) over the course of nine months. The volunteers were recruited from the S?o Gon?alo city of Rio de Janeiro. Anthropometric, biochemical and dietary data were collected monthly. The diet quality index revised for the Brazilian population (DQI-R) and the consumption of ultra-processed foods and additives were assessed. The Wilcoxon and Mann-Whitney tests were performed, with p < 0.05 considered statistically significant.RESULTS: forty-two women of an average 47.5 9.5 years of age participated. The hypoenergetic diet promoted a decrease in body fat, body mass index, waist circumference, waist-to-height ratio, visceral adiposity index, diastolic blood pressure, triglycerides and VLDL. The consumption of coconut flour promoted a drop in glucose and total cholesterol levels when supplementing the hypoenergetic diet. The improvement to diet quality can be noted in the decrease in consumption of ultra-processed foods like vegetable oil, chocolate and soft drinks.CONCLUSION: the hypoenergetic diet promoted a decrease in the anthropometric parameters, blood pressure and triglycerides. The consumption of coconut flour promoted a decrease in glucose and total cholesterol levels when supplementing the hypoenergetic diet. The improved diet quality can be seen in the decrease in consumption of ultra- processed foods." ]
[ "A diet rich in fruits and vegetables has been associated with several health benefits. However, the effects on body weight (BW) and metabolic markers are not fully known. The present study investigated the effects of increased intake of fruits and vegetables in overweight and obese men and women on dietary habits, anthropometry and metabolic control. In a 16-week controlled intervention, thirty-four men and thirty-four women aged 35-65 years (BMI>27 kg/m2) were randomised to an intervention (IN) or a reference (RG) group. All participants received general dietary advice, and subjects in the IN group received fruits and vegetables for free, of which ?500 g had to be eaten daily. BW, waist circumference (WC), sagittal abdominal diameter (SAD), plasma insulin, blood glucose, glycated Hb (HbA1c), serum lipids, blood pressure, plasminogen activator inhibitor-1 activity, urinary isoprostane (iso-8-PGF 2) and serum carotenoids were measured. Diet was assessed using 3-d weighed food records. In all, thirty subjects in the IN group and thirty-two in the RG group completed the intervention. Intake of fruits and vegetables doubled in the IN group, whereas intake of fruits increased in the RG group. Serum - and -carotene concentrations and intakes of folate and vitamin C increased significantly in the IN group. Energy intake, BW, WC and SAD decreased significantly in both groups. Supine systolic blood pressure decreased significantly in the IN group, with no between-group differences. No significant changes were observed for other metabolic markers. Provision of fruits and vegetables led to substantially increased intakes, with subsequent favourable changes in anthropometry and insulin levels, which tended to be more pronounced in the IN group. The observed improvements may, in combination with improved nutritional markers, have health benefits in the long term.", "Background: It is unknown whether dietary quality modifies genetic association with body mass index (BMI).Objective: This study examined whether dietary quality modifies genetic association with BMI.Design: We calculated 3 diet quality scores including the Alternative Healthy Eating Index 2010 (AHEI-2010), the Alternative Mediterranean Diet score (AMED), and the Dietary Approach to Stop Hypertension (DASH) diet score. We examined the interactions of a genetic risk score (GRS) based on 97 BMI-associated variants with the 3 diet quality scores on BMI in 30,904 participants from 3 large cohorts.Results: We found significant interactions between total GRS and all 3 diet scores on BMI assessed after 2-3 y, with an attenuated genetic effect observed in individuals with healthier diets (AHEI: P-interaction=0.003; AMED: P=0.001; DASH: P=0.004). For example, the difference in BMI (kg/m2) per 10-unit increment of the GRS was smaller among participants in the highest tertile of AHEI score compared with those in the lowest tertile (0.84; 95% CI: 0.72, 0.96 compared with 1.14; 95% CI: 0.99, 1.29). Results were consistent across the 3 cohorts with no significant heterogeneity. The interactions with diet scores on BMI appeared more significant for central nervous system GRSs (P<0.01 for 3 diet scores) than for non-central nervous system GRSs (P>0.05 for 3 diet scores).Conclusions: A higher diet quality attenuated genetic predisposition to obesity. These findings underscore the importance of maintaining a healthful diet for the prevention of obesity, particularly for those individuals with a strong genetic predisposition to obesity. This trial was registered with the Clinical Trial Registry as NCT03577639." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
Susan looked at him with her green eyes.
[ "Susan had green eyes." ]
[ "Susan looked at him with her blue eyes." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
can t cells be used for chemo for stage IV colorectal cancer
[ "BACKGROUND/AIM: Adoptive immunotherapy of cancer is evolving with the development of novel technologies that generate proliferation of large numbers of and T cells. We evaluated the safety and efficacy of the combination of adoptive immunotherapy using T cells with chemotherapy for stage IV colorectal cancer (CRC).PATIENTS AND METHODS: Fifteen patients with advanced or recurrent CRC received XELOX + bevacizumab + ex vivo expanded T lymphocytes as a first-line chemoimmunotherapy.RESULTS: Median age of the 15 patients (4 men, 11 women) was 65 years (range=49-80). Median progression-free survival was 21.3 months. Response rate was 80% (complete response (CR)=26.7%, partial response (PR)=53.3%, stable disease (SD)=20% and progressive disease (PD)=0%). Most adverse events were mild to moderate regarding their intensity and immunotherapy-associated toxicity was minimal.CONCLUSION: Combination of adoptive T cell immunotherapy with chemotherapy for stage IV CRC is feasible and safe." ]
[ "Purpose: Anticancer T-cell responses can control tumors, but immunosuppressive mechanisms in vivo prevent their function. The role of regulatory T cells (Tregs) in metastatic colorectal cancer is unclear. We have previously shown depletion of Tregs enhances colorectal cancer-specific effector T-cell responses. Low-dose cyclophosphamide targets Tregs in animal models and some human studies; however, the effect of cyclophosphamide in metastatic colorectal cancer is unknown.Experimental Design: Fifty-five patients with metastatic colorectal cancer were enrolled in a phase I/II trial and randomly assigned to receive 2-week-long courses of low-dose (50 mg twice a day) cyclophosphamide or not. The absolute number, phenotype, and antitumor function of peripheral blood-derived lymphocyte subsets were monitored throughout treatment, as well as during 18-month follow-up.Results: Initially, cyclophosphamide reduced proliferation in all lymphocyte subsets; however, a rapid mobilization of effector T cells overcame this decrease, leading to increased absolute T-cell numbers. In contrast, a reduction in proportional and absolute Treg, B-cell, and NK-cell numbers occurred. The expansion and subsequent activation of effector T cells was focused on tumor-specific T cells, producing both granzyme B and IFN. Cyclophosphamide-treated patients demonstrating the most enhanced IFN+ tumor-specific T-cell responses exhibited a significant delay in tumor progression [HR = 0.29; 95% confidence interval (CI), 0.12-0.69; P = 0.0047), compared with nonresponders and no-treatment controls.Conclusions: Cyclophosphamide-induced Treg depletion is mirrored by a striking boost in antitumor immunity. This study provides the first direct evidence of the benefit of naturally primed T cells in patients with metastatic colorectal cancer. Our results also support the concept that nonmutated self-antigens may act as useful targets for immunotherapies. Clin Cancer Res; 23(22); 6771-80. 2017 AACR.", "OBJECTIVE: To compare the different expressions of CD27, CD28, IL-17A, IFN- and TNF- in the peripheral blood sampled from patients with colorectal carcinoma and healthy volunteers.PATIENTS AND METHODS: V2 T cells were isolated from the peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) of patients with the colorectal carcinoma (CRC, n = 30) and healthy controls (HC, n = 21). The proportion of CD27, CD28, IL-17A, IFN- and TNF- of V2 T cells was detected by the flow cytometry.RESULTS: We found that the proportion of IL-17A of V2 T cells in PBMCs was higher in the CRC vs. the HC group (p < 0.05). A significant positive correlation was observed between the expression of IFN- and TNF- of V2 T cells. In the CRC patients, the proportions of IL-17A of CD27- V2 T cells and CD28+ V2 T cells were higher than those of CD27+ V2 T cells and CD28- V2 T cells, whereas the expression of IFN- and TNF- of CD27-V2 T cells was lower than that of CD27+ V2 T cells.CONCLUSIONS: V2 T cells from PBMCs had higher expression of IL-17A in CRC patients than that in the HC group. The expression of IFN- and TNF- of V2 T cells from PBMCs was positively correlated. The cytokine profiles of peripheral V2 T cells were likely determined by a CD27 and CD28 involving mechanism." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
disease of the scalp caused by bacteria
[ "BACKGROUND: The scalp represents a special region for the manifestation of pathogen-induced diseases.OBJECTIVE: This article describes practice-relevant pathogen-induced skin diseases caused by bacteria, fungi, viruses and parasites.MATERIAL AND METHODS: Currently available publications were evaluated with special reference to therapeutic developments.RESULTS: Bacterial infections of the scalp must be treated consistently in the initial stages in order to avoid severe consequences. Skin diseases caused by fungi must be treated topically (e.g. neonatal cephalic pustulosis) or systemically and topically (e.g. tinea). Varicella zoster diseases in children and adults are treated differently. A safe and highly effective physically effective substance is now available for pediculosis capitis (head lice).CONCLUSION: Dermatologically relevant pathogen-induced diseases of the scalp can be well treated; however, tinea capitis still proves to be a special problem due to a lack of approved substances and long-term therapy." ]
[ "Ovine footrot is a highly prevalent bacterial disease caused by Dichelobacter nodosus and characterised by the separation of the hoof horn from the underlying skin. The role of innate immune molecules and other bacterial communities in the development of footrot lesions remains unclear. This study shows a significant association between the high expression of IL1 and high D. nodosus load in footrot samples. Investigation of the microbial population identified distinct bacterial populations in the different disease stages and also depending on the level of inflammation. Treponema (34%), Mycoplasma (29%) and Porphyromonas (15%) were the most abundant genera associated with high levels of inflammation in footrot. In contrast, Acinetobacter (25%), Corynebacteria (17%) and Flavobacterium (17%) were the most abundant genera associated with high levels of inflammation in healthy feet. This demonstrates for the first time there is a distinct microbial community associated with footrot and high cytokine expression.", "Hidradenitis suppurativa (HS) is a skin disease characterized by recurrent nodules or abscesses and chronic suppurating lesions. In the absence of clear pathophysiology, HS is considered to be an inflammatory disease and has no satisfactory medical treatment. Recently, prolonged antimicrobial treatments were shown to improve or resolve HS lesions. We prospectively studied the microbiology of 102 HS lesions sampled from 82 patients using prolonged bacterial cultures and bacterial metagenomics on 6 samples. Staphylococcus lugdunensis was cultured as a unique or predominant isolate from 58% of HS nodules and abscesses, and a polymicrobial anaerobic microflora comprising strict anaerobes, milleri group streptococci, and actinomycetes was found in 24% of abscesses or nodules and in 87% of chronic suppurating lesions. These data show that bacteria known to cause soft tissue and skin infections are associated with HS lesions. Whether these pathogens are the cause of the lesions or are secondary infectious agents, these findings support targeted antimicrobial treatment of HS." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
what are implicit attitudes toward cancer
[ "Societal perceptions may factor into the high rates of nontreatment in patients with lung cancer. To determine whether bias exists toward lung cancer, a study using the Implicit Association Test method of inferring subconscious attitudes and stereotypes from participant reaction times to visual cues was initiated. Participants were primarily recruited from an online survey panel based on US census data. Explicit attitudes regarding lung and breast cancer were derived from participants' ratings (n = 1778) regarding what they thought patients experienced in terms of guilt, shame, and hope (descriptive statements) and from participants' opinions regarding whether patients ought to experience such feelings (normative statements). Participants' responses to descriptive and normative statements about lung cancer were compared with responses to statements about breast cancer. Analyses of responses revealed that the participants were more likely to agree with negative descriptive and normative statements about lung cancer than breast cancer (P<0.001). Furthermore, participants had significantly stronger implicit negative associations with lung cancer compared with breast cancer; mean response times in the lung cancer/negative conditions were significantly shorter than in the lung cancer/positive conditions (P<0.001). Patients, caregivers, healthcare providers, and members of the general public had comparable levels of negative implicit attitudes toward lung cancer. These results show that lung cancer was stigmatized by patients, caregivers, healthcare professionals, and the general public. Further research is needed to investigate whether implicit and explicit attitudes and stereotypes affect patient care." ]
[ "Introduction The Theory of Planned Behavior (TPB) is one of the most widely used psychological models when it comes to explaining road safety behaviors. Recently, studies have also been conducted from the perspective of dual-process models. However, the present is the first study on road safety behaviors that integrates both perspectives. The study evaluates the roles of both implicit attitudes and TPB constructs in the prediction of seatbelt use. Method A sample of 100 drivers completed: (1) a self-reporting instrument on seatbelt use, (2) a questionnaire addressing TPB constructs, (3) an indirect measure of attitudes (Implicit Association Test), and (4) a social desirability scale. Results Results suggest that both types of attitudes make a significant and quite similar contribution to the explanation of seatbelt use. Interestingly, implicit attitudes were a better predictor than explicit attitudes among participants reporting inconsistent seatbelt use. In addition, path analysis models suggested that implicit attitudes appear to be relatively independent of TPB constructs and have a direct effect on seatbelt use. Conclusion The findings advance the idea of adding implicit attitudes to variables from the TPB model in order to increase the explanatory power of models used to predict road safety behaviors. Practical applications Potential use of implicit attitude measures in the education and training of drivers are discussed.", "Bidimensional attitudes have been shown to independently predict behaviour, with the positive dimension of attitude being a stronger predictor of behaviour than the negative dimension (e.g., Elliott, Brewster, etal., 2015, Br. J. Psychol, 106, 656). However, this positivity bias has been demonstrated with explicit attitude measures only and explicit attitude measures tap deliberative processes rather than automatic processes, which are known to be important in the execution of many behaviours. The aim of this study was to test whether implicit bidimensional attitudes can account for variance in speeding behaviour over and above explicit bidimensional attitudes and whether the positivity bias that is typically found with explicit attitudes generalizes to implicit attitudes. A total of 131 drivers completed a questionnaire measuring their explicit bidimensional attitudes towards speeding. They also completed Implicit Association Tests measuring their implicit bidimensional attitudes. Two weeks later, speeding behaviour was measured using a driving simulator. Explicit attitudes accounted for a significant proportion of the variance in subsequent speeding behaviour. Implicit attitudes accounted for a statistically significant increment to explained variance. The positive dimension of both explicit and implicit attitudes predicted speeding behaviour but the negative dimensions did not. Theoretical implications for understanding the potential attitudinal causes of behaviour and practical implications for behaviour-change interventions are discussed." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
Don Cazar, the mesteneoes they arrive.
[ "The mesteneoes have arrive, Don Cazar." ]
[ "The mesteneoes have yet to arrive." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
local area disadvantages genetics
[ "Previous research has demonstrated that local area characteristics (such as disadvantage and gambling outlet density) and genetic risk factors are associated with gambling involvement and disordered gambling. These 2 lines of research were brought together in the present study by examining the extent to which genetic contributions to individual differences in gambling involvement and disorder contributed to being exposed to, and were also accentuated by, local area disadvantage. Participants were members of the national community-based Australian Twin Registry who completed a telephone interview in which the past-year frequency of gambling and symptoms of disordered gambling were assessed. Indicators of local area disadvantage were based on census data matched to the participants' postal codes. Univariate biometric model-fitting revealed that exposure to area disadvantage was partially explained by genetic factors. Bivariate biometric model-fitting was conducted to examine the evidence for gene-environment interaction while accounting for gene-environment correlation. These analyses demonstrated that: (a) a small portion of the genetic propensity to gamble was explained by moving to or remaining in a disadvantaged area, and (b) the remaining genetic and unique environmental variation in the frequency of participating in electronic machine gambling (among men and women) and symptoms of disordered gambling (among women) was greater in more disadvantaged localities. As the gambling industry continues to grow, it will be important to take into account the multiple contexts in which problematic gambling behavior can emerge-from genes to geography-as well as the ways in which such contexts may interact with each other." ]
[ "Genetic variation occurring at the level of regulatory sequences can affect phenotypes and fitness in natural populations. This variation can be analysed in a population genetic framework to study how genetic drift and selection affect the evolution of these functional elements. However, doing this requires a good understanding of the location and nature of regulatory regions and has long been a major hurdle. The current proliferation of genomewide profiling experiments of transcription factor occupancies greatly improves our ability to identify genomic regions involved in specific DNA-protein interactions. Although software exists for predicting transcription factor binding sites (TFBS), and the effects of genetic variants on TFBS specificity, there are no tools currently available for inferring this information jointly with the genetic variation at TFBS in natural populations. We developed the software Transcription Elements Mapping at the Population LEvel (TEMPLE), which predicts TFBS, evaluates the effects of genetic variants on TFBS specificity and summarizes the genetic variation occurring at TFBS in intraspecific sequence alignments. We demonstrate that TEMPLE's TFBS prediction algorithms gives identical results to PATSER, a software distribution commonly used in the field. We also illustrate the unique features of TEMPLE by analysing TFBS diversity for the TF Senseless (SENS) in one ancestral and one cosmopolitan population of the fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster. TEMPLE can be used to localize TFBS that are characterized by strong genetic differentiation across natural populations. This will be particularly useful for studies aiming to identify adaptive mutations. TEMPLE is a java-based cross-platform software that easily maps the genetic diversity at predicted TFBSs using a graphical interface, or from the Unix command line.", "BACKGROUND: Although genome-wide association studies have successfully identified thousands of variants associated to complex traits, these variants only explain a small amount of the entire heritability of the trait. Gene-gene interactions have been proposed as a source to explain a significant percentage of the missing heritability. However, detecting gene-gene interactions has proven to be very difficult due to computational and statistical challenges. The vast number of possible interactions that can be tested induces very stringent multiple hypotheses corrections that limit the power of detection. These issues have been mostly highlighted for the identification of pairwise effects and are even more challenging when addressing higher order interaction effects. In this work we explore the use of local ancestry in recently admixed individuals to find signals of gene-gene interaction on human traits and diseases.RESULTS: We introduce statistical methods that leverage the correlation between local ancestry and the hidden unknown causal variants to find distant gene-gene interactions. We show that the power of this test increases with the number of causal variants per locus and the degree of differentiation of these variants between the ancestral populations. Overall, our simulations confirm that local ancestry can be used to detect gene-gene interactions, solving the computational bottleneck. When compared to a single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP)-based interaction screening of the same sample size, the power of our test was lower on all settings we considered. However, accounting for the dramatic increase in sample size that can be achieve when genotyping only a set of ancestry informative markers instead of the whole genome, we observe substantial gain in power in several scenarios.CONCLUSION: Local ancestry-based interaction tests offer a new path to the detection of gene-gene interaction effects. It would be particularly useful in scenarios where multiple differentiated variants at the interacting loci act in a synergistic manner." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
who was named fifa world player of the year five consecutive times between 2006 and 2010
[ "2010 to 2015, the equivalent men's award was the FIFA Ballon d'Or, following a merging of the FIFA World Player of the Year and the France Football Ballon d'Or awards. Since 2016, the awards have been replaced by the Best FIFA Men's Player and the Best FIFA Women's Player awards. Eight women's footballers – three Germans, three Americans, one Brazilian, and one Japanese – have won the award. Marta, the youngest recipient at age 20 in 2006, has won five successive awards, the most of any player. Birgit Prinz won three times in a row and Mia Hamm won twice" ]
[ "10 appearances. Steven Gerrard currently holds the most appearances in the PFA Team of the Year in the Premier League era with eight appearances. The award has been presented since the 1973–74 season and the shortlist is compiled by the members of the players' trade union, the Professional Footballers' Association (PFA), in January of every year, with the winners then being voted for by the other players in their respective divisions. The award is regarded by players in the Football League as the highest accolade available to them, due to it being picked by their fellow professionals. Oxford United's Damian", "have won three World Cup winners' medals (1958, 1962, and 1970, although he did not play in the 1962 final due to injury), with 20 other players who have won two winners' medals. Seven players have collected all three types of World Cup medals (winners', runner- ups', and third-place); five players were from West Germany's squad of 1966–1974 including Franz Beckenbauer, Jürgen Grabowski, Horst-Dieter Höttges, Sepp Maier and Wolfgang Overath (1966–1974), Italy's Franco Baresi (1982, 1990, 1994) and the most recent has been Miroslav Klose of Germany (2002–2014) with four consecutive medals. Brazil's Mário Zagallo, West Germany's Franz Beckenbauer and" ]
Given a question, retrieve Wikipedia passages that answer the question
nq
task significance definition
[ "Written by Pam MS, NCSP | Fact checked by Psychology Dictionary staff. it is the specific feature of the task that motivates a person to do that job. The importance of the task is also referred as task significance. It is all about what a particular outcome, a task will bring. TASK SIGNIFICANCE: Task significance is the motivational factor that motivates a person to do the particular job.. 1 How to Know Whether to Trust Someone. 2 How to See Signs of Emotional Abuse in a Relationship. How to Improve Attention to Detail." ]
[ "Definition of LEVEL OF SIGNIFICANCE. : the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis in a statistical test when it is true —called also significance level.", "Definition of LEVEL OF SIGNIFICANCE. : the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis in a statistical test when it is true —called also significance level. ADVERTISEMENT. Next Word in the Dictionary: level premium Previous Word in the Dictionary: level off All Words Near: level of significance." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
what is ciss
[ "What is the CISS (continous ink supply system) and how does it work? What is the CISS (continous ink supply system) and how does it work?09 May 2011The CISS (continuous ink supply system) is a great alternative for black & white and color printing, as it delivers many benefits to the end user:– Save up to 95% on printing costs (YES, up to 20 times cheaper !) compared with ordinary ink cartridges- It is conveniently sold full with the ink equivalent of up to 28 sets of ordinary ink cartridges, and you will not refill it for a (very…) long time- The printing quality is similar to that obtained from using ordinary cartridges. How does the CISS (continuous ink supply system) work? The CISS (also known as the continuous ink supply system) is compatible with many models of inkjet printers. The system delivers a continuous flow of ink to a special type of ink cartridge, through a capillary system connected to external reservoirs. Cartridges never get dry and you don’t have to replace them. Instead, you need to add ink in the external tanks when they are almost empty (reaching about 10-20% of capacity). The external ink tanks, which are part of the CISS are usually located near the printer. There can be 4, 5, 6 or 8 separate tanks, depending on your printer. Each ink tank is filled with a certain color of ink. Each tube carries the ink from the external tank to the ink cartridges inside the printer. Continuous ink supply systems ( CISS) save money that would otherwise have to be spent on expensive ink cartridges which, very often would then be discarded while still containing some ink. When purchased, the CISS is delivered full with ink (about 100ml for each color) and later on, when the ink runs out, you only have to buy and refill the ink for the respective color. The ink used in CISS systems is more economical and you can be sure that you will use all of it. Another advantage of the system is that the ink cartridge inside the printer is always full and the colors produced are the same no matter how many pages you print in a single job. If you print large numbers of photos, for example, you can rest assured that you will not run out of ink. External tanks are see-through and you can easily see when one color is close to running out and needs to be refilled. But you don’t have to do this very often, because the CISS tanks contain the equivalent of about 10 to 28 sets of original ink cartridges. Some printers use ink cartridges with a chip attached, recording the level of ink used. When the cartridge is empty in a certain proportion, the chip will make it impossible to reuse the cartridge, even if it will be refilled. CISS systems used for such printers are equipped with resettable chips, meaning that they can be reset when the printer shows the “ink cartridge empty” error message. The ink cartridges of the CISS system are especially designed to work well for long periods of time. External tanks should always be placed at the same height (on the same desk/table) with the printer. If they are placed higher than the printer, there is a risk that the ink from the external tanks will flood the printer and possibly damage it. Overall the installation of a CISS can take between 5 and 20 minutes, depending on the model. The package comes with installation and operating instructions in English / French / German. Additionally, our website contains video tutorials in English / French / German explaining step by step the installation process. Note, your printer will not be permanently changed after installing the CISS and you can return anytime to use ordinary cartridges, although we believe you won’t need to do that. CISSmarket.com offers high quality CISS systems, especially designed, produced and tested for long term reliability under the European market standards. We do have CISS systems available for the best-selling printer models, but not for every model. Before ordering a CISS, please ensure it is compatible with your printer. Our professional staff will be happy to guide you to a correct choice, just send us an email to sales@cissmarket.com Others, Tips 1 comment CISSmarket Team" ]
[ "Geography of Uzbekistan \"From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedianavigation search Bukhoro Jizzakh Navoiy Qarshi Samarkand Guliston Termiz Tashkent Ferghana Andijan Namangan Urgench Nukus Map of Uzbekistan Uzbekistan is a country of Central Asia, located north of Turkmenistan and Afghanistan. With an area of 447,000 square kilometers (approximately the size of Spain or California ), Uzbekistan stretches 1,425 kilometers from west to east and 930 kilometers from north to south. Bordering Turkmenistan to the southwest, Kazakhstan to the north, and Tajikistan and Kyrgyzstan to the south and east, Uzbekistan is not only one of the larger Central Asian states but also the only Central Asian state to border all of the other four. Uzbekistan also shares a short border with Afghanistan to the south. As the Caspian Sea is an inland sea with no direct link to the oceans, Uzbekistan is one of only two \"\"doubly landlocked \"\" countries—countries completely surrounded by other landlocked countries. The other is Liechtenstein. Contents [ hide ]1 Topography and drainage2 Climate3 Environmental problems3.1 Water pollution3.2 Air pollution3.3 Land and Soil Pollution3.4 Government environmental policy4 Area and boundaries5 Resources and land uses6 References Topography and drainage [ edit]Detailed map of Uzbekistan, 1995Topography of Uzbekistan The physical environment of Uzbekistan is diverse, ranging from the flat, desert topography that comprises almost 80% of the country's territory to mountain peaks in the east reaching about 4,500 metres (14,800 ft) above sea level. The southeastern portion of Uzbekistan is characterized by the foothills of the Tian Shan mountains, which rise higher in neighboring Kyrgyzstan and Tajikistan and form a natural border between Central Asia and China. The vast Qizilqum (Turkic for \"\"red sand\"\"—Russian spelling Kyzyl Kum) Desert, shared with southern Kazakhstan, dominates the northern lowland portion of Uzbekistan. The most fertile part of Uzbekistan, the Fergana Valley, is an area of about 21,440 square kilometres (8,280 sq mi) directly east of the Qizilqum and surrounded by mountain ranges to the north, south, and east. The western end of the valley is defined by the course of the Syr Darya, which runs across the northeastern sector of Uzbekistan from southern Kazakhstan into the Qizilqum. Although the Fergana Valley receives just 100 to 300 millimetres (3.9 to 11.8 in) of rainfall per year, only small patches of desert remain in the center and along ridges on the periphery of the valley. Water resources, which are unevenly distributed, are in short supply in most of Uzbekistan. The vast plains that occupy two-thirds of Uzbekistan's territory have little water, and there are few lakes. The two largest rivers feeding Uzbekistan are the Amu Darya and the Syr Darya, which originate in the mountains of Tajikistan and Kyrgyzstan, respectively. These rivers form the two main river basins of Central Asia; they are used primarily for irrigation, and several artificial canals have been built to expand the supply of arable land in the Fergana Valley and elsewhere. During the Soviet Era, a plan was devised in which Kyrgyzstan and Tajikistan provided water from these two rivers to Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan, and Uzbekistan in summer, and these three countries provided Kyrgyzstan and Tajikistan with oil and gas during the winter in return. However, this system dissolved after the collapse of the USSR, and a new resource-sharing plan has yet to be put in place. According to the International Crisis Group, this situation could lead to irreparable regional destabilization if it is not resolved. [1] A shallow lake, Sarygamysh Lake, sits on the border with Turkmenistan. Another important feature of Uzbekistan's physical environment is the significant seismic activity that dominates much of the country. Indeed, much of Uzbekistan's capital city, Tashkent, was destroyed in a major earthquake in 1966, and other earthquakes have caused significant damage before and since the Tashkent disaster. The mountain areas are especially prone to earthquakes. Climate [ edit]Uzbekistan map of Köppen climate classification. Uzbekistan's climate is classified as continental, with hot summers and cool winters. Summer temperatures often surpass 40 °C (104 °F); winter temperatures average about −2 °C (28 °F), but may fall as low as −40 °C (−40 °F). Most of the country also is quite arid, with average annual rainfall amounting to between 100 and 200 millimeters (3.9 and 7.9 in) and occurring mostly in winter and spring. Between July and September, little precipitation falls, essentially stopping the growth of vegetation during that period of time. Environmental problems [ edit]Uzbekistan, February, 2003. Red dots indicate wildfires Despite Uzbekistan's rich and varied natural environment, decades of environmental neglect in the Soviet Union have combined with skewed economic policies in the Soviet south to make Uzbekistan one of the gravest of the CIS's many environmental crises. The heavy use of agrochemicals, diversion of huge amounts of irrigation water from the two rivers that feed the region, and the chronic lack of water treatment plants are among the factors that have caused health and environmental problems on an enormous scale. Environmental devastation in Uzbekistan is best exemplified by the catastrophe of the Aral Sea. Because of diversion of the Amu Darya and Syr Darya for cotton cultivation and other purposes, what once was the world's fourth largest inland sea has shrunk in the past thirty years to only about one-third of its 1960 volume and less than half its 1960 geographical size. The desiccation and salinization of the lake have caused extensive storms of salt and dust from the sea's dried bottom, wreaking havoc on the region's agriculture and ecosystems and on the population's health. Desertification has led to the large-scale loss of plant and animal life, loss of arable land, changed climatic conditions, depleted yields on the cultivated land that remains, and destruction of historical and cultural monuments. Every year, many tons of salts reportedly are carried as far as 800 kilometers away. Regional experts assert that salt and dust storms from the Aral Sea have raised the level of particulate matter in the Earth's atmosphere by more than 5%, seriously affecting global climate change. The Aral Sea disaster is only the most visible indicator of environmental decay, however. The Soviet approach to environmental management brought decades of poor water management and lack of water or sewage treatment facilities; inordinately heavy use of pesticides, herbicides, defoliants, and fertilizers in the fields; and construction of industrial enterprises without regard to human or environmental impact. Those policies present enormous environmental challenges throughout Uzbekistan. Natural hazards: NAEnvironment – current issues: shrinkage of the Aral Sea is resulting in growing concentrations of chemical pesticides and natural salts; these substances are then blown from the increasingly exposed lake bed and contribute to desertification; water pollution from industrial wastes and the heavy use of fertilizers and pesticides is the cause of many human health disorders; increasing soil salination; soil contamination from agricultural chemicals, including DDTEnvironment – international agreements:party to: Biodiversity, Climate Change, Climate Change-Kyoto Protocol, Desertification, Endangered Species, Environmental Modification, Hazardous Wastes, Ozone Layer Protection, Wetlands signed, but not ratified: none of the selected agreements Water pollution [ edit]Large-scale use of chemicals for cotton cultivation, inefficient irrigation systems, and poor drainage systems are examples of the conditions that led to a high filtration of salinized and contaminated water back into the soil. Post-Soviet policies have become even more dangerous; in the early 1990s, the average application of chemical fertilizers and insecticides throughout the Central Asian republics was twenty to twenty-five kilograms per hectare, compared with the former average of three kilograms per hectare for the entire Soviet Union. As a result, the supply of fresh water has received further contaminants. Industrial pollutants also have damaged Uzbekistan's water. In the Amu Darya, concentrations of phenol and oil products have been measured at far above acceptable health standards. In 1989 the minister of health of the Turkmen SSR described the Amu Darya as a sewage ditch for industrial and agricultural waste substances. Experts who monitored the river in 1995 reported even further deterioration. In the early 1990s, about 60% of pollution control funding went to water-related projects, but only about half of cities and about one-quarter of villages have sewers. Communal water systems do not meet health standards; much of the population lacks drinking water systems and must drink water straight from contaminated irrigation ditches, canals, or the Amu Darya itself. According to one report, virtually all the large underground fresh-water supplies in Uzbekistan are polluted by industrial and chemical wastes. An official in Uzbekistan's Ministry of Environment estimated that about half of the country's population lives in regions where the water is severely polluted. The government estimated in 1995 that only 230 of the country's 8,000 industrial enterprises were following pollution control standards. Air pollution [ edit]Poor water management and heavy use of agricultural chemicals also have polluted the air. Salt and dust storms and the spraying of pesticides and defoliants for the cotton crop have led to severe degradation of air quality in rural areas. In urban areas, factories and auto emissions are a growing threat to air quality. Fewer than half of factory smokestacks in Uzbekistan are equipped with filtration devices, and none has the capacity to filter gaseous emissions. In addition, a high percentage of existing filters are defective or out of operation. Air pollution data for Tashkent, Farghona, and Olmaliq show all three cities exceeding recommended levels of nitrous dioxide and particulates. High levels of heavy metals such as lead, nickel, zinc, copper, mercury, and manganese have been found in Uzbekistan's atmosphere, mainly from the burning of fossil fuels, waste materials, and ferrous and nonferrous metallurgy. Especially high concentrations of heavy metals have been reported in Toshkent Province and in the southern part of Uzbekistan near the Olmaliq Metallurgy Combine. In the mid-1990s, Uzbekistan's industrial production, about 60% of the total for the Central Asian nations excluding Kazakhstan, also yielded about 60% of the total volume of Central Asia's emissions of harmful substances into the atmosphere. Because automobiles are relatively scarce, automotive exhaust is a problem only in Tashkent and Farghona. Land and Soil Pollution [ edit]The reduction of water in Uzbekistan has resulted in soil degradation, and the spread of the salt from the evaporated Aral Sea has contaminated the surrounding soil. The soil has lost much of its water due to the increased surface irrigation. [2] The irrigation of farmlands with water from the Aral Sea has resulted in increased salinization of the soil, causing the farmland to be less productive and the destruction of a large portion of farmable land. [3]The amount of grasslands in Uzbekistan has gradually decreased mainly due to over-grazing and climate change. [4] About 62.6% of the land in Uzbekistan is used for agriculture with 51.7% of that land used for permanent pasture. [5]The soil has been polluted by mining and smelting activities due to the spread of metals and other pollutants by wind. Smelter ash contaminated soil causes environmental risks such as reduction of soil respiration, contamination of microbial biomass, and negatively effecting trophic interactions. Many species of animals are sensitive to metal pollution and are directly exposed to it by living off of the land that has been polluted by the mining and smelting activities. The metals polluting the land and soil include copper, gold, lead, silver, metallic zinc, and others. [6] An example is the metallurgical complex at Almalik in Uzbekistan that manufactures metals and has waste storage sites in surrounding areas, which pollute the soil, groundwater, and air with high amounts of copper, zinc, arsenic, lead, and cadmium. The mining complexes in Uzbekistan have created toxic waste that has spread through the land, groundwater, air, waterways, and soil. [7]The soil in Uzbekistan is also polluted by industrial waste. The improper handling and disposal of industrial waste has polluted the land in Uzbekistan and other countries in Central Asia. [8] The evaporation of the Aral Sea exposed the “Vozrozhdeniya Island”, also known as Resurrection Island, to the land and environment in Uzbekistan when the island transformed into a large peninsula. At Resurrection Island, the land and soil was polluted with weaponized and genetically modified pathogens due to a secret biological weapons program carried out by the Soviet military. The island was decontaminated by the Russian military, Government of Uzbekistan, and U. S. experts because of the health and environmental dangers it could have caused with its new connection to the land. [9]Government environmental policy [ edit]The government of Uzbekistan has acknowledged the extent of the country's environmental problems, and it has made a commitment to address them in its Biodiversity Action Plan. But the governmental structures to deal with these problems remain confused and ill-defined. Old agencies and organizations have been expanded to address these questions, and new ones have been created, resulting in a bureaucratic web of agencies with no generally understood commitment to attack environmental problems directly. Various nongovernmental and grassroots environmental organizations also have begun to form, some closely tied to the current government and others assuming an opposition stance. For example, environmental issues were prominent points in the original platform of Birlik, the first major opposition movement to emerge in Uzbekistan. By the mid-1990s, such issues had become a key concern of all opposition groups and a cause of growing concern among the population as a whole. In the first half of the 1990s, many plans were proposed to limit or discourage economic practices that damage the environment. Despite discussion of programs to require payments for resources (especially water) and to collect fines from heavy polluters, however, little has been accomplished. The obstacles are a lack of law enforcement in these areas, inconsistent government economic and environmental planning, corruption, and the overwhelming concentration of power in the hands of a president who shows little tolerance of grassroots activity. International donors and Western assistance agencies have devised programs to transfer technology and know-how to address these problems. But the country's environmental problems are predominantly the result of abuse and mismanagement of natural resources promoted by political and economic priorities. Until the political will emerges to regard environmental and health problems as a threat not only to the government in power but also to the very survival of Uzbekistan, the increasingly grave environmental threat will not be addressed effectively. The Government of Uzbekistan joined forces with Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan, Tajikistan, and Kyrgyzstan in 1992 to form the International Fund for Saving the Aral Sea (IFAS) and in 1993 to form the Interstate Council on the Problems of the Aral Sea Basin (ICAS). The ICAS was formed to work with the World Bank in order to improve the conditions of the Aral Sea, but was disbanded in 1997 to form IFAS. [10]The Uzbekistan government along with NGOs and U. S. international donors has been working to help improve the health conditions in Uzbekistan since the 1990s. This has led to improvements in drinking water. The World Bank and United Nations have also been involved in preparing possible solutions for the environmental problems in Uzbekistan. The World Bank worked with the countries in the Aral Sea Basin to form the Aral Sea Basin Assistance Program (ASBP) in the early 1990s. The main roles of the ASBP were the rehabilitation of the Aral Sea area that was destroyed through evaporation, the planning and management of the Amu Darya and Syr Darya rivers, and the construction of institutions to plan and implement the rehabilitation and management of the water resources surrounding the Aral Sea. The World Bank also formed the Water and Environmental Management Project in 1998 that was funded by both the World Bank and the Global Environmental Facility (GEF). The program was funded by the World Bank, the United Nations Development Program (UNDP), the United States Agency for International Development (USAID), the Asian Development Bank, as well as the governments of a few countries. Other groups that contributed to the rehabilitation and management of the Aral Sea include the European Union, the United Nations, UNESCO, United Nations Development Program (UNDP), the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO), and the Science for Peace program. [11]Area and boundaries [ edit]Area:total: 447,400 km² land: 425,400 km² water: 22,000 km²Area – comparative: slightly larger than California, same size as Morocco, slightly smaller than Sweden Land boundaries:total: 6,221 km border countries: Afghanistan 137 km, Kazakhstan 2,203 km, Kyrgyzstan 1,099 km, Tajikistan 1,161 km, Turkmenistan 1,621 km Coastline: 0 km note: Uzbekistan includes the southern portion of the Aral Sea with a 420 km shoreline. Maritime claims: None. Uzbekistan is one of only two countries ( Liechtenstein) in the world that are doubly landlocked. Elevation extremes:lowest point: Sariqarnish Kuli −12 m (−39 ft) below sea level. highest point: Khazret Sultan, 4,643 metres (15,233 ft) [12]Resources and land uses [ edit]Natural resources: natural gas, petroleum, coal, gold, uranium, silver, copper, lead and zinc, tungsten, molybdenum Land use:arable land: 9.61% permanent crops: 0.8% other: 89.58% (2011)Irrigated land: 41,980 km² (2005)Total renewable water resources: 48.87 km 2 (2011)Freshwater withdrawal (domestic/industrial/agricultural):total: 56 km 2 /yr (7%/3%/90%) per capita: 2,113 m 3 /yr (2005)References [ edit]This article incorporates public domain material from the Library of Congress Country Studies website http://lcweb2.loc.gov/frd/cs/. This article incorporates public domain material from the CIA World Factbook website https://www.cia.gov/library/publications/the-world-factbook/index.html.^ International Crisis Group. \"\" Water Pressures in Central Asia \"\", Crisis Group.org. 11 September 2014. Retrieved 7 October 2014.^ Qi, Jiaguo; Evered, Kyle (2008). \"\"Environmental Problems of Central Asia and Their Economic Social and Security Impacts\"\". NATO Science for Peace and Security Series. C: Environmental Security.^ Bekturvanov; Zakir; Tussopova; Berndtsson; Sharapatova; Aryngazin; Zhanasova (2016). \"\"Water Related Health Problems in Central Asia—A Review\"\". Report, Water. Check date values in: |access-date= ( help );^ Yang, Qi, Wang, Li, Gang, Zhang, and Odeh. “Comparative Assessment of Grassland Degradation Dynamics in Response to Climate Variation and Human Activities in China, Mongolia, Pakistan, and Uzbekistan from 200 to 2013.” Journal of Arid Environments (2016): n. pag. Science Direct. Elsevier Ltd, 2016. Web. 08 Oct. 2016.^ \"\"The World Factbook: UZBEKISTAN.\"\" Central Intelligence Agency. Central Intelligence Agency, n.d. Web. 01 Nov. 2016.^ Shukurov, Nosir, Obidjon Kodirov, Mirko Peitzsch, Michael Kersten, Yosef Steinberger, and Stanislav Pen-Mouratov. \"\"Coupling Geochemical, Mineralogical and Microbiological Approaches to Assess the Health of Contaminated Soil around the Almalyk Mining and Smelter Complex, Uzbekistan.\"\" Science of the Total Environment 476–477 (2014): 447–59. Science Direct. Web. Oct. 2016.^ N. G. Maylyapova, I. Denisov, and V. Lipatov. “A Review of Central Asian Trans-border Issues Associated with Environmental Problems and Hazard Mitigation”. Dordecht Netherlands; Moscow Russia: Springer Netherlands, 2015. Web. 08 Oct. 2016^ N. G. Maylyapova, I. Denisov, and V. Lipatov. “A Review of Central Asian Trans-border Issues Associated with Environmental Problems and Hazard Mitigation”. Dordecht Netherlands; Moscow Russia: Springer Netherlands, 2015. Web. 08 Oct. 2016^ The Aral Sea: The Devastation and Partial Rehabilitation of a Great Lake. Ed. Philip Micklin, Plotnikov, and Aladin. N.p. : Heildelberg: Springer, 2014. UC Campuses. 2014. Web. Oct. 2016.^ Micklin, Philip; Plotnikov, Igor; Aladin, Nikolay (2014). The Aral Sea: The Devastation and Partial Rehabilitation of a Great Lake. Springer Earth System Sciences.^ United Nations. Second National Communication of the Republic of Uzbekistan under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change. Rep. Tashkent: Centre of Hydrometeorological Service under the Cabinet of Ministers of the Republic of Uzbekistan, n. d. Web.^ \"\"Uzbekistan High Point\"\" on Peakbagger Retrieved 2015-01-15. Coordinates: 41°00′N 64°00′E [ show]v t e Geography of Asia [ show]v t e Climate of Asia Categories: Geography of Uzbekistan \"" ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant documents that answer the query
msmarco_doc
A waitress is setting up a table at an outdoor restaurant.
[ "A waitress is at work." ]
[ "The waitress is indoors." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
is nicotine effective on encephalomyelitis
[ "Epidemiological studies have reported that cigarette smoking increases the risk of developing multiple sclerosis (MS) and accelerates its progression. However, the molecular mechanisms underlying these effects remain unsettled. We have investigated here the effects of the nicotine and the non-nicotine components in cigarette smoke on MS using the experimental autoimmune encephalomyelitis (EAE) model, and have explored their underlying mechanism of action. Our results show that nicotine ameliorates the severity of EAE, as shown by reduced demyelination, increased body weight, and attenuated microglial activation. Nicotine administration after the development of EAE symptoms prevented further disease exacerbation, suggesting that it might be useful as an EAE/MS therapeutic. In contrast, the remaining components of cigarette smoke, delivered as cigarette smoke condensate (CSC), accelerated and increased adverse clinical symptoms during the early stages of EAE, and we identify a particular cigarette smoke compound, acrolein, as one of the potential mediators. We also show that the mechanisms underlying the opposing effects of nicotine and CSC on EAE are likely due to distinct effects on microglial viability, activation, and function." ]
[ "Parkinson's disease (PD) is characterized by the degeneration of the dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra pars compacta (SNpc). Clinical and experimental evidence suggest that the activation of the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor (nAChR) could be protective for PD. In this study, we investigated the neuroprotective capacity of nicotine in a rat PD model. Considering that iron metabolism has been implicated in PD pathophysiology and nicotine has been described to chelate this metal, we also studied the effect of nicotine on the cellular labile iron pool (LIP) levels. Rotenone (1g) was unilaterally injected into the median forebrain bundle to induce the degeneration of the nigrostriatal pathway. Nicotine administration (1mg/K, s.c. daily injection, starting 5days before rotenone and continuing for 30days) attenuated the dopaminergic cell loss in the SNpc and the degeneration of the dopaminergic terminals provoked by rotenone, as assessed by immunohistochemistry. Furthermore, nicotine partially prevented the reduction on dopamine levels in the striatum and improved the motor deficits, as determined by HPLC-ED and the forelimb use asymmetry test, respectively. Studies in primary mesencephalic cultures showed that pretreatment with nicotine (50M) improved the survival of tyrosine hydroxylase-positive neurons after rotenone (20nM) exposure. Besides, nicotine induced a reduction in the LIP levels assessed by the calcein dequenching method only at the neuroprotective dose. These effects were prevented by addition of the nAChRs antagonist mecamylamine (100M). Overall, we demonstrate a neuroprotective effect of nicotine in a model of PD in rats and that a reduction in iron availability could be an underlying mechanism.", "Identifying predictors of treatment outcome for nicotine use disorders (NUDs) may help improve efficacy of established treatments, like varenicline. Brain reactivity to drug stimuli predicts relapse risk in nicotine and other substance use disorders in some studies. Activity in the default mode network (DMN) is affected by drug cues and other palatable cues, but its clinical significance is unclear. In this study, 143 individuals with NUD (male n=91, ages 18-55years) received a functional magnetic resonance imaging scan during a visual cue task during which they were presented with a series of smoking-related or food-related video clips prior to randomization to treatment with varenicline (n=80) or placebo. Group independent components analysis was utilized to isolate the DMN, and temporal sorting was used to calculate the difference between the DMN blood-oxygen-level dependent signal during smoke cues and that during food cues for each individual. Food cues were associated with greater deactivation compared with smoke cues in the DMN. In correcting for baseline smoking and other clinical variables, which have been shown to be related to treatment outcome in previous work, a less positive Smoke-Food difference score predicted greater smoking at 6 and 12weeks when both treatment groups were combined (P=0.005, = -0.766). An exploratory analysis of executive control and salience networks demonstrated that a more positive Smoke-Food difference score for executive control network predicted a more robust response to varenicline relative to placebo. These findings provide further support to theories that brain reactivity to palatable cues, and in particular in DMN, may have a direct clinical relevance in NUD." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
does curcumin help psoriasis
[ "Curcumin is a complementary therapy that may be helpful for the treatment of psoriasis due to its anti-inflammatory, antiangiogenic, antioxidant, and antiproliferative effects. In the present study we performed a randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled clinical trial to assess the effectiveness of a bioavailable oral curcumin in the treatment of psoriasis. Sixty-three patients with mild-to-moderate psoriasis vulgaris (PASI < 10) were randomly divided into two groups treated with topical steroids and Meriva, a commercially available lecithin based delivery system of curcumin, at 2 g per day (arm 1), or with topical steroids alone (arm 2), both for 12 weeks. At the beginning (T0) and at the end of the therapy (T12), clinical assessment and immunoenzymatic analysis of the serum levels of IL-17 and IL-22 were performed. At T12, both groups achieved a significant reduction of PASI values that, however, was higher in patients treated with both topical steroids and oral curcumin than in patients treated only with topical steroids. Moreover, IL-22 serum levels were significantly reduced in patients treated with oral curcumin. In conclusion, curcumin was demonstrated to be effective as an adjuvant therapy for the treatment of psoriasis vulgaris and to significantly reduce serum levels of IL-22." ]
[ "BACKGROUND AND OBJECT: Dendritic cells (DCs) are critical for initiating the activation and differentiation of T cells in inflammatory diseases including psoriasis. Curcuma kwangsiensis S.G. Lee & C.F. Liang is a herb for treating psoriasis and we previously found Diarylheptanoid from rhizomes of Curcuma kwangsiensis (DCK) inhibited keratinocytes proliferation. However, it is unknown whether DCK influences DC functions. Thus we aimed to explore whether DCK affect the major immunological functions of DCs.MATERIALS AND METHODS: Primary DCs derived from mouse bone marrow cells and spleen were used for examining their general immunological functions, and OVA-specific T cells from OT-II mice were used for examining the DC-mediated T-helper (Th) 1 and Th17 cells differentiation and effect.RESULTS: We demonstrated DCK suppressed DC uptake of FITC-labeled ovalbumin (OVA) and DC maturation characterized by decreased MHCII, CD80 and CD86 following imiquimod (IMQ) stimulation. DCK also reduced DC expression of the lymphoid-homing chemokine receptor CCR7, and DC migration towards CCL21, the ligand for CCR7. Importantly, DCK significantly reduced the production of proinflammatory cytokines including IL-12, IL-6 and IL-1 by IMQ-stimulated DCs. Moreover, in the coculture of OVA323-339 peptide-pulsed DCs and OVA-specific T cells from OT-II mice, DCK significantly inhibited T cell proliferation and the differentiation of Th1 and Th17 cells. Furthermore, DCK treatment greatly reduced phosphorylation of p65-associated cell signaling pathway in IMQ-stimulated DCs.CONCLUSION: These data together demonstrate a potential role of DCK in suppressing the biological function of DCs, and provide a possible mechanism for understanding the effects of herb Curcuma kwangsiensis in treating psoriasis.", "BACKGROUND: Statins have been shown to downregulate immune mechanisms activated in psoriasis. However, previous studies on their potential role in preventing psoriasis have yielded conflicting results.OBJECTIVES: To assess the relationship between adherence to statins and the risk of psoriasis.METHODS: This retrospective cohort study included 205,820 health plan enrollees in Israel (mean age 55 years; 541% women) who initiated statin treatment from January 1998 through to September 2009. Adherence to statins, measured by the proportion of days covered (PDC), throughout the entire follow-up period (mean 62 years) was recorded. Diagnosis codes of psoriasis were assigned by a dermatologist or rheumatologist, or at discharge from hospital.RESULTS: During 128 million person-years (PY) of follow-up (median 574 years per person; interquartile range 378-836), 5615 cases of psoriasis (incidence density rate 44 per 1000 PY) were recorded. Compared with patients who did not adhere to statins (PDC < 20%), patients covered by statins for 40-59% of the time had a significantly lower risk of psoriasis (P < 005), with hazard ratios (HRs) of 084 and 074 among men and women, respectively. Among patients who adhered better to statins (PDC ? 80%), HRs were 088 (95% CI 079-098) and 100 (95% CI 090-111) among men and women, respectively.CONCLUSIONS: The results of the current study suggest that high and long-term adherence to statins is not associated with a meaningful reduction in the risk of developing psoriasis." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
Does allergen immunotherapy induce a suppressive memory response mediated by IL-10 in a mouse asthma model?
[ "Human studies have demonstrated that allergen immunotherapy induces memory suppressive responses and IL-10 production by allergen-specific T cells. Previously, we established a mouse model in which allergen immunotherapy was effective in the suppression of allergen-induced asthma manifestations. In this study, we examined whether immunotherapy induces a long-lasting effect and investigated the role of IL-10 in successful immunotherapy. Ovalbumin-sensitized BALB/c mice were treated with 3 injections of ovalbumin (1 mg, subcutaneous) on alternate days. After a short interval (1 week) and after a long interval (5 weeks), mice were challenged by ovalbumin inhalation, and subsequently, airway reactivity, airway eosinophilia, ovalbumin-specific IgE, and T(H)2 cytokine profile were measured. Flow cytometry and blocking of IL-10 receptors in vivo were used to gain insight in the role of IL-10 in the beneficial effects of allergen immunotherapy. After a long interval between ovalbumin immunotherapy and ovalbumin challenge, the development of airway eosinophilia and hyperresponsiveness to methacholine were as strongly suppressed as after a short interval. These suppressive effects coincided with significantly reduced serum ovalbumin-specific IgE levels and T(H)2 cytokine production. On immunotherapy, the IL-5:IL-10 ratio in the bronchoalveolar lavage fluid shifted toward IL-10. In ovalbumin-restimulated lung cell and thoracic lymph node cultures from these mice, IL-5 levels dramatically decreased, whereas the percentage of IL-10(+)CD4(+) T cells was not affected. Finally, in mice treated with mAb against IL-10 receptors, the beneficial effects of immunotherapy were largely abrogated" ]
[ "The airway inflammation observed in asthma is orchestrated by activated Th-2 lymphocytes relevant for the induction of altered airway responsiveness. An increasing body of evidence is accumulating that not only the pro-inflammatory cytokines interleukin (IL)-4 and IL-5 but also the immunomodulating cytokines IL-12 and possibly IL-10 are crucial for regulating the allergic airway inflammation. Since IL-10 is capable of downregulating a broad spectrum of pro-inflammatory cytokines, we wanted to address the role of endogenously produced IL-10 in vivo in allergic asthma. Knockout (IL-10(-/-)) mice (C57BL/6-IL10tm1Cgn) and wild-type (WT) counterparts were immunized (day 0) and exposed (day 14-21) to ovalbumin (OVA). Airway inflammation and reactivity (AR), serum allergen-specific IgE responses and cytokine profiles in the bronchoalveolar lavage fluid (BALF) were studied. The IL-10(-/-) mice had more eosinophilic airway inflammation but comparable levels of allergen-specific serum IgE compared to the WT mice after allergen challenge. The AR was comparably increased in the OVA challenged WT and IL-10(-/-) mice vs sham-exposed WT, but not vs sham-exposed IL-10(-/-)mice since these showed a higher baseline AR. IFN gamma, IL-4 and IL-13 were comparable and IL-5 was even lower in the BALF of the in IL-10(-/-) mice compared to the similarly exposed WT mice", "Specific hyper-responsiveness towards an allergen and non-specific airway hyperreactivity both impair quality of life in patients with respiratory allergic diseases. We aimed to investigate cellular responses following specific and non-specific airway challenges locally and systemically in i) sensitized BALB/c mice challenged with grass pollen allergen Phl p 5, and in ii) grass pollen sensitized allergic rhinitis subjects undergoing specific airway challenge in the Vienna Challenge Chamber (VCC). BALB/c mice (n = 20) were intraperitoneally immunized with grass pollen allergen Phl p 5 and afterwards aerosol challenged with either the specific allergen Phl p 5 (n = 10) or the non-specific antigen ovalbumin (OVA) (n = 10). A protocol for inducing allergic asthma as well as allergic rhinitis, according to the united airway concept, was used. Both groups of exposed mice showed significantly reduced physical activity after airway challenge. Specific airway challenge further resulted in goblet cell hyperplasia, enhanced mucous secretion, intrapulmonary leukocyte infiltration and lymphoid follicle formation, associated with significant expression of IL-4, IL-5 and IL-13 in splenocytes and also partially in lung tissue. Concerning circulating blood cell dynamics, we observed a significant drop of erythrocyte counts, hemoglobin and hematocrit levels in both mouse groups, challenged with allergen or OVA. A significant decrease in circulating erythrocytes and hematocrit levels after airway challenges with grass pollen allergen was also found in grass pollen sensitized human rhinitis subjects (n = 42) at the VCC. The effects on peripheral leukocyte counts in mice and humans however were opposed, possibly due to the different primary inflammation sites" ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
what is the appropriate amount of daily protein intake
[ "Since 1 gram of protein = 4 calories, divide protein calories by four: 360/4 = 90 grams of protein per day. No matter what your calculations are, remember that there are no magic foods or supplements that can replace the right training and the right diet." ]
[ "Protein. Protein, which contains 4 calories per gram, should comprise 10 to 35 percent of your total daily calories. For a typical 2,000-calorie diet, this means that 200 to 700 calories, or 50 to 175 grams, should come from protein.arbohydrates. The amount of carbohydrates you should consume is based on your calories. According to the USDA's Dietary Reference Intakes, carbohydrates should comprise 45 to 60 percent of your calories. If you consume 2,000 calories per day, 900 to 1,300 of them should come from carbohydrates.", "Last Updated: April 20, 2017. While protein is essential for healthy muscle growth, it's also important to select one that supports your weight loss goals. An important step when choosing the right protein is to identify the nutritional values within that specific protein." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
are bush bean leaves edible?
[ " Bean leaves from all types of beans are edible and are used in cooked dishes from many cuisines. The leaves can also be eaten fresh but tend to be overly fibrous for most people." ]
[ " The leaves, roots and berries are all edible parts of the raspberry bush. The berries are quite delicious in desserts, and also have medicinal benefits. The leaf, however, has the highest value and concentration of nutrients.", " Passionfruit leaves are edible, too – raw and cooked! ... The beautiful, vigorous vines of the passionfruit (Passiflora edulis) have abundant leaves." ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant passages that answer the question
gooaq
how does etoh affect cell differentiation
[ "Ethanol (EtOH) is a teratogen, but its teratogenic mechanisms are not fully understood. The alcohol form of vitamin A (retinol/ROL) can be oxidized to all-trans-retinoic acid (RA), which plays a critical role in stem cell differentiation and development. Using an embryonic stem cell (ESC) model to analyze EtOH's effects on differentiation, we show here that EtOH and acetaldehyde, but not acetate, increase differentiation-associated mRNA levels, and that EtOH decreases pluripotency-related mRNAs. Using reporter assays, ChIP assays, and retinoic acid receptor- (RAR) knockout ESC lines generated by CRISPR/Cas9 and homologous recombination, we demonstrate that EtOH signals via RAR binding to RA response elements (RAREs) in differentiation-associated gene promoters or enhancers. We also report that EtOH-mediated increases in homeobox A1 (Hoxa1) and cytochrome P450 family 26 subfamily A member 1 (Cyp26a1) transcripts, direct RA target genes, require the expression of the RA-synthesizing enzyme, aldehyde dehydrogenase 1 family member A2 (Aldh1a2), suggesting that EtOH-mediated induction of Hoxa1 and Cyp26a1 requires ROL from the serum. As shown with CRISPR/Cas9 knockout lines, the retinol dehydrogenase gene Rdh10 and a functional RARE in the ROL transporter stimulated by retinoic acid 6 (Stra6) gene are required for EtOH induction of Hoxa1 and Cyp26a1 We conclude that EtOH stimulates stem cell differentiation by increasing the influx and metabolism of ROL for downstream RAR-dependent transcription. In stem cells, EtOH may shift cell fate decisions to alter developmental outcomes by increasing endogenous ROL/RA signaling via increased Stra6 expression and ROL oxidation." ]
[ "Our aim was to investigate the effect of two xenobiotics to which pregnant woman may be exposed, the drug of abuse ethanol (EtOH) (and its metabolite acetaldehyde (ACA)) and the therapeutic agent metformin (METF), on placentation-related processes in an extravillous trophoblastic (EVTs) cell line (HTR-8/SVneo cells). EtOH, ACA and METF (24 h) significantly reduced cell proliferation rates, culture growth, viability and migratory capacity of HTR-8/SVneo cells. Moreover, both EtOH (100 M) and METF (1 mM) increased the apoptosis index and inhibited 3H-deoxy-D-glucose (3H-DG) and 3H-folic acid (3H-FA) uptake. mTOR, JNK and PI3K intracellular signaling pathways were involved in the effect of EtOH upon 3H-FA uptake and in the effect of METF upon cell viability, and mTOR and JNK in the effect of EtOH upon cell viability and 3H-DG uptake. We show that EtOH and METF have a detrimental effect in placentation-related processes of HTR-8/SVneo cells. Moreover, mTOR, JNK and PI3K appear to mediate some of these negative effects.", "T follicular helper (Tfh) cells are essential in the induction of high-affinity, class-switched antibodies. The differentiation of Tfh cells is a multi-step process that depends upon the co-receptor ICOS and the activation of phosphoinositide-3 kinase leading to the expression of key Tfh cell genes. We report that ICOS signaling inactivates the transcription factor FOXO1, and a Foxo1 genetic deletion allowed for generation of Tfh cells with reduced dependence on ICOS ligand. Conversely, enforced nuclear localization of FOXO1 inhibited Tfh cell development even though ICOS was overexpressed. FOXO1 regulated Tfh cell differentiation through a broad program of gene expression exemplified by its negative regulation of Bcl6. Final differentiation to germinal center Tfh cells (GC-Tfh) was instead FOXO1 dependent as the Foxo1(-/-) GC-Tfh cell population was substantially reduced. We propose that ICOS signaling transiently inactivates FOXO1 to initiate a Tfh cell contingency that is completed in a FOXO1-dependent manner." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic